BIOL1X07 Revision Quiz Questions 2021 PDF

lOMoARcPSD|38330785 BIOL1X07 Revision Quiz Questions 2021 From Molecules to Ecosystems (University of Sydney) Scan to open on Studocu Studocu is not sponsored or endorsed by any college or university Downloaded by aria (zhengjiahui20030825@outlook....

lOMoARcPSD|38330785 BIOL1X07 Revision Quiz Questions 2021 From Molecules to Ecosystems (University of Sydney) Scan to open on Studocu Studocu is not sponsored or endorsed by any college or university Downloaded by aria ([email protected])  lOMoARcPSD|38330785 BIOL1X07 Stuvac Revision Questions (From Kahoot!) These are multiple choice questions written by BIOL1X07 students, for BIOL1X07 students! All your submitted questions were anonymously sent to their respective module lecturer for approval. Here is the final list for you to use as a revision resource. Answers to each question can be found at the end of this file so you can test yourself. Q# Module 1: Information Transfer Lecturer: Professor Jacqueline Matthews 1 What direction does RNA polymerase synthesise RNA? A. 3' to 5' B. N to C C. 5' to 3' D. C to N 2 What is the function of DNA helicase? A. Perform the replication of DNA B. Unwind part of the DNA C. Cut DNA at certain areas D. Set a piece for replication to occur in the lagging strand 3 Which one of the following statements are true? A. RNA forms B-type structures B. New strands of DNA are copied 3' to 5' C. tRNA combines with proteins to form the machinery for protein synthesis D. mRNA contains template for protein synthesis 4 What is the role of DNA topoisomerase in DNA replication? A. Unwinds a segment of DNA during initiation B. Prevents supercoiling of DNA C. Joins Okazaki fragments on the lagging strand D. Prevents small segments of lagging strand from degrading or base-pairing 5 Where is the site of transcription? A. Ribosome B. Nucleus C. Cytoplasm D. Mitochondria 6 If you had a genetic code where there were 2 genetic bases rather than 4, how long would the codons have to be coded for all 20 amino acids? A. 2 B. 5 C. 3 D. 4 7 Which of the following are characteristic of a bacterial genome? A. large genomes (~10Mb - 150GB) B. circular chromosomes C. chromosomes condensed into chromatin D. about 6 billion base pairs 8 According to the Central Dogma of molecular biology, which of the following forms of synthesis is NOT possible: A. DNA to RNA 1 Downloaded by aria ([email protected])  lOMoARcPSD|38330785 B. RNA to DNA C. Protein to RNA D. RNA to Protein 9 Which of the following best describes epigenetics? A. Mutation of the DNA to achieve different gene expression B. A widespread gene epidemic C. Chemical modifications that alter the way a DNA sequence is read D. The set of all RNA molecules in one cell 10 Which proteins are involved in RNA transcription? A. RNA polymerase B. Primase C. Topoisomerase D. Ligase 11 Which enzyme is responsible for replacing RNA primers with DNA on the lagging strand during DNA replication? A. DNA Gyrase B. Primase of DNA topoisomerase C. DNA Ligase D. DNA Polymerase I 12 Based on the central dogma of molecular biology, genetic material cannot undergo: A. Translation B. Transcription C. Reverse translation D. Reverse transcription 13 Which one is a nucleobase that can only be found in RNA ? A. Guanine B. Uracil C. Cytosine D. Thymine 14 When comparing the melting temperatures of two pieces of DNA why would one DNA have a higher melting temperature than the other? A. The DNA has more A/T base pairing that can form 2 hydrogen bonds between nucleobases B. There is no difference in melting temperature because the amount of purines and pyrimidines in DNA are the same (50:50) C. The DNA has more G/C base pairing that can form 3 hydrogen bonds between nucleobases D. None of the above as all nucleobases form the same amount of hydrogen bonds 15 What type of single point mutation would never impact protein structure? A. Missense B. Silent C. Nonsense D. Duplication 16 What wavelength do proteins usually absorb most strongly? A. 260nm B. 230nm C. 280nm D. 240nm 17 During DNA replication, which enzyme is responsible for preventing DNA supercoiling after the double stranded helix is unwound? A. DNA polymerase B. DNA ligase C. Topoisomerase 2 Downloaded by aria ([email protected])  lOMoARcPSD|38330785 D. Helicase 18 Which dsDNA is would be the most stable? A) ATATATATATAT TATATATATATA B) CGCGCGCGCGCG GCGCGCGCGCGC C) AUAUAUAUAUA UAUAUAUAUAU D) CUCUCUCUCUC GAGAGAGAGA 19 Which best describes the quaternary structure of a protein? A. The Protein is arranged into alpha helices or beta sheets B. A structure made up of multiple protein subunits, such as those found in haemoglobin C. The protein is a single chain of amino acids D. A single folded structure determined by hydrogen bonding, ionic, electrostatic or polar attraction 20 The most common elements