Animal Health Care Answers PDF

Animal Health Care Answers 1. What are inflammatory cells primarily responsible for? A. Producing hormones for growth B. Migrating to tissue injury sites to combat injury C. Transporting nutrients to tissues D. Regulating blood flow Answer: Migrating to tissue injury sites to combat...

Animal Health Care Answers 1. What are inflammatory cells primarily responsible for? A. Producing hormones for growth B. Migrating to tissue injury sites to combat injury C. Transporting nutrients to tissues D. Regulating blood flow Answer: Migrating to tissue injury sites to combat injury (B) Inflammatory cells, which include white blood cells, migrate to sites of tissue injury to destroy harmful agents and aid healing. 2. What is the primary role of an intermediate host? A. To serve as a biological carrier for disease agents B. To facilitate the digestion of parasites C. To multiply parasites within its own tissues D. To harbor adult stages of parasites Answer: To serve as a biological carrier for disease agents (A) An intermediate host carries disease-inducing agents, especially during their asexual or larval stages. 3. Which vaccine type consists of live organisms that multiply within the body? A. Live vaccine B. Mixed vaccine C. Monovalent vaccine D. Modified vaccine Answer: Live vaccine (A) A live vaccine contains live organisms that multiply in the body, prompting an immune response. 4. What characterizes a paratenic host? A. It harbors the adult stage of a parasite B. It transmits the infection without further development of the parasite C. It is immune to the parasite D. It undergoes full parasite development Answer: It transmits the infection without further development of the parasite (B) A paratenic host carries the infective stage of a parasite but does not allow further development. 5. What is the purpose of intravenous administration? A. Delivering nutrients orally B. Introducing solutions/drugs via the veins C. Injecting drugs into muscle tissue D. Administering medication through the skin Answer: Introducing solutions/drugs via the veins (B) Intravenous administration involves introducing substances directly into the bloodstream through the veins. 6. What does the term necrotic tissues refer to? A. Dead tissues B. Tissues undergoing rapid growth C. Healthy tissues that respond to stimuli D. Tissues damaged by inflammation Answer: Dead tissues (A) Necrotic tissues are characterized by cell death due to injury or disease. 7. What is the permeability of cell membranes? A. Their ability to provide structure to the cell B. Their ability to retain nutrients only C. Their ability to repel all substances D. Their ability to penetrate and allow substance passage Answer: Their ability to penetrate and allow substance passage (D) Permeability refers to how easily substances can penetrate cell membranes. 8. What is a poultice primarily used for? A. Applying warmth and relief to sores or inflamed areas B. Improving digestion C. Treating internal infections D. Administering vaccines Answer: Applying warmth and relief to sores or inflamed areas (A) A poultice is a soft mass applied to inflamed areas to provide warmth and relieve pain. 9. What is one primary way parasites negatively impact their host? A. By absorbing part of the digested nutrients B. By preventing the consumption of food C. By enhancing the immune response of the host D. By increasing host metabolism Answer: By absorbing part of the digested nutrients (A) Parasites can absorb nutrients that the host requires, leading to decreased productivity. 10. Which factor contributes to high parasitic loads in animals in rural areas of the Philippines? A. Strict grazing management B. Improper housing and grazing management C. Proper housing conditions D. Limited access to grazing land Answer: Improper housing and grazing management (B) Improper housing and grazing management are significant contributors to increased parasitic infections in livestock. 11. What characteristic is common among gastrointestinal nematodes in goats under Philippine conditions? A. Only one species usually infects them B. Multiple species are typically present C. They are exclusively transmitted through fecal matter D. They do not cause significant health issues Answer: Multiple species are typically present (B) Goats often harbor multiple species of gastrointestinal nematodes due to their wide access to different worm species. 12. Which parasite is known for sucking blood or lymph from its host? A. Roundworm B. Tapeworm C. Maggot of blowfly D. Hookworm Answer: Hookworm (D) Hookworms are known to suck blood or lymph from the intestines of ruminants, contributing to their detrimental effects. 13. What is a disease transmitted by the tropical cattle tick? A. Foot and Mouth Disease B. Mastitis C. Bovine Spongiform Encephalopathy D. Anaplasmosis Answer: Anaplasmosis (D) The tropical cattle tick, Boophilus microplus, is known to transmit diseases such as Anaplasmosis and Babesiosis. 14. What is the primary method of administration for the Pasteurella multocida bacterin? A. Orally B. Intramuscularly C. Subcutaneously D. Intravenously Answer: Intramuscularly (B) The Pasteurella multocida bacterin is administered intramuscularly (IM). 15. When is it recommended to give the first dose of the Mycoplasma pneumonia vaccine? A. 2 weeks before weaning B. 2 weeks after weaning C. At weaning D. Immediately after birth Answer: 2 weeks before weaning (A) The Mycoplasma pneumonia vaccine is recommended to be administered 2 weeks before weaning. 16. How frequently should the Leptospira polyvalent bacterin be administered in breeders? A. Monthly B. Quarterly C. Semiannually D. Annually Answer: Semiannually (C) The Leptospira polyvalent bacterin should be given semiannually in breeders. 17. What is the interval for booster doses after the initial Mycoplasma pneumonia vaccination? A. 4-6 weeks later B. 2-3 weeks later C. 1-2 weeks D. No booster is needed Answer: 2-3 weeks later (B) Booster doses for Mycoplasma pneumonia vaccination are indicated 2-3 weeks after the initial dose. 18. In what case is a repeat dose recommended for the Pasteurella multocida bacterin? A. Before breeding B. Before weaning C. Every 2 months D. Annually Answer: Before breeding (A) A repeat dose of the Pasteurella multocida bacterin is recommended before breeding. 19. What is the time frame to administer the Leptospira polyvalent bacterin before weaning? A. 3-4 weeks before B. 2 weeks before C. 1 week before D. No specific time frame is required Answer: 1 week before (C) The Leptospira polyvalent bacterin should be administered 1 week before weaning. 20. How long after the initial Mycoplasma pneumonia vaccination should the next dose be administered? A. Immediately B. 12 weeks C. 2-3 weeks D. 6-8 weeks Answer: 2-3 weeks (C) The next dose of Mycoplasma pneumonia vaccine should be given 2-3 weeks after the initial vaccination. 