Chemistry MCQ's PDF

CheMistry MCQ's 1. The soul of chemistry is dealing with___________? A. Internal structural changes in matter B. Composition of matter C. Properties of matter D. Composition and properties of matter 2. The radioactive isotope of hydrogen is called___________? A. tritium B. deuterium C....

CheMistry MCQ's 1. The soul of chemistry is dealing with___________? A. Internal structural changes in matter B. Composition of matter C. Properties of matter D. Composition and properties of matter 2. The radioactive isotope of hydrogen is called___________? A. tritium B. deuterium C. protium D. ortho-hydrogen 3. Electron was discovered by? A. Michael Faraday B. James Maxwell C. Yuri Gagarin D. J.J Thomson 4. Sodium carbonate is produced by____________? A. haber process B. Amoniasolvay process C. decons process D. lead chamber process 5. Which of the following is a substance? A. Sea water B. Brass C. Tape water D. Graphite E. Sand 6. Some substances are good conductor of electricity in both the solid and liquid states. These substances are generally______________? A. ionic substances B. metallic substances C. molecular solids D. covalent network solids 7. All of the following substances are crystalline except_____________? A. Ice B. Diamond C. Sucrose D. Plastic 8. Covalent network crystals have_____________? A. higher melting point then molecular crystals B. lower melting point then molecular crystals C. discrete molecules linked by Van der waals forces D. hydrogen bonding 9. What is a mixture of Potassium Nitrate Powdered Charcoal and Sulphur called? A. Paint B. Glass C. Gun Powder D. Cement 10. Diameter of an atom is in the order of________________? A. 0.2m B. 0.2mm C. 0.2nm D. 0.2pm 11. Mass spectrometer is used to determine Mass number of isotopes and_____? A. Atomic number B. Relative abundance C. Electronic configuration D. All of the above 12. The number of peaks obtained in mass spectrometry shows___________? A. Relative abundance B. Average mass of element C. Number of isotopes D. Relative isotopic mass 13. Empirical formula of chloroform is____________________? A. CH2 C12 B. CH3C1 C. CC14 D. CHCL3 Molecular mass of water (18g) means__________________? 14. 1-mole molecules of water B. 1-gram molecule of water C. 3-gram atoms D. all 15. Which of the following statements about isotopes is correct ? A. Isotopes with odd atomic number are abundant B. Isotopes with odd atomic number and even mass number are abundant C. Isotopes with even atomic number and even mass number are abundant D. Isotopes with even atomic number and odd mass no are abundant 16. One mole of CO2 contains? A. 6.022 x 1023 atoms of oxygen B. 22-gram electrons C. 6.022 x 1023 atms of carbon D. both B. & C. 17. The number of isotopes of elements with even mass number and even atomic number are ________________? A. 280 B. 300 C. 154 D. 54 18. Which of the following terms is not used for ionic compound ? A. formula unit B. empirical formula C. molecular formula D. formula mass 19. moles of each aluminium and oxygen react with each other to produce aluminium oxide. The amount of product formed is______________________? A. 0.18 mole B. 0.27 mole C. 0.24 mole D. 0.09 mole 20. Which one of the following has the maximum number of isotopes ? A. oxygen B. carbon C. tin D. chlorine 21. The volume occupied by 2.8 g of N2 at STP______________________? A. 2.24 dm3 B. 22.4 dm3 C. 1.12 dm3 D. 112 dm3 22. The number of moles of CO2 which contains 16 g of oxygen is___________? A. 0.25 B. 0.5 C. 0.75 D. 1 23. How many isotopes have odd atomic number ? A. 154 B. 280 C. 86 D. 300 24. Percentage of calcium in calcium carbonate is___________________? A. 80% B. 30% C. 40% D. 20% 25. Mostly elements have fractional atomic masses because of_______________? A. mass of an atom itself is in fraction B. atomic masses are average masses of isobars C. atmoic masses are average masses of isotopes proportional to their relative abundance D. atmoic masses are average masses of isotopes 26. Which of the following is not a macromolecule ? A. sand B. haemoglobin C. diamond D. maltose 27. Isotopes of the same elements has__________________? A. different number of protons B. same number of neutrons C. different number of neutrons D. same mass number (nucleon number) 28. When cationic molecular ions are allowed to pass through strong magnetic field in mass spectrometer which of the following ions is fallen__________________? A. lighter B. intermediate C. heavier D. are collected at same time 29. For which of the following compounds the term empirical formula cannot be applied ? A. NaCl B. H2O C. CCI4 D. It can be applied to all mentioned above 30. The properties of an element mosly corresponds to that isotope which has greater_________________? A. Mass number B. Atomic mass C. Relative abundance D. all of the above 31. 1 a.m.u =__________________? A. 1.6 x 10-27 kg B. 1.6 x 10-24 kg C. 1.6 x 10-26 kg D. 1.6 x 10-28 kg 32. Which of the following are isoelectronic species ? A. H+ H H- B. Li+ Na+ K+ C. C1- Br- I D. F- Ne Na+ 33. Molecular ions are formed by passing______________________? A. High energy electron beam B. ? – particle C. X-rays D. All of the above 34. Which one is true about isotope ? A. Same number of neutrons B. Same mass number C. Same physical properties D. Same chemical properties 35. Which of the following ion formation is always exothermic ? A. Uni-negative B. Uni-positive C. Di-negative D. Di-positive 36. The sample of isotopes of an element which needs not to be vaporized in the vaporization chamer_________________? A. Gas B. Liquid C. Volatile solid D. All 37. Avogadros number may represent_________________? A. volume of particles B. number of particles C. mass of particles D. All of the above 38. Size of molecule depends upon________________? A. Atomicity B. Shape of molecule C. Both A and B D. Difficult to predict 39. Which of the following terms is used for the mass of chlorine 35.5 ? A. relative atomic mass B. mass number C. atomic weight D. relative isotopic mass 40. Which one of the following is not the mono isotopic element ? A. arsenic B. uranium C. iodine D. nickel 41. The mass of decimole of electrons (NA) is___________________? A. 1.008 mg B. 0.184 mg C. 0.054 mg D. 5.4 mg 42. Which of the following statements is wrong about isotopes ? A. they possess different mass number B. they possess different physical properties C. they possess same chemical properties D. they possess different position in the periodic table 43. Qualitative analysis is carried out for _________________? A. identification of elements B. estimation of amounts of elements C. molar ration of elements D. molar volume of elements 44. Combustion analysis is performed to determine__________________? A. Empirical formula B. Molecular mass C. Molecular formula D. Formula mass 45. Isotopes differ in_________________? A. properties which depend upon mass B. arrangement of electrons in orbitals C. chemical properties D. all of the above 46. Which of the following methods is used to estimate hydrogen in an organic compound ? A. Combustion method B. Dumas method C. Kjeldahls method D. All of the above methods are for different purposes 47. The nucleus of an atom of every element will always contain___________? A. neutrons B. protons and electrons C. protons D. protons and neutrons 48. When 0.5 mole of phosphoric acid is dissolved in aqueous solution how many moles of -ve and +ve ions are collected altogether ? A. 0.5 B. 1 C. 1.5 D. 2 49. Dempsters mass spectrometer has number of zones / parts___________? A. 5 B. 4 C. 3 D. 2 50. All the following variables are used to describle gases except___________? A. pressure B. volume C. moles D. density 51. Methyl alcohol is not used as___________________? A. a solvent B. an anti freezing agent C. a substitute for petrol D. for denaturing of ethyl alcohol 52. Oxygen (molecular weight = 32) diffuses at a rate of 10cm3/min under the same conditions of temperature and pressure how fast will hydrogen (molecular weight = 2) diffuse ? A. 20cm3/min B. 40cm3/min C. 160cm3/min D. 2.5cm3/min 53. As a substance moves from a solid to a liquid all of the following changes occur except ? A. molecules become more disordered. B. K.E of the molecules decreases C. intermolecular forces become weaker. D. molecules move more frequently. 