Bio Test Bank PDF

Chapter 01 Test Bank: An Introduction to Biology Multiple Choice Questions 1. The simplest structure shared among all living organisms is the A. gut. B. cell. C. photosynthetic chl...

Chapter 01 Test Bank: An Introduction to Biology Multiple Choice Questions 1. The simplest structure shared among all living organisms is the A. gut. B. cell. C. photosynthetic chloroplast. D. community. E. nucleus. Bloom's Level: Remember Section: 1.01 Topic: General 2. Which of the following is likely NOT a common feature shared among all living organisms? A. All living organisms use energy. B. All living organisms maintain organization. C. All living organisms have evolved over the course of many generations. D. All living organisms maintain some level of homeostasis. E. All living organisms are composed of similar structures. Bloom's Level: Remember Section: 1.01 Topic: General 1-!1 3. All living organisms respond and adjust to their environments. The process through which this occurs is called A. photosynthesis. B. metabolism. C. adaptation. D. growth and development. E. genomics. Bloom's Level: Remember Section: 1.01 Topic: General 1-!2 4. The process by which organisms maintain a stable internal environment in the face of a fluctuating external environment is called A. metabolism. B. cellular respiration. C. growth and development. D. homeostasis. E. functional proteomics and genomics. Bloom's Level: Remember Section: 1.01 Topic: General 5. Polypeptides (proteins) are composed of amino acids as ________ are composed of DNA. A. genes B. RNA C. proteomes D. lipids E. metabolites Bloom's Level: Understand Section: 1.01 Topic: General 6. We maintain a fairly constant body temperature despite exposures to different seasons or external temperatures. This is achieved through our capacity to A. adapt to changing environments. B. regulate body temperature. C. maintain homeostasis. D. All of these choices are correct. E. None of these choices are correct. Bloom's Level: Understand Section: 1.01 Topic: General 1-!3 7. All of the chemical reactions used to break down nutrients and build up components within the body are collectively known as A. anabolism. B. catabolism. C. metabolism. D. proteolysis. E. hydrolysis. Bloom's Level: Remember Section: 1.01 Topic: General 8. Which level of organization includes all others? A. cell B. tissue C. organ D. organism E. population Bloom's Level: Remember Section: 1.01 Topic: General 9. Which level of organization is required for all others to form? A. cell B. tissue C. organ D. organism E. population Bloom's Level: Remember Section: 1.01 Topic: General 1-!4 10. When cells associate with each other they form A. atoms. B. molecules. C. macromolecules. D. tissues. E. populations. Bloom's Level: Remember Section: 1.01 Topic: General 11. When communities of organisms interact with their physical environment they form a(n) A. population. B. organism. C. community. D. ecosystem. E. macromolecular community. Bloom's Level: Remember Section: 1.01 Topic: General 12. Which of the following is LEAST likely required for the digestion of a meal? A. molecules B. cells C. tissues D. organs E. populations Bloom's Level: Understand Section: 1.01 Topic: General 1-!5 13. Which is the simplest of all levels of organization? A. atom B. cell C. organ D. organism E. population Bloom's Level: Remember Section: 1.01 Topic: General 14. Which level of organization reflects an individual composed of multiple organ systems? A. atom B. cell C. organ D. organism E. population Bloom's Level: Understand Section: 1.01 Topic: General 15. Which of the following are components of molecules? A. atoms B. cells C. organs D. organisms E. populations Bloom's Level: Remember Section: 1.01 Topic: General 1-!6 16. Many people at a wedding ceremony represent which level of organization? A. cell B. organ C. organism D. population E. ecosystem Bloom's Level: Understand Section: 1.01 Topic: General 17. A flower on a plant represents which level of organization? A. atom B. cell C. organ D. organism E. population Bloom's Level: Understand Section: 1.01 Topic: General 18. The phenomenon through which populations of organisms change over several generations is termed A. homeostasis. B. growth and development. C. reproduction. D. biological evolution. E. organization. Bloom's Level: Remember Section: 1.01 Topic: General 1-!7 19. Changes in ________ represent the predominant cause for biological evolution. A. homeostasis B. growth and development C. reproduction D. genetic makeup E. energy Bloom's Level: Understand Section: 1.01 Topic: General 20. A variety of finch species within the Hawaiian Islands have acquired different types of beaks needed for utilizing specific food resources. The process by which these different species of finches came about is likely to have involved A. natural selection. B. evolution. C. an accumulation of harmful genetic mutations. D. both natural selection and evolution. E. None of these choices are correct. Bloom's Level: Understand Section: 1.02 Topic: General 21. Which of the following is TRUE of a genetic mutation? A. It always produces harmful effects. B. It never affects protein structure or function. C. It is not a mechanism through which biological evolution occurs. D. It happens quite frequently in a population. E. It generally produces a change in the DNA sequence of a gene. Bloom's Level: Understand Section: 1.02 Topic: General 1-!8 22. New species evolve from pre-existing species by the accumulation of A. metabolic events. B. genetic mutations. C. proteomes. D. reproductive events. E. developmental events. Bloom's Level: Understand Section: 1.02 Topic: General 23. Evolutionary change A. occurs through the modification of characteristics in a preexisting population. B. may involve vertical descent with mutation. C. may involve horizontal gene transfer. D. All of these choices are correct. E. None of these choices are correct. Bloom's Level: Understand Section: 1.02 Topic: General 24. In the process of biological evolution, new species may evolve through exchange of genes from one species to another. This process is called A. proteome transfer. B. horizontal gene transfer. C. vertical evolution. D. vertical descent with mutation. E. genomic sciences. Bloom's Level: Remember Section: 1.02 Topic: General 1-!9 25. The grouping or classification of species is termed A. eukaryotism. B. prokaryotism. C. genus. D. kingdom. E. taxonomy. Bloom's Level: Remember Section: 1.02 Topic: General 26. When grouping organisms, which classification is most general for a particular type of organism? A. Kingdom B. Phylum C. Order D. Family E. Species Bloom's Level: Understand Section: 1.02 Topic: General 27. When grouping organisms, which classification is most general for a particular type of organism? A. Kingdom B. Phylum C. Order D. Family E. Species Bloom's Level: Understand Section: 1.02 Topic: General 1-!10 28. Which Kingdom of organisms is most noted for its ability to carry out photosynthesis? A. Animilia B. Protista C. Fungi D. Plantae E. Bacteria Bloom's Level: Remember Figure: 1.12 Section: 1.02 Topic: General 29. Biologists use nomenclature or the binomial to provide each species with a unique scientific name. Our species is called Homo sapiens. The first word refers to which taxonomical grouping? A. Kingdom B. Phylum C. Order D. Genus E. Species Bloom's Level: Understand Section: 1.02 Topic: General 30. When considering nomenclature for scientific names, what is the difference between the two primates, Homo sapiens and Homo erectus? A. One is a primate but the other is not. B. They are animals of a different kingdom. C. They are animals of a different order. D. They are animals of a different species. E. They are animals of a different genus. Bloom's Level: Understand Section: 1.02 Topic: General 1-!11 31. Which of the following is generally more complex than the others? A. Archaea B. Bacteria C. Prokarya D. Eukarya E. microorganisms Bloom's Level: Understand Section: 1.02 Topic: General 32. The complete genetic composition of an organism is called its A. proteome. B. genome. C. transcriptosome. D. phenotype. E. None of these choices are correct. Bloom's Level: Remember Section: 1.02 Topic: General 33. Which is responsible for encoding the proteins found in a cell? A. genome B. proteome C. cytoskeleton D. evolution E. extracellular proteins Bloom's Level: Remember Section: 1.02 Topic: General 1-!12 34. If a scientist were studying the interaction of different proteins in the regulation of insulin secretion from a pancreatic cell, he or she would be studying A. genomics. B. proteomics. C. cell biology. D. both genomics and proteomics. E. both proteomics and cell biology. Bloom's Level: Understand Section: 1.02 Topic: General 35. An explanation for a biological process that is substantiated by a large body of evidence is called a A. hypothesis. B. theory. C. systems biology. D. reductionism. E. prediction. Bloom's Level: Remember Section: 1.03 Topic: General 36. Collecting data without a specific hypothesis in mind is called A. reductionism. B. hypothesis testing. C. discovery-based science. D. theoretical. E. All of these choices are correct. Bloom's Level: Remember Section: 1.03 Topic: General 1-!13 True / False Questions 37. All tissues are composed of cells. TRUE Bloom's Level: Understand Section: 1.01 Topic: General 38. The capacity to maintain a fairly constant body temperature is a homeostatic process. TRUE Bloom's Level: Understand Section: 1.01 Topic: General 39. A community is composed of different populations of animals and plants. TRUE Bloom's Level: Understand Section: 1.01 Topic: General 40. A defining characteristic that distinguishes prokaryotic and eukaryotic organisms is the lack of cell structure in one versus the other. FALSE Bloom's Level: Understand Section: 1.02 Topic: General 1-!14 41. The modification of a limb that was used for walking in a pre-existing ancestor to one that is used as a wing for a species today is called proteomics. FALSE Bloom's Level: Understand Section: 1.02 Topic: General 42. A bacterial infection such as pneumonia is most likely caused by organisms derived from the animal kingdom. FALSE Bloom's Level: Understand Section: 1.02 Topic: General 43. All genetic mutations are harmful to an organism. FALSE Bloom's Level: Understand Section: 1.02 Topic: General 44. Vertical evolution, whereby living organisms evolve from a common ancestor ("tree of life"), is the only mechanism of evolution on Earth. FALSE Bloom's Level: Understand Section: 1.02 Topic: General 1-!15 45. The effects of a genetic mutation are always limited to simply a change in DNA sequence with little consequence on the proteins expressed. FALSE Bloom's Level: Understand Section: 1.02 Topic: General 1-!16 46. The proteome, rather than genome, is most directly responsible for the structure, function, and appearance of organisms. TRUE Bloom's Level: Remember Section: 1.02 Topic: General 47. Little scientific evidence is necessary when formulating a theory. FALSE Bloom's Level: Understand Section: 1.03 Topic: General 48. The maintenance of cell structure requires energy. TRUE Bloom's Level: Understand Section: 1.01 Topic: General 49. Discovery-based science and hypothesis testing are the two major scientific approaches that help us understand biology. TRUE Bloom's Level: Remember Section: 1.03 Topic: General 1-!17 Multiple Choice Questions 50. This question refers to the 5-stage process of hypothesis testing. What is the appropriate order of the stages when generating and testing a hypothesis? (1) Experimentation is conducted to determine if the predictions are correct. (2) The hypothesis is accepted or rejected. (3) Observations are made regarding a natural phenomenon. (4) The observations lead to a hypothesis that tries to explain the phenomenon. A useful hypothesis is one that is testable because it makes specific predictions. (5) The data from the experiment is analyzed. A. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 B. 3, 4, 5, 1, 2 C. 1, 3, 4, 2, 5 D. 3, 4, 1, 5, 2 E. 3, 4, 2, 1, 5 Bloom's Level: Remember Section: 1.03 Topic: General Chapter 02 Test Bank: The Chemical Basis of Life I: Atoms, Molecules, and Water Multiple Choice Questions 1. These are the smallest functional units of matter that form all chemical substances and that cannot be further broken down by ordinary chemical or physical means. A. protons B. neutrons C. electrons D. atoms E. molecules Bloom's Level: Remember Section: 2.01 Topic: Chemistry 1-!18 2. The atomic number of an atom is A. the number of protons in the atom. B. the number of neutrons in the atom. C. the number of protons and electrons in the atom. D. the number of protons and neutrons in the atom. E. None of these choices are correct. Bloom's Level: Remember Section: 2.01 Topic: Chemistry 3. Which of the following represents the smallest functional unit of living organisms? A. atoms B. molecules C. proteins D. water E. salt Bloom's Level: Remember Section: 2.01 Topic: Chemistry 1-!19 4. Oxygen has an atomic mass of 16 and an atomic number of 8. A. Oxygen has 16 neutrons. B. Oxygen has 8 electrons. C. Oxygen can form two bonds with other atoms. D. Oxygen has 16 neutrons and 8 electrons. E. Oxygen has 8 electrons and can form two bonds with other atoms. Bloom's Level: Apply Section: 2.01 Topic: Chemistry 5. The nucleus of an atom is composed of A. protons. B. neutrons. C. electrons. D. protons and neutrons. E. protons and electrons. Bloom's Level: Remember Section: 2.01 Topic: Chemistry 6. Ernest Rutherford's key experiment on alpha particle bombardment of gold foil was important to the development of A. detection methods for protons. B. alpha particle emitters. C. gold as an element. D. the modern model for atomic structure. E. the concept that atoms have a homogenous distribution of protons throughout the atom. Bloom's Level: Apply Section: 2.01 Topic: Chemistry 1-!20 7. If a scientist were to shoot protons through an atom, for instance like Rutherford did with gold foil, he or she would likely find that A. most of the protons passed straight through the atom. B. few of the protons passed straight through the atom. C. most of the protons deflected or bounced back from the atom. D. most of the protons would be absorbed by the atom. E. All of the choices are correct. Bloom's Level: Understand Section: 2.01 Topic: Chemistry 8. The first, inner-most energy shell of an atom A. can have a maximum of 8 electrons. B. can have a maximum of 2 electrons. C. is called the 2p orbital. D. is called the 1s orbital and can have a maximum of 8 electrons. E. is called the 2p orbital and can have a maximum of 2 electrons. Bloom's Level: Understand Figure: 2.03 Section: 2.01 Topic: Chemistry 9. If carbon has an atomic mass of 12 and an atomic number of 6 then it has A. 6 electrons. B. 12 electrons. C. 18 electrons. D. as many as 6 but no more than 12. E. None of the choices are correct. Bloom's Level: Understand Section: 2.01 Topic: Chemistry 1-!21 10. Tritiated hydrogen (3H) differs from hydrogen (1H) in that A. 3H has 2 more protons than 1H. B. 3H has 2 more electrons than 1H. C. 3H has 2 more neutrons than 1H. D. 3H has the same number of neutrons as 1H. E. 3H has a different electron configuration than 1H. Bloom's Level: Apply Section: 2.01 Topic: Chemistry 11. Isotopes are different forms of the same element that A. differ in their number of neutrons. B. have the same numbers of protons. C. are often used in medicine to track biological processes. D. can be found in nature. E. All the choices are correct. Bloom's Level: Remember Section: 2.01 Topic: Chemistry 12. Which of the following represents an abundant element found in living organisms? A. calcium. B. iron. C. iodine. D. hydrogen. E. sodium. Bloom's Level: Remember Section: 2.01 Topic: Chemistry 1-!22 13. Nitrogen has 7 electrons and can form a maximum of ________ bonds with other elements. A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 E. 5 Bloom's Level: Apply Section: 2.01 Topic: Chemistry 14. Molecules A. are derived from the chemical bonding of two or more atoms. B. differ in their physical properties from the atoms from which they were derived. C. are important to biological processes. D. can form from the covalent bonding of two or more atoms. E. All the choices are correct. Bloom's Level: Understand Section: 2.02 Topic: Chemistry 15. Which of the following is NOT a molecule? A. H2 B. H2O C. CH4 D. O2 E. H Bloom's Level: Remember Section: 2.02 Topic: Chemistry 1-!23 16. Which of the following represents an ion? A. Ca2+ B. He C. H2 D. CO2 E. KCl Bloom's Level: Remember Section: 2.02 Topic: Chemistry 17. Carbon has 4 electrons and hydrogen has 1 electron in their outer most electron shells. How many bonds can form between a carbon atom and hydrogen atoms? A. 0 B. 1 C. 2 D. 3 E. 4 Bloom's Level: Apply Section: 2.02 Topic: Chemistry 18. This is formed when an atom loses an electron to another atom. A. polar covalent bond B. cations and anions that can form ionic bonds C. covalent bond D. hydrogen bond E. nonpolar covalent bond Bloom's Level: Remember Section: 2.02 Topic: Chemistry 1-!24 19. Which of the following chemical bonds is the strongest? A. hydrogen B. Van der Waal forces C. hydrophobic interactions D. ionic E. covalent Bloom's Level: Remember Section: 2.02 Topic: Chemistry 20. What type of bonding is likely to occur between two water molecules or strands of DNA? A. covalent B. ionic C. hydrogen D. both hydrogen and covalent E. both hydrogen and ionic Bloom's Level: Remember Section: 2.02 Topic: Chemistry 21. Carbon and hydrogen have similar electronegativities and combine together to form hydrocarbon molecules. What type of bonds form between these atoms? A. hydrogen B. ionic C. polar covalent D. nonpolar covalent E. electrostatic Bloom's Level: Understand Section: 2.02 Topic: Chemistry 1-!25 22. What type of bonds form from the unequal sharing of electrons? A. hydrogen B. ionic C. polar covalent D. nonpolar covalent E. electrostatic Bloom's Level: Remember Section: 2.02 Topic: Chemistry 23. In water, MgCl2 dissociates into Mg2+ and Cl-. Based on this information what type of bond is involved in the formation of MgCl2? A. hydrogen B. ionic C. polar covalent D. nonpolar covalent E. electrostatic Bloom's Level: Apply Section: 2.02 Topic: Chemistry 24. Which of the following is TRUE of a chemical reaction? A. It requires no energy. B. It rarely occurs with a catalyst present. C. It changes a substance from one form to another. D. It is limited to only a few types of organisms. E. They are usually irreversible. Bloom's Level: Remember Section: 2.02 Topic: Chemistry 1-!26 25. When one oxygen atom shares two pairs of electrons with another oxygen atom, O2 is formed via a(n) A. single covalent bond. B. double covalent bond. C. triple covalent bond. D. ionic bond. E. hydrogen bond. Bloom's Level: Remember Section: 2.02 Topic: Chemistry 26. Which of the following is LEAST hydrophilic? A. Na+ B. HCO3- C. oil D. amphipathic molecules E. CO2Error! Hyperlink reference not valid.Error! Hyperlink reference not valid. Bloom's Level: Apply Section: 2.03 Topic: Chemistry 27. Amphipathic molecules A. possess only hydrophilic properties. B. possess only hydrophobic properties. C. possess both hydrophilic and hydrophobic properties. D. possess neither hydrophilic nor hydrophobic properties. E. Tend not to interact with other molecules. Bloom's Level: Remember Section: 2.03 Topic: Chemistry 1-!27 28. For water to vaporize A. energy must be supplied. B. energy must be released. C. hydrogen bonds are broken. D. both energy must be supplied and hydrogen bonds broken. E. both energy must be released and hydrogen bonds broken. Bloom's Level: Understand Section: 2.03 Topic: Chemistry 29. The molarity of a solution is A. a measure of solute concentration. B. the weight of a solid substance. C. often expressed as grams per unit volume. D. reflects a measure of the amount of oil dissolved in a water. E. a scientific term for determining the solubility of a substance in water. Bloom's Level: Remember Section: 2.03 Topic: Chemistry 30. Based on the colligative properties of water, what would happen if one were to add a solute to water? A. The freezing point of water would decrease. B. The freezing point of water would increase. C. The boiling point of water would increase. D. Both the freezing point of water would decrease and the boiling point of water would increase. E. Nothing would change with respect to the freezing point or boiling point of water. Bloom's Level: Understand Section: 2.03 Topic: Chemistry 1-!28 31. Which of the following is not true of water? A. It is polar. B. It has a high heat of vaporization. C. It has cohesive properties. D. Its evaporation helps regulate body temperature. E. It is a relatively poor solvent. Bloom's Level: Understand Section: 2.03 Topic: Chemistry 32. If orange juice has a pH of 4 then A. the H+ concentration is 4. B. it is an acidic solution. C. it is an alkaline solution. D. it is an acidic solution with a H+ concentration of 4. E. None of these choices are correct. Bloom's Level: Understand Section: 2.03 Topic: Chemistry 33. pH buffers A. minimize fluctuations in the pH of solutions. B. are usually weak acids and bases. C. are common in biological fluids. D. limit major shifts in the amount of H+ and OH- in solution. E. All of the choices are correct. Bloom's Level: Remember Section: 2.03 Topic: Chemistry 1-!29 34. If one were to add a strong acid like HCl to an aqueous solution, which would result? A. H+ would be released into solution. B. The pH would increase. C. The pH would decrease. D. Both H+ would be released into solution and the pH would increase. E. Both H+ would be released into solution and the pH would decrease. Bloom's Level: Apply Section: 2.03 Topic: Chemistry 35. Which is true about a pH buffer? A. It increases the amount of H+ in an acidic solution. B. It reduces the amount of H+ in an acidic solution. C. It reduces the amount of H+ in an alkaline solution. D. It increases the amount of OH- ions in an alkaline solution. E. It reduces the amount of OH- in an acidic solution. Bloom's Level: Understand Section: 2.03 Topic: Chemistry 36. Considering solutions with the following pH, which is alkaline? A. 8 B. 7 C. 6 D. 5 E. All are alkaline. Bloom's Level: Remember Section: 2.03 Topic: Chemistry 1-!30 37. Which of the following is TRUE when comparing solutions with a pH of 6 and a pH of 8? A. The solution with a pH of 8 has a 100 times higher concentration of hydrogen ions than a solution with a pH of 6. B. The solution with a pH of 8 has a 2 times higher concentration of hydrogen ions than a solution with a pH of 6. C. The solution with a pH of 8 has a 100 times lower concentration of hydrogen ions than a solution with a pH of 6. D. The solution with a pH of 8 has a 2 times lower concentration of hydrogen ions than a solution with a pH of 6. E. The hydrogen ion concentration does not appreciably differ between a solution with a pH of 8 versus that with a pH of 6. Bloom's Level: Understand Section: 2.03 True / False Questions 38. One gram of hydrogen, which has an atomic mass of 1, would have fewer atoms than 1 gram of carbon that has an atomic mass of 12. FALSE Bloom's Level: Understand Section: 2.01 