21. What does the term 'enzootic infections' primarily refer to? A. Infections endemic to a specific area or population B. Infections that affect primarily wild animals C. Infections that lead to sporadic outbreaks D. Infections never occurring in a population Answer: Infections endemic to a specific area or population (A) Enzootic infections refer to infections that are endemic to a specific area or population. 22. Which bacterin is usually mixed with E.coli during administration? A. Leptospira sp. B. Mycoplasma hyopneumoniae C. Pasteurella multocida D. None of the above Answer: Pasteurella multocida (C) The Pasteurella multocida bacterin is usually mixed with E.coli during administration. 23. What is the recommended administration route for the Leptospira sp. polyvalent bacterin? A. Orally B. Intramuscularly C. Subcutaneously D. Intravenously Answer: Intramuscularly (B) The Leptospira sp. polyvalent bacterin is administered intramuscularly (IM). 24. What is the definition of a sporulated oocyst? A. A type of vaccine used against coccidian diseases. B. The inactive stage of coccidian parasites. C. A type of antibiotic used to treat livestock infections. D. The infective stage of coccidian parasites that has undergone spore formation. Answer: The infective stage of coccidian parasites that has undergone spore formation. (D) A sporulated oocyst is the infective stage of coccidian parasites, formed through spore division. 25. What does the term 'tympany' refer to in livestock health? A. Inflammation of the stomach lining. B. A viral infection affecting cattle. C. Excessive accumulation of gas in the rumen. D. A deficiency in vitamin intake. Answer: Excessive accumulation of gas in the rumen. (C) Tympany is a condition characterized by an excessive buildup of gas in the rumen. 26. Which of the following best describes a trivalent vaccine? A. A vaccine that targets a single strain of pathogen. B. A vaccine that provides immunity for three years. C. A vaccine containing a mixture of three different strains of the same organism. D. A vaccine that is administered in three doses. Answer: A vaccine containing a mixture of three different strains of the same organism. (C) A trivalent vaccine contains three different strains of the same organism to enhance immunity. 27. In the context of disease, what does 'virulent' mean? A. Referring to long-term immunity from a disease. B. A characteristic of pathogens that are harmless. C. Capable of causing disease. D. Describing a pathogen with low potential for disease. Answer: Capable of causing disease. (C) 'Virulent' refers to pathogens that can cause diseases effectively. 28. Which factor is primarily responsible for the increased occurrence of livestock diseases in tropical countries? A. The conducive tropical climate for growth of pathogens. B. Low population density of livestock. C. Extensive sanitation practices on farms. D. Higher vaccination rates among livestock. Answer: The conducive tropical climate for growth of pathogens. (A) The tropical climate allows for enhanced growth and propagation of pathogens, resulting in more diseases. 29. What is the main purpose of vaccination in livestock? A. To enhance the growth rate of animals. B. To treat existing infections. C. To induce immunity against specific diseases. D. To ensure a higher yield of products. Answer: To induce immunity against specific diseases. (C) Vaccination aims to induce immunity to protect livestock from specific diseases. 30. What does 'transmissible disease' mean? A. A disease that cannot spread between species. B. A disease that is only found in farm animals. C. A disease that spreads from one host to another. D. A disease that is curable with antibiotics. Answer: A disease that spreads from one host to another. (C) A transmissible disease is one that can spread from one host to another, regardless of species. 31. What role do vectors play in disease transmission? A. They can prevent disease spread. B. They are hosts for pathogens but do not transmit them. C. They can transmit pathogens biologically or mechanically. D. They are a type of vaccine used in prevention. Answer: They can transmit pathogens biologically or mechanically. (C) Vectors, often arthropods, are crucial in transferring pathogens between hosts. 32. What does subcutaneous injection refer to? A. Administering drugs just beneath the skin. B. Applying medications externally on the skin. C. Administering drugs by inhalation. D. Injecting substances into the bloodstream. Answer: Administering drugs just beneath the skin. (A) A subcutaneous injection involves delivering drugs just beneath the skin surface. 33. Which of the following statements is true regarding the presence of Pasteurella multocida? A. It is harmless and cannot cause infections. B. It is mainly found in tropical climates. C. It always causes disease in large ruminants. D. It can cause Pasteurellosis under certain stressful conditions. Answer: It can cause Pasteurellosis under certain stressful conditions. (D) Pasteurella multocida is normally harmless but can cause illness when an animal's natural resistance declines. 34. What is a key characteristic of an excellent vaccine in terms of immunogenicity? A. Stimulates both humoral and cellular immune responses B. Only stimulates the humoral immune response C. Provides protection for at least 70% of vaccinates D. Requires higher doses for efficacy Answer: Stimulates both humoral and cellular immune responses (A) An excellent vaccine should stimulate both humoral and cellular immune responses, with protection levels at least 95%. 35. Which statement about vaccine safety features is correct? A. Vaccines must not cause disease in the vaccinated animals B. Vaccines should produce minimal side effects C. Vaccines can potentially revert to a virulent state D. Vaccines should induce the carrier state in vaccinates Answer: Vaccines must not cause disease in the vaccinated animals (A) It is crucial for vaccines to not cause disease in vaccinated animals as a safety feature. 36. What is a recommendation for vaccine storage? A. Store vaccines in the refrigerator at cold temperatures (20-60°C) B. Refrigerate vaccines at ambient temperatures C. Keep vaccines at room temperature D. Store vaccines in a freezer Answer: Store vaccines in the refrigerator at cold temperatures (20-60°C) (A) Vaccines should be stored in the refrigerator or at a cold temperature range of 20-60°C. 37. What should be avoided when vaccinating animals? A. Vaccinating healthy animals B. Vaccinating when ignoring expiration dates C. Vaccinating during a storm D. Vaccinating sick animals Answer: Vaccinating when ignoring expiration dates (B) It is important to defer vaccination of sick animals and to check expiration dates to ensure vaccine efficacy. 38. What is a crucial guideline when transporting vaccines? A. Do not place vaccines in direct sunlight B. Pack vaccines with frozen gel packs C. Transport vaccines in ice chests or coolers D. Use regular backpacks for transport Answer: Transport vaccines in ice chests or coolers (C) Vaccines must be transported in ice chests or covered containers packed with ice to maintain their efficacy. 