54. The rectified spirit is________________? A. 12% alcohol B. 90% alcohol C. 95% alcohol D. 100% alcohol 55. Which of the following solids show anisotropy___________________? A. Plastic B. Glass C. Rubber D. None of the above 56. Butyl chloride gives possible isomers ? A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5 57. Metallic crystals are soluble in________________? A. Polar solvent B. Non polar solvent C. Fused metal D. None 58. Paramagnetic behaviour of substance is measured by a balance called____? A. Analytical balance B. Guoys balance C. Electrical balance D. Single beam balance 59. Which of the following properties prove that cathode rays are material in nature_________________? A. they cast shadow B. they possess momentum C. they are negatively charged D. all of the above 60. When an electron is moving with velocity of 2.188 x 106 ms-1 in the first orbit of Bohrs model of hydrogen. The de Broglie wavelength of electron is____________? A. 0.33 nm B. 0.34 nm C. 0.35 nm D. 0.36 nm 61. When methl iodide and ethyl iodide are treated with sodium metal possible major products are obtained ? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 62. Which statement is consistent with Hunds rule ? A. Electrons fill orbitals with parallel spins until all the orbitals of the same energy are half filled then they go into sub-shells with anti-parallel (opposite) spin. B. The electrons in the same atom cannot have the same four quantum numbers C. There is maximum of two electrons is an orbital. D. None 63. Atomic number of Mn is 25 what is the electronic configuration in the ground state________________? A. 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 3d7 B. 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 4s2 4p5 C. 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p5 3d10 D. 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 4s23d5 64. Which of the following is mineral fiber ? A. Teflon B. asbestos C. saran D. acrylic 65. The hardest of the following solids is__________________? A. sodium B. diamond C. graphite D. magnesium 66. Which of the solid does not contain covalent bond__________________? A. copper B. ice C. diamond D. graphite 67. The balanced chemical equation for the reaction which occurs when Be is added to water is____________? A. Be+2H2O?Be (OH)2+H2 B. Be+H2O?Be (OH)2+H2 C. Be+H2O?[Be (OH)4]+2+H2 D. no reaction 68. Which of the following theories is superior to others__________________? A. VSEPR B. VBT C. MOT D. none of the above 69. Which of the following is not characteristics of reversible reaction_________? A. whole amount of reactant does not change into product B. chemical equilibrium is established C. a catalyst changes the direction of reaction D. rate of forward reaction decreases as reaction proceeds 70. A solution has pH = 0 its H+ ion concentration is__________________? A. 1 x 10-1 B. 1 x 10-14 C. 1 x 10-7 D. 1 71. 1 mole of electron has mass in microgram_________________? A. 1.008 x 10-3 B. 5.5 x 10-4 C. 1.84 x 10-4 D. 1.673 x 10-3 72. The use of antifreeze in the automobile radiator is an important application of________? A. constitutive property B. additive property C. colligative property D. intrinsic property 73. At which electrode the reduction of the solution is occurring in Al-Ag cell__? A. A B. Ag C. Both D. Neither 74. In which of the following type of reactions energy of reactant is greater than energy of product________________? A. endothermic B. exothermic C. unpredictable D. same 75. Which of following metals can be displaced by all other metals from its solution ? A. Ag B. A C. Au D. Cu 76. Which of the elements do not fall in stair case of the modern periodic table__? A. Si B. As C. Te D. None of the above 77. Across short period the melting and boiling point increase upto __________? A. IIIA group B. IVA group C. VA group D. VIA group 78. Which of the following is the formula of chrome red ? A. Pb3 O4 B. 2Pb CO3 – Pb (OH)2 C. Pb Cr O4 – Pb (OH)2 D. Pb2O 79. Regular coiling or zigzagging of polypeptide through hydrogen bonding is its___________________? A. Quantum structure B. Secondary structure C. Tertiary structure D. Primary structure 80. In the van der Waals equation (P + n2a / v2) (v – nb) = nRT which of the following statement is not true ? A. n2a/v correct for the intermolecular forces. B. nb correct for the volume occupied by gas molecules. C. at high densities the equation reduces to the ideal gas law D. all of the above statements are correct. 81. The inhaled breath of diabetics patient contain acetone. A medical student wishes to test for diabetes by asking patient to bubble their breath through a reagent ? A. alkaline aquenous iodine B. aqueous bromine C. Fehling solution D. aqueous NaOH 82. When aquious bromine is added to aqueous phenol a creamy white ppt is obtained. What does this reaction show ? A. phenol is unsaturated B. 2-bromophenol is insoluble in water C. a hydroxy group makes the benzene ring more susceptible to electrophilic attack D. acid-base reaction 83. If a graph is plotted between temperature on x-axis and volume on y-axis for 1 mole of gas then we get straight line which cuts the temperature exis at______? A. 0?C B. 273.16K C. ?273.16 K D. ?273.16?C 84. Benzene is a good solvent for__________________? A. fats B. resins C. iodine D. all the above 85. Which of the following element doesnot show allotropy________________? A. Carbon B. Arsenic C. Nitrogen D. Sulphur 86. Purines and pyrimidines are_________________? A. Enzymes B. Nitrogenous bases C. Carbohydrates D. Lipids 87. All the transition elements show_________________? A. Similar physical properties B. Similar chemical properties C. Both A and b D. None 88. In solids the temperature is the measure of__________________? A. Average kinetic energy of molecules B. Vibrational kinetic energy C. Translational kinetic energy D. None of the above 89. Fruit juices and fizzy drinks such as lemonade are often sold in aluminium cans. What is the most important reason aluminium is a suitable metal ? A. aluminium can be recycled B. aluminium has very low density C. aluminium is the most abundant metal in the earth crust D. aluminium is resistant to corrosion by organic acids. 90. On heating aldehydes with Fehlings solution we get a precipitate whose colour is_________________? A. pink B. black C. yellow D. brick red 91. What is maximum number of electrons in an orbital with m (magnetic quantum number) = 3 ? A. 6 B. 4 C. 3 D. 2 92. Which catalyst is used in contact process ? A. Fe2O3 B. V2O5 C. SO3 D. Ag2O 93. Which of the following elements has greater 1st ionization energy_________? A. B B. C C. N D. O 94. Which of the following molecule is polar__________________? A. CCI4 B. CO2 C. BF3 D. none of the above 95. Which of the following points are important in connection with equilibrium constant ? A. Kc is constant at given temperature B. Kc is unaffected by change in concentration of reactants or products C. Kc indicates the extent of reaction but not about the rate of reaction. D. All of the above 96. Solubility of CaF2 is 2.0×10-4 gdm-3 then Ksp of CaF2 is_______________? A. 4.0 x 10-8 B. 3.2 x 10-11 C. 2.0 x 10-8 D. 4.0 x 10-12 97. The unit of molality is__________________? A. moles dm-3 B. moles kg-1 C. gram dm-3 D. none 98. A solution can be both____________________? A. dilute and concentrated B. dilute and saturated C. saturated and unsaturated D. saturated and super saturated 99. Consider the following redox reaction. Zn+dil HNO3? Zn (NO3)2 + N2O + H2O The coefficient number of HNO3 in the equation is__________________? A. 6 B. 8 C. 10 D. 4 100. Which of the following elements react with steam to produce H2 gas? A. Pd B. Ni C. Sn D. All of the above 101. The unit of the rate constant (k) is same as that of rate of reaction_________? A. First order reaction B. Second order reaction C. Zero order reaction D. Third order reaction 102. Acid present in acid rain may be_________________? A. H2SO4 B. HNO3 C. both A and B D. none of the above 103. Which of the following elements conduct electricity and also melts below 100°C ? A. Aluminium B. Sodium C. Carbon D. Sulphur 104. The compound which is added to leaded gasoline to save engine from lead oxide and lead sulphate deposits is__________________? A. Ethylene iodide B. Ethylene bromide C. Ethylene chloride D. Ethylene fluoride 105. Isotopes differs in______________________? A. arrangement of electrons in orbitals B. position in the periodic table C. properties depend upon mass D. chemical properties 106. The volume occupied by 1.4g CO at S.T.P is___________________? A. 22.4 dm3 B. 2.24 dm3 C. 1.12 cm3 D. 1.12 dm3 107. Which of the following set has all species isoelectronic__________________? A. F – Cl – Br B. Li+1 – Na+1 – K+1 C. F – Ne – Na+ D. H+ – H- – H 108. Water absorber used in combustion analysis is___________________? A. 50% KOH B. Lime water C. CaCl2 D. Mg (CIO4)2 109. The type of filtering media used for filtration depending upon___________? A. Nature of reactants B. Nature of crucible C. Nature of product D. Nature of precipitate 110. A method of separation of components from its solution using Distribution law is ___________________? A. Sublimation B. Crystallisation C. Solvent extraction D. Distillation 111. Equal masses of methane and oxygen are mixed in empty container at 250?