Antihypertensives Quiz PDF

Antihypertensives **Quiz** ======== ### **1. What is the definition of prehypertension?** A\) Chronic blood pressure greater than 140/90 mmHg B\) Chronic blood pressure greater than 180/120 mmHg C\) Chronic blood pressure greater than 120/80 mmHg D\) Blood pressure readings fluctuating between...

Antihypertensives **Quiz** ======== ### **1. What is the definition of prehypertension?** A\) Chronic blood pressure greater than 140/90 mmHg B\) Chronic blood pressure greater than 180/120 mmHg C\) Chronic blood pressure greater than 120/80 mmHg D\) Blood pressure readings fluctuating between 130/85 mmHg E\) Chronic blood pressure greater than 160/100 mmHg ### **2. Which of the following is considered severe hypertension?** A\) Blood pressure greater than 140/90 mmHg B\) Blood pressure greater than 120/80 mmHg C\) Blood pressure greater than 180/120 mmHg D\) Blood pressure consistently at 130/80 mmHg E\) Blood pressure greater than 160/100 mmHg ### **3. What is the most common cause of essential hypertension?** A\) Heart failure B\) Kidney disease C\) No identifiable cause D\) Hyperthyroidism E\) Adrenal gland tumor ### **4. Which of the following is a risk associated with hypertension?** A\) Kidney failure B\) Increased longevity C\) Decreased stroke risk D\) Increased oxygenation of tissues E\) None of the above ### **5. What are the two main factors controlling blood pressure?** A\) Cardiac output and body weight B\) Renal function and blood volume C\) Autonomic and hormonal feedback loops D\) Salt intake and physical activity E\) Vasoconstriction and vasodilation ### **6. Which factor is responsible for the faster regulation of blood pressure?** A\) Hormonal feedback loop B\) Autonomic feedback loop C\) Renal feedback loop D\) Respiratory rate E\) Blood volume changes ### **7. What is the effect of increasing cardiac output on blood pressure?** A\) Decreases blood pressure B\) No change to blood pressure C\) Increases blood pressure D\) Causes irregular heart rhythm E\) Decreases stroke volume ### **8. How does reducing peripheral vascular resistance (PVR) affect blood pressure?** A\) Increases blood pressure B\) No effect on blood pressure C\) Decreases blood pressure D\) Increases heart rate E\) Reduces cardiac output ### **9. Which of the following is the primary function of the renin-angiotensin system in hypertension?** A\) Reduce sodium levels B\) Increase blood volume C\) Reduce vasoconstriction D\) Inhibit aldosterone release E\) Decrease blood volume ### **10. What effect does angiotensin II have on blood pressure?** A\) Reduces blood pressure B\) Increases sodium excretion C\) Vasoconstricts blood vessels D\) Dilates blood vessels E\) Decreases heart rate ### **11. Which of the following is an adverse effect of ACE inhibitors?** A\) Hyperkalemia B\) Hypokalemia C\) Increased heart rate D\) Tachycardia E\) Hypotension ### **12. Which class of drugs are antagonists at angiotensin II type 1 (AT₁) receptors?** A\) Beta-blockers B\) ACE inhibitors C\) Angiotensin receptor blockers (ARBs) D\) Calcium channel blockers E\) Diuretics ### **13. Which of the following drugs is NOT a β-blocker?** A\) Atenolol B\) Labetalol C\) Metoprolol D\) Ramipril E\) Bisoprolol ### **14. What is a primary effect of β1 receptor antagonism in hypertension treatment?** A\) Increase cardiac output B\) Decrease heart rate C\) Increase sodium retention D\) Increase vascular constriction E\) Increase renal blood flow ### **15. Which drug is contraindicated in hypertensive individuals with asthma?** A\) Amlodipine B\) Lisinopril C\) Bisoprolol D\) Doxazosin E\) Nifedipine ### **16. Which of the following is a characteristic of thiazide diuretics?** A\) They inhibit sodium and chloride reabsorption in the nephron B\) They are the weakest diuretics for blood pressure control C\) They are often used as a first-line treatment in hypertensive patients D\) They increase potassium excretion E\) They have minimal impact on blood volume ### **17. Which of the following is an example of an aldosterone receptor antagonist?** A\) Spironolactone B\) Hydrochlorothiazide C\) Amlodipine D\) Diltiazem E\) Metoprolol ### **18. What is a common side effect of calcium channel blockers (CCBs)?** A\) Constipation B\) Bradycardia C\) Hyperkalemia D\) Hypotension E\) Hyperglycemia ### **19. Which type of calcium channel blocker is most preferred for hypertension treatment?** A\) Non-dihydropyridines B\) Dihydropyridines C\) Both are equally effective D\) Beta-blockers E\) ACE inhibitors ### **20. Which of the following is an adverse effect commonly associated with alpha blockers?** A\) Diarrhea B\) Flushing C\) Oedema D\) Hypokalemia E\) Decreased renal function ### **21. What is the most appropriate treatment for hypertensive crisis?** A\) Oral ACE inhibitors B\) Gradual reduction of blood pressure over days C\) Parenteral antihypertensive agents D\) Calcium channel blockers E\) Diuretics ### **22. Which of the following is NOT a common first-line treatment for hypertension?