CHAPTER 1 PRACTICE QUESTIONS.pdf

10 Chapter 1 Networking Fundamentals 1. At which of the following layers of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model do the protocols on a typical local area network (LAN) use media access control (MAC) addresses to identify other computers on the network? A. P...

10 Chapter 1 Networking Fundamentals 1. At which of the following layers of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model do the protocols on a typical local area network (LAN) use media access control (MAC) addresses to identify other computers on the network? A. Physical B. Data link C. Network D. Transport 2. Which of the following organizations developed the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model? A. International Telecommunication Union (ITU-­T) B. Comité Consultatif International Télégraphique et Téléphonique (CCITT) C. American National Standards Institute (ANSI) D. Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE) E. International Organization for Standardization (ISO) 3. Which layer of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model is responsible for the logical addressing of end systems and the routing of datagrams on a network? A. Physical B. Data link C. Network D. Transport E. Session F. Presentation G. Application 4. On a TCP/IP network, which layers of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model con- tain protocols that are responsible for encapsulating the data generated by an application, creating the payload for a packet that will be transmitted over a network? (Choose all that apply.) A. Physical B. Data link C. Network D. Transport E. Session F. Presentation G. Application 5. What layer of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model is responsible for translating and formatting information? A. Physical B. Data link  Chapter 1 Networking Fundamentals 11 C. Network D. Transport E. Session F. Presentation G. Application 6. Which of the following devices typically operates at the network layer of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model? A. Proxy server B. Hub C. Network interface adapter D. Router 7. Which layer of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model provides an entrance point to the protocol stack for applications? A. Physical B. Data link C. Network D. Transport E. Session F. Presentation G. Application 8. Which layer of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model is responsible for dialogue control between two communicating end systems? A. Physical B. Data link C. Network D. Transport E. Session F. Presentation G. Application 9. Some switches can perform functions associated with two layers of the Open Systems Inter- connection (OSI) model. Which two of the following layers are often associated with net- work switching? (Choose all that apply.) A. Physical B. Data link C. Network D. Transport 12 Chapter 1 Networking Fundamentals E. Session F. Presentation G. Application 10. At which layer of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model are there TCP/IP protocols than can provide either connectionless or connection-­oriented services to applications? A. Physical B. Data link C. Network D. Transport E. Session F. Presentation G. Application 11. Which of the following layers of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model typically have dedicated physical hardware devices associated with them? (Choose all that apply.) A. Physical B. Data link C. Network D. Transport E. Session F. Presentation G. Application 12. At which layer of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model is there a protocol that adds both a header and footer to the information that is passed down from an upper layer, thus creating a frame? A. Physical B. Data link C. Network D. Transport E. Session F. Presentation G. Application 13. Identify the layer of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model that controls the address- ing, transmission, and reception of Ethernet frames, and also identify the media access con- trol method that Ethernet uses. A. Physical layer; Carrier Sense Multiple Access with Collision Detection (CSMA/CD) B. Physical layer; Carrier Sense Multiple Access with Collision Avoidance (CSMA/CA) C. Data link layer; CSMA/CD D. Data link layer; CSMA/CA  Chapter 1 Networking Fundamentals 13 14. At which layer of the OSI model do you find the protocol responsible for the delivery of data to its ultimate destination on an internetwork? A. Data link B. Network C. Session D. Application 15. Which of the following is not a protocol operating at the network layer of the OSI model? A. IP B. ICMP C. IGMP D. IMAP 16. Ed is a software developer who has been given the task of creating an application that requires guaranteed delivery of information between end systems. At which layer of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model does the protocol that provides the guaranteed delivery run, and what type of protocol must Ed use? A. Data link layer; connectionless B. Network layer; connection-­oriented C. Transport layer; connection-­oriented D. Application layer; connectionless 17. Which of the following devices operates only at the physical layer of the Open Systems Inter- connection (OSI) model? A. Hub B. Bridge C. Switch D. Router 18. Alice is a network administrator designing a new Local Area Network (LAN). She needs to determine the type of cabling and the network topology to implement. Which layers of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model apply to cabling and topology elements? A. Physical and data link layers B. Data link and network layers C. Network and transport layers D. Transport and application layers 19. Which layers of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model do not have protocols in the TCP/IP suite exclusively dedicated to them? (Choose all that apply.) A. Physical B. Data link 14 Chapter 1 Networking Fundamentals C. Network D. Transport E. Session F. Presentation G. Application 20. The protocols at which layer of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model use port numbers to identify the applications that are the source and the destination of the data in the packets? A. Application B. Presentation C. Transport D. Network 21. Which of the following is a correct listing of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model layers, in order, from top to bottom? A. Physical, data link, transport, network, session presentation, application B. Application, session, presentation, transport, network, data link, physical C. Presentation, application, transport, session, network, physical, data link D. Session, application, presentation, transport, data link, network, physical E. Application, presentation, session, transport, network, data link, physical 22. At which of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model layers do switches and bridges perform their basic functions? A. Physical B. Data link C. Network D. Transport 23. On a TCP/IP network, flow control is a function implemented in protocols operating at which layer of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model? A. Presentation B. Session C. Transport D. Network 24. Which layer of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model defines the medium, network interfaces, connecting hardware, and signaling methods used on a network? A. Physical B. Data link C. Network D. Transport  Chapter 1 Networking Fundamentals 15 E. Session F. Presentation G. Application 25. Which of the OSI model layers is responsible for syntax translation and compression or encryption? A. Data link B. Network C. Session D. Presentation E. Application 26. Which layer of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model is responsible for transmitting signals over the network medium? A. Physical B. Data link C. Network D. Transport E. Session F. Presentation G. Application 27. Specify the layer of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model at which the Internet Pro- tocol (IP) operates and whether it is connection-­oriented or connectionless. A. Network; connection-­oriented B. Network; connectionless C. Transport; connection-­oriented D. Transport; connectionless 28. An Ethernet network interface adapter provides functions that span which two layers of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model? A. Physical and data link B. Data link and network C. Network and transport D. Transport and application 29. Which of the following protocols operate at the application layer of the Open Systems Inter- connection (OSI) model? (Choose all that apply.) A. HTTP B. SNMP 16 Chapter 1 Networking Fundamentals C. ICMP D. IGMP E. UDP 30. Which layer of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model would be responsible for converting a text file encoded using EBCDIC on the sending system into ASCII code, when required by the receiving system? A. Application B. Presentation C. Session D. Physical 31. Which of the following protocols operates at the network layer of the OSI model, but does not encapsulate data generated by an upper layer protocol for transmission over the network? A. IP B. UDP C. ARP D. ICMP E. TCP 32. A client on a TCP/IP network is attempting to establish a session with a server. Which of the following correctly lists the order of the TCP flags raised in the Transmission Control Pro- tocol (TCP) session establishment messages? A. SYN, ACK, SYN, ACK B. SYN, SYN, ACK, ACK C. SYN/ACK, SYN/ACK D. SYN, SYN/ACK, ACK 33. Which of the following is the Maximum Transmission Unit (MTU) size for an Eth- ernet frame? A. 512 B. 1024 C. 1500 D. 1518 34. Which of the following Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) control bits is set to 1 to ini- tiate the termination of a session? A. SYN B. URG C. FIN D. END E. PSH  Chapter 1 Networking Fundamentals 17 35. An electrician installing a new light fixture accidentally severs one of the LAN cables running through the dropped ceiling space. With which topology would the severed cable cause the greatest amount of disturbance to the network? A. Bus B. Star C. Logical ring D. Mesh 36. Which of the following statements about a wired Local Area Network (LAN) is true? A. Wired LANs support only the star topology. B. Wired LANs support only the star and bus topologies. C. Wired LANs support only the star and ring topologies. D. Wired LANs can support ring, bus, or star topologies. 