(C) The fraction of total pressure exerted by oxygen is___________________? A. one / seventeen B. sixteen / seventeen C. one / three D. two / three 112. The molecules of CO2 in dry ice form__________________? A. Ionic crystal B. Covalent crystal C. Molecular crystal D. Any type of crystal 113. Only London dispersion forces are present among the_________________? A. Molecules of water in liquid state B. Atoms of helium in gaseous state at high temperature C. Molecules of hydrogen chloride gas D. Molecules of solid iodine 114. Quantum number values for 3p orbitals are____________________? A. n=3 l=2 B. n=3 l=0 C. n=3 l=1 D. n=3 l=3 115. Which specie has unpaired electrons in antibonding molecular orbitals_____? A. O2+2 B. N2-2 C. B2 D. O2-2 116. For a given process the heat changes at constant pressure (qp) and at constant volume (qv) are related to each other as___________________? A. qp = qv B. qp< qv C. qp> qv D. qp = qv / 2 117. Solubility product of AgCl is 2.0 x 10-10 mol2 dm-6. Maximum Concentration of Ag+1 ions in the solution is__________________? A. 2.0 x 10-10 mol dm-3 B. 1.414 x 10-5 mol dm-3 C. 1.0 x 10-10 mol dm-3 D. 1.0 x 10-5 mol dm-3 118. Which of the following solution has the highest boiling point ? A. 5.85% NaCl Solution B. 18.0 % glucose solution C. 6.0 % urea solution D. All have same boiling point 119. Which of the following can be used in laptops ? A. Silver oxide battery B. Fuel cell C. Nickel cadmium cell D. Lead accumulator 120. Which is the unit of (K) rate constant for zero order reaction ? A. s-1 B. mol dm-3 s-1 C. mol-1 dm3 s-1 D. mol-2 dm6 s-1 121. Which is carnalite________________? A. KCI B. NaCI C. KCI MgCl2 6H2O D. Na2CO3. 10H2O 122. Which one does not give borax bead test_________________? A. Copper sulphate B. Barium sulphate C. Cobalt sulphate D. Nickel sulphate 123. The most reactive allotropic form of phosphorus is________________? A. White B. Redox potential C. Black D. Violet 124. Which molecule has the highest bond energy among the halogens_________? A. Fluorine B. Chlorine C. Iodine D. Bromine 125. The most paramagnetic element is____________________? A. Iron B. Cobalt C. Chromium D. Manganese 126. Which one of the following looks odd__________________? A. H2SO4 B. KMnO4 C. H2S D. K2CrO4 127. In 1 – pentene -4- yne the carbon exhibit hybridization_________________? A. sp3 – sp2 B. sp2 – sp C. sp2 – sp D. sp3 – sp2 – sp 128. When benzene is heated in air with V2O5 at 450°C yields_________________? A. Phenol B. Maleic anhydride C. Glyoxal D. Benzoic acid 129. Which one of the following will be sulphonated readily ? A. Chlorobenzene B. Toluene C. Nitrobenzene D. Benzene 130. When CO2 is made to react with ethy1 magnesium iodide in dry ether followed by acid hydrolysis yields______________? A. Carboxylic acid B. Ethanoic acid C. Propanoic acid D. Butanoic acid 131. Ethy1 chloride on reduction in the presence of Zn/HCI produces___________? A. n. butane B. Ethanol C. Ethane D. Diethy1 ether 132. For industrial preparation of CH3CHO catalytic promoter is_______________? A. PdCl2 B. Cu2Cl2 C. CuCl2 D. PbCl2 133. Which of the following is not a fatty acid ? A. Propanoic acid B. Acetic acid C. Phthalic acid D. Butanoic acid 134. Which one of the following fertilizers provides the nitrogen and phosphorus to the plant ? A. Urea B. Calcium superphosphate C. Diammonium phosphate D. Potassium nitrate 135. Chlorination of water may be harmful if the water contains_______________? A. Ammonia B. Dissolved oxygen C. Carbon dioxide D. All 136. The mass of one mole of electron is________________? A. 1.008 B. 0.55 C. 0.184 D. 1.637 137. The number of atoms in a molecule determines________________? A. macromolecule B. macromolecule C. molecularity D. atomicity 138. Which element has same isotopes like palladium___________________? A. Nickel B. Calcium C. Cadmium D. Tin 139. A limiting reactant is one which________________? A. is taken in lesser quantity in grams as compared to other reactants B. is taken in lesser quantity in volume as compared to other reactants C. gives the maximum amount of the product which is required D. gives the minimum amount of the product under consideration 140. A safe and more reliable method for drying the crystal is________________? A. Hot air currents B. folds of filter paper C. oven D. Vacuum desiccator 141. A real gas obeying vanderwaals equation will resemble the ideal gas if______? A. Both a and b are small B. Both a and b are large C. a is small and b is large D. a is large and b is small 142. Plasma is used in_________________? A. Fluorescent bulb B. Neon signs C. Lasers D. All of these 143. Which of the following is pseudo solid_____________________? A. CaF2 B. NaCl C. Glass D. Diamond 144. Bohrs model is contradicted by__________________? A. Plancks theory B. Dual nature of matter C. Heisenbergs uncertainty principle D. All of these 145. Atomic radius can be determined by_________________? A. X – ray diffraction B. Spectrophotometer C. Optical microscope D. Electron microscope 146. For which system does the equilibrium constant Kc has unit of (concentration)- 1__________________? A. N2+3H2 2NH3 B. H2+I2 2HI C. 2NO2 N2H4 D. PCI5 PCI3+CI2 147. 18g glucose is dissolved in 90g water the relative lowering in vapour pressure is equal to ___________________? A. 8 B. 5.1 C. 6 D. one/fifty one 148. Stronger is the oxidizing agent greater is the___________________? A. Oxidation potential B. Redox potential C. e.m.f of cell D. standard reduction potential 149. Which is true about Zn-Cu galvanic cell ? A. Reduction occurs at anode B. K+ ion transfer from salt bridge to left beaker of ZnSO4 C. Oxidation occurs at cathode D. Anode is negatively charged 150. Nitrates of which pair gives different products on thermal decomposition____? A. Na K B. Mg Ca C. Li Na D. Li Ca 151. Keeping in view the size of atom which is in correct order__________? A. Mg >Sr B. Ba > Mg C. Lu > Ce D. CI > 1 152. Which one is not the use of silicones________________________? A. Lubricant B. Water repellent film C. Rubber sheet D. Medicine 153. Chemical composition of cinnabar is____________________? A. FeS2 B. HgS C. PbS D. ZnS 154. When chlorine is passed through hot solution of caustic soda the reaction is said as___________________? A. Displacement B. Reduction C. Disproportionation reaction D. Double displacement reaction 155. In the complex [Cr(OH)3(H2O)3] the coordination number is ___________? A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 6 156. A great variety of the organic compounds is due to its property of carbon___? A. Show tetravalency B. Exhibit catenation C. Show isomerism D. Can form multiple bonds 157. Vinyl acetylene combines with hydrochloric acid produces__________? A. Diviny1 acetylene B. Ethylidine dichloride C. Chloroprene D. 1 – 3 – 3 – trichloro butane 158. When toluene reacts with chlorine in sunlight the first major product is____? A. Benzy1 chloride B. Benzal dichloride C. O-chlorotoluene D. O-chlorotoluene and P-chlorotoluene 159. Which one of the following is not a good leaving group ? A. HSO4- B. Cl- C. OH- D. Br- 160. The process of fermentation involves all the enzymes except_________? A. Diastase B. Invertase C. Zymase D. Sucrase 161. Which one does not exhibit aldol condensation___________________? A. Ethanal B. Acetone C. Benzaldehyde D. Butanone 162. The common name of propane -1 3-dioic acid is____________________? A. Oxalic acid B. Succinic acid C. Malonic acid D. Fumaric acid 163. Industrial materials thermal power stations are coated with__________? A. Polyester resins B. Epoxy paints C. polyamide resins D. Polyvinyl chloride 164. Main source of organic compounds is__________________? A. Animal B. Fossil C. Coal D. Plants 165. Hydro carbons which burn with smoky flame are called_________________? A. Aliphatic B. Alicyclic C. Aromatic D. Aldehyde 166. Octane number 2 2 4-trimethyl pentane is__________________? A. 100 B. 90 C. 80 D. 70 167. Geometric isomerism is usually found in___________________? A. Alkanes B. Alkenes C. Alkynes D. Esters 168. Organic compounds that are essentially nonpolar and exhibit weak intermolecular forces have________________? A. Low melting points B. Low vapour pressure C. High boiling points D. High electrical conductivity 169. According to vital force theory_______________? A. Oorganic compounds can be synthesized from inorganic compounds B. organic compounds cannot be synthesized from inorganic compounds C. organic compounds can be synthesized by animals D. organic compounds can be synthesized