** A\) ACE inhibitors B\) Angiotensin receptor blockers C\) Calcium channel blockers D\) Beta-blockers E\) Diuretics ### **23. Which of the following drugs should be avoided during pregnancy due to teratogenic effects?** A\) Lisinopril B\) Amlodipine C\) Spironolactone D\) Bisoprolol E\) Hydralazine ### **24. Which drug class is commonly used in patients with both hypertension and heart failure?** A\) Beta-blockers B\) ACE inhibitors C\) Alpha blockers D\) Calcium channel blockers E\) Thiazide diuretics ### **25. What is the main effect of β2 receptor antagonism in hypertension?** A\) Vasodilation B\) Vasoconstriction C\) Decrease cardiac output D\) Increase sodium retention E\) Decrease heart rate ### **26. Which of the following statements about secondary hypertension is true?** A\) It is high blood pressure without an identifiable cause B\) It is usually caused by a known condition such as heart or kidney disease C\) It accounts for 95% of all hypertension cases D\) It cannot be treated with medications E\) It is more common than essential hypertension ### **27. Which condition is commonly associated with hypertensive retinopathy?** A\) Kidney failure B\) Stroke C\) Heart failure D\) Aneurysm E\) Cognitive impairment ### **28. Which class of drug is effective in patients with benign prostatic hyperplasia and hypertension?** A\) Beta-blockers B\) Alpha-blockers C\) ACE inhibitors D\) Diuretics E\) Calcium channel blockers ### **29. Which of the following best describes the role of aldosterone in blood pressure regulation?** A\) Decreases blood volume B\) Increases sodium reabsorption and fluid volume C\) Decreases vasoconstriction D\) Increases fluid loss through the kidneys E\) Reduces blood vessel resistance ### **30. What should be the approach for managing stage 2 hypertension?** A\) Begin with lifestyle changes alone B\) Administer multiple antihypertensive agents C\) Avoid using medications and monitor only D\) Focus solely on diuretics E\) Initiate immediate surgery **Answer guide** ---------------- ### **1. What is the definition of prehypertension?** **Answer: C) Chronic blood pressure greater than 120/80 mmHg** **Explanation:** Prehypertension is defined as having a blood pressure consistently higher than 120/80 mmHg but not yet at the threshold for stage 1 hypertension (i.e., 140/90 mmHg). ### **2. Which of the following is considered severe hypertension?** **Answer: C) Blood pressure greater than 180/120 mmHg** **Explanation:** Severe hypertension is generally classified as blood pressure greater than 180/120 mmHg, often requiring urgent treatment to avoid complications like stroke or heart attack. ### **3. What is the most common cause of essential hypertension?** **Answer: C) No identifiable cause** **Explanation:** Essential hypertension, which accounts for most cases of hypertension, has no identifiable cause and is primarily influenced by genetic and lifestyle factors. ### **4. Which of the following is a risk associated with hypertension?** **Answer: A) Kidney failure** **Explanation:** Chronic high blood pressure can lead to kidney damage, contributing to kidney failure if left untreated. ### **5. What are the two main factors controlling blood pressure?** **Answer: C) Autonomic and hormonal feedback loops** **Explanation:** Blood pressure is controlled by two main factors: autonomic nervous system regulation and hormonal feedback mechanisms (like the renin-angiotensin system). ### **6. Which factor is responsible for the faster regulation of blood pressure?** **Answer: B) Autonomic feedback loop** **Explanation:** The autonomic nervous system provides rapid regulation of blood pressure through adjustments in heart rate and vascular tone. ### **7. What is the effect of increasing cardiac output on blood pressure?** **Answer: C) Increases blood pressure** **Explanation:** Increasing cardiac output (the amount of blood the heart pumps per minute) raises blood pressure, as more blood is pumped into the arteries. ### **8. How does reducing peripheral vascular resistance (PVR) affect blood pressure?** **Answer: C) Decreases blood pressure** **Explanation:** Reducing PVR, which is the resistance in the blood vessels, decreases blood pressure as the heart does not have to work as hard to pump blood. ### **9. Which of the following is the primary function of the renin-angiotensin system in hypertension?** **Answer: B) Increase blood volume** **Explanation:** The renin-angiotensin system increases blood volume and constricts blood vessels, which raises blood pressure. ### **10. What effect does angiotensin II have on blood pressure?** **Answer: C) Vasoconstricts blood vessels** **Explanation:** Angiotensin II is a potent vasoconstrictor, narrowing blood vessels, which raises blood pressure. ### **11. Which of the following is an adverse effect of ACE inhibitors?** **Answer: A) Hyperkalemia** **Explanation:** ACE inhibitors can cause hyperkalemia (high potassium levels) by inhibiting aldosterone, which normally helps to excrete potassium. ### **12. Which class of drugs are antagonists at angiotensin II type 1 (AT₁) receptors?