39. What common misconception may occur regarding expired vaccines? A. They are still safe to use if they look okay B. They are always more effective than newly purchased vaccines C. They can be used for a short period after expiration D. They enhance immunity better than fresh vaccines Answer: They are still safe to use if they look okay (A) Using expired vaccines is unsafe even if they appear to be intact or undamaged. 40. Which of these is NOT a safety feature for an ideal vaccine? A. Only provides limited protection B. Does not cause disease in humans C. Does not revert to a virulent state D. Does not cause allergic reactions in vaccinates Answer: Only provides limited protection (A) An excellent vaccine should provide robust protection, not limited protection. 41. Why is it important to avoid stress on animals during vaccination? A. Stressed animals may not react to the vaccine B. Stress increases the risk of allergic reactions C. Stress levels do not affect vaccination outcome D. Stress makes animals less likely to be vaccinated Answer: Stressed animals may not react to the vaccine (A) Stressed animals may not adequately respond to vaccination, resulting in reduced efficacy. 42. How should one assess the condition of a vaccine before use? A. Inspect only the outer packaging B. Determine its effectiveness based on its price C. Check for the expiration date and any signs of damage D. Rely on the manufacturer’s reputation Answer: Check for the expiration date and any signs of damage (C) Always check the expiration date and inspect the vaccine for signs of damage before use. 43. What is a recommendation regarding the vaccination schedule? A. Vaccinate during times of high stress B. Vaccinate before the animal is completely healthy C. Vaccinate regardless of the animal's age D. Vaccinate only when weather conditions are optimal Answer: Vaccinate only when weather conditions are optimal (D) The vaccination schedule should take into account optimal weather conditions to ensure the well-being of the animal. 44. What is the recommended administration route for the parvovirus vaccine? A. Intranasal B. Subcutaneous C. IM D. Oral Answer: IM (C) The parvovirus vaccine is administered via intramuscular (IM) route. 45. What is the timing for administering the first dose of the piglet scours vaccine? A. 2-3 weeks before farrowing B. 1-2 weeks after birth C. 4-5 weeks after weaning D. 4-5 weeks before farrowing Answer: 4-5 weeks before farrowing (D) The first dose of the piglet scours vaccine should be administered 4-5 weeks before farrowing. 46. Which of the following statements correctly describes the dosing schedule for salmonellosis vaccination? A. Administered every month after weaning B. Administered every 3 weeks after weaning C. Initial dose at 6-7 weeks, booster at 3-4 months D. First dose at 2-4 weeks, no booster needed Answer: Initial dose at 6-7 weeks, booster at 3-4 months (C) For salmonellosis vaccination, the initial dose is given at 2-4 weeks old, with a booster typically administered at 3-4 months. 47. What is the recommended interval for the subsequent doses of the parvovirus vaccine? A. Every farrowing B. Every month C. Every 4 weeks D. 3 weeks after the second dose Answer: Every farrowing (A) The parvovirus vaccine requires a subsequent dose to be administered every farrowing for breeders. 48. Which vaccine type is typically mixed with E.coli for salmonellosis prevention? A. Inactivated vaccine B. Subunit vaccine C. Bacterin D. Live attenuated vaccine Answer: Bacterin (C) The salmonellosis vaccine is usually a bacterin that is mixed with E.coli and other agents for enhanced immunity. 49. What is the main purpose of an anthelmintic? A. To enhance immune response B. To expel or destroy parasitic worms C. To provide pain relief D. To increase red blood cell production Answer: To expel or destroy parasitic worms (B) Anthelmintics are specifically designed to target and eliminate parasitic worms. 50. Which term describes a state where a population has individuals that tolerate usual doses of a compound? A. Anthelmintic resistance B. Antibacterial action C. Anthelmintic tolerance D. Anaphylactic shock Answer: Anthelmintic resistance (A) Anthelmintic resistance indicates a higher frequency of individuals within a population able to withstand treatment. 51. What type of reaction does agglutination describe? A. Promotion of bacterial growth B. Suspension of organisms forming clumps C. The breakdown of blood cells D. Transmission of a viral infection Answer: Suspension of organisms forming clumps (B) Agglutination refers to particles collecting into clumps when treated with certain substances. 52. Why might an anaphylactic shock occur after vaccination? A. As a response to the vaccine's efficacy B. Following exposure to unvaccinated animals C. Due to allergic reaction to preservatives D. From inadequate vaccine dosage Answer: Due to allergic reaction to preservatives (C) Anaphylactic shock can occur as an exaggerated reaction to foreign proteins from vaccines. 53. What effect does an anaesthetic have on an individual? A. Increases pain perception B. Increases alertness and activity C. Partially or totally reduces sensibility D. Enhances metabolic rate Answer: Partially or totally reduces sensibility (C) Anaesthetics cause a reduction in sensibility, affecting the body's responsiveness. 54. Which of the following best describes the role of a vaccine? A. To treat existing infections B. To provide immediate immunity C. To diagnose diseases D. To prevent future infections Answer: To prevent future infections (D) Vaccines are primarily used to stimulate the immune system to prevent future infections. 55. What is the significance of the term 'vaccination schedule'? A. The time frames and intervals for administering vaccines B. The method of vaccine storage C. The physical condition of the animals at the time of vaccination D. The specific dosage used for treatment Answer: The time frames and intervals for administering vaccines (A) A vaccination schedule outlines when and how vaccines should be administered to ensure effectiveness. 56. What characterizes a potent vaccine in terms of immunogenicity? A. Ability to trigger an adequate immune response B. Limited duration of effect C. Increased administration frequency D. Use of multiple adjuvants Answer: Ability to trigger an adequate immune response (A) A potent vaccine must effectively stimulate and induce a strong immune response to pathogens. 57. Which disease appears to have the highest recorded incidence in the data provided? A. S. erysipelas B. NCD C. Liverfluke D. Fever Answer: NCD (B) NCD has the highest recorded incidence with a total of 60,704. 58. What is the total number of cases recorded for F.pox? A. 43,171 B. 20,000 C. 13,362 D. 30,000 Answer: 43,171 (A) F.pox recorded a total of 43,171 cases. 59. Which disease had zero cases recorded over the reporting period? A. F.Cholera B. S.erysipelas C. Orf D. Fever Answer: Fever (D) Fever had zero cases recorded throughout the reporting period. 60. Which disease had a case total of over 1,000 in the second category? A. S.Flu B. Fever C. F.M.D. D. F.Cholera Answer: S.Flu (A) S.Flu had a case total of 1,040 in the second category. 