by plants 170. A double bond consists of __________________? A. Two sigma bonds B. Two Pi bonds C. One sigma and one Pi bonds D. One sigma and two Pi bonds 171. Chemical properties of first member of homologous series with respect to other members are_________________? A. same B. different C. depends upon number of C atoms D. depends upon number of H atoms 172. Compounds having same molecular formula but differ in structural formula are called __________________? A. polymer B. monomer C. isomer D. allotropes 173. Organic compounds are soluble in ____________________? A. polar solvent B. non-polar solvent C. alkalies D. water 174. Methane is used in power generation in chemical industries being a_____? A. natural gas B. good caloric value C. cheaper D. All 175. The precess in which larger molecule with higher molecular weight breaks down into smaller moleucles with lower molecular weight____________________? A. polymerization B. pyrolysis C. isomerism D. no such process occurs 176. The metallic sound produced by engine due to the pre-ignition of fuel is called _______________? A. knocking B. reforming C. cracking D. a and c 177. Which of the following can be used as anti-knocking agent ? A. PbCl2 B. (C2H5)4 Pb C. (C2H5)2 Pb D. all of the above 178. Isomerism which is present only in alkene is__________________? A. structural isomerism B. metamerism C. cis-trans isomerism D. both b and c 179. Compound containing benzene ring in their structure are ________________? A. aliphatic B. aromatic C. carboxylic acid D. carbohydrates 180. Which of the following is an amide________________? A. R-NH2 B. RCONH2 C. R – NH – R D. C6H5NH2 181. Only sigma bonds are present in__________________? A. propene B. butanoic acid C. butanal D. ethoxy ethane 182. The structure of ethyne is_________________? A. angular B. trigonal C. linear D. trigonal planar 183. The general formula of cycloalkene is __________________? A. CnH2n B. CnH2n+2 C. CnH2n-1 D. CnH2n-2 184. C5H12 has the number of isomers ___________________? A. one B. two C. three D. four 185. Octane number can be improved by________________? A. Isomerization B. Adding (C2H5)4 Pb C. Adding (CH3)4 Pb D. All 186. Octane number 2 2 4-trimethyl pentane is________________? A. 100 B. 90 C. 80 D. 70 187. Propene can exhibit________________? A. cis-trans isomerism B. geometric isomerism C. both a & b D. none of the above 188. Pentane and 2-methyl butance have the same_______________? A. Boiling point B. Melting point C. Percentage composition D. Structural formula 189. The first organic compound was synthesized in laboratory by________? A. Wohler B. Kolbe C. Berzilius D. Berthelot 190. First organic compound synthesized in laboratory was _________________? A. tartaric acid B. ethyl alcohol C. methanol D. urea 191. The property of carbon chain formation is called _________________? A. catenation B. hybridization C. polymerization D. solvation 192. The organic compounds having very high molecular weight are called ______? A. carboxylic acids B. ketones C. aldehydes D. polymers 193. Rate of reactions of most organic compounds are____________________? A. very slow B. very fast C. slow D. no regular character present 194. Coal is produced after a long time decay of_________________? A. animals B. fossils C. wood D. all of the above 195. Crude oil is blackish coloured liquid produced after the decay of organic matter present between_________________? A. earth layer B. mountains C. sedimentary rocks D. rocks 196. At low temperature and pressure cracking can be done in presence of catalyst________________? A. Al2O3 B. Fe2O3 C. Al2O3 and SiO2 D. Fe2O3 and SiO2 197. Which one of the following compounds shows intense knocking ? A. n-pentane B. iso-heptane C. iso-octane D. n-heptane 198. Ether functional group can be represented as ____________________? A. OH B. R-CO-R C. R-O-R D. R-COOH 199. A single atom or group of atoms which gives characteristic properties to a compound is called_________________? A. radical B. hydrocarbon C. functional group D. ion 200. 2-propanol and 1-propanol show the isomerism________________? A. metamerism B. functional group isomerism C. geometric isomerism D. position isomerism 201. In sp3 hybridization the expected geometry of molecules will be______? A. square planar B. trigonal pyramidal C. tetrahedral D. linear 202. In cyano group the carbon atom shows which kind of hybridization_______? A. sp2 B. sp C. sp3 D. none of the above 203. The fractional distillation of petroleum produces gasoline up to _______? A. 10% B. 15% C. 20% D. 30% 204. Which is not heterocyclic compound _______________? A. Furan B. Thiophene C. Aniline D. Pyridine 205. Which one is not state function ________________? A. Internal energy B. Enthalpy C. Gibbs free energy D. Work 206. If internal energy of the system is increased ____________________? A. Change in state of the system is increased B. Temperature of the ystem may rise C. Chemical reaction may take place D. All 207. A reaction has values of ?H and ?S which are both positive. The reaction ___? A. Is spontaneous B. Spontaneity is temperature dependent C. Has an increasing free energy D. Is non-spontaneous 208. The environment in which a system is studied is __________________? A. State function B. phase C. surrounding D. state 209. Anything which depends upon initial and final state of a system is_______? A. environment B. surrounding C. state function D. enthalpy 210. Reaction in which heat evolves is called ____________________? A. endothermic B. spontaneous C. non-spontaneous D. exothermic 211. Pumping of water uphill is_______________? A. spontaneous process B. non-spontaneous process C. irreversible process D. reversible process 212. Which one of the following is a state function ________________? A. pressure B. temperature C. enthalpy D. all of the above 213. Enthalpy of a reaction can be measured by ____________________? A. glass calorimeter B. manometer C. Barometer D. thermometer 214. Most of thermodynamic parameters are_________________? A. system B. surrounding C. phase D. state functions 215. Two fundamental ways to transfer energy are________________? A. pressure and temperature B. pressure and volume C. heat and work D. heat and volume 216. Enthalpy change can be_________________? A. calculated by Hess law B. can be measured by calorimeter C. both A and B D. none 217. Enthalpy of combustion for food fuel and other compounds can be measured accurately by________________? A. glass calorimeter B. bomb calorimeter C. thermometer D. manometer 218. When enthalpy of reactants is higher than product then reaction will be_____? A. endothermic B. spontaneous C. non-spontaneous D. exothermic 219. State function the macroscopic property of system depends upon_________? A. path of reaction B. initial state C. final state D. initial and final state 220. CuSO4 + Zn?ZnSO4+Cu is___________________? A. Spontaneous reaction B. Non-spontaneous reaction C. Endothermic D. Exothermic 221. Total energy of a system is_________________? A. P.E + K.E B. P.E + heat energy C. K.E + heat energy D. P.E + mechanical energy 222. Unit of heat in SI system is________________? A. J B. KCaL C. Cal D. GJ 223. ________________ is study about energy of a chemical system ? A. thermochemistry B. thermodynamics C. chemical kinetics D. stoichiometry 224. Which of the following has strongest intermolecular forces of attraction ? A. Hydrogen (H2) B. Chlorine (Cl2) C. lodine (I2) D. Methane (CH4) 225. When substance moves from a solid to a liquid state all of the following changes occur except__________________? A. Molecules become more disordered B. K.E of the molecules decreases C. Intermolecular forces become weaker D. Molecule become further separated 226. In order to mention the boiling point of water at 110°C the external pressure should be ? A. Between 760 torr and 1200 torr B. Between 200 torr and 760 torr C. 765 torr D. any value of pressure 227. Vapour pressure of water at 100°C is___________________? A. 55 mm Hg B. 760 mm Hg C. 355 mm Hg D. 1489 mm Hg 228. Liquid crystal is discovered by __________________? A. William Crooks B. FredrackReinitzer C. J.J Thomson D. Bravis 229. Hydrogen bonding is involved in____________________? A. Solubility B. Cleansing action of detergents C. Biological molecules D. All 230. Forces of attraction which may be present between all kinds of atoms and molecules are _____________________? A. intramolecular B. intermolecular C. van der Waal D. Dipole-induced dipole 231. The quantity of heat required to convert one mole of liquid into its vapours at its boiling point is called molar heat of__________________? A. vaporization B. evaporation C. crystallization D. sublimation 232. Water has maximum density