Topic: Chemistry 39. Isotopes are different forms of the same element. TRUE Bloom's Level: Understand Section: 2.01 Topic: Chemistry 1-!31 40. Sulfur 35 (35S) is an isotope of 32S. These elements differ in their number of neutrons. TRUE Bloom's Level: Remember Section: 2.01 Topic: Chemistry 41. Helium is an inert gas that rarely reacts with other elements because it has the maximum number of valence electrons in its outer shell. TRUE Bloom's Level: Understand Section: 2.02 Topic: Chemistry 42. If lithium has an atomic number of 3 then it will have 1 valence electron. TRUE Bloom's Level: Understand Section: 2.02 Topic: Chemistry 43. The electronegativity of an atom is a measure of its ability to attract electrons to its outer shell from another atom. TRUE Bloom's Level: Remember Section: 2.02 Topic: Chemistry 44. Table salt forms from sodium and chloride via hydrogen bonding. FALSE Bloom's Level: Remember Section: 2.02 Topic: Chemistry 1-!32 1-!33 45. Molecules are generally rigid structures and rarely change shape. FALSE Bloom's Level: Remember Section: 2.02 Topic: Chemistry 46. The presence of salt helps prevent oceans from freezing. TRUE Bloom's Level: Apply Section: 2.03 Topic: Chemistry 47. A dehydration reaction that builds larger molecules from smaller units requires the addition of a water molecule. FALSE Bloom's Level: Remember Section: 2.03 Topic: Chemistry 48. The hydroxyl (OH-) concentration of a solution with a pH of 8 would be 10-6 molar. TRUE Bloom's Level: Apply Section: 2.03 Topic: Chemistry 49. Most enzymes or bioactive molecules work effectively within a broad range of pH. FALSE Bloom's Level: Understand Section: 2.03 Topic: Chemistry 1-!34 50. Buffers minimize fluctuations in the pH of a solution. TRUE Bloom's Level: Remember Section: 2.03 Topic: Chemistry Bloom's Level: Remember Section: 2.03 Topic: Chemistry Chapter 03 Test Bank: The Chemical Basis of Life II: Organic Molecules Multiple Choice Questions 1. Which of the following is an important feature of carbon and that makes life possible? A. Carbon can form a maximum of 8 covalent bonds. B. Carbon can form a maximum of 6 covalent bonds. C. Carbon can form a maximum of 4 covalent bonds. D. Carbon can form a maximum of 2 covalent bonds. E. None of the choices are possible for carbon. Bloom's Level: Remember Section: 3.01 Topic: Chemistry 1-!35 2. Which of the following are important features of carbon and the diversity of organic molecules? A. Carbon can form up to 4 covalent bonds with other elements. B. Carbon bonds may occur in multiple different configurations such as linear, ringlike, and highly branched. C. Carbon can form both polar and nonpolar covalent bonds with various elements. D. Carbon bonds are stable at the range of temperatures associated with life. E. All the choices are correct. Bloom's Level: Remember Section: 3.01 Topic: Chemistry 3. Which of the following molecules is nonpolar? A. C2H5COOH B. C2H6 C. R-NH2 D. C3H7OH E. C5H10O5 Bloom's Level: Apply Section: 3.01 Topic: Chemistry 1-!36 4. Which element(s) is common to all organic molecules? A. oxygen B. nitrogen C. hydrogen D. carbon E. both nitrogen and carbon Bloom's Level: Remember Section: 3.01 Topic: Chemistry 5. Two molecules with identical molecular formulas but that have different structures are called A. polymers. B. isomers. C. carboyhydrates. D. hydrocarbons. E. ring structures. Bloom's Level: Remember Section: 3.01 Topic: Chemistry 6. Which of the following has identical molecular formulas but different structures and characteristics? A. isomers B. sterioisomers C. enantiomers D. isomers, but not sterioisomers E. isomers, sterioisomers, and enantiomers Bloom's Level: Understand Figure: 3.04 Section: 3.01 Topic: Chemistry 1-!37 7. Organic molecules with identical molecular formulas and that are structurally mirror images of each other are most specifically referred to as A. polymers. B. mimics. C. enantiomers. D. hydrocarbon rings. E. saturated fatty acids. Bloom's Level: Remember Figure: 3.04 Section: 3.01 Topic: Chemistry 8. Which of the molecules is polar and acts like a base? A. R-NH2 B. R-CO-R C. R-OH D. R-PO4 E. R-SH Bloom's Level: Understand Section: 3.01 Topic: Chemistry 9. Which functional group characterizes alcohols? A. NH2 B. COOH C. PO4 D. SH E. OH Bloom's Level: Understand Section: 3.01 Topic: Chemistry 1-!38 10. Which functional group forms covalent bonds and contributes to tertiary structure of proteins? A. NH2 B. COOH C. PO4 D. SH E. OH Bloom's Level: Remember Section: 3.01 Topic: Chemistry 11. Fuels such as gasoline are nonpolar and high in energy because they are largely composed of A. sulfates. B. hydrocarbons. C. carboxylic acids. D. amines. E. carbonyls. Bloom's Level: Apply Section: 3.01 Topic: Chemistry 12. Which of the following macromolecules are polymers? A. lipids B. carboyhydrates C. nucleic acids D. proteins E. All of the choices are correct. Bloom's Level: Understand Section: 3.02 Topic: Chemistry 1-!39 13. All are true about a dehydration reaction EXCEPT which of the following? A. Results in removal of a water molecule. B. Essential for the breakdown of complex molecules to simple ones. C. Essential to the formation of polymers. D. Essential for the formation of glycogen from glucose monomers. E. Essential for the formation of triglycerides (fat) from glycerol and fatty acids. Bloom's Level: Apply Figure: 3.05 Section: 3.02 Topic: Chemistry 14. Glycogen is to animal cells as ________ is to plant cells. A. lipid B. cellulose C. starch D. protein E. sugar Bloom's Level: Understand Section: 3.03 Topic: Chemistry 15. A monomer is to a polymer, as glucose is to A. lipids. B. carboyhydrates. C. nucleic acids. D. proteins. E. None of the choices are correct. Bloom's Level: Apply Section: 3.03 Topic: Chemistry 1-!40 16. A disaccharide, such as maltose, consists of two molecules of glucose linked by what type of bond? A. phosphodiester B. glycosidic C. steroid D. peptide E. None of the choices are correct. Bloom's Level: Remember Figure: 3.07 Section: 3.03 Topic: Chemistry 17. Amongst all others, which is the largest macromolecule? A. monosaccharide B. disaccharide C. polysaccharide D. glucose E. sucrose Bloom's Level: Understand Section: 3.03 Topic: Chemistry 18. Which of these is NOT a lipid? A. phospholipid B. cholesterol C. steroids D. glycogen E. wax and oils Bloom's Level: Remember Section: 3.04 Topic: Chemistry 1-!41 19. Which of the following is NOT a property of fat or of fatty acids? A. They are soluble in water. B. The source of variation in fat molecules is the fatty acid composition. C. Fatty acids can vary in number and location of C-C double bonds. D. Fatty acids may vary in length. E. Fats can be liquid or solid at room temperature, depending on fatty acid composition. Bloom's Level: Remember Section: 3.04 Topic: Chemistry 20. Which is TRUE about amphipathic molecules when placed in an aqueous solution? A. The interior portion is composed of hydrophilic hydrocarbon chains. B. The outside portion is composed of hydrophilic head groups. C. The interior portion is composed of hydrophobic hydrocarbon chains. D. The interior portion of the micelle is composed of hydrophilic hydrocarbon chains and the outside portion of hydrophilic head groups. E. The interior portion is composed of hydrophobic hydrocarbon chains and the outside portion of hydrophilic head groups. Bloom's Level: Understand Figure: 3.12 Section: 3.04 Topic: Chemistry 21. This class of macromolecules serves as important energy stores and is a major component of plasma membranes. A. lipids B. carbohydrates C. nucleic acids D. proteins E. ions Bloom's Level: Remember Section: 3.04 Topic: Chemistry 1-!42 22. Amphipathic molecules A. possess only hydrophilic properties. B. possess only hydrophobic properties. C. possess both hydrophilic and hydrophobic properties. D. possess neither hydrophilic nor hydrophobic properties. E. tend not to interact with other molecules. Bloom's Level: Remember Section: 3.04 Topic: Chemistry 23. Which of the molecules below is NOT a subunit for building macromolecules? A. glucose B. amino acids C. steroid D. fatty acid E. nucleotides Bloom's Level: Understand Section: 3.04 Topic: Chemistry 24. Which of these is rich in unsaturated fats? A. a fat that is solid at room temperature B. butter C. beef fat D. bacon grease E. olive oil Bloom's Level: Understand Section: 3.04 Topic: Chemistry 1-!43 25. What is the main difference between a fat (triglyceride) and a phospholipid? A. A fat has 4 fatty acids attached to glycerol, whereas a phospholipid has 3. B. A fat has 3 fatty acids attached to glycerol, whereas a phospholipid has 4. C. A phospholipid has 2 fatty acids attached to glycerol, whereas a fat has 3. D. A phospholipid has 3 fatty acids attached to glycerol, whereas a fat has 2. E. None of the above are true. Bloom's Level: Remember Figure: 3.09 Figure: 3.12 Section: 3.04 Topic: Chemistry 26. Which of the following macromolecules is composed of amino acids? A. lipids B. carboyhydrates C. nucleic acids D. proteins E. All of the choices are correct. Bloom's Level: Remember Section: 3.05 Topic: Chemistry 27. With regard to protein structure, which level determines all others? A. primary B. secondary C. tertiary D. quaternary E. hepternary Bloom's Level: Understand Section: 3.05 Topic: Chemistry 1-!44 28. What level of protein structure, characterized by coils and folds, results from hydrogen bonding between carboxyl and amino groups of the polypeptide chain? A. primary B. secondary C. tertiary D. quaternary E. both secondary and quaternary Bloom's Level: Understand Figure: 3.16 Section: 3.05 Topic: Chemistry 29. Acetic acid gives vinegar its sour taste. Which functional group has acidic properties and would release hydrogen ions in an aqueous (water) solution? A. -OH B. -NH2 C. -SH D. -COOH E. -CO Bloom's Level: Understand Section: 3.05 Topic: Chemistry 30. Which portion of an amino acid is unique among the different amino acids? A. carboxyl B. amino C. hydrocarbon D. the side chain or R-group E. peptide bonding Bloom's Level: Understand Figure: 3.14 Section: 3.05 Topic: Chemistry 1-!45 31. Which macromolecule has the highest diversity of functions? A. carbohydrates B. proteins C. nucleic acids D. lipids E. glycolipids Bloom's Level: Understand Section: 3.05 Topic: Chemistry 32. The tertiary structure of a protein is dependent on A. the side chain composition of each amino acid within the protein. B. hydrogen bonding between the carboxyl and amino groups within the polypeptide chain. C. the interactions of multiple polypeptide chains that make up a functional protein. D. the way in which the peptide bond forms. E. the degree through which the dehydration reaction occurs. Bloom's Level: Understand Section: 3.05 Topic: Chemistry 33. Sickle cell anemia is a condition in which red blood cells of patients exhibit a characteristic "sickle" shape. This arises from a mutation or change in one of the amino acids found in hemoglobin. Knowing this, what level of protein structure is most directly affected by this single amino acid mutation? A. primary B. secondary C. tertiary D. quaternary E. None of the choices are correct. Bloom's Level: Apply Section: 3.05 Topic: Chemistry 1-!46 34. Which is true of the nucleotide base composition within the DNA double helix? A. G=A B. T=C C. T+A=C+G D. T+G=A+C E. A=U Bloom's Level: Understand Section: 3.06 Topic: Chemistry 35. If a specimen contains 30% adenine in its DNA then how much cytosine will there be? A. 40% B. 30% C. 20% D. 10% E. Cannot be determined. Bloom's Level: Apply Section: 3.06 Topic: Chemistry 36. Which of the following statements BEST summarizes structural