are: A. Carbon, Hydrogen, Nitrogen, Oxygen, Phosphorus and Sulfur B. Carbon, Helium, Nitrogen, Oxygen, Phosphorus and Sulfur C. Carbon, Hydrogen, Nitrogen, Oxygen, Boron and Sulfur D. Carbon, Hydrogen, Oxygen, Phosphorus and Sulfur 21 Which of the following correctly describes the process of anabolism? A) Large molecules break down into smaller ones B) Small molecules assemble into large ones C) Removing an electron from an atom in a compound D) Addition of an electron to a compound Q# Module 2: Energy Systems & Cells Lecturer: Associate Professor Charles Warren 22 Which statement is true for CAM photosynthesis? A) Spatial separation occurs; it involves both mesophyll cells and bundle sheath cells. B) Photorespiration increases due to oxygenation by Rubisco. C) Temporal separation occurs; stomata open at night and stays closed during the day. D) Lower water-use efficiency due to an increase in photorespiration. 23 In Krebs cycle, a six carbon compound is formed by the combination of the acetyl group from Acetyl CoA with A) Citric acid B) malic acid C) oxaloacetic acid D) succinic acid 24 Where does glycolysis occur? A. Mitochondrial matrix B. Cytosol C. Intermembrane space D. Cristae of the mitochondria 25 Which of the following is true regarding photosynthesis? A. C4 photosynthesis is more water-efficient than CAM photosynthesis B. The Calvin cycle takes place on thylakoid membranes of chloroplasts C. Chloroplasts contain extrachromosomal DNA D. Cyclic photophosphorylation produces both ATP and NADPH 26 Which type of photosynthesis is the most water-efficient? A) C2 photosynthesis 3 Downloaded by aria ([email protected])  lOMoARcPSD|38330785 B) C3 photosynthesis C) C4 photosynthesis D) CAM photosynthesis 27 Which of the following does NOT demonstrate the amazing metabolic flexibility and adaptability of plant respiration? A. Using Alternative Oxidase (AOX) to downregulate ATP production B. Using Rubisco as the primary enzyme to regulate cellular respiration and generate energy C. Using CAM Photosynthesis in dry habitats to limit the rate of transpiration of plant D. Using uncoupling protein (UCP) to allow hydrogen ions to diffuse back into the inner membrane to limit ATP synthesis 28 What is the primary purpose of Alternative oxidase and the uncoupling protein? A) To stabilise the internal temperature of the plant despite external temperature changes B) To produce more ATP C) To prevent possible damage to the electron transport chain D) To prevent photorespiration from occurring 29 How many photosystems are involved in non-cyclic phosphorylation? A) 0 B) 1 C) 2 D) 6 30 Why is Rubisco's oxygenase activity problematic? A) It prevents carboxylation from occurring effectively within the Calvin cycle. B) Oxygenation produces a waste product which is unable to enter the Calvin cycle and is energetically expensive to deal with. C) Oxygenation produces excess pyruvate which interferes with the Krebs cycle in cellular respiration. D) When Rubisco fixes oxygen, excess water is lost via the stomata through transpiration, reducing water-use efficiency in plants 31 What is the difference between C3 and C4 Photosynthesis? A) C3 gather sunlight during the day and opens stomata at night to reduce water loss, while C4 makes intermediate four-carbon compound that splits into three carbon compound for Calvin cycle. B) C3 produce a three carbon compound via Calvin Cycle, while C4 makes intermediate four-carbon compound that splits into three carbon compound for Krebs Cycle. C) C3 produce a three carbon compound via Calvin Cycle while C4 makes intermediate four-carbon compound that splits into three carbon compound for Calvin Cycle. D) C3 produce a three carbon compound via Calvin Cycle while C4 gather sunlight during the day and opens stomata at night due to lower temperature and higher humidity this production is water efficient. 32 What metabolic pathways do autotrophs and heterotrophs both share? A. Calvin cycle and Glycolysis B. Light dependant reaction and oxidative phosphorylation C. Electron transport chain and Calvin cycle D. Glycolysis and oxidative phosphorylation 33 What is one difference between the light dependent and light independent reaction in photosynthesis? A. light dependent reaction produces oxygen and light independent reaction produces glucose B. light dependent reaction produces glucose and light independent reaction produces oxygen C. light dependent reaction produces water and light independent reaction produces glucose D. light dependent reaction produces oxygen and light independent reaction produces water 34 What is the major evolutionary event that maximized light capture by plants? A. The endocytosis of chloroplasts 4 Downloaded by aria ([email protected])  lOMoARcPSD|38330785 B. Using sunlight to make both ATP and NADPH C. The stacked thylakoids D. The