37. Which of the following is an example of a hybrid topology? A. A workstation with two network interface cards, one of which is connected to a star net- work and one to a bus network B. Four Ethernet switches connected using a bus topology C. Four workstations, each with a separate network connection to each of the other three D. Four Ethernet switches, each with a separate network connection to each of the other three 38. Which type of network is typically confined to a small area, such as a single room, floor, or building? A. WAN B. LAN C. MAN D. CAN 39. Which type of network connects Local Area Networks (LANs) in distant locations? A. WAN B. LAN C. MAN D. CAN 40. Which of the following topologies requires the installation of terminating resistors at two locations? A. Bus B. Star C. Ring D. Mesh 18 Chapter 1 Networking Fundamentals 41. Which of the following topologies is used by the majority of new Ethernet networks installed today? A. Bus B. Virtual ring C. Mesh D. Hierarchical star 42. Alice has constructed a five-­node failover cluster in which all five servers are connected to a hard disk array using a dedicated Fibre Channel network. Which of the following terms describes this network arrangement? A. SAN B. PAN C. WAN D. MAN 43. Which of the following is not a technology typically used for a personal area network (PAN)? A. Bluetooth B. Z-­Wave C. NFC D. SDWAN 44. Which of the following network topologies are used by Wireless Local Area Networks (WLANs)? (Choose all that apply.) A. Ad hoc B. Bus C. Infrastructure D. Star 45. Which of the following cabling topologies was used by the first Ethernet networks? A. Bus B. Ring C. Star D. Mesh 46. On an Ethernet network using the star topology, which of the following devices can function as the cabling nexus that forms the figurative center of the star? (Choose all that apply.) A. Hub B. Router C. Switch D. Access Point  Chapter 1 Networking Fundamentals 19 47. Which of the following cabling topologies provides the greatest number of redundant paths through the network? A. Star B. Ring C. Mesh D. Bus 48. Which of the following Ethernet physical layer options does not use the star topology? A. 10Base2 B. 10Base-­T C. 100Base-­TX D. 1000Base-­T 49. Which of the following network types are typically wireless? (Choose all that apply.) A. WAN B. PAN C. SAN D. WLAN 50. Dense Wave Division Multiplexing (DWDM) is a signaling technology that has become a popular choice in the construction of which of the following types of provider links? A. Digital Subscriber Line (DSL) B. Metro-­optical C. Satellite D. Cable 51. Which of the following statements is true about the differences between a peer-­to-­peer net- work and a client-­server network? A. Peer-­to-­peer networks are inherently less secure than client-­server networks. B. Peer-­to-­peer networks are illegal, while client-­server networks are legal. C. On peer-­to-­peer networks, every workstation is capable of authenticating users. D. On a peer-­to-­peer network, all workstations must share their resources. 52. Why does DSL (Digital Subscriber Line) technology support faster data transmissions than a standard Public Switched Telephone Network (PSTN) modem connection? A. DSL uses a separate control circuit that provides clear channels for data. B. DSL does not perform Cyclic Redundancy Check (CRC) functions and therefore has less overhead. C. DSL performs only a single analog-­to-­digital conversion. D. DSL uses a higher frequency range. 20 Chapter 1 Networking Fundamentals 53. Which DSL (Digital Subscriber Line) technology can adjust its transmission speed based on line conditions? A. HDSL B. IDSL C. RADSL D. VDSL 54. Which of the following Wide Area Network (WAN) technologies uses broadband signaling? A. Digital Subscriber Line (DSL) B. Synchronous Optical Network (SONET) C. Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN) D. Cable television (CATV) 55. Ed has been hired by a private company to connect two remote sites with a Wide Area Net- work (WAN). Each of these sites has more than 200 users, and they all need to constantly transfer files across the WAN. One of the sites has a customer database that is accessed by both sites at all hours of the day. Access to the database and other information is time sensitive and constant. The company estimates that their aggregate bandwidth needs to be approximately 40 Mbps. Management says that they need to guarantee access to this information and that money is not a factor in the WAN implementation. Which WAN tech- nology should Ed recommend for this scenario? A. A standard modem-­to-­modem connection B. A T-­3 dedicated leased line C. A cable television (CATV) connection D. An ADSL (Asymmetrical Digital Subscriber Line) connection 56. Ralph is an employee of a company that offers the option to telecommute from home. As a telecommuting employee, he needs to connect to the company network to access client information, transfer files, and send email through a Virtual Private Network (VPN) connec- tion. Ralph is investigating the different Wide Area Network (WAN) services available for the remote connection before he implements one. His home is over 30 years old; the existing tele- phone wiring was not run through conduit, and the wiring seems to be deteriorating. Ralph has cable television (CATV) service, and his home is also approximately 20,000 feet from the nearest telephone central office. He wants to implement the fastest remote connection service possible, but cost is a factor in the decision. Which WAN technology should Ralph implement? A. A dedicated leased line (fractional T-­1) B. A standard modem-­to-­modem connection C. A DSL (Digital Subscriber Line) connection D. A broadband CATV connection  Chapter 1 Networking Fundamentals 21 57. Which of the following Wide Area Network (WAN) connection technologies uses analog signaling? A. Public Switched Telephone Network (PSTN) B. Cable television (CATV) C. Digital Subscriber Line (DSL) D. Synchronous Optical Network (SONET) 58. If you want to allow both voice and data traffic to be transmitted across the same Digital Subscriber Line (DSL) connection, what type of device is required at the customer site? A. A signal terminator B. A Digital Subscriber Line Access Multiplexer (DSLAM) C. A coder/decoder (CODEC) device D. A splitter 59. What are the two main factors that affect DSL (Digital Subscriber Line) transmission rates? A. Signal termination B. Distance to the nearest central office C. Line conditions D. Line reflection 60. Which of the following best describes the function of a demarcation point or demarc? A. The vertical cross-­connect that links horizontal networks together B. The place where an outside service enters the building C. A switch or hub that connects the computers in a particular work area together, forming a horizontal network D. The place in a telecommunications room where a patch panel is located 61. Which of the following broadband WAN services provides equal amounts of upstream and downstream bandwidth? A. ADSL B. SDSL C. Satellite D. Cable 62. Which of the following hardware components is typically found at the demarcation point of a leased line, such as a T-­1 or T-­3? A. Terminator B. Punchdown block C. 110 block D. Smartjack E. CSU/DSU 22 Chapter 1 Networking Fundamentals 63. Which of the following remote access connection technologies can support the simultaneous transmission of voice and data traffic over the Public Switched Telephone Network (PSTN)? (Choose all that apply.) A. Dial-­up modem connection B. Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN) C. Digital Subscriber Line (DSL) D. Synchronous Optical Network (SONET) E. Cable television (CATV) network 64. A company is moving their entire operation to a new building, and part of the plan is to increase the speed of their Internet access by installing a leased T-­3 line to replace their exist- ing broadband connection. The service provider they have selected sends a technician to install the leased line. Which of the following is the correct term for the location in the new building where the technician will terminate the T-­3? A. Patch panel B. Switch C. Firewall D. Demarc 65. A T-­3 leased line connection runs at 44.736 megabits per second (Mbps). How many sepa- rate channels does a T-­3 provide? A. 24 B. 64 C. 128 D. 512 E. 672 66. A T-­3 leased line connection is the equivalent of how many T-­1 connections? A. 7 B. 14 C. 28 D. 112 67. Which of the following is the U.S. standard for synchronous data transmissions that defines data rates designated by optical carrier levels, such as OC-­3, OC-­12, OC-­48, and OC-­192? A. SDH B. SONET C. ISDN D. DSL  Chapter 1 Networking Fundamentals 23 68. Which of the following is a wide area networking mechanism that assigns labels to packets and forwards them based on those labels, rather than addresses? A. Frame relay B. MPLS C. ATM D. PPPoE E. SDWAN 69. Which two of the following constructs provide roughly the same function? (Choose two that apply.) A. SIP trunk B. CSU/DSU C. VoIP gateway D. Smartjack E. VPN concentrator 70. Which of the following is the European equivalent of the Synchronous Optical Networking (SONET) standard in the United States? A. SDH B. OC-­3 C. E-­3 D. ATM 71. Which of the following is the device that provides the interface between a Local Area Net- work (LAN) and a Wide Area Network (WAN)? A. QSFP B. CSU/DSU C. SIP trunk D. IDS/IPS 72. Which of the following terms describes a leased line subscription that provides access to only part of a T-­1? A. E-­1 B. B channel C. OC-­1 D. Fractional T-­1 73. Multiprotocol Label Switching (MPLS) is sometimes said to operate between two layers of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model. Between which two layers is it usually said to function? A. Physical and data link B. Data link and network 24 Chapter 1 Networking Fundamentals C. Network and transport D. Transport and Session 74. Which of the following Wide Area Network (WAN) services provides the fastest transfer rate? A. T-­1 B. E-­1 C. T-­3 D. OC-­1 75. To which of the following Internet connection types does a specification called DOCSIS apply? A. Dial-­up modem B. DSL C. Cable broadband D. ISDN 76. Which of the following are types of circuits offered by frame relay services? (Choose all that apply.) A. SRV B. PVC C. SVC D. UPC 77. Which of the following types of Wide Area Network (WAN) connections commonly use Point-­to-­Point Protocol over Ethernet (PPPoE)? (Choose all that apply.) A. Leased lines B. SONET C. Cable broadband D. Digital Subscriber Line (DSL) 78. Which of the following devices often provides diagnostic testing capabilities at the demarca- tion point of a leased line Wide Area Network (WAN) service? A. SIP trunk B. Media converter C. Smartjack D. AAAA server  Chapter 1 Networking Fundamentals 25 79. Which of the following Wide Area Network (WAN) services typically uses a switched fabric that was called a cloud long before the term came into general use? A. ATM B. Fractional T-­1 C. SONET D. Frame relay 80. Ralph has been contracted to consult for a company that wants to update its legacy Ethernet network to Gigabit Ethernet. On examining the site, he discovers that the network is still using coaxial-­based Thin Ethernet. What change in network topology must occur to upgrade the existing network to Gigabit Ethernet using Unshielded Twisted Pair (UTP) cable? A. Bus to Ring B. Ring to Star C. Star to Bus D. Bus to Star E. Star to Ring 81. Which of the following best describes the function of a vSwitch (or virtual switch)? A. A vSwitch is a software product that enables a computer with multiple network adapters to function as a switch. B. A vSwitch is a feature in layer 3 switches that enables VLANs on the same switch to communicate with each other. C. A vSwitch is a feature in layer 3 switches that enables VLANs on different switches to communicate with each other. D. A vSwitch enables virtual machines (VMs) running on the same hypervisor to communi- cate with each other internally. 