61. Among the diseases listed, which one shows the lowest total in the last category? A. Liverfluke B. F.Cholera C. HC D. F.M.D. Answer: Liverfluke (A) Liverfluke shows the lowest total of 10,486 in the last category. 62. Which disease recorded 0 cases in the last three reporting periods? A. F.pox B. NCD C. S.erysipelas D. Orf Answer: Orf (D) Orf recorded 0 cases in the last three reporting periods. 63. What was the total number of cases for Hemosept in the first reporting category? A. 215 B. 146 C. 427 D. 500 Answer: 427 (C) The total number of cases for Hemosept in the first reporting category was 427. 64. Which disease had the highest number of recorded cases in the fifth category? A. S.Flu B. NCD C. F.M.D. D. F.pox Answer: NCD (B) NCD had the highest number of recorded cases in the fifth category. 65. In the data provided, which disease consistently has a zero case count in the second to last category? A. HC B. Liverfluke C. S.erysipelas D. Fever Answer: Fever (D) Fever consistently recorded a zero case count in the second to last category. 66. Which reported disease has a total of 2 cases in its last reporting category? A. Liverfluke B. F.Cholera C. Hemosept D. NCD Answer: Liverfluke (A) Liverfluke recorded a total of 2 cases in its last reporting category. 67. Which of the following is an example of an inorganic acid? A. Carbolic acid B. Acetic acid C. Hydrochloric acid D. Phenol Answer: Hydrochloric acid (C) Hydrochloric acid is a well-known inorganic acid, while the others are organic. 68. Which of the following is categorized as an alcohol? A. Methyl alcohol B. Phenol C. Sodium hydroxide D. Formaldehyde Answer: Methyl alcohol (A) Methyl alcohol is an alcohol; the others are not classified as alcohols. 69. Which reducing agent can be used in chemical reactions? A. Sodium bromate B. Chlorine C. Ozone D. Carbon monoxide Answer: Carbon monoxide (D) Carbon monoxide is a recognized reducing agent; the others are oxidizing agents or neutral. 70. Which of the following substances is a halogen? A. Acetic acid B. Methyl alcohol C. Phenol D. Bromide Answer: Bromide (D) Bromide is a halogen; the other options are not related to halogens. 71. In the context of surface-active agents, what are cationics mainly known for? A. Quaternary ammonium germicides B. Anionic surfactants C. True soaps D. Polyethylene derivatives Answer: Quaternary ammonium germicides (A) Cationics primarily include quaternary ammonium germicides, while others represent different categories. 72. What type of organic compound is cresol classified as? A. Carboxylic acid B. Alcohol C. Phenol derivative D. Aromatic oil Answer: Phenol derivative (C) Cresol is a phenol derivative; the others do not accurately describe it. 73. Which of these is NOT a type of oxidizing agent? A. Ozone B. Carbon dioxide C. Perchloric acid D. Sodium permanganate Answer: Carbon dioxide (B) Carbon dioxide is not an oxidizing agent; the others are known as oxidizers. 74. In the context of acids, which of these is an example of a benzoic acid? A. Acetic acid B. Benzoic acid C. Hydrochloric acid D. Sulfuric acid Answer: Benzoic acid (B) Benzoic acid is a specific type of benzoic acid; the others are different types of acids. 75. Which one of these is classified under alkaline substances? A. Sodium sulfonate B. Phenol diiodide C. Calcium hydroxide D. Sodium nitrite Answer: Calcium hydroxide (C) Calcium hydroxide is a strong alkaline substance; the others do not fall under this category. 76. Which aromatic oil is commonly known for its therapeutic properties? A. Acetic aldehyde B. Camphor C. Benzyl alcohol D. Carbolic acid Answer: Camphor (B) Camphor is widely recognized for its therapeutic uses; the others do not have this reputation. 77. What is an essential characteristic of a night shed or holding area for cattle and carabaos? A. It must be located in a low-lying area. B. It should be well-drained and elevated. C. It must have a dirt floor for natural insulation. D. It should allow for easy access to stagnant water. Answer: It should be well-drained and elevated. (B) An elevated and well-drained area helps minimize soggy conditions, preventing foot rot. 78. Which method is recommended for managing organic waste in animal holding areas? A. Burying waste without covering. B. Composting the organic waste. C. Leaving waste in place to decompose naturally. D. Burning all manure immediately. Answer: Composting the organic waste. (B) Composting is considered the best and most practical method for disposing of organic wastes. 79. What is advised for the disposal of animals that have died from infectious diseases? A. Bury them at least 6 ft deep with proper covering. B. Dispose of them in the regular trash. C. Leave them in the open to decompose. D. Bury them without any cover. Answer: Bury them at least 6 ft deep with proper covering. (A) Proper burial is crucial to prevent the spread of disease, with specific depth and covering instructions. 80. What should be ensured about drinking water for cattle and carabaos? A. It can contain some manure. B. It should always be warm. C. It must be clean and potable. D. It can be obtained from any pond. Answer: It must be clean and potable. (C) Cattle and carabaos should have access to potable and uncontaminated drinking water. 81. What is the role of regular grooming in animal health care? A. It allows for better visibility in the field. B. It helps maintain the animal's hygiene and health. C. It primarily improves their diet. D. It prevents hydration issues. Answer: It helps maintain the animal's hygiene and health. (B) Regular grooming is essential for maintaining hygiene and preventing health issues in animals. 82. Why is the removal of manure important in livestock management? A. It enhances nutrient availability in the soil. B. It prevents soggy soil conditions conducive to diseases. C. It helps in breeding beneficial bugs. D. It attracts more insects that pollinate crops. Answer: It prevents soggy soil conditions conducive to diseases. (B) Regular removal prevents soggy conditions which can lead to foot rot and other health issues. 83. What is the recommended action during outbreaks of diseases among livestock? A. Stop all feeding to reduce stress. B. Move healthy animals to different locations. C. Increase the feeding frequency. D. Quarantine sick animals to limit spread. Answer: Quarantine sick animals to limit spread. (D) Quarantining sick animals helps minimize the possibility of spreading the disease. 84. How should contaminated litters and manure be handled during animal cadaver disposal? A. They must be buried together at the burial site. B. They should be left in place to biodegrade. C. They can be discarded with regular waste. D. They should be burned along with the carcass. Answer: They must be buried together at the burial site. (A) Contaminated litters and manure should be buried with the cadaver to prevent disease spread. 85. Which of the following is NOT a recommended practice for maintaining animal health? A. Periodically checking for the presence of insects. B. Proper disposal of dead animals. C. Regular cleaning of animal areas. D. Ignoring the cleanliness of drinking water. Answer: Ignoring the cleanliness of drinking water. (D) Ensuring that drinking water is clean and free from contamination is crucial for animal health. 