at __________________? A. 0°C B. 2°C C. 4°C D. 100°C 233. Formation of vapours from the surface of a liquid is called________________? A. vapourization B. evaporation C. condensation D. cracking 234. The ttractive forces between the partial positive end of one molecule and partial negative end of other molecule are called________________? A. Dipole-dipole forces B. Ion dipole-dipole forces C. London dispersion forces D. Debye forces 235. Vapour pressure is not affected by_______________? A. Surface area B. temperature C. intermolecular forces D. atmospheric pressure 236. Table salt crystallizes with a______________________? A. Face centered cubic lattice B. body centered cubic lattice C. simple cubic lattice D. othorhombic lattice 237. During which process empty spaces between particles become minimum ? A. ionization B. condensation C. fusion D. evaporation 238. Which one of the following has highest volatility_________________? A. Diethyl ether B. Ethyl alcohol C. Water D. Ethylene glycol 239. If we provide very high amount of heat to a liquid its boiling point will______? A. increase B. remains constant C. decrease D. there will be no boiling 240. A solid may be made up of_________________? A. Atoms B. Ions C. Molecules D. A, B, and C 241. Amorphous substances posses_________________? A. No definite geometry B. No definite heat of fusion C. No sharp melting points D. All of the above 242. Boiling points of hydrocarbons increase with the increase in number of carbon atoms. It is mainly due to_________________? A. More strength of H-bonding B. More strength of London forces C. Less polarizability D. All of the above 243. The phenomenon in which a compound exists in two or more crystalline forms is called ________________? A. Isomorphism B. Polymorphism C. Anisotropy D. Allotropy 244. Bucky balls is an allotropic from of__________________? A. Sulphur B. Carbon C. Silica D. Tin 245. Isomorphic substances have _______________? A. Same physical and chemical properties B. Same physical and different chemical properties C. Different physical and same chemical properties D. Different physical and chemical properties 246. The pressure during the molar heat of fusion is kept________________? A. 0 atmosphere B. one atmosphere C. 2 atmosphere D. 10 atmosphere 247. All the enthalpy changes are________________? A. Negative B. Positive C. May or may not be A or B D. none 248. Which has strongest bonding in the solid state ? A. Hydrogen Chloride (HCI) B. Chlorine (Cl2) C. Xenon(Xe) D. Sodium Chloride (NaCI) 249. When the atoms of third layer are arranged in such a way that they directly lie above the atoms of first layer then this arrangement is called_________________? A. ABAB (hexagonal) B. ABCABC (Cubic) C. Orthorhombic D. Rhombohedral 250. Which one is false for evaporation ? A. Surface phenomenon B. Continuous C. Exothermic D. Cause cooling 251. Which one of the following does not show hydrogen bonding? A. Water B. Ethyl alcohol C. Phenol D. Diethyl ether 252. Which one is a conductor but is not malleable ? A. Iron B. Graphite C. Silver D. Platinum 253. The density of water may be__________________? A. Equal to that of ice B. Greater than that of ice C. Less than that of ice D. All are possible 254. Steam causes more sever burn than the boiling water because it possesses _________________? A. Latent heat of fusion B. Latent heat of vaporization C. Latent heat of sublimation D. All of the above 255. The conversion of vapours back into their liquid state is called_________? A. crystallization B. evaporization C. vaporization D. condensation 256. When water freezes at 0°C its density decreases due to_______________? A. Change of bond angles B. Cubic structure of ice C. Empty space present in the structure of ice D. Change of bond length 257. The boiling point increases down the zero group element due to________? A. Ion dipole forces B. London forces C. Hydrogen bonding D. Dipole dipole forces 258. Rising of a wetting liquid in a capillary tube is due to__________________? A. Surface tension B. Cohesive forces C. Adhesive forces D. viscosity 259. The number of formula units in 29.25g of common salt_________________? A. 6.022 x 1023 B. 3.01 x 1023 C. 2 x NA D. 4 x 6.022 x 1023 260. Liquid gets the shape of the container when it is poured into it. Which one of the following reasons justifies it ? A. Liquid do not have definite shape B. Liquid do not have definite volume C. Lieuid is highly compressible D. Liquid molecules can slide over each other 261. Molar heat of vaporization of water is_________________? A. 40.7 KJ/mole B. 40.7 J/mole C. 40.7 cal/mole D. 40.7 Kcal/mole 262. Crystallites are present in_________________? A. crystalline solids B. amorphous solids C. liquid crystals D. all of the above 263. A malleable solid is one which can be_________________? A. Converted into wires B. Converted into thin sheets C. Melted easily D. All of the above 264. Crystalline solids can be identified easily from their ___________________? A. Sharp melting point B. Definite geometry C. Transition temperature D. Colour 265. The viscosity of solids is________________? A. Infinite B. Negligible C. Medium D. No concept of viscosity in solid 266. Which solids are called true solids _______________? A. Metallic B. Amorphous C. Crystalline D. Vitreous 267. The number amino acid units for each turn of helix on average are________? A. 21 B. 23 C. 25 D. 27 268. If a physical and chemical change takes place at a constant pressure then the heat change during the process is called__________________? A. Heat of transition B. Heat of fusion C. Enthalpy change D. All of above 269. The amount of heat absorbed when one mole of a liquid is changed into gas at its boiling point is_____________________? A. Molar heat of sublimation B. Molar heat of fusion C. Molar heat of vapourization D. Latent heat of that liquid 270. All of the following were theorized by Bohr in his description of the atom except____________? A. Angular momentum of electrons in multiples of h/2? B. Electrons revolve in discrete circular orbits C. Energy of each electron is directly proportional to n2 D. Electrons radiate energy continuously in a given orbit. 271. The magnetic quantum number (QN) has its values determined directly by the value of___________? A. Principal (QN) B. Azimuthal (QN) C. Spin (QN) D. Both A & B 272. The maximum number of electron in a sub shell with ? = 3fs_____________? A. 6 B. 10 C. 14 D. 18 273. When an atom absorbs energy the lines in the spectrum will appear which are? A. Brighter B. Darker C. Colourless D. Hard to locate 274. Which one is not true about cathode rays ? A. 9.11×10-31 Kg B. Cast shadow C. Heat up the platinum foil D. Cannot ionize 275. Rutherfords planet like structure was defective and unsatisfactory because__________? A. Moving e- accelerate towards the nucleus B. Continuous spectrum C. behavior of electron remain unexplained D. all 276. Splitting of spectral lines when atom is subjected to magnetic field is called _? A. Zeemans effect B. Starks effect C. Photo electric effect D. Compton effect 277. Which one of the following explain the shape of orbitals _______________? A. Principal of quantum number B. Azimuthal quantum number C. Magnetic quantum number D. Spin quantum number 278. Pressure in gas discharge tube was kept________________? A. 10 torr B. 1 torr C. 0.1 torr D. 0.01 torr 279. Angle of deflection was studied by________________? A. Hitorff B. Stoney C. William Crookes D. J.Perrin 280. Positive rays give flash on________________? A. AgNO3 plate B. AgCl plate C. ZnO D. ZnS 281. The value of e/m ratio of electron is________________? A. 6.02 x 1023 C/kg B. 1.7588 x 1020 C/kg C. 9.1095 x 10-31 C/kg D. 1.7588 x 1011 C/kg 282. Planks theory says energy is emitted__________________? A. In continuous manner B. Discontinuous manner C. Simultaneously D. In the form of heat 283. 