differences between DNA and RNA? A. RNA is a protein, while DNA is a nucleic acid. B. RNA is a polymer, but DNA is not. C. DNA contains a different sugar than RNA. D. RNA is a double helix, but DNA is not. E. All the bases in DNA differ from those in RNA. Bloom's Level: Apply Section: 3.06 Topic: Chemistry 1-!47 37. An amino acid is to a protein as a ________ is to a nucleic acid. A. glucose B. glycerol C. nucleotide D. fatty acid E. cellulose Bloom's Level: Understand Section: 3.06 Topic: Chemistry 38. Which is true of the base pairing seen between two DNA strands? A. Adenine bonds with guanine. B. Guanine bonds with thymine. C. Thymine bonds with cytosine. D. Cytosine bonds with guanine E. Guanine bonds with thymine. Bloom's Level: Remember Figure: 3.24 Section: 3.06 Topic: Chemistry True / False Questions 39. Friedrich Wöhler refuted the scientific concept of vitalism during the early 1800s by proving that organic molecules could be synthesized outside a living organism. TRUE Bloom's Level: Understand Section: 3.01 Topic: Chemistry 1-!48 40. Since carbon and hydrogen share similar electronegativities they will form nonpolar molecules when combined. TRUE Bloom's Level: Understand Section: 3.01 Topic: Chemistry 41. Macromolecules such as lipids and carbohydrates are produced from simple subunits through condensation reactions. TRUE Bloom's Level: Remember Section: 3.02 Topic: Chemistry 42. The sole function of carbohydrates is to serve as energy stores. FALSE Bloom's Level: Understand Section: 3.03 Topic: Chemistry 43. If sucrose is composed of both glucose and fructose then sucrose must be a monosaccharide. FALSE Bloom's Level: Remember Section: 3.03 Topic: Chemistry 1-!49 44. Lipids and carbohydrates have similar functions insofar as they can represent a form of energy store in animals. TRUE Bloom's Level: Understand Section: 3.04 Topic: Chemistry 1-!50 45. Saturated fats are composed of fatty acids with several double bonded carbons. FALSE Bloom's Level: Remember Figure: 3.10 Section: 3.04 Topic: Chemistry 46. When a food label reads polyunsaturated fats, this refers to fatty acids composed of multiple double bonded carbons. TRUE Bloom's Level: Understand Section: 3.04 Topic: Chemistry 47. Proteins can have separate domains with distinct structures and function. TRUE Bloom's Level: Remember Section: 3.05 Topic: Chemistry 48. The primary structure of a protein ultimately determines its three-dimensional structure. TRUE Bloom's Level: Understand Figure: 3.17 Section: 3.05 Topic: Chemistry 49. All amino acids within a protein are either polar charged or polar uncharged. FALSE Bloom's Level: Remember Figure: 3.14 Section: 3.05 Topic: Chemistry 1-!51 1-!52 50. The four nucleotide bases found in DNA are identical to those in RNA. FALSE Bloom's Level: Remember Section: 3.06 Topic: Chemistry Chapter 04 Test Bank: General Features of Cells Multiple Choice Questions 1. Which of the following are principles of the cell theory or cell doctrine? A. All living things are composed of one or more cells. B. Cells are the smallest unit of living organisms. C. New cells come only from pre-existing cells by cell division. D. Cells are the smallest unit of living organisms and new cells form from pre-existing cells by cell division. E. All living organisms are composed of one or more cells, cells are the smallest units of life, and new cells come only from pre-existing cells by cell division. Bloom's Level: Understand Section: 4.01 Topic: Cells 2. Which two cell scientists are credited with the formulation of the cell theory, also known as the cell doctrine? A. Watson and Crick B. Schleiden and Schwann C. Schleiden and Hooke D. Schwann and Jenner Bloom's Level: Remember Section: 4.01 Topic: Cells 1-!53 3. This is a tool that enables researchers to study the structure and function of cells. A. magnifying glass B. microscope C. tunneling assay D. digital recording E. differential centrifugation Bloom's Level: Remember Section: 4.01 Topic: Cells 1-!54 4. With which type of microscopy would one observe three-dimensional structure? A. fluorescence microscopy B. standard light microscopy C. confocal microscopy D. differential-interference light microscopy E. transmission electron microscopy Bloom's Level: Understand Section: 4.01 Topic: Cells 5. Which of the following reflects a primary difference between transmission and scanning electron microscopy? A. Transmission electron microscopy has high resolution, but scanning electron microscopy does not. B. Transmission electron microscopy shows contrast, but scanning electron microscopy does not. C. Transmission electron microscopy has much higher magnification than scanning electron microscopy. D. Transmission electron microscopy shows two-dimensional ultrastructure, while the scanning electron microscopy shows three-dimensional structure. E. Transmission electron microscopy uses light as an illumination source, while scanning electron microscopy uses electron beams as an illumination source. Bloom's Level: Understand Section: 4.01 Topic: Cells 1-!55 6. Which of the following type of microscopy would be most effective in visualizing the fine structure of viruses and cytoskeletal filaments 10–25 nanometers in diameter? A. standard light microscopy B. phase-contrast light microscopy C. transmission electron microscopy D. darkfield light microscopy E. differential-interference microscopy Bloom's Level: Remember Figure: 4.01 Section: 4.01 Topic: Cells 1-!56 7. Among those listed, which type of microscopy would provide the highest resolution? A. phase-contrast light microscopy B. scanning electron microscopy C. Nomarski differential-interference light microscopy D. confocal microscopy E. fluorescence microscopy Bloom's Level: Understand Section: 4.01 Topic: Cells 8. Prokaryotes A. lack a true nucleus. B. lack true DNA. C. use the cell membrane rather than ribosomes for making proteins. D. contain numerous organelles. E. are relatively benign cells incapable of harming organisms. Bloom's Level: Remember Section: 4.02 Topic: Cells 9. Which of the following structures distinguishes plant cells from animal cells? A. chloroplast B. nucleus C. plasma membrane D. golgi apparatus E. mitochondria Bloom's Level: Remember Section: 4.02 Topic: Cells 1-!57 10. Which of the following is NOT true of prokaryotes? A. They lack a membrane-bound nucleus. B. DNA is located within the cytosol. C. They have a simpler structure relative to eukaryotes. D. They possess membrane-bound organelles. E. They are relatively small compared with eukaryotes. Bloom's Level: Remember Section: 4.02 Topic: Cells 11. The cell wall is a common feature to A. prokaryotic cells only. B. plant cells only. C. animal cells only. D. prokaryotic and plant cells. E. prokaryotic, plant, and animal cells. Bloom's Level: Remember Section: 4.02 Topic: Cells 12. Plasma membranes are a feature of A. all cells. B. prokaryotic cells only. C. eukaryotic cells only. D. plant cells only. E. animal cells only. Bloom's Level: Remember Section: 4.02 Topic: Cells 1-!58 13. During a period of low water availability, which prokaryotic structure would protect a cell from dessication (drying out)? A. pili B. plasma membrane C. nucleus D. cell wall Bloom's Level: Remember Section: 4.02 Topic: Cells 14. The nucleus is to eukaryotes as the ________ is to prokaryotes. A. pili B. glycocalyx C. ribosome D. nucleoid E. cell wall Bloom's Level: Understand Section: 4.02 Topic: Cells 15. Which of the following might account for the general structural and functional differences between a nerve and smooth muscle cell within an individual? A. The proteome differs between muscle and nerve cells. B. The genome (DNA) differs between muscle and nerve cells. C. The relative amounts of certain proteins differ between muscle and nerve cells. D. The proteome and the relative amounts of certain proteins differ between muscle and nerve cells. E. The genome (DNA) and the relative amounts of certain proteins differ between muscle and nerve cells. Bloom's Level: Understand Section: 4.02 Topic: Cells 1-!59 16. FtsZ, MreB, and CreS proteins regulate the shape and structure of bacterial (prokaryotes) cells. These proteins are homologous to what structure in eukaryotes? A. extracellular matrix B. DNA processing enzymes C. cytoskeleton D. organelles E. cell wall Bloom's Level: Understand Section: 4.03 Topic: Cells 17. Which of the statements about the synthesis of polypeptides (proteins) is INCORRECT? A. Translation is the process of protein synthesis. B. Proteins are synthesized in the cytosol. C. The synthesis of proteins is a catabolic process. D. The synthesis of proteins requires ribosomes. E. Proteins are synthesized from mRNA template. Bloom's Level: Understand Section: 4.03 Topic: Cells 18. Which cytoskeletal structures represent a highly diverse group of tension-bearing fibers important to the maintenance of cell shape? A. microtubules B. intermediate filaments C. microfilaments D. centrioles E. pili Bloom's Level: Remember Section: 4.03 Topic: Cells 1-!60 19. The cytoskeleton and motor proteins are important for which of the following processes? A. cell motility B. whipping motion of sperm flagella C. movement of amoeba by lamellopodia D. muscle contraction E. All of the choices are correct. Bloom's Level: Understand Section: 4.03 Topic: Cells 20. Which of the following is NOT true for cilia or flagella? A. They are involved in cell motility. B. They require ATP to work. C. They are composed of microfilaments. D. They require motor proteins to work. E. They are composed of an internal structure called the axoneme. Bloom's Level: Understand Section: 4.03 Topic: Cells 21. This cytoskeletal structure is composed of actin and regulates cell shape, cell movement, and muscle contraction. A. microfilaments B. intermediate filaments C. microtubules D. both microfilaments and intermediate filaments E. both microfilaments and microtubules Bloom's Level: Remember Section: 4.03 Topic: Cells 1-!61 22. Large numbers of ribosomes are present in cells that produce which of the following molecules? A. steroids B. lipids C. glucose D. starches E. proteins Bloom's Level: Remember Section: 4.03 Topic: Cells 23. In animal cells microtubules grow from which structure? A. origination centers in the plasma membrane B. outer membrane of the nuclear envelope C. centrosomes containing centrioles D. dimerization centers located throughout the cytosol E. the tips of the chromosomes Bloom's Level: Remember Section: 4.03 Topic: Cells 24. This specialized structure stores pigments, water, inorganic ions and maintains turgor pressure. A. Golgi apparatus B. vacuole C. peroxisomes D. vesicles E. lysosomes Bloom's Level: Remember Section: 4.04 Topic: Cells 1-!62 25. Which would be the most accurate endomembrane route through which a protein is secreted from a cell? A. Golgi apparatus→lysosome→vesicles→plasma membrane B. plasmid→plasma membrane→nuclear envelope→smooth endoplasmic reticulum C. nuclear envelope→vesicles→Golgi apparatus→plasma membrane D. rough endoplasmic reticulum→lysosomes→vesicles→cell membrane E. rough endoplasmic reticulum→ Golgi apparatus→vesicles →plasma membrane Bloom's Level: Apply Section: 4.04 Topic: Cells 26. Which one of the following pairs is mismatched? A. lysosome-protein synthesis B. cytoskeleton-microfilaments C. nucleus-DNA replication D. cell membrane-lipid bilayer E. Golgi apparatus-modification, processing, and sorting of macromolecules Bloom's Level: Remember Section: 4.04 Topic: Cells 27. Which of the following relationships between cell structures and their respective functions is NOT correct? A. chloroplast: photosynthesis B. cell wall: support, protection C. mitochondria: formation of ATP D. ribosomes: site of protein synthesis E. Golgi apparatus: breakdown of macromolecules Bloom's Level: Remember Section: 4.04 Topic: Cells 1-!63 28. This organelle is responsible for the biosynthesis of proteins that are destined for secretion by the cell. A. Golgi apparatus B. lysosome C. vesicles D. endoplasmic reticulum E. mitochondria Bloom's Level: Remember Section: 4.04 Topic: Cells 29. Due to the lack of an enzyme to break down lipids, excess accumulation of lipids in the brain leads to a human disease called Tay Sachs syndrome. Which organelle is likely to be the one that lacks the proper enzyme needed for lipid breakdown? A. lysosome B. tonoplast C. mitochondrion D. Golgi apparatus E. peroxisome Bloom's Level: Apply Section: 4.04 Topic: Cells 30. This organelle is important for the detoxification of alcohol in the liver. A. lysosome B. smooth endoplasmic reticulum C. mitochondrion D. Golgi apparatus E. peroxisome Bloom's Level: Remember Section: 4.04 Topic: Cells 1-!64 31. The gonads produce steroids. Which organelle would likely be present in this tissue? A. ribosome B. lysosome C. smooth endoplasmic reticulum D. mitochondria E. contractile vacuole Bloom's Level: Apply Section: 4.04 Topic: Cells 32. Which of the following is INCORRECT about ribosome biosynthesis and structure? A. Ribosomes are composed of two subunits. B. Ribosomes are composed of RNA. C. All components of the ribosome are produced in the cytosol. D. Ribosomal proteins are produced in the cytosol. E. Ribosomes are composed of proteins. Bloom's Level: Understand Section: 4.04 Topic: Cells 33. Which of the following is not a constituent of the nucleus? A. pores B. envelope or membrane C. chromosomes D. chromatin E. protein modifying enzymes Bloom's Level: Remember Section: 4.04 Topic: Cells 1-!65 34. Lysosomes digest intracellular debris, such as organelles, through the process of ____________. A. endocytosis B. phagocytosis C. autophagy D. pinocytosis E. excocytosis Bloom's Level: Remember Section: 4.04 Topic: Cells 35. In eukaryotes, which of the following is NOT a function of the plasma membrane? A. barrier for separating extracellular and intracellular environments of a cell B. cell-to-cell adhesion C. selective transport D. ATP synthesis E. cell signaling Bloom's Level: Understand Section: 4.04 Topic: Cells 36. Which of the following statements about peroxisomes is INCORRECT? A. They were once viewed as semiautonomous. B. They assist in detoxifying molecules. C. They possess a single membrane. D. They possess their own DNA. E. They possess an enzyme that prevents accumulation of hydrogen peroxide and free radicals. Bloom's Level: Remember Section: 4.04 Topic: Cells 1-!66 37. Which of the following organelles can grow and divide to reproduce themselves? A. mitochondria only B. chloroplasts only C. peroxisomes only D. both mitochondria and chloroplasts E. Mithochondria, chloroplasts, and lysosomes can reproduce themselves. Bloom's Level: Understand Section: 4.05 Topic: Cells 38. Cyanide binds and impairs one of the molecules involved in the production of ATP. Which organelle does cyanide act upon? A. peroxisome B. lysosome C. ribosome D. endoplasmic reticulum E. mitochondria Bloom's Level: Apply Section: 4.05 Topic: Cells 39. Tissues that are metabolically active and utilize large amounts of energy would be rich in A. ribosomes. B. lysosomes. C. smooth endoplasmic reticulum. D. mitochondria. E. contractile vacuoles. Bloom's Level: Understand Section: 4.05 Topic: Cells 1-!67 40. Which of the following plant organelle is a colorless plastid that stores starch in roots? A. thyloplasts B. chloroplasts C. chromoplasts D. amyloplasts E. both chloroplasts and chromoplasts Bloom's Level: Remember Section: 4.05 Topic: Cells 41. Which of the following is NOT a common characteristic of both mitochondrial and chloroplast genomes? A. Composed of a double stranded chromosome. B. Composed of a single circular chromosome C. Has a small genome. D. Chloroplast genome is larger than the mitochondrial genome. Bloom's Level: Remember Section: 4.05 Topic: Cells 42. Which of the following is NOT a function of a signal recognition particle (SRP)? A. Binds to a receptor in the endoplasmic reticulum (ER). B. Docks the ribosome over a channel protein. C. Helps a vesicle bud from the endoplasmic membrane (ER) D. Recognizes the endoplasmic membrane (ER) signal sequence Bloom's Level: Remember Section: 4.06 Topic: Cells True / False Questions 1-!68 43. The cell is the basic structural/functional unit common to all living organisms. TRUE Bloom's Level: Remember Section: 4.01 Topic: Cells 44. Resolution, contrast, and magnification are three important parameters in microscopy. TRUE Bloom's Level: Remember Section: 4.01 Topic: Cells 45. Fluorescence microscopy enables researchers to label and visualize a particular type of cellular protein or organelle. TRUE Bloom's Level: Remember Section: 4.01 Topic: Cells 46. The flagellum is used for cell motility in eukaryotes only. FALSE Bloom's Level: Remember Section: 4.02 Topic: Cells 47. All plant cells contain centrioles. FALSE Bloom's Level: Remember Figure: 4.07 Section: 4.02 Topic: Cells 1-!69 1-!70 48. The presence of a cell wall and chloroplasts are two features that distinguish a plant cell from an animal cell. TRUE Bloom's Level: Remember Section: 4.02 Topic: Cells 49. The genome rather than proteome most specifically determines how a cell looks and functions. FALSE Bloom's Level: Understand Section: 4.02 Topic: Cells 50. The glycocalyx is a protective coating that prevents bacteria from dehydration and potential destruction by the host organism. TRUE Bloom's Level: Remember Section: 4.02 Topic: Cells 51. Myosin is a motor protein that walks along intermediate filaments. FALSE Bloom's Level: Remember Section: 4.03 Topic: Cells 52. The flagellum is composed of a 9 + 2 arrangement of microtubules called the axoneme. TRUE Bloom's Level: Remember Section: 4.03 Topic: Cells 1-!71 1-!72 53. The Golgi apparatus is much like a warehouse; it processes proteins and sorts them for delivery to certain parts of the cell. TRUE Bloom's Level: Understand Section: 4.04 Topic: Cells 54. Materials move in and out of the nucleus via endocytosis and exocytosis. FALSE Bloom's Level: Understand Section: 4.04 Topic: Cells 55. Both lysosomes and peroxisomes are important for detoxifying substances in the cell. FALSE Bloom's Level: Remember Section: 4.04 Topic: Cells 56. Photosynthesis in plants occurs in chloroplasts. TRUE Bloom's Level: Remember Section: 4.05 Topic: Cells 57. The Endosymbiosis Theory best describes the origins of peroxisomes in eukaryotes. FALSE Bloom's Level: Understand Section: 4.05 Topic: Cells 1-!73 58. In eukaryotes, most proteins contain short stretches of amino acid sequences called sorting signals which direct the protein to the correct cellular location. TRUE Bloom's Level: Remember Section: 4.06 Topic: Cells 59. The first step in cotranslational sorting is the peptide is directed to the endoplasmic reticulum. TRUE Bloom's Level: Remember Section: 4.06 Topic: Cells 60. Chaperones keep proteins destined for the mitochondrial matrix in their three dimensional active structure. FALSE Bloom's Level: Remember Section: 4.06 Topic: Cells Chapter 05 Test Bank: Membrane Structure, Synthesis, and Transport Multiple Choice Questions 1-!74 1. Which of the following organisms is likely to contain biomembranes? A. plants B. animals C. prokaryotes D. plants and animals E. All living organisms contain biomembranes. Bloom's Level: Understand Section: 5.01 Topic: Cells 2. Cellular membranes are A. fluid. B. solely composed of lipids. C. composed of a single layer of amphipathic molecules. D. selective to the transport of gases and small molecules only. E. characteristic of eukaryotes, but not prokaryotes. Bloom's Level: Understand Section: 5.01 Topic: Cells 3. Which of the following is the major lipid found in membranes? A. steroids B. cholesterol C. triglycerides D. phospholipids E. saturated fatty acids Bloom's Level: Remember Section: 5.01 Topic: Cells 1-!75 4. Which of the following is NOT true of the plasma membrane? A. It is composed of an extracellular and intracellular layer of phospholipids. B. The extracellular and intracellular layers or leaflets are highly symmetrical. C. The membrane contains peripheral proteins. D. Integral proteins span through the membrane. E. The membrane contains glycolipids and glycoproteins. Bloom's Level: Understand Section: 5.01 Topic: Cells 5. Which of the following statements about plasma membranes is INCORRECT? A. They are composed of phospholipids. B. They have both integral and peripheral proteins. C. They are relatively rigid structures. D. They are composed of two leaflets of phospholipids. E. They function to separate the extracellular and intracellular environment. Bloom's Level: Understand Section: 5.01 Topic: Cells 6. Scientists unearth a Wooly Mammoth from the Siberian Ice Sheath and discover that a eukaryotic "amoeba"-like cell is still alive. Which component of the cell membrane might contribute to maintaining the fluidity of plasma membranes under freezing conditions? A. peripheral proteins B. high levels of long fatty acyl tails within the lipid bilayer C. high levels of unsaturated fatty acyl tails within the lipid bilayer D. absence of cholesterol E. high levels of saturated fatty acyl tails within the lipid bilayer Bloom's Level: Understand Section: 5.01 Topic: Cells 1-!76 7. Which of the following statements is CORRECT about biomembranes? A. The phospholipid tails interact with water. B. The phospholipid head groups are repelled by water. C. Electron microscopy indicates the membrane looks like train tracks with two light lines of lipids separated by a dark line containing proteins. D. The membrane is composed of two protein layers separated by a lipid layer. E. Membrane proteins are globular, and some span the phospholipid bilayer and project from both sides of the membrane. Bloom's Level: Understand Section: 5.01 Topic: Cells 8. A scientist produces an artificial membrane from phospholipids and notices that oxygen, but not glucose readily moves through the membrane. What might account for the inability of glucose to move through the artificial membrane? A. The artificial membrane lacked a protein needed for glucose transport. B. The artificial membrane lacked the appropriate types of phospholipids for glucose transport. C. Oxygen readily passes through the membrane, so glucose should have as well. D. The membrane lacked an adequate amount of amphipathic molecules for glucose transport. E. Thermodynamics does not allow glucose to pass through membranes produced either artificially or from living organisms. Bloom's Level: Apply Section: 5.01 Topic: Cells 9. Which of the following is NOT a component of plasma membranes? A. glycosylated proteins B. phospholipids C. glycolipids D. glycosylated nucleic acids E. cholesterol Bloom's Level: Remember Section: 5.01 Topic: Cells 1-!77 1-!78 10. Around what percentage of all genes encode membrane proteins? A. 0% B. 10% C. 25% D. 50% E. 75% Bloom's Level: Remember Section: 5.01 Topic: Cells 11. Which of the following is NOT a function of cellular membranes? A. selective uptake and export of ions and molecules B. cell compartmentalization C. cell signaling D. maintenance of cell shape E. cell adhesion Bloom's Level: Understand Section: 5.01 Topic: Cells 12. Which of the following statements is TRUE of membrane phospholipids? A. The hydrophilic head groups face the interior portion of the membrane. B. The hydrophobic tail groups face the exterior portion