electro-chemical potential gradient between the stroma and the lumen in the chloroplast 35 What happens to pyruvate before it enters the Krebs Cycle? A) It removes electrons and puts them into NADH B) It forms citric acid C) It loses a carbon and becomes an acetyl group carried by co-enzyme A (CoA) D) It generates small amounts of ATP 36 What is the first process in cellular respiration? A) Krebs cycle B) Electron transport chain C) Carboxylation D) Glycolysis 37 What is the first step in the process of cellular respiration? A) the krebs cycle B) glycolysis C) oxidative phosphorylation D) the electron transport chain 38 What is the first organisms to master noncyclic photophosphorylation that led to the Great Oxidation Event? A. Bacteria that live in O2 B. Cyanobacteria C. Bacteria that live in CO2 D. Chlorophyll 39 What aspect of the electron transport chain drives the production of ATP? A) The high pH in the intermembrane space B) The proton gradient C) The Krebs Cycle occurring in the intermembrane space D) The high proton concentration in the matrix 40 Which of the following statements about the photolysis of water in photophosphorylation is incorrect? A. The photolysis of water produces hydrogen ions, oxygen and electrons. B. The photolysis of water occurs at photosystem II. C. The photolysis of water occurs in non-cyclic photophosphorylation, but not in cyclic photophosphorylation. D. The main role of the photolysis of water is to produce hydrogen ions to form a proton gradient. 41 Which process in non-cyclic phosphorylation is responsible for replacing the electron that was lost in photosystem II? A) The absorption of light in photosystem II B) The absorption of light in photosystem I C) The splitting of water by photosystem II D) The production of NADPH by photosystem I 42 How many times does the Calvin cycle have to 'turn' to create 1 molecule of glucose? A. 3 B. 2 C. 1 D. 6 43 In regard to photosynthesis, which of the following is TRUE? A. Protons are pumped out of the lumen during the light reactions B. In C4 plants, the Calvin Cycle happens within the Bundle Sheath Cells C. The oxygen we breathe is produced in the Calvin Cycle 5 Downloaded by aria ([email protected])  lOMoARcPSD|38330785 D. The light reactions occur in the Stroma 44 Which process in non-cyclic phosphorylation is responsible for replacing the electron that was lost in photosystem II? A) The absorption of light in photosystem II B) The absorption of light in photosystem I C) The splitting of water by photosystem II D) The production of NADPH by photosystem I 45 Which process below does NOT generate ATP? A) glycolysis B) electron transport chain C) krebs cycle D) none of the above 46 Which of the following is FALSE regarding the Krebs cycle? A. Its role is to transfer electrons to NAD+ and FAD B. It is not always a complete cycle C. Its main purpose is to produce energy via phosphorylation of ADP into ATP D. The formation of each acetyl Co-A involves the release of one molecule of CO2 47 Which of these is not a product of glycolysis: A. Pyruvate B. H+ C. Acetyl CoA D. Pyruvate 48 Which of the following is an incorrect statement about electron carriers? A. NAD+ and NADH are typically used to extract energy from sugars during catabolism B. FAD and FADH2 are typically used to extract energy from sugars during anabolism C. NAD+ is an oxidising agent D. NADP+ and NADPH are typically used in anabolic reactions 49 Which of the following are not a product of the light reactions? A. oxygen B. ATP C. water D. NADHP 50 What are the end products for non-cyclic photo phosphorylation? A) ATP only B) ATP and oxygen C) ATP and reduced NADP (i.e. NADPH) – oxygen is also an answer D) ATP and water 51 Which of the following statements is incorrect about Rubisco? A) rubisco catalyses the fixation of carbon dioxide B) it is found in the chloroplast stroma C) when rubisco evolved there was oxygen in the atmosphere D) rubisco catalyses the fixation of oxygen 52 What are the three stages of the carbon-cycle? A. carboxylation, reduction, regeneration B. oxidation, reduction, regeneration C. carboxylation, respiration, reduction D. oxidation, reduction, photorespiration Lecturer: Dr Murray Thomson 53 Which of the following correctly describes microfilaments? A) microfilaments are made of various proteins which mesh all the way throughout the cell 6 Downloaded by aria ([email protected])  lOMoARcPSD|38330785 B) microfilaments are made of actin and are located around the cell under the plasma membrane C) microfilaments are made of tubulin and radiate like spokes on a wheel from organisation centres D) are made of alpha and beta subunits which form dimers in a staggered fashion to give the cell strength 54 What type of muscle is found in the small intestine? A. Epithelial muscles B. Skeletal muscles C. Smooth muscles D. Cardiac