86. What hazard is associated with a buildup of maggots and flies in animal enclosures? A. They help in improving feed conversion rates. B. They provide natural nutrients to the soil. C. They reduce the scavenge population. D. They can cause direct injury to the animals. Answer: They can cause direct injury to the animals. (D) Maggots and flies can cause direct injury to animals and also carry infectious diseases. 87. Which ectoparasite is known to predispose cattle to Surra and Anaplasmosis? A. Calliphora sp. B. Boophilus microplus C. Tabanus reduscens D. Sarcoptes scabiei Answer: Tabanus reduscens (C) Tabanus reduscens, commonly known as the breezefly, can transmit significant diseases to cattle. 88. What is the primary impact of Damalinia limbata on livestock? A. Anemia B. Tick worry C. Mange or Scabies D. Unthriftiness Answer: Unthriftiness (D) Damalinia limbata is a biting louse that contributes to unthriftiness and poor coat quality in livestock. 89. Which of the following is a biting louse affecting goats? A. Damalinia limbata B. Sarcoptes scabiei C. Linognathus vituli D. Chorioptes bovis Answer: Damalinia limbata (A) Damalinia limbata is identified as a biting louse that affects goats, leading to various health issues. 90. Which fly is primarily associated with myiasis? A. Chrysomyia bezziana B. Simulium sp. C. Stomoxys calcitrans D. Tabanus striatus Answer: Chrysomyia bezziana (A) Chrysomyia bezziana, also known as the screw worm fly, is a major cause of myiasis in livestock. 91. Which mite is responsible for causing mange or scabies in goats? A. Sarcoptes scabiei B. Demodex bovis C. Thrombidid sp. D. Psoroptes communis Answer: Sarcoptes scabiei (A) Sarcoptes scabiei is the mite known for causing mange or scabies in goats. 92. What is the primary effect of agglutination in a biological context? A. Clumping of particles B. Increased motility of organisms C. Destruction of microorganisms D. Inhibition of cell division Answer: Clumping of particles (A) Agglutination refers to the process where particles suspended in liquid clump together. 93. Which response best describes anaphylactic shock? A. A sudden loss of breath due to infection B. A typical vaccine reaction with no severe outcomes C. An exaggerated response to foreign proteins D. A reaction to bacterial toxins Answer: An exaggerated response to foreign proteins (C) Anaphylactic shock is an extreme reaction that can occur after exposure to foreign proteins, especially after vaccinations. 94. What role do anthelmintics serve in animal health? A. They expel or destroy parasitic worms B. They increase blood circulation C. They provide nutritional support D. They boost animal growth Answer: They expel or destroy parasitic worms (A) Anthelmintics are specifically used to manage parasitic worm infections in the intestine. 95. Anthelmintic resistance refers to which of the following situations? A. Increased tolerance to anti-parasitic treatments B. Heightened immune responses post-treatment C. Reduced efficacy of vaccines D. Improved growth rates in infected animals Answer: Increased tolerance to anti-parasitic treatments (A) Anthelmintic resistance describes a state where certain individuals in a population can tolerate doses that would normally be effective. 96. What is the expected outcome of antibacterial action? A. Increased replication of pathogens B. Stimulation of bacterial growth C. Destruction of harmful bacteria D. Inhibition of immune response Answer: Destruction of harmful bacteria (C) Antibacterial action is intended to kill or inhibit the growth of harmful bacteria. 97. Which professional role is Ricardo R. Argana associated with? A. Volume Editor in Applied Communication Division B. Director of Livestock Research Division C. Research Associate Professor D. Officer-in-Charge of Animal Health Division Answer: Volume Editor in Applied Communication Division (A) Ricardo R. Argana serves as the Volume Editor in the Applied Communication Division. 98. What is a key characteristic of an effective anaesthetic? A. It enhances lung capacity B. It accelerates nerve signals C. It causes partial or total loss of sensibility D. It increases heart rate Answer: It causes partial or total loss of sensibility (C) Anaesthetics are substances that induce loss of sensation, either partially or totally. 99. Which role does Dr. Edwin C. Villar hold in relation to livestock research? A. Director of the Dairy Training Institute B. Research Associate Professor C. Science Research Specialist D. Director of Livestock Research Division Answer: Director of Livestock Research Division (D) Dr. Edwin C. Villar is the Director of the Livestock Research Division. 100. What occurs during agglutination when particles are treated with specific substances? A. Particles form clumps or flocules B. Particles gain increased mobility C. Particles dissolve into the solution D. Particles lose their structural integrity Answer: Particles form clumps or flocules (A) Agglutination occurs when particles form clumps in response to certain substances. 101. Which term is used to describe a condition where individuals can tolerate anthelmintic treatments? A. Parasite adaptation B. Immunological resistance C. Intestinal parasite eradication D. Anthelmintic tolerance Answer: Anthelmintic tolerance (D) Anthelmintic tolerance refers to the ability of certain individuals in a parasite population to withstand treatment doses. 102. What is the role of metacercariae in the life cycle of the common liver fluke? A. To mature into adult flukes in the liver B. To develop into miracidium C. To emerge from snail hosts D. To lay eggs in the intestines Answer: To mature into adult flukes in the liver (A) Metacercariae serve as the stage that matures into adult flukes within the liver. 103. Which method is NOT a way through which parasite infections can be acquired? A. Inoculation through arthropod bites B. Ingestion through snails C. Penetration through the skin D. Absorption through water vapor Answer: Absorption through water vapor (D) Infections are not acquired through absorption from water vapor, as this does not exist as a method in the provided content. 104. What occurs after mature cercariae emerge from snails in the life cycle of the common liver fluke? A. They lay eggs in the bile ducts B. They move to infect arthropods C. They encyst on grasses D. They develop into sporocysts Answer: They encyst on grasses (C) After emerging from snails, mature cercariae encyst on grasses or settle in water. 105. What is the primary function of the miracidium in the life cycle of the liver fluke? A. To engulf metacercariae in the liver B. To mature into a redia stage C. To lay eggs in contaminated water D. To hatch and infect snail hosts Answer: To hatch and infect snail hosts (D) The miracidium hatches and enters the snail to continue its life cycle. 