Assessment-CD-1 PDF

1. It is an illness due to a specific agent transmitted by an agent from a reservoir to a susceptible host through different modes of transmission: a. Contagious disease b. **Communicable disease** c. Infectious disease d. Iatrogenic disease 2. A clinically manifes...

1. It is an illness due to a specific agent transmitted by an agent from a reservoir to a susceptible host through different modes of transmission: a. Contagious disease b. **Communicable disease** c. Infectious disease d. Iatrogenic disease 2. A clinically manifest disease of a man or animal resulting from an infection: e. Contagious disease f. Communicable disease g. **Infectious disease** h. Iatrogenic disease 3. Presence of classical sings and symptoms that are highly specific to a certain disease is known as: i. Tell tall signs j. **Pathognomonic sign** k. Distinctive sign l. Fastigium sign 4. When will you consider that an infection is acquired in the hospital and called as nosocomial? m. When infection occurred upon admission n. When infection is acquired before discharge o. When infection is validated by the laboratory of the hospital p. **When the patient is within 14 days of hospital stay** 5. A infection that is completely manifested by signs and symptoms: q. Opportunistic infection r. **True infection** s. Communicable infection t. Contagious infection 6. Which of the following is the main cause of nosocomial infection? u. Surgical wound infection v. Sepsis w. **Urinary tract infection** x. Respiratory tract infection 7. Which of the following causative agent are able to live in a non-nutritive environment and is easily transmitted in the hospital? y. S. aureus z. **P. aeruginosa** a. E. Coli b. H. influenza 8. The infection brought by normal biota of the body with low degree of virulence but may take advantage when the body is immunocompromised: c. **Opportunistic infection** d. Nosocomial infection e. True infection f. Parasitic infection 9. When a disease can be easily transmitted from one person to another, such infection is: g. Communicable h. Infectious i. **Contagious** j. Virulent 10. What is the difference between gonorrhea and influenza when taking into consideration being infectious and contagious? k. **Gonorrhea is infectious and influenza is contagious** l. Influenza is infectious and gonorrhea is contagious m. Both are contagious and infectious n. Gonorrhea and influenza are not contagious but only infectious 11. Which of the following statements are true? o. All communicable diseases are infectious and contagious. p. **All contagious diseases are infectious but not all infectious are contagious.** q. Communicable diseases are all contagious but not infectious. r. Infectious diseases are contagious and also communicable. 12. An organism that is capable of invading and multiplying in the body of the host: s. **Causative agent** t. Reservoir u. Bacteria v. Carrier 13. The infecting ability of a microorganism depends on its degree of: w. **Pathogenecity** x. Communicability y. Teratogenecity z. Epidemiology 14. Shigella species only requires 10 microorganisms to cause infection while Salmonella must have 1,000 bacteria to initiate disease. This property of microorganism is known as: a. Viability b. Toxigenecity c. **Virulence** d. Invasiveness 15. (Refer to number 16) Also, this directly proportional relationship of number and infection refers to what property of the causative agent? e. **Dose** f. Antigenicity g. Specificity h. Mode of action 16. A person whose medical history and symptoms suggest that he may now have or be developing some communicable disease is known as: i. Patient j. Carrier k. Contact l. **Suspect** 17. A special type of toxin found on the cell wall of the gram negative bacteria that causes sepsis especially when they lyse themselves (suicide bomber): m. Exotoxin n. Enterotoxin o. **Endotoxin** p. Epitoxin 18. The type of exotoxin that is released in the GI tract that stimulates the vomiting center of the body and exhibits its harmful effect by the inflammation of the intestinal tract: q. Exotoxin r. **Enterotoxin** s. Endotoxin t. Epitoxin 19. A non cellular microorganism that contains a nucleus of DNA and/or RNA with a surrounding protein coat and are self-limiting. Also known as the ultimate parasite: u. **Virus** v. Protozoa w. Amoeba x. Bacteria 20. Beds in the hospital are arranged in such a way that droplet transmission of microorganism can be prevented. This is done by: y. Letting a single bed occupy a single room z. Arranging the bed not facing the door or window a. **Positioning the bed 1 meter away from each other** b. Placing blinders in each patient, if possible. 