muscles 55 Which one of the following is not a function of lipids? A. signalling molecules B. bacterial cell wall constituent C. waterproofing D. energy stores 56 What process does a cell use to a cell self- destruct when it is too damaged to repair? A. Phagocytosis B. Pinocytosis C. Exocytosis D. Apoptosis 57 Amino acids are absorbed in the lining of the gut, which are then used to build proteins. Protein synthesis is an example of __________. A. Anabolism B. catabolism C. Respiration D. Steroidogenesis 58 Catabolism results in: A. energy being used B. energy being released C. the formation of ADP D. smaller molecules forming larger molecules 59 Excess energy from dietary glucose is stored in: A. the liver B. in adipose tissue s C. skeletal muscle D. in the liver and adipose tissue 60 Which of the following is an example of a heterotroph in the carbon cycle? A) Methanogens B) Methanotrophs C) Algae D) Phytoplankton 61 Which of the following terms is NOT used to describe an epithelial tissue type? A) stratified B) gram positive C) pseudo stratified D) columnar simple 62 What is the non-living component of the connective tissue called? A. Blood B. Extracellular matrix C. Bone D. Cartilage 63 Identify the distinctive genetic characteristic of eukaryotes compared to bacteria. 7 Downloaded by aria ([email protected])  lOMoARcPSD|38330785 A. Double stranded DNA B. Small chromosomes C. Linear D. Circular 64 In an experiment you place some red blood cells into a salt solution. After 2 hours, you inspect the cells under the microscope and you notice it and the cells appear larger than previously They are rounder and the characteristic dimples are not there. What can we conclude about the nature of the saline solution the red blood cells were placed into? A. The solution is isotonic to the red blood cells B. The solution is hypertonic to the red blood cells C. The solution is hypotonic to the red blood cells D. The solution also contains phosphate pH buffering salts 65 Which organelle is responsible for synthesising polypeptide? A. Golgi apparatus B. mitochondrion C. ribosome D. nucleus 66 Which of the following tissues are voluntary? A. Skeletal Muscle B. Cardiac Muscle C. Smooth Muscle D. Adipose muscle 67 What are the 3 components of the cytoskeleton? A. Cholesterol, phospholipids, carbohydrates B. Protein, carbohydrates, lipids C. Microfilaments, microtubules and intermediate filaments D. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum, rough endoplasmic reticulum and golgi apparatus (golgi complex) 68 What are the 4 most common elements that make up life on Earth? A. silicon, carbon, hydrogen, oxygen B. carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, nitrogen C. carbon, hydrogen, nitrogen, sulfur D. hydrogen, nitrogen, carbon, phosphorous 69 Which muscle tissue cell is multi nucleated? A. Cardiac B. Skeletal C. Smooth D. All of the above 70 What are the 4 types of tissue in animals? A. Connective, cardiac, dermal, vascular B. Nervous, connective, epithelial, muscle C. Nervous, ground, connective, epithelial D. Dermal, vascular, ground, connective 71 Which of the following is NOT a major biological function of mitochondria? A. Form ATP B. Production of steroid hormones C. Remove cell waste D. Apoptosis 72 Which of the following describes the cytoskeletal element which is attached to an organising centre? A. Intermediate filaments B. Microfilaments 8 Downloaded by aria ([email protected])  lOMoARcPSD|38330785 C. Microtubules D. Motor proteins 73 Which one of the following contains 4 terms used to describe epithelial tissue? A. Cuboidal, columnar, pseudostratified, dense B. Linear, pseudostratified, columnar, squamous C. Squamous, cuboidal, columnar, pseudostratified D. Adipose, dermal, columnar, cuboidal Q# Module 3: Global Health Lecturer: Professor Dee Carter 74 Why is E. coli sometimes used as a host cell instead of yeast? I. Fastest growth II. easy to extract III. better for expressing eukaryote genes IV. are recognised as safe A. I, II only B. I, II, and III C. I, III and IV D. I, II, III and IV 75 Which of the following statement is correct regarding Agar Plates? A. Mannitol Salt Agar is Differential and Enriched. B. Nutrient Agar is Differential and Selective. C. Blood Agar is Differential and Enriched. D. All of them are correct 76 Which bacteria can grow well in cold temperatures? A. Salmonella B. Bacillus cereus C. Listeria D. E.coli 77 Which group of organisms accounts for the greatest proportion of global diversity? A) plants B) fungi C) protists D) bacteria 78 You are given a dilution plate of a soil sample. The original soil mass was 1.5g, and the volume of loading buffer used was 15mL. You have counted 76 colony forming units in the dilution plate. You know your plate has a dilution of 10^-4, and the dilution volume was 100μL. What is the total number