82. Which of the following statements best describes the difference between Type I and Type II virtualization? A. Type II virtualization requires the host computer to have a processor that supports hardware virtualization assistance; Type I virtualization does not. B. In Type I virtualization, the hypervisor runs directly on the physical computer hardware, whereas in Type II virtualization, a host operating system runs on the computer hardware and the hypervisor runs on top of the host OS. C. Type I virtualization supports up to 256 virtual machines, whereas Type II virtualization supports only 8. D. Type I virtualization requires a separate processor for each virtual machine, whereas in Type II virtualization, the VMs all share a single processor. 83. On which of the following virtual networking components can you create VLANs? A. Virtual NIC B. Virtual switch C. Virtual router D. Virtual firewall 26 Chapter 1 Networking Fundamentals 84. On an unmanaged network, which of the following virtual networking components have media access control (MAC) addresses assigned to them? A. Virtual switches B. Virtual NICs C. Hypervisors D. Virtual firewalls 85. Which of the following components is responsible for providing a virtualized hardware envi- ronment and running virtual machines? A. Hypervisor B. Virtual server C. vSwitch (virtual switch) D. VPN concentrator 86. Which of the following is the proper term for a computer with a hypervisor on which you can create virtual machines and other virtual components? A. Guest B. NAS C. Host D. SAN 87. In which of the following ways does a vSwitch (virtual switch) differ from a physical switch? A. Virtual switches have an unlimited number of ports, whereas physical switches have a specific number. B. Physical switches typically support the creation of VLANs, whereas virtual switches do not. C. Virtual switches cannot forward traffic to the host server running them, whereas physical switches can forward traffic to all connected computers. D. Physical switches always include layer 3 functionality, whereas virtual switches do not. 88. In which of the following components can a virtual firewall be implemented? A. On a host operating system B. On a guest operating system C. In a dedicated virtual machine D. In a virtual switch E. All of the above 89. Which of the following technologies can replace leased lines, such as T-­1s, by multiplexing signals as packets switched through virtual circuits in a cloud? A. E-­1s B. Frame relay  Chapter 1 Networking Fundamentals 27 C. ATM D. PPP 90. Which of the following is not a protocol that uses tunneling to establish secured links bet- ween TCP/IP systems? A. L2TP B. IPsec C. MGRE D. NAT 91. Which of the following is not one of the primary components of the Network Function Vir- tualization (NFV) framework? A. VNF B. NFV ISG C. NFVI D. NFV-­MANO 92. Which of the following best describes the function of the network medium? A. The network medium provides the physical connection between networked computers. B. The network medium provides the protocol used to transmit data between end systems. C. The network medium passes data packets between two routers. D. The network medium processes electrical or light signals and converts them to data. 93. Which of the following signal types is carried by copper cable? A. Fiber optic B. Microwave C. Infrared D. Electrical 94. Identify the organizations that developed the general cable type standards for voice and data communications that are currently in use and identify the document name. A. ANSI/TVA, document C568 B. TWA/ANSI/EIA, document T530-­A C. EIA/ANSI/TWA, document 802.2 D. TDA/EIA/TIA, document 802.11 E. ANSI/TIA/EIA, document T568b 95. Which of the following cable types and connectors are used to attach a television set to a cable television (CATV) network? A. A fiber-­optic cable and a Straight Tip (ST) connector B. A coaxial cable and a Bayonet-­Neill-­Concelman (BNC) connector 28 Chapter 1 Networking Fundamentals C. A twisted pair cable and an RJ-­45 connector D. A coaxial cable and an F-­type connector E. An AUI cable and a vampire tap connector F. A twinaxial cable and a Bayonet-­Neill-­Concelman (BNC) connector 96. Which of the following cable types is used for Thick Ethernet network segments? A. RG-­8 B. RG-­58 C. RJ-­45 D. RJ-­11 97. Which of the following cable types is used for Thin Ethernet network segments? A. RG-­8 B. RG-­58 C. RJ-­45 D. RJ-­11 98. Which of the following telecommunications components is all but obsolete and is found only in old, analog telephone installations? A. 66 block B. 110 block C. Patch panel D. Smartjack 99. Which of the following is a common European alternative to the 110 punchdown block used in U.S. telecommunications installations? A. 66 block B. mGRE C. Krone LSA-­Plus D. BIX 100. Which of the following coaxial cable types are still in general use? (Choose all that apply.) A. RG-­6 B. RG-­8 C. RG-­58 D. RG-­59 101. Which of the following statements about the differences between fiber-­optic Angled Physical Contact (APC) and Ultra-­Physical Contact (UPC) connectors are true? (Choose all that apply.) A. APCs should only be joined to other APCs. B. APCs generate more insertion loss that UPCs.  Chapter 1 Networking Fundamentals 29 C. UPCs generate more return loss than APCs. D. UPCs use a green connector boot or body. 102. Which of the following is not a type of fiber-­optic connector? A. SC B. MTRJ C. ST D. BNC 103. Which of the following physical layer transceiver module standards is the oldest and there- fore the most obsolete? A. SFP B. SFP+ C. GBIC D. QSFP E. QSFP+ 104. Which of the following cable types is typically configured in a star topology, uses eight copper conductors arranged in four pairs, and uses RJ-­45 connectors? A. RG-­8 B. Twisted pair C. RG-­58 D. Fiber optic 105. Which of the following statements explains the purpose of the twists in twisted pair cabling? A. The twists prevent collisions. B. The twists completely eliminate crosstalk and electromagnetic interference (EMI) in adjacent wire pairs. C. The twists prevent crosstalk in adjacent wire pairs and limit the effects of EMI on the signals carried over the cable. D. The twists extend the bend radius allowance of the cable. 106. Which of the following tools do cable installers use to add connectors such as RJ-­45 and RJ-­11 to twisted pair cabling? A. A crimper B. A splicer C. A pigtail D. A patch 30 Chapter 1 Networking Fundamentals 107. Which of the following combinations of attributes describes the cable used for a Thin Eth- ernet network? A. RJ-­45, 50-­ohm, 0.270-­inch, coaxial cable with BNC connectors B. RG-­59, 75-­ohm, 0.242-­inch, coaxial cable with F connectors C. RG-­58, 50-­ohm, 0.195-­inch, coaxial cable with BNC connectors D. RG-­8, 50-­ohm, 0.405-­inch, coaxial cable with N connectors E. RJ-­6, 75-­ohm, 0.242-­inch, coaxial cable with BNC connectors 108. Which of the following connector types are typically associated with Ethernet networks? (Choose all that apply.) A. F-­type B. BNC C. RJ-­45 D. DB-­9 E. N-­type 109. Which of the following connector types was typically associated with a T-­connector attached to the computer? A. RJ45 B. MT-­RJ C. 8P8C D. BNC E. F 110. Which of the following connector types are associated with fiber-­optic cables? (Choose all that apply.) A. RJ11 B. ST C. F D. LC E. MT-­RJ 111. Which of the following types of cable, when installed, sometimes employed a device called a vampire tap? A. Unshielded twisted pair B. Shielded twisted pair C. Multimode fiber optic D. Single-­mode fiber optic E. Coaxial  Chapter 1 Networking Fundamentals 31 112. In an internal UTP cable installation, each horizontal cable run connects a wall plate in the work area to a centralized cabling nexus in a telecommunications room. Which of the following is the correct term for this cabling nexus? A. Telepole B. Demarc C. Backbone D. Patch panel E. Fiber distribution panel 113. Which of the following statements about single-­mode and multimode fiber-­optic cables are true? A. Single-­mode cables can span longer distances than multimode cables. B. Single-­mode cables are more resistant to electromagnetic interference than multimode cables. C. Single-­mode cables are more difficult to install than multimode cables. D. Single-­mode cables have a much larger core diameter than multimode cables. 