of the membrane. C. They spontaneously flip-flop from one side of the membrane to the other. D. They freely move laterally within the membrane. E. They rarely flip-flop across or move laterally within the membrane. Bloom's Level: Remember Section: 5.01 Topic: Cells 1-!79 13. Phospholipids and ________ are the major components of cell membranes. A. glycolipids B. cholesterol C. glucose transporters D. glycocalyx E. proteins Bloom's Level: Remember Section: 5.01 Topic: Cells 14. Cell surface molecules are labeled with a fluorescent tag and then a portion of them are bleached with a laser beam. What would one observe after the cell is incubated for a few minutes? A. The bleached molecules would disappear into the cell. B. The bleached molecules would diffuse laterally through the membrane and intermix with unbleached molecules. C. The bleached molecules would remain in the spot where bleaching occurred. D. All the bleached molecules would flip-flop across the cell membrane. E. All of the choices are correct. Bloom's Level: Understand Section: 5.01 Topic: Cells 15. The following affect membrane fluidity EXCEPT A. glycoprotein composition. B. cholesterol. C. phospholipid composition. D. the length of the phospholipid fatty acyl tail. E. the relative amounts of phospholipids containing saturated or unsaturated fatty acyl tails. Bloom's Level: Remember Section: 5.01 Topic: Cells 1-!80 16. Which of the following is TRUE of phospholipids that flip-flop across the lipid bilayer? A. The process requires energy. B. The process occurs spontaneously, requiring no energy. C. The process requires an enzyme called flippase. D. The process requires energy and the flippase enzyme. E. The process occurs spontaneously and requires the flippase enzyme. Bloom's Level: Understand Section: 5.01 Topic: Cells 17. Cellular membranes are mosaic and A. fluid. B. rigid. C. symmetrical. D. highly permeable to large molecules. E. All of the choices are correct. Bloom's Level: Remember Section: 5.01 Topic: Cells 18. How might a plant cell compensate for the excessive membrane fluidity that occurs during prolonged exposures to elevated temperature? A. Reduce membrane cholesterol content. B. Alter the lipid composition to have longer fatty acyl tails and fewer double bonds. C. Alter the lipid composition to have shorter fatty acyl tails and more double bonds. D. Alter the lipid composition to have shorter and more unsaturated fatty acyl tails. E. Reduce cholesterol content and alter the lipid composition to have shorter fatty acyl tails. Bloom's Level: Apply Section: 5.01 Topic: Cells 1-!81 19. Glycosylated proteins and lipids within the plasma membrane are important for A. cell recognition. B. cell protection. C. cell energy storage. D. cell recognition and protection. E. cell protection and energy storage. Bloom's Level: Remember Section: 5.01 Topic: Cells 20. Which of the following is important for allowing large, charged molecules to pass through the membrane? A. peripheral proteins B. cholesterol C. glycosylated lipids D. transmembrane proteins E. carbohydrate channels Bloom's Level: Understand Section: 5.01 Topic: Cells 21. Placing celery sticks in fresh water will make them more turgid and harder. This is because A. the celery is hypotonic to fresh water. B. the celery is hypertonic to fresh water. C. the celery is isotonic to fresh water. D. water moves from the celery sticks into fresh water. E. None of the choices are correct. Bloom's Level: Understand Figure: 5.15 Section: 5.03 Topic: Cells 1-!82 22. Of the following molecules, which passes through a lipid bilayer most readily? A. carbon dioxide B. glucose C. K+ D. arginine E. RNA Bloom's Level: Remember Section: 5.03 Topic: Cells 23. Which of the following molecules would you predict moves through a lipid bilayer most rapidly? A. C6H12O6 B. CH3OH C. C2H5OH D. C4H10 E. NH2SO2CH3 Bloom's Level: Apply Section: 5.03 Topic: Cells 24. Animal cells are permeable to water and urea but NOT to sucrose. The inside of a cell contains 1 M sucrose and 1 M urea and the outside 1 M sucrose and 2 M urea. The solution inside with respect to outside the cell is A. hypotonic. B. turgid. C. isotonic. D. saturated. E. hypertonic. Bloom's Level: Understand Section: 5.03 Topic: Cells 1-!83 25. Animal cells are permeable to water and urea but NOT to sucrose. Initially, the inside of a cell contains 1 M sucrose and 1 M urea and the outside 1 M sucrose and 2 M urea. After the system reaches equilibrium, what changes are observed? A. The molarity of urea would be higher outside than inside the cell. B. The molarity of sucrose would be similar inside and outside the cell. C. Water would move out of the cell causing the cell to shrivel. D. The molarity of urea would be higher outside the cell and the molarity of sucrose would be similar inside and outside the cell. E. The molarity of sucrose would be similar inside and outside the cell and water would move out of the cell causing the cell to shrivel. Bloom's Level: Understand Section: 5.03 Topic: Cells 26. Which of the following statements is CORRECT about active transport? A. It requires energy. B. It is an active process in which molecules move from a region of lower concentration to one of higher concentration. C. It requires integral proteins. D. It is necessary to maintain solute gradients across a membrane. E. All of the choices are correct. Bloom's Level: Understand Section: 5.03 Topic: Cells 27. Which of the following is NOT true of passive diffusion? A. Passive diffusion is the process by which molecules move from an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration. B. Passive diffusion is a spontaneous process. C. Passive diffusion requires the presence of a transmembrane protein. D. Passive diffusion will occur so long as the membrane is freely permeable to the solute. E. Passive diffusion requires no energy. Bloom's Level: Remember Section: 5.03 Topic: Cells 1-!84 1-!85 28. Following a meal glucose must move from the gut lumen where there is a high glucose concentration into the intestinal cell where there is a relatively low level of glucose. This movement is called A. passive diffusion. B. facilitated diffusion. C. active transport. D. endocytosis. E. exocytosis. Bloom's Level: Apply Section: 5.03 Topic: Cells 29. The pressure required to stop water from moving across the membrane by osmosis is called A. transport pressure. B. crenation pressure. C. atmospheric pressure. D. osmotic pressure. E. mechanical pressure. Bloom's Level: Remember Section: 5.03 Topic: Cells 30. Water diffuses through certain organs such as the kidneys and bladder much faster than would occur by passive diffusion through a lipid bilayer alone. What accounts for this more rapid rate of water transport in these organs? A. The composition of lipids changes to promote water transport. B. Presence of aquaporin channels for facilitated diffusion of water. C. Presence of a water pump. D. Presence of an ATP-driven enzyme for water transport. E. The presence of molecules that bind water and change its membrane permeability properties. Bloom's Level: Remember Section: 5.03 Topic: Cells 1-!86 1-!87 31. The movement of sucrose and H+ into the cell by a common membrane protein reflects transport through a A. voltage-gated channel. B. mechanosensitive channel. C. uniporter. D. symporter. E. antiporter. Bloom's Level: Remember Section: 5.03 Topic: Cells 32. The statements about transport of Ca2+ from the cytosol (low Ca2+ concentration) into the endoplasmic reticulum (high Ca2+ concentration) are true EXCEPT which of the following? A. Calcium movement involves the use of a pump. B. Calcium movement involves active transport. C. Calcium movement occurs by facilitated diffusion using a transporter protein. D. Calcium movement requires energy. E. Calcium movement occurs through a transmembrane protein. Bloom's Level: Understand Section: 5.03 Topic: Cells 33. Acetylcholine binds this membrane protein, which subsequently opens to allow sodium to enter the cell. Acetylcholine exerts its effect on what type of transport protein? A. ligand-gated channel B. voltage-gated channel C. mechanosensitive-gated channels D. regulatory protein-gated channels E. stretch-sensitive gated channels Bloom's Level: Remember Section: 5.03 Topic: Cells 1-!88 34. Sodium concentrations are higher outside and glucose concentrations are higher inside the cell. Using the same membrane protein for Na+ and glucose transport, what is it called when a Na+ electrochemical gradient is used to drive glucose transport into the cell against its concentration gradient? A. primary active transport B. secondary active transport C. primary facilitated diffusion D. secondary facilitated diffusion E. passive diffusion Bloom's Level: Understand Section: 5.03 Topic: Cells 35. ________ bind two or more ions or molecules and transport them in opposite directions across a membrane. A. uniporters B. symporters C. antiporters D. dual transporters E. channel pumps Bloom's Level: Remember Figure: 5.23 Section: 5.03 Topic: Cells 36. Which of the following statement about the plasma membrane Na+/K+-ATPase pump is INCORRECT? A. It is used to generate sodium and potassium gradients across the membrane. B. It is an electrogenic pump. C. It is a pump for active transport of K+ out of the cell and Na+ into the cell. D. It is a pump for active transport of K+ into the cell and Na+ out of the cell. E. It is a pump that utilizes energy from ATP. Bloom's Level: Understand Section: 5.03 Topic: Cells 1-!89 1-!90 37. The release of insulin from pancreatic cells occurs by A. endocytosis. B. pinocytosis. C. phagocytosis. D. exocytosis. E. receptor-mediated endocytosis. Bloom's Level: Remember Section: 5.03 Topic: Cells 38. Which of the following best describes the selective uptake of a specific cargo molecule into the cell through receptor binding and aggregation? A. pinocytosis B. receptor-mediated endocytosis C. autophagocytosis D. phagocytosis E. receptor-mediated exocytosis Bloom's Level: Remember Section: 5.03 Topic: Cells True / False Questions 39. Plant cell membranes contain cholesterol. FALSE Bloom's Level: Remember Section: 5.01 Topic: Cells 1-!91 40. Membrane proteins are attached to or embedded in the phospholipid bilayer. TRUE Bloom's Level: Remember Section: 5.01 Topic: Cells 1-!92 41. The presence of integral proteins allows membranes to be selectively permeable to certain molecules. TRUE Bloom's Level: Remember Section: 5.01 Topic: Cells 42. Freeze fracture electron microscopy allows one to observe the two-dimensional cross section of membrane proteins. FALSE Bloom's Level: Understand Section: 5.01 Topic: Cells 43. The current model that best describes biomembranes is the Rigid Mosaic Model. FALSE Bloom's Level: Understand Section: 5.01 Topic: Cells 44. Diffusion is the movement of a molecule from an area of high to low concentration. TRUE Bloom's Level: Remember Section: 5.03 Topic: Cells 45. Osmosis describes the movement of water from an area of high to low solute concentration. FALSE Bloom's Level: Remember Section: 5.03 Topic: Cells 1-!93 1-!94 46. Movement of molecules down their concentration gradient can drive the movement of a different molecule against its concentration gradient. TRUE Bloom's Level: Remember Section: 5.03 Topic: Cells 47. Facilitated diffusion is required for the movement of Na+ out of the cell. FALSE Bloom's Level: Understand Section: 5.03 Topic: Cells 48. The Na+/K+-ATPase pump is a ligand-gated ion channel. FALSE Bloom's Level: Remember Section: 5.03 Topic: Cells 49. A macrophage (immune cell) consuming a bacteria is best described as phagocytosis. TRUE Bloom's Level: Remember Section: 5.03 Topic: Cells 50. Ion gradients across the membrane drive numerous cellular functions. TRUE Bloom's Level: Remember Section: 5.03 Topic: Cells 1-!95  Chapter 06 Test Bank: An Introduction to Energy, Enzymes, and Metabolism Multiple Choice Questions 1. Which of the following represents two general factors that determine the fate of a chemical reaction in living cells? A. its enzyme and rate B. its enzyme and direction C. its direction and rate D. its rate and product E. its enzyme and products Bloom's Level: Remember Section: 6.01 Section: 6.04 Topic: Cells 2. Water held behind a dam would best reflect ________. A. potential energy B. kinetic energy C. chemical energy D. heat energy E. mechanical energy Bloom's Level: Understand Section: 6.01 Topic: Cells 1-!96 3. All of the following have potential energy EXCEPT A. ATP. B. nitrogen. C. an electrical/ion gradient. D. concentration gradient. E. NADH Bloom's Level: Understand Section: 6.01 Topic: Cells 1-!97 4. According to the first law of thermodynamics A. the transfer of energy increases the disorder of a system. B. the transfer of energy increases entropy. C. energy cannot be created or destroyed. D. once energy is created it can be destroyed. E. kinetic energy is based on location. Bloom's Level: Remember Section: 6.01 Topic: Cells 5. The amount of available energy that can be used to promote change do work is called A. enthalpy. B. entropy. C. free energy. D. kinetic energy. E. heat. Bloom's Level: Remember Section: 6.01 Topic: Cells 6. Which of the following is TRUE for a reaction that has a ΔG ! 