of colony forming units in the original soil suspension? A. 1.14 x 108 B. 7.60 x 107 C. 760 D. 7.60 x 106 79 What were the contributions Howard Florey and Ernst Chain made to penicillin? A) Discovered penicillin from a petri dish. One of the dishes had a mould on it where it secreted an antibacterial substance where bacterial colonies were dead around the mould. B) Purified Penicillin and found it could cure mice of bacterial infection. C) Discovered that the mould that secreted penicillin was Penicillium notatum. D) Made penicillin into a pill. 80 Which of the following is not a microbial heterotroph? A) Methanotrophs 9 Downloaded by aria ([email protected])  lOMoARcPSD|38330785 B) hydrocarbon degraders C) decomposers D) Methanogens 81 Which state of bacterial colonisation is considered best for the gut microbiome? A) High bacteroidetes & high firmicutes B) Low bacteroidetes & high firmicutes C) High bacteroidetes & low firmictues D) Low bacteroidetes & low firmicutes 82 Which of the following is not a feature of all prokaryotic cells? A. Absence of membrane-bound organelles B. Asexual Reproduction C. DNA organised in multiple chromosomes D. Presence of cell wall 83 Which of the following enzymes is used to join pieces of DNA onto the plasmid? A) Restriction Enzyme B) T4 Ligase C) Thermostable Polymerase D) Adenosine Triphosphate 84 What is a plasmid? A) A constituent of blood B) Circular DNA elements found in microbes C) A single celled organism D) Recombinant DNA 85 What is NOT a method of direct transmission of disease? A. Handshake B. Contact with other's bodily fluids C. Sexual intercourse D. Borrowing a book from infected person 86 Which of the following statements is false? A. Ingested microbes can grow in the gut of the animal that ingested the microbe B. All pathogens and their toxins can be killed by heat C. More people die from not eating enough fruit and vegetables than from food poisoning D. Children from Africa have more bacteriodetes than children from Europe 87 Who is the person that first used a plate to isolate colonies of bacteria to determine the cause of disease? A) Alexander Fleming B) Pasteur C) Robert Hooke D) Robert Koch 88 We know that microbes affect every stage of our food production. Which of the following statements regarding food production is correct? A. Sigatoka complex is a slow evolving resistance bacteria. B. Animal pathogens cause global food losses of about 20%. C. Foot-and-Mouth Disease (FMD) will not cause animals to die. D. Crop pathogens cause global good loss of about 10% only. 89 Which group of microbes are useful for cleaning up oil spills? A. Methanogens - they remove hydrocarbons like methane from the environment B. Photoautotrophic microbes - they use light to remove hydrocarbons like CO2 from the environment C. Protists - possess enzymes like methane monooxygenase to break down hydrocarbons D. Methanotrophs - they remove hydrocarbons and are used in bioremediation 10 Downloaded by aria ([email protected])  lOMoARcPSD|38330785 90 What are the 2 most common bacterial phyla found in the human gut? (Bonus fact: 1 is usually associated with good gut health, while the other is usually associated with poor gut health) A) Firmicutes and Actinobacteria B) Bacteroidetes and Firmicutes C) Actinobacteria and Proteobacteria D) Proteobacteria and Firmicutes 91 To determine whether an organism is the cause of a disease, Robert Koch developed 4 characteristics known as 'Koch's postulates.' Which is NOT one of Koch's postulates? A) The organism is found in all cases of the disease examined. B) When the organism is isolated from the host with the disease, it is able to be grown again in a pure culture. C) The organism is capable of producing the same disease in the healthy, susceptible animal. D) The organism will vary and mutate from individual to individual. 92 We need to consider animals and the environment when managing human diseases. That includes the health of ecosystems, animals and humans. What term encapsulates this principle in medical microbiology? A- The one health concept. B- The unifying principle. C- The healthy triad. D- Humans first closely followed by plants and animals. 93 Heike loves growing her own organic vegetables but for some reason this year her tomato plant just won't seem to grow as it should be. The weather has been great, not too hot, lots of nice long sunny days and all of her plants get plenty of water. Even the soil looks good in this new spot in her garden where she decided to plant it. So Heike consults her friend Dee who is a microbiologist and a keen gardener for advice. Dee takes a sample of the soil that Heike's tomato plant was growing poorly in back to her lab and finds out why despite all of Heike's efforts the tomato plant just isn't growing as well as it could be. What would be the most likely reason that Dee finds for Heike's Tomato plant to not be thriving in this new spot in her garden? A- The soil is deficient in Mycorrhizal fungi. B- The soil is lacking Rhizobium bacteria. C- The soil has been given too much fertiliser and it killed all of the micro-organisms. D- The soil was too wet and all of the micro-organisms drowned. 