cvr overview
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Questions and Answers

What adverse effect is commonly associated with ACE inhibitors?

  • Dehydration
  • Hyperkalemia (correct)
  • Hypoglycemia
  • Anemia

    • What is the definition of prehypertension?

  • Chronic blood pressure greater than 120/80 mmHg (correct)
  • Chronic blood pressure greater than 160/100 mmHg
  • Chronic blood pressure greater than 180/120 mmHg
  • Chronic blood pressure greater than 140/90 mmHg

    • Which class of drugs blocks angiotensin II type 1 (AT₁) receptors?

  • Beta-blockers
  • ACE inhibitors
  • Angiotensin receptor blockers (ARBs) (correct)
  • Calcium channel blockers

    • Which of the following medications is NOT categorized as a β-blocker?

    <p>Ramipril</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is considered severe hypertension?

    <p>Blood pressure greater than 180/120 mmHg</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary effect of β1 receptor antagonism in treating hypertension?

    <p>Decrease heart rate</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the most common cause of essential hypertension?

    <p>No identifiable cause</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a risk associated with hypertension?

    <p>Kidney failure</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which drug is contraindicated in patients with hypertension who also have asthma?

    <p>Bisoprolol</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a characteristic effect of thiazide diuretics?

    <p>Inhibit sodium and chloride reabsorption</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What are the two main factors controlling blood pressure?

    <p>Autonomic and hormonal feedback loops</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which factor is responsible for the faster regulation of blood pressure?

    <p>Autonomic feedback loop</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which medication is an example of an aldosterone receptor antagonist?

    <p>Spironolactone</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the effect of increasing cardiac output on blood pressure?

    <p>Increases blood pressure</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a common side effect of non-dihydropyridine calcium channel blockers?

    <p>Constipation</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What effect does angiotensin II have on blood pressure?

    <p>Vasoconstricts blood vessels</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which drug should be avoided during pregnancy due to teratogenic effects?

    <p>Lisinopril</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which drug class is commonly employed in managing both hypertension and heart failure?

    <p>ACE inhibitors</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What blood pressure reading is classified as severe hypertension?

    <p>180/120 mmHg</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is an adverse effect of ACE inhibitors?

    <p>Hyperkalemia</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which class of drugs are antagonists at angiotensin II type 1 (AT₁) receptors?

    <p>Angiotensin receptor blockers (ARBs)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What characterizes essential hypertension?

    <p>No identifiable cause</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary consequence of β2 receptor antagonism in the context of hypertension?

    <p>Vasoconstriction</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which statement correctly describes secondary hypertension?

    <p>It is usually caused by a known condition such as heart or kidney disease</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following drugs is NOT a β-blocker?

    <p>Ramipril</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a potential risk associated with untreated hypertension?

    <p>Kidney failure</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What are the primary regulators of blood pressure?

    <p>Autonomic and hormonal feedback loops</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a primary effect of β1 receptor antagonism in hypertension treatment?

    <p>Decrease heart rate</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which condition is primarily linked to hypertensive retinopathy?

    <p>Stroke</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which factor provides the fastest regulation of blood pressure?

    <p>Autonomic feedback loop</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What class of drug is beneficial for managing benign prostatic hyperplasia in conjunction with hypertension?

    <p>Alpha-blockers</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which drug is contraindicated in hypertensive individuals with asthma?

    <p>Bisoprolol</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How does increasing cardiac output influence blood pressure?

    <p>Increases blood pressure</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How does aldosterone primarily influence blood pressure regulation?

    <p>Increases sodium reabsorption and fluid volume</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a characteristic of thiazide diuretics?

    <p>They are often used as a first-line treatment in hypertensive patients</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the effect of reducing peripheral vascular resistance (PVR) on blood pressure?

    <p>Decreases blood pressure</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the recommended strategy for managing stage 2 hypertension?

    <p>Administer multiple antihypertensive agents</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which drug is an example of an aldosterone receptor antagonist?

    <p>Spironolactone</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the main function of the renin-angiotensin system in the context of hypertension?

    <p>Increase blood volume</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a common side effect of calcium channel blockers (CCBs)?

    <p>Constipation</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a common side effect associated with the use of alpha blockers?

    <p>Flushing</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which treatment is most suitable for managing a hypertensive crisis?

    <p>Parenteral antihypertensive agents</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which medication is generally avoided during pregnancy due to its teratogenic effects?

    <p>Lisinopril</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which class of drugs is primarily used in patients with both hypertension and heart failure?