114. Which of the following components are typically used only for telephone cable installa- tions, and not for data networking? (Choose all that apply.) A. 66 blocks B. 110 blocks C. 25 pair UTP cables D. 100 pair UTP cables 115. Which of the following statements about single-­mode fiber-­optic cable are true? (Choose all that apply.) A. Single-­mode cables use an LED light source, whereas multimode cables use a laser. B. Single-­mode cables can span longer distances than multimode cables. C. Single-­mode cables have a smaller core filament than multimode cables. D. Single-­mode cables have a smaller bend radius than multimode, making them easier to install. E. Single-­mode fiber-­optic cables require a ground, whereas multimode cables do not. 116. Which of the following tools do cable installers use to connect bulk cable runs to wall plates and patch panels? A. A crimper B. A splicer C. A pigtail D. A punchdown block tool 32 Chapter 1 Networking Fundamentals 117. Ralph has been hired by a client to install cabling to connect two existing networks. The two networks are in different buildings approximately 1000 feet apart. The cable type must support Gigabit Ethernet data rates of 1000 megabits per second (Mbps) and pro- vide a high level of resistance to electromagnetic interference (EMI). Your client wants the most economical cabling solution that meets their needs. Which of the following cable types best meets the needs of this client? A. Multimode fiber-­optic cable B. Shielded Twisted Pair (STP) cable C. Unshielded Twisted Pair (UTP) cable D. Thin coaxial cable E. Single-­mode fiber-­optic cable 118. Which of the following are connector types used with coaxial cables? (Choose all that apply.) A. BNC B. F-­type C. N-­type D. ST E. RJ-­11 119. Alice has been hired by a corporation to design the cabling for their network. The cor- poration just moved into two different floors of an older building: a retail space on the ground floor and an office space on the 43rd floor. The building has existing Category 5 (CAT5) Unshielded Twisted Pair (UTP) cable. Alice’s client wants two separate Local Area Networks (LANs), one on each of the two floors, with a backbone network connecting them. They want a 1 gigabit-­per-­second (Gbps) data rate for each LAN but plan on migrating to 10 Gbps in the future. The two networks are approximately 200 meters apart. Which of the following solutions best meets the client’s needs? A. Install Category 6 (CAT6) or Category 6a (CAT6a) UTP cable for the LANs. These cables run at 1 Gbps and provide a migration path to 10 Gbps. Use twisted pair cable for the backbone network. B. Use the existing CAT5 cabling for the LANs, since CAT5 runs at 1 Gbps. Use thick coaxial cable for the backbone network. C. Install CAT6 or CAT6a UTP cable for the LANs. These cables run at 1 Gbps and pro- vide a migration path to 10 Gbps. Use multimode fiber-­optic cable for the backbone network. D. Install CAT6 or CAT6a UTP cable for the LANs. These cables run at 1 Gbps and provide a migration path to 10 Gbps. Use the existing CAT5 cable for the backbone network.  Chapter 1 Networking Fundamentals 33 120. A maintenance worker, while replacing a light fixture in an office building, accidentally severs a network cable in the drop ceiling. The tenants use a variety of Local Area Net- work (LAN) technologies throughout the structure, but on that particular floor, there are three separate LANs: a 10-­node Thin Ethernet LAN using coaxial cable in a bus topology, a 25-­node Gigabit Ethernet LAN using twisted pair cable in a star topology, and a 5-­node Fiber Distributed Data Interface (FDDI) LAN using multimode fiber-­optic cable in a dou- ble ring topology. Without knowing which of the LANs the severed cable belongs to, what is the maximum number of computers that could be directly affected by the cable break? A. 0 B. 1 C. 5 D. 10 E. 25 F. 40 121. In the punchdown process for Unshielded Twisted Pair (UTP) cable, which of the follow- ing is the last step that you perform when connecting bulk cables to jacks in wall plates and patch panels? A. Cut off the excess wire that protrudes past the contacts. B. Press the bare wire down between the two metal contacts that hold it in place. C. Strip some of the insulating sheath off the cable end to expose the wires. D. Insert the wires into the appropriate contacts in the jack. E. Strip a small amount of insulation off each wire. F. Separate the twisted wire pairs at the ends. 122. Which of the following cable connector types is not used with fiber-­optic cable? A. Straight Tip (ST) B. Subscriber Connector (SC) C. Mechanical Transfer–Registered Jack (MT-­RJ) D. F-­type E. Fiber Local Connector (LC) 123. Which of the following twisted pair cable types can you use to construct a 10GBase-­T net- work with 100-­meter segments? (Choose all that apply.) A. CAT5 B. CAT5e 34 Chapter 1 Networking Fundamentals C. CAT6 D. CAT6a E. CAT7 F. CAT8 124. Which of the following cable connector types have been rendered nearly obsolete by Universal Serial Bus (USB) connections? (Choose all that apply.) A. BNC B. RJ-­11 C. DB-­9 D. DB-­25 125. Which of the following twisted pair cable types is rated for both a 10-­megabit-­per-­second (Mbps) data rate (using two pairs) and a 100 Mbps data rate (using four pairs)? A. Category 3 (CAT3) B. Category 5 (CAT5) C. Category 5e (CAT5e) D. Category 6 (CAT6) 126. Ed has been hired to install network cabling for a small private company with 15 employees who need to share files and printers. All of the employees are physically located within the same building in two separate office spaces directly adjacent to each other, sharing a common wall and door for access. Both offices have drop ceilings. The client wants a simple Gigabit Ethernet installation that is easy to troubleshoot. In addition, Ed’s client wants to keep installation costs to a minimum. Which of the following combinations of topology, cable type, and installation method would best meet the needs of Ed’s client? A. Star topology, fiber-­optic cabling, and internal installation B. Bus topology, coaxial cabling, and external installation C. Bus topology, twisted pair cabling, and internal installation D. Star topology, coaxial cabling, and external installation E. Star topology, twisted pair cabling, and external installation 127. Which of the following cable types are typically used in newly constructed Local Area Network (LAN) installations? (Choose all that apply.) A. Single-­mode fiber optic B. Multimode fiber optic C. Coaxial D. Unshielded twisted pair  Chapter 1 Networking Fundamentals 35 128. Which of the following statements are true about coaxial cable? (Choose all that apply.) A. Coaxial cable has three conductors within the same sheath. B. Coaxial cable has two conductors within the same sheath. C. Coaxial cable has a copper core that carries light pulse signals. D. Coaxial cable has a copper core that carries electrical signals. E. Coaxial cable has an insulating outer sheath made of braided strands. F. Coaxial cable has an insulating sheath made of either PVC or Teflon. 129. Which of the following twisted pair cable types are rated for 1000 megabit-­per-­second (Mbps) Gigabit Ethernet using two wire pairs? (Choose all that apply.) A. Category 3 (CAT3) B. Category 5 (CAT5) C. Category 5e (CAT5e) D. Category 6 (CAT6) E. Category 6a (CAT6a) F. None of the above 130. Which of the following twisted pair cable types support both 10-­megabit-­per-­second (Mbps) and 100 Mbps data rates, using only two pairs? (Choose all that apply.) A. Category 3 (CAT3) B. Category 5 (CAT5) C. Category 5e (CAT5e) D. Category 6 (CAT6) 131. Which of the following statements about fiber-­optic cabling are true? (Choose all that apply.) A. There are two main fiber-­optic cable types: single-­mode and multimode. B. Fiber-­optic cable is typically used to span long distances. C. Fiber-­optic cables use IBM Data Connector (IDC) connectors. D. Fiber-­optic cables often use Straight Tip (ST) and Subscriber Connector (SC) connec- tors. E. Single-­mode fiber-­optic cable uses a laser light source and a glass core. F. Multimode fiber-­optic cable uses a Light-­Emitting Diode (LED) light source. 132. Which of the following are characteristics of an internal cable installation? (Choose all that apply.) A. An internal cable installation uses bulk spools of cabling with no connectors attached for most cable runs. B. An internal cable installation uses only prefabricated cables with connectors attached for all cable runs. 36 Chapter 1 Networking Fundamentals C. An internal cable installation uses solid wire conductors for all cable runs, regardless of distance. D. An internal cable installation uses stranded wire conductors for short cable runs and solid core for longer cable runs. E. In an internal cable installation, cables are typically not run through walls or ceilings. F. In an internal cable installation, cables are typically run through walls or ceilings. 133. Which of the following Ethernet specifications calls for CAT8 UTP cable exclusively? A. 10GBase-­T B. 40GBase-­T C. 100Base-­TX D. 1000Base-­SX 134. Ralph has been hired to connect three Local Area Networks (LANs) together with redun- dant paths that form a fault-­tolerant backbone. The LANs reside on different floors in the same building and are approximately 600 meters apart. Each LAN is currently configured in a star topology using twisted pair cabling. Each LAN includes wall plates and rack-­ mounted patch panels and switches. Building and fire codes allow cables to run through existing risers, ceilings, and walls, but a 50,000-­watt radio station occupies one of the floors between the LANs. Which topology, cable type, and installation method are best suited for this network? A. Star topology, fiber-­optic cabling, and internal installation B. Star topology, coaxial cabling, and external installation C. Mesh topology, fiber-­optic cabling, and external installation D. Bus topology, twisted pair cabling, and internal installation E. Mesh topology, fiber-­optic cabling, and internal installation F. Star topology, twisted pair cabling, and external installation 135. Alice is a network consultant who has been contracted to evaluate a network design cre- ated many years ago, to determine if the design is still viable. The network will support 20 workstations, scattered throughout the building, to run an inventory database appli- cation. The two most distant computers are 150 meters apart. The primary goal for the network design is to connect all 20 workstations to a single LAN running at 10 megabits per second (Mbps). The two secondary goals are to provide sufficient fault tolerance for a single cable break to occur without affecting the entire network and to provide resistance to the electromagnetic interference (EMI) generated by machinery in the building. The ear- lier design calls for a Thin Ethernet LAN with all of the computers connected to a single coaxial cable segment. Which of the following statements about the proposal is true? A. The solution achieves neither the primary goal nor either of the secondary goals. B. The solution achieves the primary goal but neither of the secondary goals. C. The solution achieves the primary goal and one of the secondary goals. D. The solution achieves the primary goal and both of the secondary goals.  