94 Which type of agar is both selective and differential. A) Nutrient Agar B) Blood Agar C) Yeast Mannitol Agar D) Mannitol Salt Agar 95 Approximately what percentage of human diseases originate from animals? A. 20% B. 40% C. 60% D. 80% 96 Are these statements correct? I) Leeuwenhoek’s discovery of "wee animalcules" on skin scrapings is considered the first ever recording of bacteria II) A major flaw in Pasteur’s 1861 experiment was that the swan neck stopped microbes from entering the flask A) Both I and II are correct 11 Downloaded by aria ([email protected])  lOMoARcPSD|38330785 B) I is correct, II is incorrect C) I is incorrect, II is correct D) Both I and II are incorrect 97 Clear zones in the media around colonies can be seen on a Blood Agar plate. What species is likely present on this plate? A) Streptococcus pyogenes B) Fusarium spp. C) Streptococcus pneumoniae D) Rhizopus spp. 98 If I want to express eukaryotic DNA for a biotechnological purpose (for example - I want to produce human insulin) which microorganism is most appropriate to use for overexpression of the insulin producing gene: A. Virus B. Bacteria C. Yeast D. Mould 99 Which of the major microorganisms is responsible for producing T4 ligase? A) Fungi - T4 yeast B) Virus - T4 bacteriophage C) Bacteria - T4 bacteriophage D) Protist - T4 amoeba 100 Which microbe is used to make thermostable polymerase enzymes for making DNA in biotechnology? A) Archaea B) Bacteria C) Fungi D) Viruses 101 Which of the following type of microbes produce methane and consume carbon dioxide? A) Methanotrophs B) Phototrophs C) Methanogens D) Protists 102 What characteristics of Staphylococcus aureus can assist you to distinguish from Staphylococcus epidermidis? A. Incomplete haemolysis B. Complete haemolysis C. Fermentation of mannitol in MSA plate D. Fluorescence under UV light 103 Bacteria such as E.coli, and yeast such as Saccharomyces are used as host cells in biotechnology. Which of the following is a true statement? A. Bacteria have fast growth, and are NOT easy to add/extract plasmid DNA from B. Bacteria have slow growth, and are easy to add/extract plasmid DNA from C. Yeasts are better for cloning eukaryotic genes, and are generally recognised as safe (GRAS) D. Yeasts are better for cloning eukaryotic genes, and are NOT generally recognised as safe (GRAS) 104 Which of the following statement is correct regarding Agar Plates? A. Mannitol Salt Agar is Differential and Enriched. B. Nutrient Agar is Differential and Selective. C. Blood Agar is Differential and Enriched. D. All of them are correct. 105 Which of the following indicates the complete breakdown of red blood cells? A) Gamma-haemolysis 12 Downloaded by aria ([email protected])  lOMoARcPSD|38330785 B) Alpha-haemolysis C) Beta-haemolysis D) Mitosis 106 Which disease was eliminated globally by a vaccine? A) COVID-19 B) Influenza C) Smallpox D) Whooping Cough Q# Module 4: Ecosystems Lecturer: Professor Christopher Dickman 107 Human activity on Earth has led to a number of changes in species composition. Which of the following statements is NOT correct? A) Industrialisation has led to an increase in toxic inputs, posing great threats to the environment and ecosystems. B) Bioaccumulation of heavy metals mostly affects secondary consumers in the food chain. C) Teratogens are substances that cause physical or functional abnormalities in organisms. D) Biological interactions within ecosystems can delay the recovery from the impacts oil spills. 108 A plant species releases spiky seeds that cling to the fur of animals, the plant relies on this for seed dispersal and reproduction; the animal is unaffected. This is an example of what type of ecological interaction? A. Mutualism B. Commensalism C. Competition D. No interaction 109 Which of the following is NOT a model of ecological succession? A. pioneering B. inhibition C. facilitation D. tolerance 110 Which interaction does NOT benefit any organism involved? A. Predation B. Competition C. Mutualism D. Commensalism 111 In a food pyramid consisting only of primary producers, primary consumers and secondary consumers, how much energy (Kilo Calories) would we expect to be in the secondary consumer trophic level (trophic level 3) if 200,000 Kcal is produced by the primary producers? A) 20,000 B) 2000 C) 200 D) 20 112 In an experiment, the release of dingoes into an enclosed area saw the reduction of fox numbers due to dingo predation. A later survey in the area found an increased abundance of rock