** **Answer: C) Angiotensin receptor blockers (ARBs)** **Explanation:** ARBs, such as losartan, block the angiotensin II type 1 receptors, preventing vasoconstriction and lowering blood pressure. ### **13. Which of the following drugs is NOT a β-blocker?** **Answer: D) Ramipril** **Explanation:** Ramipril is an ACE inhibitor, not a β-blocker. Atenolol, labetalol, metoprolol, and bisoprolol are all β-blockers. ### **14. What is a primary effect of β1 receptor antagonism in hypertension treatment?** **Answer: B) Decrease heart rate** **Explanation:** β1 receptor antagonism (blocking β1 receptors) decreases heart rate and contractility, which reduces blood pressure. ### **15. Which drug is contraindicated in hypertensive individuals with asthma?** **Answer: C) Bisoprolol** **Explanation:** Bisoprolol is a β1-selective blocker that can still affect β2 receptors in the lungs, potentially causing bronchoconstriction in asthma patients. ### **16. Which of the following is a characteristic of thiazide diuretics?** **Answer: A) They inhibit sodium and chloride reabsorption in the nephron** **Explanation:** Thiazide diuretics, like hydrochlorothiazide, work by inhibiting sodium and chloride reabsorption in the kidneys, reducing blood volume and lowering blood pressure. ### **17. Which of the following is an example of an aldosterone receptor antagonist?** **Answer: A) Spironolactone** **Explanation:** Spironolactone is an aldosterone receptor antagonist that blocks aldosterone's effects, leading to reduced sodium reabsorption and lowered blood pressure. ### **18. What is a common side effect of calcium channel blockers (CCBs)?** **Answer: A) Constipation** **Explanation:** Non-dihydropyridine calcium channel blockers (e.g., verapamil) are commonly associated with constipation. ### **19. Which type of calcium channel blocker is most preferred for hypertension treatment?** **Answer: B) Dihydropyridines** **Explanation:** Dihydropyridine calcium channel blockers, such as amlodipine, are most commonly used in hypertension as they primarily affect vascular smooth muscle, causing vasodilation. ### **20. Which of the following is an adverse effect commonly associated with alpha blockers?** **Answer: B) Flushing** **Explanation:** Alpha blockers like doxazosin can cause vasodilation, which may lead to side effects like flushing, dizziness, and orthostatic hypotension. ### **21. What is the most appropriate treatment for hypertensive crisis?** **Answer: C) Parenteral antihypertensive agents** **Explanation:** Hypertensive crisis requires rapid intervention, often with parenteral (intravenous) antihypertensive medications to lower blood pressure quickly. ### **22. Which of the following is NOT a common first-line treatment for hypertension?** **Answer: D) Beta-blockers** **Explanation:** Beta-blockers are not typically first-line treatment for hypertension unless there is concurrent heart disease or other specific indications. ### **23. Which of the following drugs should be avoided during pregnancy due to teratogenic effects?** **Answer: A) Lisinopril** **Explanation:** Lisinopril is an ACE inhibitor that is contraindicated in pregnancy due to its potential teratogenic effects on the fetus. ### **24. Which drug class is commonly used in patients with both hypertension and heart failure?** **Answer: B) ACE inhibitors** **Explanation:** ACE inhibitors are often used in heart failure and hypertension due to their ability to lower blood pressure and reduce the strain on the heart. ### **25. What is the main effect of β2 receptor antagonism in hypertension?** **Answer: B) Vasoconstriction** **Explanation:** β2 receptor antagonism can lead to vasoconstriction, which increases vascular resistance and raises blood pressure. ### **26. Which of the following statements about secondary hypertension is true?** **Answer: B) It is usually caused by a known condition such as heart or kidney disease** **Explanation:** Secondary hypertension is high blood pressure caused by another underlying condition, such as kidney disease or endocrine disorders. ### **27. Which condition is commonly associated with hypertensive retinopathy?** **Answer: B) Stroke** **Explanation:** Hypertensive retinopathy is associated with prolonged high blood pressure and can increase the risk of stroke due to vascular damage in the eyes and brain. ### **28. Which class of drug is effective in patients with benign prostatic hyperplasia and hypertension?** **Answer: B) Alpha-blockers** **Explanation:** Alpha-blockers like doxazosin are effective in both hypertension and benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) by relaxing smooth muscle in the bladder and prostate. ### **29. Which of the following best describes the role of aldosterone in blood pressure regulation?** **Answer: B) Increases sodium reabsorption and fluid volume** **Explanation:** Aldosterone increases sodium retention in the kidneys, which increases fluid volume and elevates blood pressure. ### **30. What should be the approach for managing stage 2 hypertension?** **Answer: B) Administer multiple antihypertensive agents** **Explanation:** Stage 2 hypertension often requires a combination of antihypertensive medications to effectively lower blood pressure.