Chapter 1 Networking Fundamentals 37 136. Ed is a network consultant who has been contracted to design the network for a new manufacturing plant. The plant consists of two buildings 150 meters apart: an office with 20 computers and a manufacturing facility that has 30 computers. The two most distant computers at the site are 225 meters apart. Ed’s design calls for a Gigabit Ethernet net- work using fiber-­optic cable. On receiving the proposal, the client asks Ed to justify the additional labor and expense of installing fiber-­optic cable instead of Unshielded Twisted Pair (UTP). Which of the following is not a valid reason for choosing fiber optic over UTP for this project? A. The 225-­meter distance between the two most distant computers exceeds Ethernet’s maximum cable segment length for UTP. B. Only fiber-­optic cable can keep the two buildings electrically isolated. C. Fiber-­optic cable is completely resistant to any electromagnetic interference generated by the equipment in the manufacturing plant. D. Fiber-­optic cable provides a greater degree of tolerance to cable breaks than UTP. 137. In the 100Base-­TX specification, which of the following are the functions of the Fast Link Pulse (FLP) signals exchanged by switches and network interface adapters? (Choose all that apply.) A. The FLP signals verify the integrity of the connection (or link) between the devices. B. The FLP signals enable the devices to negotiate the speed of the link between them. C. The FLP signals indicate when a collision has occurred. D. The devices use FLP signals to detect bad frames. 138. Which of the following 10 Gigabit Ethernet specifications calls for the use of copper cable? A. 10GBase-­LR B. 10GBase-­CX4 C. 10GBase-­ER D. 10GBase-­LX4 E. 10GBase-­SR 139. Alice is a network consultant who has been contracted to upgrade an existing Ethernet network to Gigabit Ethernet. The network consists of 20 workstations with integrated 10Base-­T/100Base-­TX/1000Base-­T network interface adapters. The network cabling is Category 5 (CAT5) Unshielded Twisted Pair (UTP), installed when the building was con- structed. All of the workstations are connected to a single 100Base-­TX switch. Which of the following options would Alice find to be a valid upgrade path to Gigabit Ethernet? A. Replace the CAT5 cable with at least Category 5e (CAT5e) or Category 6 (CAT6), and leave the existing network interface adapters and switch in place. B. Install a 1000Base-­T network interface card in each computer, and leave the existing cables and switch in place. C. Replace the CAT5 cable with at least CAT5e or CAT6, and replace the 100Base-­T switch with a 1000Base-­T switch. D. Replace the 100Base-­TX switch with a 1000Base-­T switch, and leave the existing cables and network interface adapters in place. 38 Chapter 1 Networking Fundamentals 140. Ralph is a network consultant with a client who wants him to design the Local Area Net- work (LAN) for his company’s new branch office. The site consists of a building with Unshielded Twisted Pair (UTP) cable already installed, which the client considered a major selling point when selecting the property. He wants Ralph to install the fastest possible LAN using the existing cable. After examining the site, Ralph notes that the cable is Cat- egory 5 (CAT5), installed using a star topology, and that the individual cable runs are all less than 100 meters long. Which of the following Ethernet physical layer specifications can Ralph use for the new network to provide the fastest transmission speeds without replacing the cable? A. 10GBase-­T B. 100Base-­TX C. 1000Base-­T D. 1000Base-­LX E. 1000Base-­SX 141. Which Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE) standards for Ethernet support 10-­megabit-­per-­second (Mbps) communications, and what are the correct segment limitations for each standard? (Choose all that apply.) A. 10Base2; segment maximum is 100 meters B. 10Base2; segment maximum is 185 meters C. 10Base5; segment maximum is 500 meters D. 100Base5; segment maximum is 500 meters E. 10Base-­T; segment maximum is 100 meters F. 10Base-­T segment maximum is 328 meters 142. Which of the following are Ethernet cable types that must be configured in a bus topology? (Choose all that apply.) A. RG-­8 B. RG-­10 C. RG-­14 D. RG-­58 143. Ed has been hired by a company to upgrade its network infrastructure. The current net- work is 10 Mbps Ethernet running on Category 5 (CAT5) twisted pair cable. There are 100 computers on the network, all of which have 10/100/1000 multispeed network inter- face adapters. The computers are all connected to hubs. Users are complaining that the network is too slow, and connections are sometimes dropped. Management wants to upgrade to the fastest Ethernet standard possible, using the existing cabling, and still keep costs to a minimum. Which of the following implementations should Ed recommend to the client? A. Upgrade to 100Base-­TX and keep the existing hubs. B. Upgrade to 1000Base-­T and keep the existing hubs.  Chapter 1 Networking Fundamentals 39 C. Upgrade to 100Base-­FX and replace all of the hubs with switches. D. Upgrade to 1000Base-­T and replace all of the hubs with switches. E. Upgrade to 100Base-­SX and replace all of the hubs with switches. 144. Ralph has been asked to create some new patch cables that will be used to connect patch panel ports to the network switches. He has been told to use the T568B pinout stan- dard for all of the cable connectors. Ralph gathers the materials and the tools needed to complete the task, but he is not sure about the T568B pinout. Which of the following pin- outs must Ralph use when creating the patch cables? A. White/orange, orange, white/green, blue, white/blue, green, white/brown, brown B. White/green, green, white/orange, blue, white/blue, orange, white/brown, brown C. White/orange, orange, white/green, green, white/blue, blue, white/brown, brown D. White/brown, white/green, white/orange, blue, white/blue, orange, green, brown 145. It is Ralph’s first day working for a consultancy that does network cable installations. His new boss hands him a spool of Category 6 cable, a large plier-­like device, and a bag of little clear plastic components and tells him to “get started on fives and tens.” What is Ralph expected to do? A. Pull cable runs B. Create patch cables C. Attach keystone connectors D. Install a patch panel 146. Wavelength division multiplexing is a fiber-­optic technique for carrying multiple signals on a single network medium. There are several types of this technique, including Coarse Wavelength Division Multiplexing (CWDM), Dense Wavelength Division Multiplexing (DWDM), and Bidirectional Wavelength Division Multiplexing (BWDM, or just WDM). Which of the following is not one of the ways in which these types of multiplexing differ? A. They use different wavelength spacings. B. They carry different numbers of channels on a single medium. C. They provide different amounts of signal amplification. D. None of the above. 147. Which of the following services enables computers on a private IPv4 network to access the Internet using a registered IP address? A. DHCP B. NAT C. DNS D. NTP 40 Chapter 1 Networking Fundamentals 148. Which of the following best defines the concept of the dual stack? A. A computer with two network interface adapters B. A computer with two installed operating systems C. A computer with two sets of networking protocols D. A computer with connections to two different network segments 149. Network Address Translation (NAT) operates at which layer of the Open Systems Inter- connection (OSI) model? A. Data link B. Network C. Transport D. Application 150. Which of the following is the most accurate description of the subnetting process on an IPv4 network? A. You extend the IP address by adding bits for a subnet identifier. B. You borrow bits from the network identifier to create a subnet identifier. C. You borrow bits from the host identifier to create a subnet identifier. D. You create a subnet identifier by borrowing half of the bits from the network identi- fier and half from the host identifier. 151. Which of the following IPv4 addresses are you unable to assign to a network host? (Choose all that apply.) A. 1.1.1.1 B. 229.6.87.3 C. 103.256.77.4 D. 9.34.0.1 152. How many bits are allocated to the host identifier in an IPv4 address on the 10.72.0.0/17 network? A. 8 B. 15 C. 16 D. 17 153. Which of the following are not valid IPv4 addresses in the private address space defined by RFC 1918? (Choose all that apply.) A. 10.16.225.1 B. 172:33:19:7 C. 192.168.254.77  Chapter 1 Networking Fundamentals 41 D. 10.255.255.255 E. 172.15.2.9 154. Alice has been instructed to create an IPv4 network with 8 subnets and 30 hosts per subnet. She has been assigned a Class C network address. Which of the following subnet masks will she have to use? A. 255.255.255.128 B. 255.255.255.192 C. 255.255.255.224 D. 255.255.255.240 E. 255.255.255.248 F. 255.255.255.252 155. Which of the following is the default subnet mask for an IPv4 Class A network? A. 255.0.0.0 B. 255.255.0.0 C. 255.255.255.0 D. 255.255.255.255 156. Which of the following is the range of IPv4 addresses that Automatic Private IP Address- ing (APIPA) assigns to DHCP clients that cannot access a DHCP server? A. 10.0.0.0 to 10.0.255.255 B. 169.254.0.0 to 169.254.255.255 C. 192.168.0.0 to 192.168.0.255 D. 224.0.0.0 to 224.0.255.255 157. In which IPv4 class is the address 127.0.0.1 found? A. Class A B. Class B C. Class C D. None of the above 158. Which of the following is a valid IPv6 address? A. fe00::b491:cf79:p493:23ff B. 2001:0:49e6:39ff:8cf5:6812:ef56 C. fe00::c955:c944:acdd:3fcb D. 2001:0:44ef68:23eb:99fe:72bec6:ea5f 42 Chapter 1 Networking Fundamentals 159. To which class does the following IPv4 address belong: 190.126.14.251? A. Class A B. Class B C. Class C D. Class D 160. Classless Inter-­Domain Routing (CIDR) is a standard for IPv4 addressing that includes the ability to create subnets using any number of IP address bits, rather than using 8-­bit blocks. Which of the following terms describes this ability? A. VLSM B. APIPA C. VLAN D. EUI-­64 161. Ralph has been instructed to use the network address 10.12.0.0/14 for the new network he is installing. What subnet mask value should he use when configuring his computers? A. 255.248.0.0 B. 255.252.0.0 C. 255.254.0.0 D. 255.255.248.0 E. 255.255.252.0 F. 255.255.254.0 162. Ed has been hired to design a company’s network. The company has an assigned Class C network address of 192.168.30.0. Ed’s client wants the network to be configured with 10 subnets, each with 14 hosts. Is this configuration possible with the given address, and if so, how many subnets and hosts can Ed create on the network? A. Yes, this will work. By using 4 subnet bits, it is possible for Ed to create up to 16 sub- nets. He can then use the remaining 4 host bits to create 14 hosts on each subnet. B. No, this will not work. A Class C address cannot be subnetted to create 8 subnets. C. No, this will not work. Although there are sufficient bits available to create 10 sub- nets, there are not enough bits left over for Ed to create 14 hosts per subnet. D. Yes, this will work. Ed can create 10 subnets with 14 hosts per subnet. By using 3 subnet bits, he can create 10 subnets, which leaves 5 bits to create up to 30 hosts per subnet. 