    <p>ACE inhibitors</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a primary consequence of β2 receptor antagonism in hypertension?

    <p>Vasoconstriction</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which statement accurately describes secondary hypertension?

    <p>It is usually caused by a known condition</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Hypertensive retinopathy is commonly associated with which condition?

    <p>Stroke</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is NOT a common first-line treatment for hypertension?

    <p>Beta-blockers</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the treatment for bacterial pharyngitis (strep throat)?

    <p>Antibiotics such as penicillin</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which CRB65 score indicates a condition that may require hospitalization?

    <p>CRB65 score of 2 or higher</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the typical cause of bronchitis in most cases?

    <p>Viral infection</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the hallmark symptom of infective endocarditis (IE)?

    <p>Heart murmur</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is typically NOT a symptom of bronchitis?

    <p>Muscle aches</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following pathogens is commonly associated with lower respiratory tract infections such as bronchitis?

    <p>Mycoplasma pneumoniae</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which pathogen is primarily responsible for community-acquired pneumonia?

    <p>Streptococcus pneumoniae</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Under which circumstance would antibiotics be prescribed for bronchitis?

    <p>If there is an elevated C-reactive protein level &gt;100mg/mL</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the most common method used to diagnose pneumonia?

    <p>Chest X-ray</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does a CRB65 score of 1 suggest in pneumonia assessment?

    <p>Need for outpatient treatment</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following pathogens is considered a secondary invader in respiratory tract infections?

    <p>Streptococcus pneumoniae</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following factors is associated with increased severity in pneumonia assessment?

    <p>Respiratory rate ≥ 30 breaths/min</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the most common pathogen for subacute infective endocarditis (IE)?

    <p>Viridans streptococci</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a typical feature of atypical pneumonia?

    <p>Dry cough that progresses to sputum</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which cell type in the respiratory tract is responsible for secreting mucins?

    <p>Goblet cells</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a key role of club cells in the respiratory tract?

    <p>Detoxify harmful substances inhaled into the lungs</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which virus is commonly associated with the common cold?

    <p>Rhinovirus</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary function of club cells in the respiratory system?

    <p>Detoxify harmful inhaled substances</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which pathogen is often associated with viral pneumonia in immunocompromised individuals?

    <p>Cytomegalovirus</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the most common cause of infective endocarditis (IE) on native heart valves?

    <p>Viridans streptococci</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is one of the most common complications of pneumonia?

    <p>Pneumothorax</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What laboratory test is most important for diagnosing infective endocarditis (IE)?

    <p>Blood culture</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which virus is the cause of influenza?

    <p>Orthomyxovirus</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a common symptom of Epstein-Barr Virus (EBV) infection?

    <p>Lymphadenopathy and sore throat</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What pathogen is most commonly responsible for hospital-acquired pneumonia (HAP)?

    <p>Pseudomonas aeruginosa</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which organism is often implicated in secondary pneumonia following an influenza infection?

    <p>Staphylococcus aureus</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which pathogen is considered a common cause of acute bronchitis?

    <p>Mycoplasma pneumoniae</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is typically NOT a symptom of bronchitis?

    <p>Muscle aches</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Under which circumstance would antibiotics likely be prescribed for bronchitis?

    <p>If there is an elevated C-reactive protein level &gt;100mg/mL</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which pathogen is recognized as a secondary invader in respiratory tract infections?

    <p>Streptococcus pneumoniae</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the leading pathogen associated with subacute infective endocarditis?

    <p>Viridans streptococci</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which organism is least likely to be associated with lower respiratory tract infections?

    <p>Escherichia coli</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which cell type in the respiratory tract secretes mucins?

    <p>Goblet cells</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which virus is classified as a 'professional invader' in the respiratory tract?

    <p>Influenza virus</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What are common symptoms associated with the common cold?

    <p>Sore throat, runny nose, and fever</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which pathogen is often linked to viral pneumonia in immunocompromised individuals?

    <p>Cytomegalovirus</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What complication can arise as a result of pneumonia?

    <p>Pneumothorax</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which virus is the leading cause of the common cold?

    <p>Rhinovirus</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which pathogen is most commonly responsible for community-acquired pneumonia?

    <p>Streptococcus pneumoniae</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the most common diagnostic method used to detect pneumonia?

    <p>Chest X-ray</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary role of C-reactive protein (CRP) in the body?

    <p>To indicate liver inflammation</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does a CRB65 score of 1 indicate concerning pneumonia severity?