2nd orbit is ______ away from nucleus of H-atom as compared to 1st orbit is ? A. 2-times B. 3-times C. 4-times D. 6 times 284. The correct electronic configuration of Cu is ___________________? A. [Ar]4s1 B. [Ar]4s2 C. [Ar]3d104s1 D. [Ar]3d94s2 285. Atomic orbits having same energy are called________________? A. Degenerate orbitals B. Bonding molecular orbitals C. Anti bonding molecular orbitals D. Half filled orbitals 286. When electrons collide with heavy metals than ___________ are produced? A. Beta-rays B. Alpha-rays C. X-rays D. Gamma-rays 287. Atom with higher atomic number produces X-rays of__________________? A. Shorter wavelength B. Larger wavelength C. X-ray not produced D. All are possible 288. Space around nucleus where finding probability of electrons is maximum is called _________________? A. Orbital B. Orbit is elliptical C. subshell D. Electron cloud 289. Electronic configuration of K is_________________? A. [Ar]4s2 B. [Ar]4s1 C. [Kr]5s1 D. [He]2s1 290. Milikan used ______________ in his atomizer? A. Milk B. Honey C. Oil D. Water 291. Spectrum is produced due to________________? A. Different wavelength B. Different colours C. Different intensities D. all have little contribution 292. When electron jump into orbit 1 then series obtained is_________________? A. Lyman B. Paschen C. Pfund D. Brackett 293. Splitting of spectral lines when atoms are subjected to strong electric filed is called_______________? A. Zeeman effect B. Stark effect C. Photoelectric effect D. Compton effect 294. Three quantum number have been derived from equation of___________? A. de-Broglie B. Plancks C. Schrodinger D. Heisenberg 295. The letters s p d and f are used to represent which quantum numbers______? A. Principal B. Azimuthal C. Magnetic D. Spin 296. The atomic number of an element having maximum number of unpaired electrons in p-subshell is_______________? A. 7 B. 10 C. 12 D. 16 297. Colour of fluorescene produced by cathode rays depends upon_______? A. Temperature B. Pressure C. Volume D. Composition of glass 298. Positive rays are produced__________________? A. By burning of gas B. By cooling of the gas C. By the bombardment of cathode rays on gas molecules D. From anode like cathode rays produced from cathode 299. The relationship between energy of a photon of light and its frequency is given by________________? A. de-Broglie duel nature of matter B. Bohrs model C. Plancks Quantum theory D. Rutherfords atomic model 300. The velocity of the photon____________________? A. Is independent of wavelength B. Depends upon source C. Depends upon its frequency D. Equals to the square of amplitude 301. Atom cannot be divided into simple unitstheorized by________________? A. Rutherford B. Dalton C. Bohr D. Schrodinger 302. The number of fundamental particles in an atom of the lightest isotope carbon are_______________? A. 6 B. 12 C. 18 D. 20 303. Increase in atomic number is observed during_________________? A. Alpha emission B. Beta emission C. Both A & B D. Radioactivity 304. Free neutron changes into proton with the emission of__________________? A. Neutrino B. Electron C. Both A & B D. Meson 305. Charge of electron was measured by__________________? A. J.J Thomson B. Millikan C. Rutherford D. Perrin 306. Rutherford bombarded _________________ particles in discovery of nucleus? A. Gamma-rays B. Alpha-rays C. Beta-rays D. X-rays 307. The maximum number of orbitals present in a subshell that is represented by Azimuthal quantum number = 3 will be________________? A. 1 B. 3 C. 5 D. 7 308. Pfund series are produced in the spectrum of hydrogen atom_______? A. when electrons jump down to 2nd- orbit B. when electrons jump down to 3rd- orbit C. when electrons jump down to 4th- orbit D. when electrons jump down to 5th- orbit 309. Sommerfelds modification in Bohrs model is_______________? A. Orbit is cylindrical B. Orbit is elliptical C. Orbit is longitudinal D. Orbit is asymmetrical 310. Wavelength of electron was verified by_________________? A. Moseley B. Davisson and Germer C. Einstein D. Roentgen 311. Quantum number which tells the energy of electron is________________? A. n B. 1 C. m D. s 312. _______________ can expel proteons from paraffins ? A. Electron B. Positron C. Neutron D. None of above has such capability 313. Centrifugal forces are balanced in atom by__________________? A. Attractive forces B. Repulsive force C. Electrons D. Neutrons 314. When 6d orbital is complete the entering electron goes into_________? A. 7f B. 7s C. 7p D. 7d 315. Neutrons moving with an energy of 1.2 MeV are called_______________? A. Fast neutrons B. Slow neutrons C. Moderate neutrons D. All are possible 316. Which of the following way in used for classification of chromatography ? A. Shape B. Phase C. Mechanism D. All 317. Which of the following technique is used for the separation of insoluble particles from liquids ? A. Filtration B. Crystallization C. Solvent extraction D. Chromatography 318. Fluted filter paper is used to__________________? A. Filter hot solution B. Avoid premature crystallization C. Increase the rate of filtration D. Decrease the area 319. A substance having very high vapour pressure at its melting point on heating will show_______________? A. Melting B. Sublimation C. Decomposition D. Condensation 320. A technique of partition chromatography in which the solvent is in a pool at the bottom of container_______________? A. Adsorption chromatography B. Ascending chromatography C. Radial chromatography D. Descending chromatography 321. Branch of chemistry that deals with the complete qualitative and quantitative analysis of a substance is___________________? A. Stoichio chemistry B. Physical chemistry C. Analytical chemistry D. Quantum chemistry 322. Estimation of amounts of different components in a sample is_________? A. Quantitative analysis B. Qualitative analysis C. Stochiometery D. Physical chemistry 323. The solid which is left over the filter paper as a result of filtration________? A. Insoluble particles B. residue C. crystals D. mud 324. Gooch Crucibles are made up of________________? A. plastic B. fibre C. porcelain D. steel 325. Sintered crucible is made up of________________? A. Plastic B. glass C. porcetain D. fiber 326. Separation of a solid from its hot saturated solution by cooling is called_____? A. vapourization B. solvent extraction C. filtration D. crystallization 327. Which of the following technique is simple and efficient to purify a substance_? A. Filtration B. Sublimation C. Crystallization D. Solvent extraction 328. 95% ethanol is called_________________? A. methylated spirit B. wood spirit C. rectified spirit D. absolute alcohol 329. Ratio of the amount of solute in organic and aqueous solvent is________? A. Retardation factor B. Distribution co-efficient C. Distribution in aqueous solution D. All statements are wrong 330. Animal charcoal adsorbs the coloured_________________? A. impurities B. crystals C. solvents D. both A & B 331. Crystallization does not involve_______________? A. heating B. sublimation C. cooling D. vaporization 332. In CCI4 I2 shows________________? A. Red colour B. Purple colour C. Blue colour D. Yellow colour 333. Direct conversion of solids into vapours is called _________________? A. Solvent extraction B. sublimation C. crystallization D. vaporization 334. Without suction pump filtration is __________________? A. Fast process B. Slow process C. Rapid process D. All are possible 335. The use of CaCl2 and PCl5 in the process of crystallization is as a_________? A. oxidizing agent B. reducing agent C. drying agent D. colouring agent 336. In solvent extraction ether is used to separate products of organic synthesis from________________? A. water B. iodine C. hydrochloric acid D. gases 337. In crystallization if the solvent is inflammable then direct heating is______? A. needed B. avoided C. depends on temperature D. crystallization does not involve heating 338. Rate of filtration can be increased by applying gentle suction____________? A. Gooch crucible B. Filter paper C. Sintered crucible D. All of the above 339. Size of filter paper is selected according to the amount of_______________? A. solution B. amount of insoluble solute C. amount of soluble solute D. Amount of solvent 340. The tip of funnel should touch the wall of the breaker in order to avoid______? A. Inconsistent flow of filtration B. splashing C. premature crystallization D. all of above 341. The technique used to separate components of mixture in solid phase ? A. Crystallization B. Filtration C. Sublimation D. Solvent extraction 342. Identification of the components of a sample is_________________? A. Quantitative analysis B. Qualitative analysis C. Stoichiometry D. Physical chemistry 343. Different components of a mixture have different Rf values due to_______? A. Polar solvent used B. Combination of solvents used C. Their different distribution coefficients in the solvent D. Distributive law 344. A process controlled by Distributive law is__________________? A. Crystallization B. Sublimation C. Solvent extraction D. Filtration 345. Safe and the most reliable method of drying crystals is through___________? A. Filter paper B. Vacuum desiccators C. Oven D. None of these 346. Silica gel and alumina are used as __________________? A. Mobile phase B. Stationary phase C. Mixed phase D. Single phase 347. The solvent or mixture of solvents used for separation of compounds is called____________? A. Stationary phase B. Mobile phase C. Dynamic phase D. Static phase 348. Sintered glass is a porous material used for ___________________? A. absorption B. adsorption C. filtration D. sublimation 349. Which is not related pair of term used in analytical techniques________? A. Filtrate residue B. Sublimate sublimation C. Drying desiccator D. Separating funnel mother liquor 350. The major steps involved in complete quantitative analysis are _________? A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5 351. Selection of filter paper depends on size of particles to be______________? A. filtered B. dried C. decolorized D. decanted 352. Which is not a sublime material_______________? A. Iodine B. Benzoic acid C. Ammonium chloride D. Potash alum 353. Shaking two immiscible liquids increases_________________? A. Length of contact B. Volume of contact C. Area of contact D. all of above 354. The solution remaining after the formation of crystals is called __________? A. Mother liquor B. Dilute solution C. Residue D. both A & B 355. The ionization energy__________________? A. Generally increases from left to right in a period B. Does not change in a period C. Increase from top to bottom in a group D. Does not change in a group 356. Which type of bond is formed by overlap of p orbitals _______________? A. Pi B. Sigma C. Both D. Neither 357. The octet rule does not always hold for which of the following elements ____? A. C B. O C. F D. P 358. Which of the following is the best explanation that CO2 is non polar molecule? A. Linear geometry B. Dipole moment is zero C. Sp hybridization D. None 359. Which one is not the absolute term of the element ________________ ? A. Ionization energy B. Electron affinity C. Electro negativity D. Atomic size 360. In O2 each oxygen atom is hybridized_________________? A. sp3 B. sp2 C. sp D. All 361. Measurement of the degree of polarity is___________________? A. Electron affinity B. Ionic character C. Ionization energy D. Dipole moment 362. A specie with maximum number of unpaired electrons ? A. F B. H2O C. HF D. NH-2 363. Force responsible to hold atoms together in a compound is called _______? A. Bond B. Attractive force C. Interaction D. All of above represent same entity 364. In a period the atomic radius ? A. Increases B. Decreases C. Remain same D. First decreases then increases 365. Energy required to remove electron from an atom______________? A. Ionization potential B. Electronegativity C. Electron affinity D. Activation energy 366. Greater shielding effect corresponds to ionization energy value_______? A. Greater B. Lesser C. Remain same D. No effect 367. Energy released or absorbed when electrons are added in atom is_______? A. Ionization potential B. Electronegativity C. Electron affinity D. Activation energy 368. Elements of group IA IIA are _________________? A. Electronegative B. Electropositive C. Neutral D. IA is electropositive while IIA is electronegative 369. Mostly ionic compound are produced in between elements of___________? A. IA and VIA B. IA IIA and VIIA C. IB and VIIB D. IA and IB 370. The Lewis acids are_______________? A. Electron deficient B. Electron rich C. Octet is complete D. No such acids exist 371. The geometry of ammonia is________________? A. Tetrahedral B. Square planner C. Trigonal bipyramidal D. Trigonal Pyramidal 372. By combining n atmic orbitals no. of hybrid orbitals will be___________? A. 2n B. n C. 3n D. impossible to predict 373. Geometry of simple molecule having sp3 hybrid orbital is ____________? A. Triangular B. Tetrahedral C. Square planner D. Linear 374. Pi bonds are produced by overlapping of__________________? A. Un-hybrid orbitals B. Hybrid orbitals C. Hybrid and un hybrid orbitals D. atomic orbital and hybrid orbital 375. Molecular orbital which have higher energy than atomic orbitals is called___? A. Bonding molecular orbital B. Antibonding molecular orbital C. Hybrid orbital D. Super atomic orbital 376. Bond order for N2 molecule is __________________? A. 2 B. 1 C. 3 D. 4 377. Unit of dipole moment is_________________? A. Debye B. Poise C. Pascal D. Newton 378. The relative attraction of the nucleus for the electrons in a chemical bond is called __________? A. Ionization energy B. Electron affinity C. Electro negativity D. None of the above 379. Which of the following will have highest value of electron affinity________? A. F B. Cl C. Br D. I 380. Which of the solid does not contain covalent bond_______________? A. Copper B. Ice C. Diamond D. Graphite 381. Shielding effect across the period _______________? A. Increases B. Decreases C. Constant D. None 382. Which one has maximum number of unpaired electrons ? A. 6X B. 7Y C. 9Z D. 13W 383. Molecular orbitals are filled according to _________________? A. Auf bau principle B. Hunds rule C. Paulis Exclusion principle D. All these 384. Which one shows high %age of the ionic character ? A. H2O B. HF C. HCI D. HBr 385. Which of the following have their outer most shell complete in atomic form ? A. Noble gases B. Alkali metals C. Coinage metals D. Gun metals 386. nergy of atom in compound is___________________? 387. EA. Higher than individual B. Lesser than individual C. No change D. Impossible to predict 388. An atom loses or gains electrons to__________________? A. Gain stability B. Form a bond C. Complete its outermost shell D. all are accurate justifications 389. In a group ionic radius ? A. Increases B. Decreases C. No change D. Variable trend 390. Ionization energy in a period generally ___________________? A. Increases B. Decreases C. No change D. Variable trend 391. Elements having high I.P values are____________________? A. Metals B. Non metals C. Liquids D. Solids 392. In a period electronegativity from left to right_________________? A. Increases B. Decreases C. Remain constant D. Variable trend 393. Ionic bond is produced after complete transfer of ________________ ? A. Nucleus B. Neutrons C. Electrons D. Protons 394. Bond will beionic when E.N difference of bonded atom is __________? A. Equal to 1.7 B. Greater than 1.7 C. Less than 1.7 D. No specificity exists 395. Which one of the following has polar covalent bond ? A. HF B. CH4 C. H2 D. N2 396. Sharing of 1 electron pair by one specie forms_________________? A. Single covalent bond B. Hydrogen bond C. Double covalent bond D. Coordinate covalent bond 397. Orbitals of same energy produced after mixing of orbitals of different energy are called __________________? A. Degenerate orbitals B. Generate orbitals C. Hybrid orbitals D. Zeeman orbitals 398. Geometry of molecule will be pyramidal if the outer post shell of the central atom has___________________? A. 3 bond pair one lone pair B. 2 bond pair 2 lone pair C. 1 bond pair 3 lone pair D. 3 lone pair 1 bond pair 399. According to VESPR Model the geometry of molecule having 5 bond pair in outer most shell will be __________________? A. Triangular B. Square planner C. Trigonal bipyramidal D. Octahedral 400. Unpaired electron in a molecule gives ______________ character ? A. Ferromagnetic B. Paramagnetic C. Diamagnetism D. Both A & B 401. Product of charge and distance is called__________________? A. Pressure B. Bond length C. Work D. Dipole moment 402. on sp3 hybridization ________________? A. All p-orbitals are involved B. One s and 3 p-orbitals are involved C. one p-orbital is involved D. four p-orbitals are involved 403. What is the relative rate of effusion of CO and CO2 ? A. CO is 1.25 times faster than CO2 B. CO is 3.75 times faster than CO2 C. CO is 1.25 times faster than CO D. Both diffuse at the same rate 404. Which of the following is not considered as an intermolecular force between molecules ? A. Coordinate covalent bonds B. Hydrogen bonds C. Debye forces D. London dispersion forces 405. Ideal gasses have all the following characteristics except ? A. Absence of intermolecular forces B. Collisions among the molecules of an ideal gas are perfectly elastic C. The molecules occupy no space D. All of the above are correct 406. Under what conditions the gases deviate from the ideal behavior ? A. High temperature B. Low temperature C. High pressure D. B and C 407. Which one has the lowest density at room temperature ? A. Ne B. N2 C. NH3 D. CO 408. The introduction of Kelvin scale in thermodynamic is according to________? A. Boyles law B. Charles law C. Daltons law D. Grahams law 409. At constant temperature the pressure of an ideal gas is doubled its density becomes_______________? A. Half B. Double C. Same D. None 410. The diffusion of gases at absolute zero will be________________? A. Unchanged B. Slightly decreased C. Slightly increased D. Zero 411. Critical temperature for different gases is different and depends upon______? A. Size of molecule B. Shape of molecule C. Intermolecular attractions D. All of the above 412. What is the simplest form of matter ? A. Gas