0? A. The reaction will require energy. B. The reaction will yield energy. C. The reaction is spontaneous. D. The reaction will require energy and is spontaneous. E. The reaction will yield energy and is spontaneous. Bloom's Level: Understand Section: 6.01 Topic: Cells 1-!98 7. Which is true of the following reaction: ! ? A. It has a change in free energy that is less than 0. B. It has a change in free energy that is greater than 0. C. It can be used to drive endergonic reactions. D. It yields energy. E. It has a change in free energy that is greater than 0, and hence can be used to drive endergonic reactions. Bloom's Level: Understand Figure: 6.03 Section: 6.01 Topic: Cells 8. Which of the following reactions would require the hydrolysis of at least two ATP molecules (ΔG = -14.6 kCal) for it to occur? A. A reaction that has a ΔG = -8 kCal. B. A reaction that has a ΔG = +8 kCal. C. A reaction that has a ΔG = -16 kCal. D. A reaction that has a ΔG = +16 kCal. E. A reaction that has a ΔG = -14.6 kCal. Bloom's Level: Apply Section: 6.01 Topic: Cells 9. A chemical reaction that has a positive ΔG is correctly described as A. endergonic. B. endothermic. C. enthalpic. D. spontaneous E. exothermic. Bloom's Level: Remember Section: 6.01 Topic: Cells 1-!99 10. Which of the following is true for ALL exergonic reactions? A. The products have more total energy than the reactants. B. The reaction proceeds with a net release of free energy. C. Some reactants will be converted to products. D. A net input of energy from the surroundings is required for the reactions to proceed. E. The reactions are nonspontaneous. Bloom's Level: Understand Section: 6.01 Topic: Cells 11. Which of the following statements is a logical consequence of the second law of thermodynamics? A. If the entropy of a system increases, there must be a corresponding decrease in the entropy of the universe. B. If there is an increase in the energy of a system, there must be a corresponding decrease in the energy of the rest of the universe. C. Every energy transfer requires activation energy from the environment. D. Every chemical reaction must increase the total entropy of the universe. E. Energy can be transferred or transformed, but it cannot be created or destroyed. Bloom's Level: Understand Figure: 6.02 Section: 6.01 Topic: Cells 12. Which of the following statements about enzymes is FALSE? A. The active site of the enzyme is where the chemical reaction takes place. B. The substrate binds to the enzyme with low affinity. C. The enzyme undergoes a conformational change that brings substrates closer together in an induced fit. D. The optimal activity of an enzyme occurs over a narrow temperature range. E. The optimal activity of an enzyme occurs within a narrow pH range. Bloom's Level: Understand Section: 6.02 Topic: Cells 1-!100 13. How does an enzyme work to catalyze a reaction? A. It supplies the energy to speed up a reaction. B. It lowers the energy barrier needed for reactants to achieve the transition state. C. It lowers the energy of activation of a reaction D. It supplies the energy to speed up a reaction and lowers the energy barrier needed for reactants to achieve the transition state. E. It lowers the energy barrier needed for reactants to achieve the transition state or lowers the energy of activation of a reaction. Bloom's Level: Remember Figure: 6.04 Section: 6.02 Topic: Cells 14. If one were to double the amount of enzyme in a reaction with an initial ΔG of -5 kcal/ mole, what would the ΔG be? A. -5 kcal/mole B. -10 kcal/mole C. -20 kcal/mole D. +5 kcal/mole E. +10 kcal/mole Bloom's Level: Understand Section: 6.02 Topic: Cells 15. Altering the three-dimensional structure of an enzyme might A. change the amount of energy needed for a reaction. B. prevent the substrate from binding the enzyme's active site. C. change the type of substrate that binds the enzyme's active site. D. change the type of product produced in the reaction. E. allow the reaction to occur at a faster rate. Bloom's Level: Remember Section: 6.02 Topic: Cells 1-!101 16. The primary function of an enzyme or any biological catalyst is to A. reduce the energy of activation of a reaction. B. increase the rate of a reaction. C. change the direction of a reaction. D. reduced the energy of activation and increase the rate of a reaction. E. increase the rate of a reaction and change the direction of a reaction. Bloom's Level: Remember Section: 6.02 Topic: Cells 17. How can one increase the rate of a chemical reaction? A. Increase the activation energy needed. B. Cool the reactants. C. Decrease the concentration of the reactants. D. Add a catalyst. E. Increase the entropy of the reactants. Bloom's Level: Remember Figure: 6.04 Section: 6.02 Topic: Cells 18. Which of the following statements regarding enzymes is TRUE? A. Enzymes decrease the free energy change of a reaction. B. Enzymes increase the rate of a reaction. C. Enzymes change the direction of chemical reactions. D. Enzymes are permanently altered by the reactions they catalyze. E. Enzymes prevent changes in substrate concentrations. Bloom's Level: Remember Section: 6.02 Topic: Cells 1-!102 19. Which of the following would best reflect the general steps of an enzyme-catalyzed reaction? A. enzyme undergoes conformational changes → substrates bind to enzyme → substrates are converted to products → products are released. B. substrates bind to enzyme →substrates are converted to products → enzyme undergoes conformational changes → products are released C. substrates bind to enzyme → enzyme undergoes conformational changes → substrates are converted to products → products are released D. enzyme undergoes conformational changes →substrates are converted to products → substrates bind to enzyme → products are released E. substrates bind to enzyme → substrates are converted to products → products are released → enzyme undergoes conformational changes Bloom's Level: Remember Figure: 6.05 Section: 6.02 Topic: Cells 20. Which term most precisely describes the process of building larger molecules from smaller ones? A. exergonic B. catabolism C. metabolism D. hydrolysis E. anabolism Bloom's Level: Remember Section: 6.03 Topic: Cells 1-!103 21. Which of the following is NOT true for ATP? A. It is produced from ATP synthase. B. It is produced by a rotary machine. C. Its production requires an exergonic reaction. D. Its hydrolysis yields energy. E. Its hydrolysis can drive endergonic reactions. Bloom's Level: Understand Section: 6.03 Topic: Cells 1-!104 22. Which of the following statements about catabolic reactions is FALSE? A. They recycle organic building blocks. B. They produce energy like ATP. C. They produce energy in the form of energy intermediates like NADH. D. They occur through the oxidation of substrates. E. They usually require an input of energy. Bloom's Level: Remember Section: 6.03 Topic: Cells 23. Which of the statements in INCORRECT about the following reaction? Phosphoenolpyruvate + ADP → Pyruvate + ATP (ΔG = -7.5 kcal/mole) A. It is anabolic. B. It is catabolic. C. It can be used to drive an endergonic reaction. D. The synthesis of ATP occurs by substrate-level phosphorylation. E. It is a reaction that yields energy. Bloom's Level: Understand Section: 6.03 Topic: Cells 24. For the generalized equation Ae- +B → A + Be-, where e represents an electron. Which of the following statements is TRUE? A. Molecule A is reduced. B. Molecule B is oxidzied. C. Molecule A is oxidized. D. Molecule B is reduced. E. Both molecule A is oxidized and molecule B is reduced. Bloom's Level: Understand Section: 6.03 Topic: Cells 1-!105 25. Which term most precisely describes the cellular process of breaking down large molecules into smaller ones? A. catalysis B. metabolism C. anabolism D. dehydration E. catabolism Bloom's Level: Remember Section: 6.03 Topic: Cells 26. Which of the following statements about feedback inhibition in metabolic pathways is most CORRECT? A. The product of the pathway inhibits its own production by binding reactants in the metabolic pathway. B. The product of the pathway inhibits its own production by competitively inhibiting the binding of a substrate to the active site of an enzyme within the metabolic pathway. C. The product of the pathway inhibits its own production by noncompetitively inhibiting the binding of a substrate to the active site of an enyzme within the metabolic pathway. D. The product of the pathway inhibits its own production by noncompetitively binding to reactants. E. All of the choices are correct. Bloom's Level: Understand Figure: 6.13 Section: 6.03 Topic: Cells 1-!106 27. In the biochemical regulation of metabolic pathways, how would one overcome the effects of a competitive inhibitor on enzyme activity? A. Increase the amount of substrate for the enzyme. B. Increase the amount of competitive inhibitor. C. Increase the temperature of the reaction. D. Decrease the amount of enzyme. E. Add a noncompetitive inhibitor of the enzyme. Bloom's Level: Apply Section: 6.03 Topic: Cells 1-!107 28. Which of the following structures or molecular machines is important for protein degradation in eukaryotes? A. cytoskeleton B. flagellum C. ribosome D. ATP synthase E. proteasome Bloom's Level: Remember Section: 6.04 Topic: Cells 29. Which of the following statements about ubiquitin is TRUE? A. Ubiquitin recognizes improperly folded proteins. B. Ubiquitin targets proteins for degradation. C. Ubiquitin targets proteins for post-translational processing. D. Ubiquitin recognizes improperly folded proteins and targets them for degradation. E. Ubiquitin targets proteins for degradation and post-translational processing. Bloom's Level: Remember Section: 6.04 Topic: Cells 30. Which is the correct sequence of events for protein degradation in eukaryotes? A. ubiquitin binds target protein → protein unfolds and enters proteasome → protein directed to proteasome → protein digested → amino acids are released and recycled B. ubiquitin binds target protein → protein directed to proteasome → protein unfolds and enters proteasome → protein digested → amino acids are released and recycled C. protein directed to proteasome → ubiquitin binds target protein → protein unfolds and enters proteasome → protein digested → amino acids are released and recycled D. protein directed to proteasome → protein unfolds and enters proteasome → ubiquitin binds target protein → protein digested → amino acids are released and recycled E. protein directed to proteasome → protein unfolds and enters proteasome → protein digested → ubiquitin binds target protein → amino acids are released and recycled Bloom's Level: Remember Figure: 6.15 Section: 6.04 Topic: Cells 1-!108 1-!109 31. Which two are primary complexes for protein synthesis and degradation in eukaryotes? A. ribosomes and proteasomes B. ribosomes and lysosomes C. proteases and lysosomes D. proteases and proteasomes E. ribosomes and mRNA Bloom's Level: Remember Section: 6.04 Topic: Cells True / False Questions 32. Reactions that produce glucose have less entropy than those that oxidize glucose. FALSE Bloom's Level: Remember Section: 6.01 Topic: Cells 33. A reaction with a ΔG ! 