wallabies, that were not preyed upon by dingoes. What form of ecological interaction best describes that between the dingo and rock wallaby in this setting. A) parasitism B) competition C) commensalism D) reduction of extinction debt 13 Downloaded by aria ([email protected])  lOMoARcPSD|38330785 113 Increased levels of male-male competition or females that are increasingly selective in their mating behaviours may result in a species displaying _____________. Which option fills in the blank most correctly? A) predator avoidance strategies B) sexual dimorphism C) photosynthesis D) adaptation 114 Which of the following is NOT included as an input variable when creating a vortex model? A. Reproduction rate B. Juvenile mortality C. Number of iterations D. Population size after 10 years 115 Two different student classes sampled three different habitats each. For Class 1, each sample had 10 individuals with three species that were the same in the two other habitats. For class 2, each sample had 10 individuals, but only one species, which was different in each habitat. What would you say about the habitats sampled by the two classes? A) The habitats sampled by class 1 have higher alpha diversity than those sampled by class 2 B) The habitats sampled by class 2 have a higher alpha diversity than those sampled by class 1 C) The habitats sampled by class 2 have higher gamma diversity D) The habitats sampled by class 1 have higher gamma diversity 116 Organisms which produce their own food using CO2, water and light are called: A. Heterotrophs B. Autotrophs C. Decomposers D. Methanotrophs 117 What is the use of Population Viability Analysis (PVA)? A. To model the diversity of a population. B. To model the richness of the species in a population. C. To model population dynamics over time. D. To conduct species counts within a population. 118 Which is NOT an anti-predator strategy? A. Hide B. Run away C. Act costly to eat D. Eat far away from shelter 119 Which of these lists of interactions feature interactions that all result in ONLY ONE species being negatively impacted? A) herbivory, commensalism, predation B) amensalism, predation, competition C) predation, amensalism, parasitism D) mutualism, competition, commensalism 120 Which of the following is an example of mutualism? A. penicillium secreting penicillin, killing bacteria B. ticks living in dogs fur C. bees pollinating flowers D. barnacles living on whales 121 Which of these are not behavioural responses to abiotic factors? A. A dog panting as the surrounding environment increases in temperature. B. Fire ants clumping together during a flood. C. Boars covering themselves in mud during mid-day. D. Birds roosting in a secure place during a storm. 14 Downloaded by aria ([email protected])  lOMoARcPSD|38330785 122 Which of the statement below is not true? A) Food chain describes the energy flow between organisms in different trophic levels. B) Food chain is usually longer than food webs. C) Autotrophs and heterotrophs can be in a trophic link. D) Food webs describe more complex interactions than food chains. 123 Which one of the following statements best explains the energy hypothesis prediction in trophic ecology? A) Ecosystems that have high productivity should have shorter food chains compared to ecosystems with lower productivity. B) Energy in a food chain is lost only between the producer and primary consumer trophic level and is primarily lost by heat energy. C) Ecosystems that have high productivity should have longer food chains compared to ecosystems with low productivity. D) Food chains containing a higher number of trophic levels are less stable due to fluctuations at low trophic levels magnifying at high levels. 124 Which of the following is true about pioneer plant species? A. Slower growth B. Final stage of succession C. Poor competitors D. Shade tolerance 125 Which of the following is not a true statement about pioneer plant species? They: A. can contribute to the nitrogen cycle B. are shade-intolerant C. are important for primary succession D. produce large numbers of big seeds 126 Which of the following best indicates a population in a 'closed' system? A. High birth rates B. There is no immigration or emigration C. Individuals move in and out of the population D. Growth of the population is only exponential 127 Which of the following factors is not associated with Jared Diamond's 'Evil Quartet' of Extinction: A) Alien Species B) Over-hunting C) Habitat Loss D) Co-existence 128 Which one of the following includes examples of demographic rates? A. Birth, injury, habitat, sex ratio B. Birth, death, deforestation, pollution, age at maturity C. Growth, emigration, immigration, birth, death D. Growth, age at maturity, human activity, oil spills, hunting 129 What is included in Jared Diamond’s "evil quartet" of extinction forces? A. Climate Change B. Natural Disasters C. Alien Species D. All of the above 130 What best describes the relationship between autotrophs and heterotrophs? A. Autotrophs depend on heterotrophs but heterotrophs don't depend on autotrophs B. Heterotrophs depend on autotrophs but autotrophs don't depend on heterotrophs C. Autotrophs and heterotrophs are both dependent on each other for nutrition D. Autotroph is not a biological term but heterotroph is. 131 What most closely embodies the characteristics of an ecosystem? 