21. When an infective microorganism escaping from the reservoir is suspended in the air and is carried through air current in the form of droplet nuclei, the mode of transmission is: c. **Airborne** d. Droplet e. Pressurized f. Fomites 22. Which of the following is considered a fomite? g. Staphylococcus aureus carrier h. **Urinals** i. Mosquito j. Hands 23. A vector that transmits a microorganism by harboring it to its system and serves as its reservoir: k. Mechanical vector l. **Biological vector** m. Accidental host n. Intermediate vector 24. Which of the following will most likely acquire an infectious disease? o. A 30 year old male who is alcoholic p. A pregnant mother q. **A healthy sexual worker** r. A patient who is discharged from the hospital 25. The pattern of infection where the pathognomonic signs of a specific disease is present is: s. Incubation period t. Prodromal period u. **Invasion/ fastigium period** v. Convalescent period 26. Cholera, tetanus, and typhoid fever occurs intermittently or on and off in different parts of the country. This is pattern of disease occurrence is known as: w. Endemic x. Epidemic y. **Sporadic** z. Pandemic 27. A newly emerged strain of E. Coli that killed hundreds of hamburger eaters in the United States: a. Sin Nombre Coli b. **E. coli O157:H7** c. Colicollus coli d. Legionairre's coli 28. Level of prevention focused on the early sick and aimed to detect diseases at its early state: e. Primary f. **Secondary** g. Tertiary h. Quarternary 29. Which of the following is a primary level of disease prevention: i. Mass screening j. Contact tracing k. **Hand washing** l. Prompt treatment 30. Health education is prevents communicable diseases through IEC. Which of the following refers to the part of IEC that involves behavioral change? m. Information n. **Education** o. Communication p. Integration 31. An information learned and caused a change in behavior of the client will only be effective if: q. Able to apply everyday r. **If shared with other members of the family or even the society** s. If kept and considered as own t. Written and well documented 32. Which of the following vaccine is introduced intradermally at right deltoid region? u. **BCG** v. DPT w. Measles x. Hep B 33. Which of the following vaccine is very sensitive from heat and should be stored at (-15 C to -25C) at the freezer? y. **Measles** z. DPT a. BCG b. Hep B 34. Hep B is given for three doses and the schedule is: c. **At birth, 6 weeks after the 1^st^ dose and 8 weeks after the 2^nd^ dose** d. At six months with interval of 4 weeks in each doses e. At birth with 4 weeks interval f. Given together with DPT and OPV 35. What will the nurse do if a child developed convulsion within 24 hours after giving DPT? g. **Give TSB and paracetamol, as ordered.** h. Do not give the second dose of DPT. i. Give the child DTaP instead. j. The child must begin with DT only on the second dose because the child reacted negatively and developed pertussis with the first dose. 36. Which of the following is true about Tetanus Toxoid? k. It is given for mothers for two doses with one month interval with booster doses every next pregnancy. l. **It is given with 0.05 cc, IM at deltoid region** m. It provides 99% immunity at the third dose n. Infant is protected from tetanus for 10 years if TT2 is given 37. Environmental sanitation refers to the study of all factors in man's physical environment which may exercise or may not exercise deleterious effect on his health and well-being. Which of the following is not included? o. Safe and Water Supply p. Proper Excreta and Waste Disposal q. Food Sanitation r. **Sexual worker's occupation sanitation program** 38. The four R's of food sanitation includes all of the following, except: s. Right Source t. **Right Price** u. Right Storage v. Right Cooking 39. An adequately cooked food is heated with the temperature of: w. 10-60 degrees C x. **70 degrees C** y. 100 degrees C z. 150 degrees C 40. For right storage, the following is correct except: a. Foods should not be stored longer than 2 hours b. **Reheat with 60 degrees centrigrade.** c. Food must not be stored with room temperature d. No rethawing, if possible. 