    <p>Low severity pneumonia</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a common factor associated with increased severity in pneumonia assessment?

    <p>Rapid heartbeat &gt;100 bpm</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which characteristic feature distinguishes atypical pneumonia from typical pneumonia?

    <p>Less severe symptoms compared to typical pneumonia</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which diagnostic test is utilized to confirm pneumonia in critically ill patients?

    <p>Bronchoscopy</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary role of blood urea measurement?

    <p>To measure kidney function and hydration status</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does an elevated serum urea level indicate?

    <p>Kidney function alteration or dehydration</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What differentiates plasma from serum samples in blood tests?

    <p>Serum is obtained after clotting and centrifugation, plasma is not</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Why are venous blood samples commonly used for measuring blood cell contents?

    <p>They are commonly used for tests like glycosylated hemoglobin</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does arterial blood gas analysis primarily assess?

    <p>Oxygen, carbon dioxide, and pH levels in blood</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What role does sodium play in the body's electrolyte balance?

    <p>It controls water balance across compartments</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which test is specifically used to monitor kidney function through urea measurement?

    <p>Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) test</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What method is specifically used to measure sodium and potassium levels in bodily fluids?

    <p>Ion-selective electrodes (ISE)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What physiological response is triggered to counteract metabolic acidosis?

    <p>Hyperventilation</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the function of glutamate dehydrogenase (GLDH) in the context of urea measurement?

    <p>It converts ammonia and oxoglutarate to glutamate.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which sample type is essential for accurately assessing arterial blood gas levels?

    <p>Arterial blood</p> Signup and view all the answers

    A positive cardiac troponin result primarily indicates what condition?

    <p>Myocardial infarction (heart attack)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How is cardiac troponin detected using antibodies and magnetic beads?

    <p>The beads interact with troponin, producing measurable light.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which electrolyte is NOT typically measured using ion-selective electrodes?

    <p>Magnesium</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What compensatory mechanism helps to increase blood pH during metabolic acidosis?

    <p>Hyperventilation</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What principle underlies the measurement of biomolecules in the laboratory?

    <p>Molecules absorb light energy at a specific wavelength for that molecule.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which instrument is primarily used to measure the absorbance of biomolecules?

    <p>Spectrophotometer</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does the term 'optical density' (OD) refer to in spectrophotometry?

    <p>The absorbance of light by the sample.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What characterizes a colometric assay?

    <p>It involves the formation of a color complex at a specific wavelength.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary reason for the presence of anti-cTnl antibodies in cardiac troponin detection?

    <p>They bind to the TnI epitope and generate light in a luminometer.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following statements accurately reflects sodium's role in the body?

    <p>Sodium helps regulate blood pressure via extracellular fluid balance.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How are unknown concentrations of biomolecules typically determined in spectrophotometry?

    <p>By comparing absorbance values to a standard curve.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Why are plasma samples often preferred over serum for specific tests?

    <p>Plasma preserves certain analytes by preventing cellular metabolism.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which statement is true about screening tests?

    <p>They provide preliminary physiological data about general conditions.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which sample source is increasingly used for testing disease biomarkers?

    <p>Saliva</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which condition is likely to cause low serum urea levels?

    <p>Chronic liver disease</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What type of blood sample is best for detecting arterial blood gas abnormalities?

    <p>Arterial blood</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does a spectrophotometer measure?

    <p>The optical density of a sample.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the main advantage of using cardiac troponin as a marker for myocardial infarction?

    <p>It is highly specific for cardiac muscle damage.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What role does insulin production play in the context of metabolic balance?

    <p>It reduces ketone body production.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In what way does sodium influence glucose homeostasis in the body?

    <p>Sodium has no direct effect on glucose regulation.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary role of glutamate dehydrogenase (GLDH) in the measurement of urea in clinical samples?

    <p>To convert ammonia and oxoglutarate to glutamate</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In the measurement of urea, what does a decline in NADH concentration indicate?

    <p>An increase in urea concentration</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which condition is most likely to cause increased sodium levels due to an electrolyte imbalance?

    <p>Acute dehydration from vomiting</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Why does hyperventilation occur in a patient with diabetic ketoacidosis?

    <p>To compensate for metabolic acidosis by removing excess CO₂</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the function of anti-cTnl antibodies in detecting cardiac troponin?

    <p>They bind to the TnI epitope and generate light in a luminometer.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the role of sodium in maintaining electrolyte balance in the body?