106. How do adult flukes contribute to the parasite's life cycle? A. By laying eggs in contaminated water B. By directly infecting grass and water C. By developing into cercariae in the snails D. By encysting in the intestines of their host Answer: By laying eggs in contaminated water (A) Adult flukes lay eggs that are eventually excreted with feces into water. 107. Which of the following statements accurately describes the development phase of cercariae? A. Cercariae develop in the snail before emerging to infect hosts B. Cercariae encyst before they can emerge from the snail C. Cercariae develop from redia in the intestines D. Cercariae emerge from eggs laid in raw food Answer: Cercariae develop in the snail before emerging to infect hosts (A) Cercariae indeed develop within the snail before they emerge and seek new hosts. 108. What is a common method through which fluke infections can occur in animals? A. Ingestion of infective stage through contaminated water B. Direct contact with infected animals C. Airborne transmission from infected locations D. Ingestion of contaminated soil Answer: Ingestion of infective stage through contaminated water (A) Ingestion of the infective stage via contaminated water is a primary route for acquiring fluke infections. 109. What key stage follows the emergence of mature cercariae from snails in the life cycle of the liver fluke? A. Ingestion by the definitive host B. Laying of eggs in feces C. Spread to new environments D. Encystment in the host Answer: Ingestion by the definitive host (A) After emerging from snails, mature cercariae are typically ingested by the definitive host. 110. Which one of the following statements is true regarding the transmission of parasite infections? A. Parasites only transmit through vectors such as insects B. Some infections can be acquired through ingestion of infected arthropods C. Parasite eggs are only infectious after being excreted from the host D. Parasites can penetrate the skin but do not enter through consumption Answer: Some infections can be acquired through ingestion of infected arthropods (B) Ingestion of infective stages through infected arthropods is one of the noted methods of transmission. 111. Which parasite is specifically identified as a liver fluke? A. Trichuris suis B. Ascaris suis C. Goniodes sp. D. Fasciola sp. Answer: Fasciola sp. (D) Fasciola sp. is known as the liver fluke, affecting the liver of various livestock. 112. What is the life cycle of Eimeria tenella primarily associated with? A. Cats B. Pigs C. Cattle D. Chickens Answer: Chickens (D) Eimeria tenella is a coccidian parasite specifically affecting chickens. 113. Which of the following worms is categorized as a roundworm? A. Amphistomes B. Ascaridia galli C. Moniezia sp. D. Raillietina sp. Answer: Ascaridia galli (B) Ascaridia galli is classified as a large roundworm primarily affecting poultry. 114. What is a common method used to correct a 'head back' position during birth? A. Assisted gravitation B. Surgical intervention C. Use of a trocar and cannula D. Manual extraction of the fetus Answer: Manual extraction of the fetus (D) Manual extraction is often employed to correct abnormal presentations during delivery. 115. Which tick is recognized as the tropical cattle tick? A. Goniodes sp. B. Omithonyssus bursa C. Boophilus microplus D. Raillietina sp. Answer: Boophilus microplus (C) Boophilus microplus is the scientific name for the tropical cattle tick. 116. Which organism is most likely to cause ascariasis in pigs? A. Fasciola sp. B. Trichurus suis C. Toxocara vitulorum D. Ascaris suis Answer: Ascaris suis (D) Ascaris suis is the specific parasite causing ascariasis in pigs. 117. What is the typical application of a trocar and cannula in livestock? A. To puncture for gas expulsion B. To perform a cesarean section C. For administering vaccines D. To extract blood samples Answer: To puncture for gas expulsion (A) The trocar and cannula are used primarily to expel gas from the left paralumbar fossa. 118. Which parasite is commonly referred to as the common roundworm in cattle? A. Toxocara vitulorum B. Fasciola sp. C. Raillietina sp. D. Ascaris suis Answer: Toxocara vitulorum (A) Toxocara vitulorum is known as the common roundworm found in cattle. 119. What is the recommended administration route for the Marek’s disease vaccine? A. Intravenous injection B. Oral administration C. Subcutaneous injection D. Intramuscular injection Answer: Subcutaneous injection (C) The Marek’s disease vaccine is administered via subcutaneous injection. 120. What is the timing for administering the second dose of the Newcastle disease vaccine? A. 1st week B. At day old C. 3rd-5th week D. Before egg production Answer: 3rd-5th week (C) The second dose of the Newcastle disease vaccine is typically given at 3rd-5th week. 121. Which disease vaccine involves the use of a bivalent vaccine? A. Marek’s disease B. Gumboro disease C. Infectious bronchitis D. Newcastle disease Answer: Infectious bronchitis (C) The infectious bronchitis vaccine can use a mild live monovalent or a bivalent form. 122. In what scenario should the first and second doses of the Gumboro disease vaccine be delayed? A. In newly hatched chicks B. In vaccinated breeders only C. In layers only D. In birds with high maternal immunity Answer: In birds with high maternal immunity (D) Delaying the doses in birds with high maternal immunity helps optimize vaccine effectiveness. 123. Which vaccine is incorporated into the Newcastle disease vaccinations? A. Mycoplasma pneumonia vaccine B. Leptospira bacterin C. Infectious bronchitis vaccine D. Gumboro vaccine Answer: Infectious bronchitis vaccine (C) The infectious bronchitis vaccine is included in NCD vaccine regimens. 124. What type of vaccine is characterized as being live and avirulent for Marek’s disease? A. Live avirulent vaccine B. Modified live vaccine C. Live mild vaccine D. Live inactivated vaccine Answer: Live avirulent vaccine (A) Marek’s disease vaccine is classified as a live avirulent vaccine. 125. What is the method of administration for the infectious bronchitis vaccine? A. Subcutaneous injection B. Oral or spray C. Intravenous injection D. Intramuscular injection Answer: Oral or spray (B) The infectious bronchitis vaccine can be given orally in water or as a spray. 126. Which statement is true about the Newcastle disease vaccine's administration before the start of egg production? A. It requires a live mild vaccine. B. An inactivated vaccine is used for boosting. C. It is given during the second week of life. D. It is boosted regardless of initial vaccination. Answer: An inactivated vaccine is used for boosting. (B) An inactivated vaccine is utilized to boost immunity in layers and breeders prior to egg production. 127. What characterizes the timing of the first dose of the Infectious bronchitis vaccine? A. Given before production starts B. Given at 2-3 weeks C. Given at day old D. Given at 1-2 weeks Answer: Given at 1-2 weeks (D) The first dose of the Infectious bronchitis vaccine is recommended during the 1st-2nd week. 128. What is a notable feature of the Gumboro disease vaccine related to its administration timing? A. It has no specific timing recommendations. B. It should be given only at day old. C. It is delayed in high immunity situations. D. Subsequent doses are given only once. Answer: It is delayed in high immunity situations. (C) Gumboro disease vaccination timing is adjusted for birds exhibiting high maternal immunity. 