163. What is the greatest number of subnets you can create with a Class A IPv4 address if you use a 14-­bit subnet identifier? A. 256 B. 1,022 C. 1,024  Chapter 1 Networking Fundamentals 43 D. 16,382 E. 16,384 164. Alice has been asked to design her company’s Internet Protocol (IPv4) addressing scheme. The company has been assigned a Class C network address of 192.168.30.0. Alice’s director wants 4 subnets with 28 hosts per subnet. How many bits are required for subnets? How many bits are required for hosts? What will the new subnet mask be for this network? A. 3 subnet bits, 5 host bits, and subnet mask 255.255.255.240 B. 4 subnet bits, 3 host bits, and subnet mask 255.255.255.248 C. 3 subnet bits, 5 host bits, and subnet mask 255.255.255.224 D. 5 subnet bits, 3 host bits, and subnet mask 255.255.255.192 165. A network interface adapter in a workstation has a hexadecimal MAC address of 001F9EFC7AD0. Which of the following would be the adapter’s IPv6 link local address based on its EUI-­64 value? A. FE80::001F:9EFF:FEFC:7AD0 B. FE80::FFFE:021F:9EFC:7AD0 C. FE80::FF00:1F9E:FC7A:D0FE D. FE80::021F:9EFF:FEFC:7AD0 166. The default mask for a IPv4 Class B network is 255.255.0.0. How many subnet bits do you need to create 600 subnets with 55 hosts per subnet, and what is the new subnet mask for the network? A. 10 subnet bits with a subnet mask of 255.255.255.192 B. 9 subnet bits with a subnet mask of 255.255.255.128 C. 10 subnet bits with a subnet mask of 255.255.224.0 D. 11 subnet bits with a subnet mask of 255.255.255.192 167. What is the greatest number of host addresses you can create on a single subnet of a net- work with the following address: 172.16.0.0/20? A. 142 B. 144 C. 4,094 D. 4,096 168. Ralph has an IPv4 Class B network with a subnet mask of 255.255.248.0. How many subnets can he create, and how many hosts can he create per subnet? A. 64 subnets and 2046 hosts B. 32 subnets and 2046 hosts C. 30 subnets and 1022 hosts D. 62 subnets and 1022 hosts 44 Chapter 1 Networking Fundamentals 169. Convert the binary mask 11111111.11111111.11100000.00000000 into its equivalent decimal value. What is the decimal representation of this mask? A. 255.255.224.0 B. 255.255.240.0 C. 255.255.248.0 D. 255.255.252.0 170. If you have an IPv4 network address of 192.168.1.32/27, what is the valid range of host addresses you can use for your workstations? A. 192.168.1.33 through 192.168.1.63 B. 192.168.1.33 through 192.168.1.62 C. 192.168.1.34 through 192.168.1.62 D. 192.168.1.34 through 192.168.1.63 171. Alice has been assigned the IPv4 network address 172.21.0.0/22 for the creation of a new department network in her company. How many host addresses does she have avail- able to her? A. 510 B. 512 C. 1022 D. 1024 172. Automatic Private IP Addressing (APIPA) assigns IPv4 addresses from which of the follow- ing classes to Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) clients that cannot contact a DHCP server? A. Class A B. Class B C. Class C D. Class D 173. Which of the following Internet Protocol (IPv4) address classes identifies multicast addresses? A. Class A B. Class B C. Class C D. Class D E. Class E 174. Which of the following is an address that you can assign to a host on a private IPv4 network? A. 192.167.9.46 B. 172.16.255.255  Chapter 1 Networking Fundamentals 45 C. 10.1.0.253 D. 225.87.34.1 175. Which of the following is the correct subnet mask for an IPv4 network with the address 172.16.0.0/20? A. 255.255.224.0 B. 255.255.240.0 C. 255.255.248.0 D. 255.255.255.224 E. 255.255.255.240 176. Ed has been assigned the IPv4 network address 192.168.2.32/28 for the computers in his department. Which of the following ranges of addresses can Ed use to configure the TCP/ IP clients on his computers? A. 192.168.2.32 to 192.168.2.55 B. 192.168.2.33 to 192.168.2.46 C. 192.168.2.33 to 192.168.2.40 D. 192.168.2.1 to 192.168.2.254 177. Which of the following IPv4 addresses is available for use on a network device? A. 1.0.0.1 B. 127.98.127.0 C. 234.9.76.32 D. 240.65.8.124 178. Which of the following IPv6 address types is the functional equivalent of an IPv4 APIPA address? A. Link local B. Global unicast C. Site local D. Anycast 179. When two workstations access the Internet using the same Port Address Translation (PAT) router, which of the following does the router assign to each workstation? (Choose all that apply.) A. A unique port number B. A common public IPv4 address C. A common port number D. A unique public IPv4 address 180. Which of the following is the IPv6 equivalent of Automatic Private IP Addressing (APIPA)? A. EUI-­64 B. SLAAC 46 Chapter 1 Networking Fundamentals C. APIPAv6 D. DHCPv6 181. Which of the following are mechanisms by which IPv6 traffic can be transmitted on an IPv4 network through the use of tunneling? (Choose all that apply.) A. Teredo B. IPsec C. ICMPv6 D. 6to4 182. Which of the following best describes why IPv6 hosts exchange ICMPv6 Router Solicita- tion and Router Advertisement messages with routers? A. To obtain the prefix needed to generate a link-­local address B. To learn the IPv6 address of the nearest router C. To perform address conflict detection for its link-­local address D. To encapsulate IPv4 packets and transmit them over the router 183. Which of the following are examples of Virtual IP (VIP) addresses? (Select all that apply.) A. An IP address assigned to a host workstation by a DHCP server B. A public IP address substituted for a host’s own private IP address by a NAT router C. An IP address assigned to a host workstation by APIPA D. An IP address assigned to a virtual NIC 184. Which of the following is the best definition of a subinterface? A. A logical network interface created from a physical network interface B. One of the ports on a physical network interface adapter with multiple ports C. A physical network interface connected to a subnet D. One of the IP addresses associated with a network interface that has multiple IP addresses 185. Which of the following pairs of well-­known ports are the default values you would use to configure a POP3 email client? A. 110 and 25 B. 143 and 25 C. 110 and 143 D. 80 and 110 E. 25 and 80 186. Which of the following server applications use two well-­known port numbers during a typical transaction? A. NTP B. SNMP C. HTTP D. FTP  Chapter 1 Networking Fundamentals 47 187. Which of the following protocols does the Ping utility use to exchange messages with another system? A. UDP B. TCP C. ICMP D. IGMP 188. Which of the following components does the port number in a transport layer protocol header identify? A. A transport layer protocol B. An application C. A gateway D. A proxy server 189. Which of the following organizations is responsible for assigning the well-­known port numbers used in transport layer protocol headers? A. Institute for Electronic and Electrical Engineers (IEEE) B. Internet Assigned Numbers Authority (IANA) C. Internet Engineering Task Force (IETF) D. International Organization for Standardization (ISO) 190. Which of the following is the default well-­known port number for the Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP) used for web client/server communications? A. 22 B. 20 C. 80 D. 443 191. The secured version of the Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTPS) uses a different well-­ known port from the unsecured version. Which of the following ports is used by HTTPS by default? A. 25 B. 80 C. 110 D. 443 192. What field in the Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) Option subheader specifies the size of the largest segment a system can receive? A. MSS B. Window C. MMS D. WinMS 48 Chapter 1 Networking Fundamentals 193. What is the term for the combination of an IPv4 address and a port number, as in the fol- lowing example: 192.168.1.3:23? A. Socket B. OUI C. Well-­known port D. Network address E. Domain 194. Which of the following protocols generate messages that are carried directly within Inter- net Protocol (IPv4) datagrams, with no intervening transport layer protocol? (Choose all that apply.) A. ICMP B. IGMP C. SMTP D. SNMP 195. Which of the following protocols is used to exchange directory service information? A. RDP B. LDAP C. SNMP D. SMB 196. Ralph is configuring a new email client on a workstation to use the Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) and Post Office Protocol (POP3) email protocols. He wants both proto- cols to use encryption when communicating with the email server. Which of the following port numbers should Ralph use to secure the SMTP connection with Transport Layer Security (TLS) and the POP3 connection with Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) encryption? (Choose all that apply.) A. 110 B. 25 C. 587 D. 993 E. 995 197. Which of the following is not a port number used for Structured Query Language (SQL) communications? A. 1433 B. 1521 C. 3306 D. 3389  Chapter 1 Networking Fundamentals 49 198. Which of the following port numbers is assigned to a Unix logging services program? A. 389 B. 514 C. 636 D. 993 199. Which of the following is the primary application layer protocol used by web browsers to communicate with web servers? A. HTTP B. HTML C. SMTP D. FTP 200. Which of the following protocols appears on the network as a service that client com- puters use to resolve names into IP addresses? A. DHCP B. BOOTP C. DNS D. SNMP 201. Which of the following protocols use(s) the term datagram to describe the data transfer unit it creates? (Choose all that apply.) A. Ethernet B. IP C. TCP D. UDP 202. What is the native file sharing protocol used on all Microsoft Windows operating systems? A. Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP) B. Network File System (NFS) C. File Transfer Protocol (FTP) D. Server Message Block (SMB) E. Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP) 203. When analyzing captured TCP/IP packets, which of the following control bits must you look for in the Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) header to determine whether the receiving host has successfully received the sending host’s data? A. ACK B. FIN 50 Chapter 1 Networking Fundamentals C. PSH D. SYN E. URG 204. Which of the following terms describes the Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) exchange that establishes a connection prior to the transmission of any data? A. Synchronization B. Initialization exchange C. Connection establishment D. Three-­way handshake 205. Alice has been instructed to install 100 Windows workstations, and she is working on automating the process by configuring the workstations to use PXE boots. Each worksta- tion therefore must obtain an IP address from a DHCP server and download a boot image file from a TFTP server. Which of the following well-­known ports must Alice open on the firewall separating the workstations from the servers? (Choose all that apply.) A. 65 B. 66 C. 67 D. 68 E. 69 206. Which of the following explanations best describes the function of a Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) or User Datagram Protocol (UDP) port number? A. The port number indicates to the receiver that the sender can activate a specific port only. B. The port number is used by both the sender and the receiver to identify the applica- tion that generated the information in the datagram. C. The port number is used only by the receiver, to indicate the application process running on the sender. D. The port number is used by both the sender and the receiver to negotiate a well-­ known server port for the communicating processes. 207. What is the valid range of numbers for the ephemeral client ports used by the Transmis- sion Control Protocol (TCP) and User Datagram Protocol (UDP)? A. 1023 through 65534 B. 1 through 1024 C. 49152 through 65535 D. 1024 to 49151  Chapter 1 Networking Fundamentals 51 208. Which of the following statements about the User Datagram Protocol (UDP) are true? (Choose all that apply.) A. UDP does not use packet sequencing and acknowledgments. B. UDP uses packet sequencing and acknowledgments. C. UDP is a connection-­oriented protocol. D. UDP is a connectionless protocol. E. UDP has an 8-­byte header. F. UDP has a 20-­byte header. 209. Which of the following port values are used by the File Transfer Protocol (FTP)? (Choose all that apply.) A. 21 B. 23 C. 20 D. 53 E. 69 210. Which of the following protocols provides connectionless delivery service at the transport layer of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model? A. TCP B. HTTP C. UDP D. ARP 211. What is the valid range of numbers for the well-­known Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) and User Datagram Protocol (UDP) ports used by servers? A. 1024 through 49151 B. 1 through 49151 C. 49152 through 65534 D. 1 through 1023 212. Ralph is a network administrator who has just installed a new open-­source email server for the users at his company. The server is configured to send and receive Internet email and create a mailbox for each user that will permanently store the user’s mail on the server. Ralph next uses a protocol analyzer to examine the network traffic resulting from the new server installation. Which of the following new protocols should Ralph expect to see in his network traffic analysis? (Choose all that apply.) A. SNMP B. SMTP C. POP3 52 Chapter 1 Networking Fundamentals D. IMAP E. RIP 213. Which of the following values could a web client use as an ephemeral port number when communicating with a web server? A. 1 B. 23 C. 80 D. 1024 E. 1999 F. 50134 214. Which of the following protocols provides connection-­oriented service with guaranteed delivery at the transport layer of the OSI model? A. TCP B. HTTP C. UDP D. IP 215. Which of the following protocols is limited to use on the local subnet only? A. Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) B. Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) C. Domain Name System (DNS) D. Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) 216. Which of the following prefixes must you use in the URL you type into a web browser when the website you want to access has been secured with Transport Layer Security (TLS)? A. TLS:// B. HTTPS:// C. HTTP:// D. HTLS:// 217. What is the difference when you specify the HTTPS:// prefix in a Uniform Resource Locator (URL) instead of HTTP://? (Choose all that apply.) A. The connection between the web browser and the server is encrypted. B. The browser uses a different port number to connect to the server. C. The connection uses SSL or TLS instead of HTTP. D. The browser uses a different IP address to connect to the server.  Chapter 1 Networking Fundamentals 53 218. You are a consultant installing a web server application for a client called Adatum. The domain name Adatum.com has been registered in the DNS, and the server has one public IP address, so the new website will be accessible to users on the Internet. You want to be able to access the web server application’s administrative site from your remote office, so you configure that site to be encrypted and to use the port number 12354 instead of the default. Which of the following URLs will you have to use to access the administrative website? A. http://www.adatum.com B. http://www.adatum.com:12354 C. https://www.adatum.com:80 D. https://www.adatum.com:12354 219. Which of the following protocols does IPsec use to digitally encrypt packets before trans- mitting them over the network? A. ESP B. SSL C. AH D. MSCHAP 220. Which of the following are the protocols that IPsec uses to secure network traffic? (Choose all that apply.) A. SSH B. AH C. ESP D. SSL 221. What is the primary shortcoming of the File Transfer Protocol (FTP) that is addressed by FTPS and SFTP? A. Lack of security B. Slow file transfers C. File size limitations D. Lack of authentication 222. Which of the following File Transfer Protocol (FTP) variants transmit authentication pass- words over the network in clear text? A. FTP B. FTPS C. SFTP D. TFTP 54 Chapter 1 Networking Fundamentals 223. Which of the following File Transfer Protocol (FTP) variants is typically used to download boot image files during Preboot Execution Environment (PXE) startup sequences? A. FTP B. FTPS C. SFTP D. TFTP 224. Which of the following protocols does IPsec use to digitally sign packets before transmit- ting them over the network? A. ESP B. SSL C. AH D. MSCHAP 225. Which of the following security protocols used to protect traffic exchanged by web browsers and servers was created first? A. SSL B. TLS C. SSH D. DTLS 226. Which of the following security protocols for web servers or browsers was deprecated in 2015 in favor of Transport Layer Security (TLS) and Datagram Transport Layer Security (DTLS)? A. SSH B. SSL C. RDP D. IPsec 227. In which of the following DNS transactions does the querying system generate a recursive query? (Choose all that apply.) A. A DNS client sends the server name www.adatum.com from a URL to its designated DNS server for resolution. B. A client’s DNS server sends a request to a root domain server to find the authoritative server for the com top-­level domain. C. A client’s DNS server sends a request to the com top-­level domain server to find the authoritative server for the adatum.com domain. D. A client’s DNS server, which has been configured to function as a forwarder, sends the server name www.adatum.com from a URL to its ISP’s DNS server for resolution. E. A client’s DNS server sends a request to the adatum.com domain server to find the IP address associated with the server name www.  Chapter 1 Networking Fundamentals 55 228. Which of the following devices would you most likely configure to function as a Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) server? A. A wireless router B. An unmanaged switch C. A hub D. A bridge 229. Which of the following protocols are responsible for assigning IP addresses to hosts? (Choose all that apply.) A. Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) B. Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) C. Domain Name System (DNS) D. File Transfer Protocol (FTP) E. Bootstrap Protocol (BOOTP) 230. Which of the following Domain Name System (DNS) resource records is used only for reverse name resolution? A. MX B. AAAA C. CNAME D. PTR 231. Which of the following features is supported by DHCP, but not by BOOTP and RARP? A. Dynamic address allocation B. Relay agents C. Manual address allocation D. Automatic address allocation 232. Which of the following message types are exchanged by Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) clients and servers during a successful IP address allocation transaction? (Choose all that apply.) A. DHCPDISCOVER B. DHCPOFFER C. DHCPINFORM D. DHCPACK E. DHCPREQUEST F. DHCPNAK G. DHCPRENEW H. DHCPRELEASE 56 Chapter 1 Networking Fundamentals 233. Which of the following message types are exchanged by Dynamic Host Configuration Pro- tocol (DHCP) clients and servers during a successful IP address lease renewal transaction? (Choose all that apply.) A. DHCPDISCOVER B. DHCPOFFER C. DHCPINFORM D. DHCPACK E. DHCPREQUEST F. DHCPNAK G. DHCPRENEW H. DHCPRELEASE 234. Which of the following is not a protocol used to allocate IP address assignments to clients on a network? A. ARP B. RARP C. BOOTP D. DHCP 235. Which of the following best describes what happens when a DNS server receives an itera- tive name resolution query? A. The DNS server responds immediately to the query with the best information it has in its resource records or in its cache, or failing that, with an error message stating that it could not resolve the requested name. B. The DNS server attempts to resolve the requested name by checking its own resource records and cache, or failing that, by issuing its own iterative queries to other DNS servers. C. The DNS server attempts to resolve the requested name by checking its own resource records and cache, or failing that, by forwarding the name resolution request to another DNS server in a recursive query. D. The DNS server responds immediately if it is the authoritative server for the domain in which the requested name is located. Otherwise, it returns an error message stating that it could not resolve the requested name. 236. What is the term used to refer to the DNS client mechanism that generates name resolu- tion queries and sends them to DNS servers? A. Requestor B. Forwarder C. Authority D. Resolver  Chapter 1 Networking Fundamentals 57 237. Which of the following TCP/IP parameters, configured on an end system, specifies the IP address of a device that performs domain name resolution services? A. WINS Server Addresses B. Default Gateway C. DNS Server Addresses D. Subnet Gateway 238. Which IP address allocation method is not supported by Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP)? A. Manual B. Dynamic C. Stable D. Automatic 239. On a Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) server, what is the name of the element you create to specify which IP addresses the server should assign to clients? A. Range B. Scope C. Pool D. Subnet 240. Why is it necessary to use a relay agent to enable a Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) server to assign IP addresses to clients on other networks? (Choose all that apply.) A. Because DHCP requires a separate license for each subnet. B. Because clients cannot initiate an address assignment by contacting DHCP servers on other networks directly. C. Because DHCP must use the Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) to communicate with clients. D. Because the DHCP address assignment process relies on broadcast transmissions. 