    <p>Sodium is crucial for maintaining osmolarity in the extracellular fluid.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What underlying mechanism leads to the detection of cardiac troponin in clinical diagnostics?

    <p>The binding and detection by specific antibodies generating light.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In the context of metabolic acidosis, what compensatory mechanism is triggered?

    <p>Increased respiration to expel CO₂</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does a positive result for cardiac troponin (TnT, TnI) indicate in a patient?

    <p>Myocardial infarction (heart attack)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which sample type is typically used for detecting arterial blood gas abnormalities?

    <p>Arterial blood</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How is cardiac troponin detected using magnetic beads and antibodies?

    <p>The beads interact with a specific epitope on TnT or TnI, producing light for measurement</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following would most likely be a cause of electrolyte imbalance leading to increased sodium levels?

    <p>Acute dehydration from vomiting</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the role of glutamate dehydrogenase (GLDH) in the urea measurement test?

    <p>It facilitates the breakdown of urea into CO₂ and ammonium</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In the case study of a woman with diabetic ketoacidosis, why does hyperventilation occur?

    <p>To eliminate excess carbon dioxide</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary mechanism by which atropine increases heart rate in bradycardia?

    <p>It blocks muscarinic receptors, reducing parasympathetic activity</p> Signup and view all the answers

    For what primary condition are calcium channel blockers like Diltiazem predominantly used?

    <p>To control heart rate in atrial fibrillation and atrial flutter</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What key feature characterizes rate control in the treatment of atrial fibrillation?

    <p>It involves drugs that slow the conduction through the AV node</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the main objective of rhythm control in the management of atrial fibrillation?

    <p>To restore the heart's normal sinus rhythm</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which drug is known for its use in both rate and rhythm control for atrial fibrillation?

    <p>Amiodarone</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a critical feature of re-entry arrhythmias?

    <p>A circulating impulse re-excites previously active tissue.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What characteristic is typically seen in Wolfe-Parkinson-White (WPW) syndrome?

    <p>Shortened PR interval due to retrograde conduction.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which arrhythmia is most commonly associated with early afterdepolarizations (EAD)?

    <p>Torsades de Pointes</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary classification of Flecainide in the Vaughan-Williams system?

    <p>Class 1c</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which risk is associated with Class 1a antiarrhythmic drugs such as Quinidine?

    <p>Torsades de Pointes</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How do Class 1b antiarrhythmic drugs like Lidocaine primarily act?

    <p>They rapidly dissociate from sodium channels and are effective at fast heart rates.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What action do Class 2 antiarrhythmic drugs (beta-blockers) perform on heart function?

    <p>Decrease sympathetic activity by blocking beta receptors.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary function of gap junctions in cardiac tissue?

    <p>To enable synchronized contraction of cardiac cells</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which ion is primarily involved in the rapid depolarization phase of the cardiac action potential?

    <p>Sodium (Na⁺)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    During which phase of the cardiac myocyte action potential do calcium and potassium ions balance each other's effects?

    <p>Phase 2 (plateau)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What initiates the pacemaker depolarization in the cardiac nodal action potential?

    <p>Slow leak of sodium and potassium ions</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What best defines an ectopic beat in cardiac physiology?

    <p>An impulse generated by myocytes outside the usual conduction pathway</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a recognized cause of tachycardia associated with after-polarization?

    <p>High intracellular calcium levels</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In the cardiac action potential, what happens during Phase 3?

    <p>Rapid potassium efflux contributes to repolarization</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What adverse effect is commonly associated with beta-blockers in arrhythmia treatment?

    <p>Hypotension and dizziness</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which antiarrhythmic drug can also exhibit Class 1a and Class 2 activity?

    <p>Amiodarone</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How do Class 3 antiarrhythmic drugs prevent arrhythmias?

    <p>By prolonging the repolarization phase</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a significant risk when using Class 4 calcium channel blockers like Verapamil for arrhythmias?

    <p>Severe bradycardia and heart block</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary action of digoxin on cardiac myocytes?

    <p>It inhibits the Na+/K+ ATPase pump</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In which situation is adenosine primarily utilized?

    <p>As a first-line treatment for supraventricular tachycardia</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which drug is considered first-line for treating acute bradycardia?

    <p>Atropine</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the purpose of using Class 3 antiarrhythmic drugs like Amiodarone?

    <p>To prolong the action potential duration</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary function of gap junctions in the cardiac syncytium?