129. Which louse species is known for causing unthriftiness and poor coat condition in sheep and goats? A. Linognathus africanus B. Bovicola bovis C. Damalinia limbata D. Linognathus vituli Answer: Damalinia limbata (C) Damalinia limbata, the biting louse, is specifically associated with causing unthriftiness and poor coat condition. 130. What is the primary effect of the tropical cattle tick, Boophilus microplus, on livestock? A. Causes hypotension B. Induces myiasis C. Causes anemia D. Results in tick worry Answer: Results in tick worry (D) Tick worry refers to the stress and discomfort caused by infestations of ticks like Boophilus microplus. 131. Which of the following flies is known to carry Onchocerca sp. that affects livestock? A. Simulium sp. B. Stomoxys calcitrans C. Tabanus reduscens D. Lyperosia exigua Answer: Simulium sp. (A) Simulium sp., commonly known as blackflies or buffalo gnats, are vectors for Onchocerca sp. which can cause serious conditions in livestock. 132. Which mite species is associated with mange or scabies in livestock? A. Demodex bovis B. Sarcoptes scabiei C. Psoroptes communis D. Chorioptes bovis Answer: Sarcoptes scabiei (B) Sarcoptes scabiei is the primary cause of mange or scabies affecting various livestock. 133. What is the primary disease associated with the screw worm fly, Chrysomyia bezziana? A. Myiasis B. Anemia C. Dermatitis D. Mange Answer: Myiasis (A) Chrysomyia bezziana, known as the screw worm fly, is primarily associated with causing myiasis in livestock. 134. Which organization is primarily involved in the publication for animal health care? A. Philippine Council for Agriculture, Forestry and Natural Resources Research and Development B. University of the Philippines Los Baños C. Animal Health Care Committee D. Bureau of Animal Industry Answer: Philippine Council for Agriculture, Forestry and Natural Resources Research and Development (A) The Philippine Council for Agriculture, Forestry and Natural Resources Research and Development played a significant role in the publication. 135. What is a primary focus of the information provided in the publication? A. Meat processing technologies B. Animal genetics and breeding techniques C. Emergency case handling procedures D. Feed formulation strategies Answer: Emergency case handling procedures (C) The publication contains essential information about handling emergency cases in animal health. 136. Who expressed gratitude towards the members of the Animal Health Care Committee for preparing the publication? A. Director of the Animal Health Division, Pfizer, Inc. B. Head of the Department of Agriculture C. Chief Executive Officer of Pfizer, Inc. D. President of the University of the Philippines Los Baños Answer: Director of the Animal Health Division, Pfizer, Inc. (A) Ronald A. Vergel De Dios, the Director of the Animal Health Division, acknowledged the committee's efforts. 137. Which of the following roles does the Bureau of Animal Industry fulfill in the context of the publication? A. Funding the publication process B. Researching animal genetics C. Serving as a member of the technical committee D. Conducting veterinary training programs Answer: Serving as a member of the technical committee (C) The Bureau of Animal Industry was instrumental in the revision of the publication as part of the technical committee. 138. What is the significance of acknowledging the heads of various universities and institutions in the publication? A. To highlight their financial contributions B. To promote their research findings C. To recognize their support in staff participation D. To announce upcoming collaborations Answer: To recognize their support in staff participation (C) Acknowledgment is made to university heads for allowing their staff to participate in the technical committee. 139. What type of nutrition is likely addressed in the publication with respect to livestock health? A. Proper animal hygiene and sanitation B. Organic farming methods C. Homeopathic treatments for diseases D. Nutritional supplements for pets Answer: Proper animal hygiene and sanitation (A) The publication includes information on proper animal hygiene and sanitation as part of livestock health. 140. What does the publication aim to assist with in terms of livestock production? A. Advancing genetic engineering in animals B. Enhancing marketing strategies of livestock C. Fostering international trade of livestock D. Improving the health status of animals Answer: Improving the health status of animals (D) The publication provides information essential for ensuring good animal health status in livestock. 141. Which aspect of animal health does the publication emphasize, according to its content? A. Vaccination and preventive medication B. Inspired by ancient veterinary practices C. Animal psychology and behavior assessment D. Use of antibiotics in livestock Answer: Vaccination and preventive medication (A) Vaccination and preventive medication are highlighted as critical aspects of animal health in the publication. 142. What is the primary importance of good livestock husbandry? A. Maintaining aesthetic farm appearances. B. Minimizing use of veterinary services. C. Achieving optimum productivity through proper animal care. D. Reducing the number of livestock on a farm. Answer: Achieving optimum productivity through proper animal care. (C) Good livestock husbandry is essential for ensuring proper care and productivity in animal farming. 143. Which factor significantly contributes to the prevalence of livestock diseases in tropical countries? A. High humidity and temperature conducive to pathogens. B. Dry weather conditions. C. Low animal population density. D. Strict governmental regulations on livestock farming. Answer: High humidity and temperature conducive to pathogens. (A) The tropical climate provides a favorable environment for the growth and spread of pathogens. 144. What best describes the term 'virulent' in relation to diseases? A. Mild and non-threatening to hosts. B. Resistant to antibiotic treatment. C. Commonly found in healthy animals. D. Capable of causing disease. Answer: Capable of causing disease. (D) 'Virulent' signifies that an agent has the capability to cause disease in hosts. 145. What is a sporulated oocyst? A. A developmental stage resistant to environmental factors. B. An infectious stage of certain parasites that has divided by spore formation. C. A type of vaccine containing live organisms. D. A form of bacteria that survives inside the animal's body. Answer: An infectious stage of certain parasites that has divided by spore formation. (B) A sporulated oocyst is the infective stage of coccidian parasites and shows division through spore formation. 