0 is endergonic and requires a net input of energy. TRUE Bloom's Level: Remember Section: 6.01 Topic: Cells 34. Enzymes are consumed in chemical reactions and must therefore be replenished. FALSE Bloom's Level: Remember Section: 6.02 Topic: Cells 1-!110 35. Temperature, pH, and ionic concentrations play an important role in the proper functioning of enzymes. TRUE Bloom's Level: Remember Section: 6.02 Topic: Cells 36. Noncompetitive inhibition within a metabolic pathway prevents excess accumulation of the pathway's product. This occurs when the product binds the active site of an enzyme, reducing its activity, and the subsequent accumulation of product. FALSE Bloom's Level: Understand Section: 6.02 Topic: Cells 37. Catabolic and anabolic reactions in living cells involve the transfer of electrons from one molecule to another in reduction-oxidation reactions. TRUE Bloom's Level: Understand Section: 6.03 Topic: Cells 38. Metabolism reflects only those reactions that yield energy. FALSE Bloom's Level: Remember Section: 6.03 Topic: Cells 1-!111 39. The half-life of a molecule is the time it takes for 50% of the molecule to be broken down and recycled. TRUE Bloom's Level: Remember Section: 6.04 Topic: Cells 40. Autophagy is an important process that removes worn-out organelles, recycles components, then release them into the cytosol. TRUE Bloom's Level: Remember Figure: 6.16 Section: 6.04 Topic: Cells Chapter 07 Test Bank: Cellular Respiration, Fermentation, and Secondary Metabolism Multiple Choice Questions 1. The equation, C6H12O6 + 6O2 → 6CO2 + 6H2O (ATP + Heat), describes a reaction that A. is endergonic. B. requires energy. C. occurs in plants only. D. is exergonic. E. is anabolic. Bloom's Level: Remember Section: 7.01 Topic: Cells 1-!112 2. The equation, C6H12O6 + 6O2 → 6CO2 + 6H2O (ATP + Heat), describes which of the following processes? A. photosynthesis B. cell respiration C. cell fermentation D. glycolysis E. anaerobic metabolism Bloom's Level: Remember Section: 7.01 Topic: Cells 1-!113 3. Which of the following are the final by-products of glucose oxidation during aerobic cell respiration? A. ATP only B. heat only C. carbon dioxide only D. both ATP and heat only E. ATP, heat, and carbon dioxide Bloom's Level: Remember Figure: 7.01 Section: 7.01 Topic: Cells 4. Which of the following processes will occur in the presence or absence of oxygen? A. glycolysis B. electron transport chain C. oxidative phosphorylation D. cellular respiration E. citric acid cycle Bloom's Level: Remember Section: 7.01 Topic: Cells 5. Where does glycolysis takes place? A. mitochondrial matrix B. mitochondrial membrane C. mitochondrial inner membrane D. mitochondrial intermembrane space E. cytosol Bloom's Level: Remember Figure: 7.01 Section: 7.01 Topic: Cells 1-!114 6. Which of the following is NOT a process of aerobic respiration? A. citric acid cycle B. glycolysis C. acetyl CoA formation D. oxidative phosphorylation E. lactate fermentation Bloom's Level: Understand Section: 7.01 Topic: Cells 7. Which of the following is TRUE of the citric acid cycle? A. It yields most of the NAD+ in cell respiration. B. It produces oxygen. C. It yields ATP, NADH, and FADH2 as energy intermediates. D. It occurs on the inner membrane of the mitochondria. E. It produces ATP as the primary energy intermediate. Bloom's Level: Understand Figure: 7.06 Section: 7.01 Topic: Cells 8. Which of the following function: location relationship is INCORRECT? A. acetyl CoA formation; cytosol B. citric acid cycle; mitochondria matrix C. oxidative phosphorylation; mitochondria inner membrane D. glycolysis; cytosol E. electron transport chain and ATP synthase; mitochondria inner membrane Bloom's Level: Understand Figure: 7.01 Section: 7.01 Topic: Cells 1-!115 9. Which compound has the highest free energy and produces the most ATP when oxidized? A. acetyl CoA B. glucose C. pyruvate D. carbon E. both pyruvate and carbon Bloom's Level: Understand Section: 7.01 Topic: Cells 10. Cellular respiration produces the most chemical in the form of ATP from which of the following? A. the electron transport chain B. the citric acid cycle C. substrate-level phosphorylation D. glycolysis E. oxidative phosphorylation Bloom's Level: Remember Figure: 7.01 Section: 7.01 Topic: Cells 11. How many ATP and NADH molecules are produced from each molecule of glucose in the citric acid cycle only? A. 4 ATP, 2 NADH B. 3 ATP, 4 NADH C. 2 ATP, 6 NADH D. 1 ATP, 2 NADH E. 0 ATP, 6 NADH Bloom's Level: Remember Figure: 7.01 Section: 7.01 Topic: Cells 1-!116 12. How many net ATP and NADH molecules are produced from one molecule of glucose during glycolysis? A. 4 ATP, 2 NADH B. 3 ATP, 4 NADH C. 2 ATP, 6 NADH D. 2 ATP, 2 NADH E. 0 ATP, 6 NADH Bloom's Level: Understand Figure: 7.01 Section: 7.01 Topic: Cells 13. High-energy electrons from molecules of NADH and FADH2 are transferred to a chain of proteins within the electron transport chain. What is the final electron acceptor of the electron transport chain? A. carbon dioxide B. oxygen C. cytochrome c D. ubiquinone E. NAD+ Bloom's Level: Understand Figure: 7.08 Section: 7.01 Topic: Cells 14. Which of the following statements is TRUE of both aerobic and anaerobic respiration? A. Both use glycolysis to oxidize glucose to pyruvate. B. Both produce NADH as high-energy intermediates. C. Both produce either lactic acid or enthanol as a bioproduct. D. Both use glycolysis to oxidize glucose to pyruvate and both produce NADH as high- energy intermediates. E. Both produce NADH as high-energy intermediates and both produce either lactic acid or enthanol as a bioproduct. Bloom's Level: Understand Section: 7.01 Topic: Cells 1-!117 1-!118 15. Which would be TRUE if a metabolic poison were to completely inhibit the function of mitochondrial ATP synthase? A. The pH difference across the inner mitochondrial membrane would decrease. B. The pH difference across the inner mitochondrial membrane would increase. C. ATP synthesis would increase. D. Oxygen consumption would decrease. E. The accumulation of NADH would increase. Bloom's Level: Understand Section: 7.01 Topic: Cells 16. Which of the following is most directly responsible for driving ATP synthase and the production of ATP in cellular respiration? A. The electron transport chain pumping H+ from the mitochondrial matrix into the intermembrane space. B. The flow of electrons down the electron transport chain. C. The loss in free energy that occurs as an electron moves down the transport chain. D. The H+ electrochemical gradient across the inner mitochondria membrane. E. The ability of oxygen to rapidly capture an electron and energize ATP synthase. Bloom's Level: Understand Section: 7.01 Topic: Cells 17. Which of the following statements about the electron transport chain in cell respiration is CORRECT? A. Electrons move from NADH to a chain of proteins with lower electronegativities. B. The electron transport chain of proteins uses ATP to pump H+ across the inner mitochondria membrane against its electrochemical gradient. C. The loss in free energy of the electron initially donated by NADH is used to transport H+ across the inner mitochondrial membrane against its electrochemical gradient. D. The electron transport chain of proteins contains pores that are leaky to H+. E. The ATP synthase pump generates a H+ gradient across the inner mitochondrial membrane. Bloom's Level: Understand Figure: 7.07 Section: 7.01 Topic: Cells 1-!119 1-!120 18. Assuming a fat molecule can be oxidized into 2 glycerol molecules, which are immediately converted to glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate, in intermediate glycolysis, how many ATP can be produced from a fat molecule? A. 4 B. 8 C. 24 D. 36 E. 60 Bloom's Level: Apply Section: 7.02 Topic: Cells 19. Where are the protein complexes associated with the electron transport chain located? A. mitochondrial matrix B. mitochondrial membrane C. mitochondrial inner membrane D. mitochondrial intermembrane space E. cytosol Bloom's Level: Remember Figure: 7.07 Section: 7.01 Topic: Cells 20. During glycolysis, glucose is broken down into A. acetyl CoA. B. NADH. C. pyruvate. D. oxygen. E. ATP. Bloom's Level: Remember Figure: 7.02 Section: 7.01 Topic: Cells 1-!121 21. The ATP made during glycolysis is generated by A. substrate-level phosphorylation. B. electron transport. C. photophosphorylation. D. chemisosmosis. E. oxidation of NADH to NAD+ Bloom's Level: Remember Figure: 7.02 Section: 7.01 Topic: Cells 22. During the cleavage stage of glycolysis, fructose-1, 6 biphosphate is broken down into A. citric acid. B. two molecules of pyruvate. C. two molecules of ATP. D. two molecules of glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate. E. glucose. Bloom's Level: Remember Figure: 7.02 Section: 7.01 Topic: Cells 23. In addition to ATP, what are the end products of glycolysis? A. CO2 and NADH B. CO2 and pyruvate C. H2O, NADH, and citrate D. NADH and pyruvate E. CO2 and H2O Bloom's Level: Remember Figure: 7.01 Section: 7.01 Topic: Cells 1-!122 24. In the citric acid cycle, the acetyl group is removed from acetyl CoA and attached to oxaloacetate to form A. fumarate. B. succinate. C. citrate. D. malate. E. oxaloacetate. Bloom's Level: Remember Figure: 7.06 Section: 7.01 Topic: Cells 25. In the citric acid cycle, succinate is oxidized to form A. fumarate. B. succinate. C. citrate. D. malate. E. oxaloacetate. Bloom's Level: Remember Figure: 7.06 Section: 7.01 Topic: Cells 26. In the citric acid cycle, malate is oxidized to form A. fumarate. B. succinate. C. citrate. D. malate. E. oxaloacetate. Bloom's Level: Remember Figure: 7.06 Section: 7.01 Topic: Cells 1-!123 27. The enzyme responsible for oxidizing pyruvate once it enters the mitochondrial matrix is A. pyruvate oxidase B. pyruvate dehydrogenase. C. hexokinase D. ATP synthase. E. peptidase. Bloom's Level: Remember Figure: 7.04 Section: 7.01 Topic: Cells 28. Which pathway shows the correct path of electron transfer from a molecule of NADH? A. NADH hydrogenase → ubiquinone → cytochrome oxidase → cytochrome b-c1 → cytochrome c → O2 B. NADH hydrogenase → ubiquinone → cytochrome c → cytochrome b-c1→ cytochrome oxidase → O2 C. ubiquinone → cytochrome b-c1→ cytochrome c → cytochrome oxidase → NADH hydrogenase → O2 D. NADH hydrogenase → ubiquinone → cytochrome b-c1→ cytochrome c → cytochrome oxidase → O2 E. ubiquinone → cytochrome b-c1→ cytochrome c → NADH hydrogenase → cytochrome oxidase → O2 Bloom's Level: Remember Figure: 7.08 Section: 7.01 Topic: Cells 1-!124 29. Which pathway shows the correct path of electron transf