    <p>To enable synchronized contraction of cardiac cells</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which ion is mainly responsible for the rapid depolarisation during phase 0 of the cardiac myocyte action potential?

    <p>Sodium (Na⁺)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What occurs during phase 2 (plateau) of the cardiac myocyte action potential?

    <p>Simultaneous entry of calcium and efflux of potassium</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is primarily responsible for pacemaker depolarisation in the cardiac nodal action potential?

    <p>Leak currents of sodium and potassium</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the main characteristic of an ectopic beat?

    <p>It is initiated by myocytes outside the normal conduction pathway</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which describes a common cause of tachycardia associated with after-polarisation?

    <p>High [Ca²⁺]i triggers trains of action potentials</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the mechanism of re-entry in arrhythmias?

    <p>A circulating impulse re-excites previously active tissue</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which feature is associated with Wolfe-Parkinson-White (WPW) syndrome?

    <p>Shortened PR interval due to retrograde conduction</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the main effect of digoxin on cardiac myocytes?

    <p>It inhibits the Na+/K+ ATPase pump, leading to positive inotropy</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In what scenario is adenosine most commonly used?

    <p>As a first-line treatment for supraventricular tachycardia</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which drug is used as the first-line treatment for bradycardia?

    <p>Atropine</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the effect of atropine in the treatment of bradycardia?

    <p>It blocks muscarinic receptors, reducing parasympathetic activity</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the main therapeutic use of calcium channel blockers like Diltiazem?

    <p>To control heart rate in atrial fibrillation and atrial flutter</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which is a characteristic of atrial fibrillation treatment with rate control?

    <p>It involves drugs that slow the conduction through the AV node</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary purpose of rhythm control in atrial fibrillation?

    <p>To restore the heart's normal sinus rhythm</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which drug is commonly used in both rate and rhythm control for atrial fibrillation?

    <p>Amiodarone</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following drugs is primarily indicated for acute attacks of stable angina?

    <p>Glyceryl Trinitrate (GTN)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What effect does glyceryl trinitrate (GTN) primarily have in alleviating angina?

    <p>Reduces preload and afterload</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the mechanism of action of nicorandil?

    <p>It is a K/ATP channel agonist that causes hyperpolarization of vascular smooth muscle</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which medication is known to cause tolerance upon continuous use?

    <p>Glyceryl Trinitrate (GTN)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is an inotropic agent used in the treatment of septic shock?

    <p>Dobutamine</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary benefit of beta-blockers in treating angina pectoris?

    <p>Decrease oxygen demand by reducing heart rate</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What effect does dobutamine have on the heart?

    <p>Positive inotropic effect by increasing calcium entry into cells</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which adverse effect is commonly associated with propranolol?

    <p>Bronchoconstriction</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which β-adrenoreceptor antagonist is selective for β1 receptors only?

    <p>Atenolol</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the mechanism of action of milrinone in heart failure treatment?

    <p>Increases cAMP levels by inhibiting PDE3, leading to vasodilation and increased heart contractility</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the main role of amlodipine in treating angina?

    <p>Reduce myocardial oxygen demand</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following drugs is a selective β1 blocker used in heart failure treatment?

    <p>Bisoprolol</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the main advantage of using beta-blockers in chronic heart failure?

    <p>They reduce sympathetic stimulation, decreasing oxygen demand and preventing arrhythmias</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which type of angina is primarily caused by coronary artery vasospasm?

    <p>Variant angina</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following best describes the inotropic effect of digoxin?

    <p>It inhibits sodium-potassium ATPase, leading to increased intracellular calcium</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which drug combination can exacerbate heart failure, particularly in patients with reduced ejection fraction?

    <p>Calcium channel blockers and β-blockers</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary cause of variant angina?

    <p>Coronary vasospasm</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which medication is considered the most appropriate for managing heart failure with hypotension?

    <p>Milrinone</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which drug should be contraindicated for a patient with both heart block and angina?

    <p>Verapamil</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following medications would NOT be suitable for a patient with reduced ejection fraction heart failure?

    <p>Diltiazem</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the major cause of angina pectoris in 90% of cases?

    <p>Coronary atheroma</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which drug used in angina treatment has 100% bioavailability and is taken orally?

    <p>Isosorbide mononitrate</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is an adverse effect of beta-blockers on the respiratory system?

    <p>Bronchoconstriction</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the role of α1-adrenoreceptor antagonism in carvedilol?

    <p>Reduces peripheral vascular resistance by causing vasodilation</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a major effect of nitrates in the treatment of angina?