41. Food establishments in the community shall be appraised as to their sanitary conditions. Which of the following is important for the cook or cook helper to have? e. Inspection f. Approval of all food sources g. Updated health services h. **Compliance to health certificate** 42. A patient is removed from the other persons because he is susceptible in acquiring a certain disease. This kind of isolation is called as: i. Strict isolation j. Contact isolation k. Source isolation l. **Reverse isolation** 43. Which of the following is true regarding source isolation? m. **Negative pressure in the room and positive outside** n. Positive pressure in the room and negative outside o. Equalized pressure from both areas p. Negative pressure should be maintained inside and out 44. The restriction of activities of well person that has been exposed to a case of communicable disease to prevent disease transmission during the incubation period but without limitation to movements: q. Complete quarantine r. Source isolation s. **Surveillance** t. Separation 45. A patient with typhoid fever and have several bouts of diarrheal stool prompts a nurse to use what kind of precaution: u. Contact v. Reverse Isolation w. Drainage precaution x. **Enteric precaution** 46. Which of the following statements about source isolation is false? y. **Air entering the room is passed through filters** z. The room is under negative air pressure a. Source isolation is appropriate for patients with meningitis, whooping cough, or influenza b. Transmission-based precautions will be necessary 47. Which of the following is not part of the standard precaution? c. Hand washing between patient contacts d. **Placing a patient in a private room having negative air pressure** e. Proper disposal of needles, scalpels and other sharps f. Wearing gloves, masks, eye protection and gowns when appropriate 48. A patient with suspected tuberculosis has been admitted to the hospital. Which of the following is not appropriate? g. **Droplet precautions** h. **Source isolation** i. Standard precautions j. Use of a type of N95 respirator by the health care provider 49. Which of the following precautions doesn't require any private room? k. Reverse isolation l. Strict isolation m. Droplet precaution n. **Universal precaution** 50. Which of the following statements about medical asepsis is false? o. Disinfection is a medical aseptic technique p. Hand washing is a medical aseptic technique q. Medical asepsis is considered a clean technique r. **The goal of medical asepsis is to exclude all microorganisms** 51. It is the killing of microorganisms by chemical and physical means. It can be done through dry heat, moist heat and radiation: s. **Disinfection** t. **Sterilization** u. Sanitation v. Disinfestation 52. You are caring a client in isolation. After nursing care is done what will you remove first after handling the patient? w. Mask x. Gown y. **Gloves** z. Bonnet 53. The process of weakening microorganism through consecutive steps of freezing and dessication. This process is used for making vaccine: a. Use of formaldehyde b. **Lyophilization** c. Attenuation d. Moist heat application 54. The process of rendering surface that has been heavily exposed to infectious pathogen safe to handle is known as: e. Disinfection f. **Decontamination** g. Sterilization h. Anti-septic 55. When a nurse uses alcohol on the client's skin before an injection, she uses what kind of chemical-removing-microorganism? i. **Antiseptic** j. Disinfectant k. Decontaminant l. Antimicrobial 56. The removal of stains and any contaminants from a kitchen utensils done at home is also known as: m. **Sanitization** n. **Sanitation** o. Decontamination p. Disinfection 57. The client with tuberculosis is expelling large amount of sputum. The nurse, every time the client coughs, removes the soiled linen and discards the tissues and burns it. This technique is what kind of disinfection? q. Terminal r. **Concurrent** s. Longitudinal t. Post-expulsion 58. The process of filling animal forms through use of gaseous agent. u. **Indoor Residual Spraying (IRS)** v. Disinfestation w. Sanitation x. Gaseous Desentisization 59. Medical hand washing can be done for \_\_\_ and with elbows \_\_\_ : y. 10 -- 15 seconds: down z. **10 -- 15 seconds: up** a. **3 - 5 minutes: down** b. 3 -- 5 minutes: up 60. The removal of all harmful microorganisms is also known as: c. Medical asepsis d. Surgical asepsis e. Sterilization f. **Decontamination**