15 Downloaded by aria ([email protected])  lOMoARcPSD|38330785 A) A community of living organisms and their interaction with the atmosphere B) A community of pathogens and their interaction with the physical environment C) Pathogens and the way they evolve throughout time D) A community of living organisms and their interaction with the physical environment 132 Which one of these statements is true? A) A group has a particular structure whereas a population doesn’t B) A group comprises of the same species whereas a population doesn’t C) A group can include the same and different species but a population includes only the same species D) A group includes the same and different species just like a population 133 One of the key aspects of animal behaviour is to avoid becoming food. Which of the following options is NOT true when attempting this? A) To feed at safer times + places B) To seek out predators C) To pretend to be costly D) To be costly 134 Which is correct regarding population growth? A) N(t)=N(t+1) + Births - Deaths B) N(t+1) = N(t) + Births - Deaths + immigrants - emigrants C) N(t+1) = N(t) - Births + Deaths D) N(t+1) = N(t) - Births + Deaths - immigrants + emigrants 135 Suppose there is a proposal for a new hotel to be built. The hotel will be away from bandicoot habitat but the roads that customers will use to travel to and from the hotel will be in the bandicoot habitat. To model the chance of survival of the bandicoot habitat over the next 100 years in Vortex, which parameter would you change? A. Carrying capacity B. Reproductive rates C. Mortality rate D. Catastrophe 136 What would be the estimated population size if 80 individuals were marked in the first capture, 72 were captured in the second capture, and 45 of them were marked from the first capture? A: 124 B: 126 C: 128 D: 130 137 Ecological meltdowns can occur in habitat fragments when the: A. Area experiences an event of great disturbance B. Loss of a predator allows animals lower in the trophic cascade to excessively rise in numbers C Exterior area of the fragment endures harsher wind and microclimatic factors D. Rare plant species can become more abundant 138 What is one of the commonly held hypotheses as to why food chains are rarely longer than 4-5 links: A) The Energy Hypothesis: Significant amounts of energy are lost between trophic levels, typically around 90%. B) The Density Hypothesis: For a food chain to exist the species must interact in the same environment, and it is impractical for more than 4-5 different species to exist in the same environment. C) The Size Hypothesis: For an organism to consume another organism it almost always has to be larger in size. Beyond 4-5 organisms it is rare to find organisms large enough to continue the chain. D) The Fitness Hypothesis: For an organism to be at the top of a food chain of length 4+, it must be considerably fit and able to catch prey to a successful extent. Organisms with such a high fitness level are unlikely to fall prey as they will often be intelligent and agile 16 Downloaded by aria ([email protected])  lOMoARcPSD|38330785 ANSWERS Module 1: Information Transfer 41 C Lecturer: Prof. Jacqueline Matthews 42 D Question Answer 43 B 1 C 44 C 2 B 45 D 3 D 46 C 4 B 47 C 5 B 48 B 6 B 49 C 7 B 50 C 8 C 51 C 9 C 52 A 10 A Module 2: Energy Systems & Cells 11 D Lecturer: Dr Murray Thomson 12 C Question Answer 13 B 53 B 14 C 54 C 15 B 55 B 16 C 56 D 17 C 57 A 18 B 58 B 19 B 59 D 20 A 60 B 21 A 61 B Module 2: Energy Systems & Cells 62 B Lecturer: Assoc. Prof. Charles Warren 63 C Question Answer 64 C 22 C 65 C 23 C 66 A 24 B 67 C 25 C 68 B 26 D 69 B 27 B 70 B 28 C 71 C 29 C 72 C 30 B 73 C 31 C Module 3: Global Health 32 D Lecturer: Prof. Dee Carter 33 A Question Answer 34 B 74 A 35 C 75 C 36 D 76 C 37 B 77 D 38 B 78 A 39 B 79 B 40 D 80 D 17 Downloaded by aria ([email protected])  lOMoARcPSD|38330785 81 C 109 A 82 C 110 B 83 B 111 B 84 B 112 C 85 D 113 B 86 B 114 D 87 D 115 A 88 B 116 B 89 D 117 C 90 B 118 D 91 D 119 C 92 A 120 C 93 A 121 A 94 D 122 B 95 C 123 C 96 D 124 C 97 A 125 D 98 C 126 B 99 B 127 D 100 A 128 C 101 C 129 C 102 C 130 B 103 C 131 D 104 C 132 C 105 C 133 B 106 C 134 B Module 4: Ecosystems 135 C Lecturer: Prof. Christopher Dickman 136 C Question Answer 137 B 107 B 138 A 108 B 18 Downloaded by aria ([email protected])