241. Which of the following Domain Name System (DNS) resource records is used to resolve a hostname into an IPv6 address? A. MX B. PTR C. AAAA D. CNAME 242. Ralph has configured a server called NE6 to function as a web server. He does not want to change the server’s existing name, but he wants it to also be accessible to clients using the name www. What Domain Name System (DNS) modification can Ralph make to accom- plish this? A. Create an additional A resource record. B. Create a new CNAME resource record. 58 Chapter 1 Networking Fundamentals C. Modify the existing A resource record. D. Create a new PTR resource record. 243. Which of the following options should you configure on a Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) server to supply clients with a default gateway address? A. Router B. Time Server C. Name Server D. LPR Server 244. Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) clients rely on which of the follow- ing types of transmissions to locate and initiate contact with DHCP servers on the local network? A. Unicast B. Broadcast C. Multicast D. Anycast 245. Which of the following Domain Name System (DNS) resource record types specifies the IP addresses of the authoritative DNS servers for a particular zone? A. NS B. PTR C. MX D. SRV E. SOA F. TXT 246. Which of the following must you create on a DHCP server if you want it to always assign the same IP address to a particular computer? A. Exclusion B. Scope C. Reservation D. Relay 247. Which of the following DHCP address allocation methods enables the server to reclaim IP addresses when they are no longer in use by clients? A. Automatic B. Dynamic C. Manual D. Static  Chapter 1 Networking Fundamentals 59 248. Which of the following technologies enables the IP addresses assigned to clients by a Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) server to be automatically added to the DNS namespace? A. Reverse name resolution B. Dynamic DNS C. Automatic allocation D. HOSTS 249. Which of the following is a tool that integrates DHCP and DNS so that each is aware of the changes made by the other? A. HOSTS B. DHCPv6 C. IPAM D. APIPA 250. Which of the following is the term used to describe the logical distance of a Network Time Protocol (NTP) server from the time source to which it is synchronized? A. Layer B. Path C. Iteration D. Stratum 251. Which of the following protocols is used to synchronize computer clocks to a time signal provided by a server? A. TFTP B. HTTP C. SMTP D. NTP 252. Which of the words in the fully qualified domain name (FQDN) www.paris.mydomain.org represents the topmost layer in the DNS namespace hierarchy? A. www B. paris C. mydomain D. org 253. Which of the following Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) options prevents the client from transmitting IP datagrams that circulate endlessly around the network? A. Interface MTU B. Default IP TTL C. ARP cache timeout D. TCP keepalive interval 60 Chapter 1 Networking Fundamentals 254. In designing a network for a client, Ed has decided to use both internal and external DNS servers. Which of the following resources should Ed register with the external DNS server? (Choose all that apply.) A. Company database servers B. Internet web servers C. Incoming email servers D. Domain controllers 255. Ralph is concerned that the IP address scope of available leases on his DHCP server is nearly exhausted. What happens to DHCP clients when there are no IP addresses left in the scope for assignment? A. Clients are assigned a 0.0.0.0 address. B. Clients self-­assign APIPA addresses. C. Client DHCP requests are forwarded to another DHCP server. D. Clients are forced to share IP addresses. 256. Alice is the administrator of a subnet for which she has been allotted 100 IP addresses. She has installed a DHCP server with a scope containing all 100 available addresses for lease. There are currently 99 clients configured to use the DHCP server, many of which are mobile devices, and Alice fears that systems frequently leaving and rejoining the network might cause the scope of available leases to be exhausted. Which of the following adjust- ments can help to prevent this from happening? A. Increase the lease time for the scope. B. Decrease the lease time for the scope. C. Install a second DHCP server. D. Create a second scope for the subnet. 257. DHCP clients use broadcast messages to contact a DHCP server on the local subnet. Which of the following are mechanisms by which DHCP broadcast messages can be forwarded to a DHCP server on another subnet when there is none on the local subnet? (Choose all that apply.) A. DHCP relay B. UDP forwarding C. Zone transfer D. IP helper 258. Which of the following mechanisms enables administrators to maintain current DNS database information on multiple name servers, for fault tolerance and load balancing purposes? A. Multi-­master replication B. UDP forwarding C. Iterative query D. Zone transfer  Chapter 1 Networking Fundamentals 61 259. Which of the following Storage Area Network (SAN) protocols are capable of sharing a network medium with standard Local Area Network (LAN) traffic? (Choose all that apply.) A. iSCSI B. Fibre Channel C. FCoE D. InfiniBand 260. Which of the following protocols is not used for Storage Area Networks (SANs)? A. iSCSI B. FCoE C. VoIP D. Fibre Channel 261. Which of the following technologies do iSCSI initiators use to locate iSCSI targets on the network? A. Active Directory B. ICMP C. DNS D. iWINS E. iSNS 262. What is the highest possible data transfer rate on a Storage Area Network (SAN) using Fibre Channel? A. 8 Gbps B. 16 Gbps C. 32 Gbps D. 128 Gbps E. 256 Gbps 263. In its primary functionality, a network attached storage (NAS) device is most closely asso- ciated with which of the following devices? A. Failover cluster B. File server C. JBOD D. RAID 264. Which of the following statements about the differences between Network Attached Storage (NAS) and Storage Area Networks (SANs) are true? (Choose all that apply.) A. NAS provides file-­level storage access, whereas SAN provides block-­level storage access. B. NAS devices typically contain integrated iSCSI targets. 62 Chapter 1 Networking Fundamentals C. SAN devices have an operating system, whereas NAS devices do not. D. NAS devices typically provide a filesystem, whereas SAN devices do not. 265. Which of the following statements specify advantages of FCoE over the original Fibre Channel standard? (Choose all that apply.) A. FCoE is less expensive to implement than Fibre Channel. B. FCoE can share a network with standard IP traffic, whereas Fibre Channel cannot. C. FCoE is routable over IP networks, whereas Fibre Channel is not. D. FCoE uses standard Ethernet networking hardware. 266. Which of the following are application layer protocols that Network Attached Storage (NAS) devices can use to serve shared files to clients on the network? (Choose all that apply.) A. CIFS B. NFS C. RDMA D. HTTP 267. Which of the following is not one of the advantages of iSCSI over Fibre Channel? (Choose all that apply.) A. iSCSI is routable, whereas Fibre Channel is not. B. iSCSI is less expensive to implement than Fibre Channel. C. iSCSI includes its own internal flow control mechanism, whereas Fibre Channel does not. D. iSCSI can share the same network as standard local area network traffic, whereas Fibre Channel cannot. 268. Which of the following Storage Area Network (SAN) technologies is primarily used by supercomputers as a high-­speed, low-­latency connection between Central Processing Units (CPUs) and storage systems? A. InfiniBand B. Fibre Channel C. iSCSI D. FCoE 269. Which of the following is the term for the client that accesses an iSCSI device on a storage area network? A. Initiator B. Target C. Controller D. Adapter  Chapter 1 Networking Fundamentals 63 270. Which of the following protocols are included in an iSCSI packet? (Choose all that apply.) A. Ethernet B. IP C. TCP D. UDP E. None of the above 271. Which of the following protocols are included in a Fibre Channel packet? A. Ethernet B. IP C. TCP D. UDP E. None of the above 272. Which of the following protocol standards defines a layered implementation that does not correspond to the layers of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model? A. iSCSI B. Fibre Channel C. PPP D. RDMA 273. Which of the following protocols are included in an FCoE packet? A. Ethernet B. IP C. TCP D. UDP E. None of the above 274. Which of the following protocols uses jumbo frames to increase performance levels on storage area networks? A. Ethernet B. IP C. Fibre Channel D. iSCSI 275. Which of the following is not the name of one of the layers in the three-­tier datacenter architecture? A. Core B. Intermediate C. Distribution D. Access 64 Chapter 1 Networking Fundamentals 276. Which of the following is not a reason why the leaf and spine datacenter topology is superior to the standard three-­tier topology? A. The leaf and spine arrangement uses a full mesh switching topology. B. In a leaf and spine topology, all data flows require the same number of hops. C. The leaf and spine topology is less expensive to implement than the three-­tier topology. D. The leaf and spine topology uses software-­defined networking to direct traffic, rather than blocking ports using the spanning tree protocol. 277. Which of the following best describes the difference between east-­west and north-­south traffic in a datacenter? A. East-­west describes traffic between devices at the same layer of the OSI model, while north-­south describes traffic between OSI model layers. B. East-­west is switch-­to-­switch traffic, while north-­south is switch-­to-­router traffic. C. East-­west traffic stays within the datacenter, while north-­south traffic does not.