    <p>Stimulates β1 receptors to increase heart rate</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which drug combination should be used with caution in the presence of heart failure?

    <p>Calcium channel blockers and β-blockers</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a characteristic of variant angina?

    <p>Caused by coronary vasospasm</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What type of angina is characterized by coronary artery vasospasm?

    <p>Variant angina</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following drugs would be contraindicated in a patient with heart block and angina?

    <p>Propanolol</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which calcium channel blocker is most effective in treating coronary vasospasm?

    <p>Nifedipine</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary mechanism of action of nicorandil?

    <p>Opens K/ATP channels causing vasodilation</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which agent is considered an inotropic drug for treating septic shock?

    <p>Dobutamine</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What effect does dobutamine specifically have on cardiac function?

    <p>Positive inotropic effect by increasing calcium entry</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What action does milrinone facilitate in heart failure treatment?

    <p>Inhibits PDE3, increasing cAMP levels</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which drug is recognized as a selective β1 blocker for heart failure?

    <p>Bisoprolol</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which medication works by increasing cAMP levels to enhance heart contractility?

    <p>Milrinone</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What adverse effect is associated with non-selective beta-blockers on the respiratory system?

    <p>Bronchoconstriction</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What major effect do nitrates have in treating angina?

    <p>Decrease preload and afterload, reducing myocardial oxygen demand</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary mechanism by which digoxin enhances cardiac contractility?

    <p>Inhibition of the Na/K ATPase pump</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Study Notes

    Prehypertension Definition

    • Chronic blood pressure greater than 120/80 mmHg but less than 140/90 mmHg

    Severe Hypertension

    • Blood pressure greater than 180/120 mmHg

    Essential Hypertension Cause

    • No identifiable cause

    Hypertension Risk Factor

    • Kidney failure
    • Increased stroke risk
    • Decreased oxygenation of tissues

    Blood Pressure Control Factors

    • Cardiac output and body weight
    • Renal function and blood volume
    • Autonomic and hormonal feedback loops
    • Salt intake and physical activity
    • Vasoconstriction and vasodilation

    Faster Blood Pressure Regulation

    • Autonomic feedback loop

    Cardiac Output Effect on Blood Pressure

    • Increase in cardiac output increases blood pressure

    Peripheral Vascular Resistance (PVR) Effect on Blood Pressure

    • Reducing PVR decreases blood pressure

    Renin-Angiotensin System Function in Hypertension

    • Increase blood volume

    Angiotensin II Effect on Blood Pressure

    • Vasoconstricts blood vessels

    ACE Inhibitors Adverse Effect

    • Hyperkalemia

    Angiotensin II Receptor Antagonists

    • Angiotensin receptor blockers (ARBs)

    Non-β-blocker

    • Ramipril

    Effect of β1 Receptor Antagonism

    • Decrease heart rate

    Drug Contraindicated in Hypertensive Individuals with Asthma

    • Bisoprolol

    Thiazide Diuretics Characteristic

    • Inhibit sodium and chloride reabsorption in the nephron

    Aldosterone Receptor Antagonist

    • Spironolactone

    Calcium Channel Blockers Side Effect

    • Constipation

    Preferred Calcium Channel Blocker for Hypertension

    • Dihydropyridines

    Alpha Blocker Adverse Effect

    • Flushing

    Hypertensive Crisis Treatment

    • Parenteral antihypertensive agents

    Non-First-Line Hypertension Treatment

    • Beta-blockers

    Teratogenic Drug in Pregnancy

    • Lisinopril

    Drug Class for Hypertension and Heart Failure

    • ACE inhibitors

    β2 Receptor Antagonism Effect

    • Vasoconstriction

    Secondary Hypertension

    • Caused by a known condition (e.g., heart or kidney disease)
    • Accounts for a small percentage of hypertension cases

    Hypertensive Retinopathy Associated Condition

    • Stroke

    Drug Effective for Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia and Hypertension

    • Alpha-blockers

    Aldosterone's Role in Blood Pressure Regulation

    • Increases sodium reabsorption and fluid volume
    • Increases fluid volume and elevates blood pressure

    Stage 2 Hypertension Management Approach

    • Administer multiple antihypertensive agents

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    Description

    Test your knowledge on hypertension, including its definitions, causes, risk factors, and control mechanisms. This quiz covers essential concepts such as blood pressure regulation, the role of the renin-angiotensin system, and the effects of cardiac output on blood pressure.

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