B. Liquid C. Solid D. Semi solid 413. Which state of matter has the lowest density ? A. Gas B. Liquid C. Solid D. Plasma 414. The solid particles only posses___________________? A. Translational motion B. Vibrational motion C. Rotational motion D. All of above motions 415. If 1/V is plotted on X-axis and pressure on Y-axis at constant temperature what should appear ________________? A. Straight line parallel to x-axis B. Straight line parallel to y-axis C. Straight line D. Curve 416. One mole of an ideal gas at 546.5 K under 2 atm pressure has a volume of___? A. 22.414 m3 B. 44.828 dm3 C. 22.414 dm3 D. 11.212 cm3 417. Which one is not the partial pressure of oxygen in the lungs ? A. 0.1526 atm B. 116 mm of Hg C. 116 torr D. 1 atm 418. The kinetic molecular theory of gases was put forward in 1738 by _______? A. Boltzman B. Maxell C. Clausius D. Bernoulli 419. Hydrogen effuses four times more rapidly than volume of an unknown gas molar mass of unknown gas should be_______________? A. 16 gmol-1 B. 32 gmol-1 C. 48 gmol-1 D. 64 gmol-1 420. The processes of effusion and diffusion are best understand by_________? A. Daltons law B. Avogadros law C. Grahams law D. Charles law 421. The non-ideal behaviour results chiefly from________________? A. Intermolecular attraction and infinite volume B. Elastic collisions and finite volume C. Intermolecular attractions and finite volume D. Intermolecular attraction only 422. Linds method is employed for__________________? A. Separation of gases B. Expansion of gases C. Compression of gases D. Liquefaction of gases 423. Which of these gases diffuse more quickly than oxygen ? A. H2S B. NO C. Cl2 D. N2O 424. The weakest (in strength) of the following intermolecular forces is______? A. Hydrogen bonding B. Vander Waals force C. Forces among the polar molecules D. Ionic bond 425. Which of the following statements is true about plasma______________? A. It may be the first state of matter B. It is not a phase transition C. It is a conductor of electricity D. All of the above 426. 0.5 mole of nitrogen gas and 0.5 mole of carbon monoxide gas at STP have same_____________? A. Value of a B. Mass C. Atoms D. Both B and C 427. Which of the following option is incorrect about gases ? A. All molecules move with same speed B. All molecules behave independently C. PV / RT = n D. All gases cannot be liquefied through Linds Method 428. In how many forms do matter exists ? A. Three B. Four C. Five D. Two 429. What is the abundant form of matter on earth ? A. Gas B. Liquid C. Solid D. Plasma 430. For a gas where volume and pressures are 1dm3 and 2 atm respectively what should be its new volume when pressure is increased to 6 atm at constant temperature ? A. 1/2dm3 B. 1/3dm3 C. 1/4dm3 D. 2/3dm3 431. Which one is the right value for R ? A. 0.0821 atm dm3k-1mol- B. 0.0821 atm m3k-1mol-1 C. 2 cal k-1 mol-1 D. 8.314 Nm2k-1mol-1 432. The partial pressure exerted by the water vapours is called_______________? A. Surface tension B. Aqueous tension C. Vapour pressure D. Hydraulic pressure 433. The spreading of fragrance or scent in air is due to_______________? A. Diffusion B. Effusion C. Attraction with air D. Low dsensity 434. The highest temperature at which a substance can exist as a liquid is called its______________? A. Critical temperature B. Standard temperature C. Absolute temperature D. Upper consulate temperature 435. What do we call to sudden expansion of plasma ? A. Avogadros law B. Grahams law of diffusion C. Joule Thompson effect D. Daltons law of partial pressure 436. What will be the pressure of 1 mole of an ideal gas maintained at 300 K and 250cm3 volume ? A. 98.5 atm B. 96.7 atm C. 95.8 atm D. 97.1 atm 437. Who made volume and pressure correction to explain deviation of gases from ideal behaviour ? A. Clausius B. Boltzman C. Charles D. Vander waal 438. The gases become non-ideal at ________________? A. High temperature and high pressure B. Low temperature and low pressure C. High temperature and low pressure D. Low temperature and high pressure 439. The pH of 10-3 mol dm-3 of an aqueous solution of H2SO4 is________? A. 3 B. 2.7 C. 2 D. 1.5 440. If a buffer solution of higher pH than seven is to be made we use_________? A. Strong acid and strong base B. Weak acid and strong base C. Weak acid and strong base D. Weak acid and its salt with strong base 441. AgCl dissolved with conc (2×10-2) Ksp will be__________________? A. 3.6 x 10-6 B. 3.6 x 10-5 C. 7.2 x 10-6 D. 4 x 10-4 442. Which of the following will not change the concentration of ammonia at the equilibrium ? A. Increase of pressure B. Increase of volume C. Addition of catalyst D. Decrease of temperature 443. For a reaction involving only gases at 25?C the equilibrium constant can be expressed in terms of molarity Ke or partial pressure Kp. Which is true about the numerical value of Kp ? A. Kc is generally greaer than Kp B. Kc is generally less than Kp C. Kc is generally equal to Kp D. Kc is equal to Kp if the total moles of reactants and products are equal 444. Which one of the following aqueous solutions will be basic ? A. NaCI B. Na2SO4 C. Na2CO3 D. FeCl3 445. Reaction which proceeds in both directions is called_______________? A. reversible B. irreversible C. spontaneous D. non-spontaneous 446. Conversion of reactant into product in unit time is called________________? A. rate of forward reaction B. rate of backward reaction C. rate constant D. rate co-efficient 447. Unit of Kc is_______________? A. moles2dm+6 B. moles-2dm+6 C. moles+2dm-6 D. Kc may or may not have units 448. Rate expression for ammonia synthesis is___________________? A. Kc=x2/(a-x)(b-x) B. Kc=x2/v(a-x) C. Kc=4×2/(a-2x)2(b-x) D. Kc=4x2v2/(a-x)(b-3x)3 449. Catalyst used to speed up the reaction of ammonia synthesis is__________? A. V2O5 B. V2O5 and Pt C. Fe D. Pieces of Fe crystals are embedded in fused mixture of MgO Al2O3 and SiO2 450. By the addition of base in waterpH will be_______________? A. more than 7 B. less than 7 C. equal to 7 D. no effect 451. Negative log of mular concentration of H+ ions is called______________? A. pH B. pOH C. pKa D. pKw 452. Any substance which accepts H+ is base favours the concept______? A. Lowrys B. Lewis C. Arrhenius D. None of these 453. When sparingly soluble salt is in equilibrium with molar concentration of its oppositely charged ion when the product is called_________________? A. common ion effect B. solubility product C. dissociation constant D. dissociation constant for an acid 454. Addition of CH3COOH and CH3COONa gives in water_______________? A. Standard solution B. buffer solution C. acidic buffer solution D. both B & C 455. Solubility of any salt can be determined from_______________? A. Ka B. Kb C. Kc D. Ksp 456. By decreasing the pressure the reaction will go to that direction where_____? A. volume is decreased B. volume increased C. heat absorbed D. no. of moles of specie decreased 457. Equilibrium state is achieved quickly by the addition of ________________? A. reactants B. acid C. base D. catalyst 458. Which one of the following is a buffer solution ? A. brine B. blood C. glue D. solution of CuSO4 459. Solution having the property of a very little change in pH on adding a small amount of strong acid or base is called______________? A. buffer solution B. normal solution C. standard solution D. neutral solution 460. Conjugated base of a weak acid is_______________? A. weak B. strong C. moderately weak D. unstable 461. Kc value has_______________? A. No units B. Units C. Both A & B D. None 462. Sodium benzoate and benzoic acid are mixed in equimolar ration to form buffer if pKa is 2 what will be the pH ? A. 0 B. 1 C. 2 D. any one 463. In which of the following equilibria will Kc and Kp have the same value ? A. PCI5 = PCI3 + Cl2 B. N2 + 3H2 = 2NH C. 2CO + O2 = CO2 D. N2 + O2 = 2NO 464. Which of following is not a base______________? A. KOH B. NH3 C. PH3 D. BF3 465. Which set of solutes will form a buffer when dissolved in water to make 1 litter of solution ? A. 0.0002M HCI B. 0.2 mole of NaCI with 0.2 mole of HNO3 C. 0.4 mole of CH3COOH with 0.4 mole of NaOH D. 0.4 mole of NH3 with 0.2 mole of HCI 466. Chemical equilibrium state is_______________? A. dynamic state B. static state C. free state D. unidirectional state 467. At start of reaction the concentration of reactants is_______________? A. high B. low C. according to Kc D. constant 468. In case of gases Kc is replaced by_______________? A. Ka B. Kb C. Kp D. K 469. When the value of Kc is very small then_______________________? A. reaction is at start B. product conc. Is maximum C. reactant conc. Is minimum D. reaction is completed 470. Idea of pH and pOH was put forward by________________? A. Gibbs B. Einstein C. Sorenson D. Chadwick 471. Ka