146. What is the effect of stress on animals regarding pathogens like Pasteurella multocida? A. It enhances natural resistance to infections. B. It allows the bacteria to multiply and possibly cause disease. C. It has no impact on the presence of the bacteria. D. It leads to immediate clinical signs of illness. Answer: It allows the bacteria to multiply and possibly cause disease. (B) Stress can decrease an animal's natural defenses, allowing pathogens like Pasteurella multocida to multiply and cause disease. 147. Which statement correctly defines a transmissible disease? A. A disease that does not require a vector for transmission. B. A disease that only affects one species. C. A disease that spreads from one host to another. D. A disease that is always fatal to the host. Answer: A disease that spreads from one host to another. (C) Transmissible diseases can spread between hosts, whether of the same or different species. 148. What characterizes a trivalent vaccine? A. It contains one strain of a pathogen. B. It is only effective against viral infections. C. It contains three different strains/biotypes of the same organism. D. It is made from inactivated organisms only. Answer: It contains three different strains/biotypes of the same organism. (C) A trivalent vaccine is specifically formulated with a mixture of three different strains or biotypes of the same organism. 149. What does tympany refer to in livestock health? A. A type of protein deficiency. B. The natural resistance of an animal to disease. C. A sign of dehydration. D. The excessive accumulation of gas in the rumen. Answer: The excessive accumulation of gas in the rumen. (D) Tympany indicates an excessive buildup of gas within the rumen, a condition often affecting livestock. 150. What is the role of a vector in disease transmission? A. To cure the infected host. B. To mechanically or biologically transmit a pathogen. C. To directly cause the disease without mediation. D. To provide immunity to the host. Answer: To mechanically or biologically transmit a pathogen. (B) Vectors, such as arthropods, play a crucial role in transmitting pathogens between hosts. 151. What does vaccination aim to achieve in livestock? A. To eliminate pathogens present in the environment. B. To reduce the overall population of disease vectors. C. To induce immunity to a specific disease. D. To prevent all types of diseases without exception. Answer: To induce immunity to a specific disease. (C) Vaccination is intended to stimulate an immune response against specific diseases, enhancing the animal's resistance. 152. What is the initial stage of the life cycle of the common liver fluke that develops in snails? A. Sporocyst B. Redia C. Miracidium D. Cercariae Answer: Miracidium (C) Miracidium is the larval stage that hatches from the eggs and enters the snail to further develop. 153. Which method of infection involves ingestion through contaminated food or water? A. Penetration through skin B. Ingestion through arthropods C. Ingestion of infective stage D. Inoculation through bites Answer: Ingestion of infective stage (C) Ingestion of infective stages through contaminated food or water is a common route for acquiring parasitic infections. 154. What occurs after metacercariae are ingested by the host? A. They become miracidium in the intestine B. They develop into cercariae in the liver C. They excrete eggs into the water D. They mature into adult flukes Answer: They mature into adult flukes (D) After ingestion, metacercariae mature into adult flukes in the liver. 155. What is one of the possible ways for acquiring parasite infections that involves contacting soil? A. Ingestion through arthropods B. Ingestion of infected water C. Ingestion through snails D. Inoculation through flies Answer: Ingestion through snails (C) Ingestion of infective stage through snails, slugs, and earthworms is a common method of acquiring parasite infections in a natural setting. 156. Which stage of the liver fluke's life cycle is primarily responsible for encysting on grasses or water? A. Adult flukes B. Metacercariae C. Cercariae D. Miracidium Answer: Metacercariae (B) Metacercariae are the encysted form of the liver fluke that settles on grasses or in water. 157. How do adult flukes in the liver contribute to their life cycle? A. They lay eggs excreted into feces B. They develop into cercariae C. They penetrate host skin D. They invade snail hosts Answer: They lay eggs excreted into feces (A) Adult flukes lay eggs which are then excreted into the intestine and pass out with the feces. 158. Which term describes the development of many cercariae from a single miracidium? A. Sporocyst formation B. Metacercariae cycle C. Redia multiplication D. Miracidium replication Answer: Sporocyst formation (A) Many cercariae are formed from a single miracidium developing into sporocyst within the snail. 159. What is the process by which cercariae emerge from snails? A. Emergence B. Hatching C. Encystment D. Metamorphosis Answer: Emergence (A) Mature cercariae exit the snail as part of their life cycle. 160. Which of the following is NOT a method of parasite acquisition? A. Ingestion through plants B. Ingestion through water C. Direct transmission through air D. Inoculation through bites Answer: Direct transmission through air (C) Direct transmission through air is not a recognized method of acquiring parasitic infections as stated. 161. What happens to eggs laid by adult flukes? A. They develop into sporocysts B. They hatch into adult flukes C. They are excreted into the environment D. They are consumed by the host Answer: They are excreted into the environment (C) The eggs laid by adult flukes are excreted into the environment, typically with feces. 162. What is the primary action of oligodynamic metals when used as disinfectants? A. Disruption of cell wall B. Inhibition of cell growth C. Precipitation of cell proteins D. Coagulation of cell materials Answer: Coagulation of cell materials (D) Oligodynamic metals such as silver, copper, and mercury work primarily by causing cell membrane destruction and coagulation of cell materials. 163. Which acidic agents are suggested for use as skin antiseptics? A. Salicylic and benzoic acids B. Coal-tar derivatives C. Inorganic acids only D. Aromatic oils Answer: Salicylic and benzoic acids (A) Among the acids listed, salicylic and benzoic acids are specifically recommended for use as skin antiseptics. 164. What is a common use for coal-tar derivatives? A. Disinfection of surgical instruments B. Anti-bacterial coatings of floors C. Food preservatives only D. Skin antiseptics in dilute solutions Answer: Skin antiseptics in dilute solutions (D) Coal-tar derivatives are used as skin antiseptics in dilute solutions as well as for other applications. 165. In what ways do salicylanilides and carbanilides function? A. Catalyze oxidation of cell B. Directly kill bacterial spores C. Enhance enzyme activity D. Predominantly inhibit protein synthesis Answer: Catalyze oxidation of cell (A) Salicylanilides and carbanilides catalyze oxidation of cell components and inhibit cell growth. 166. What is a mechanical effect attributed to aromatic oils in disinfectants? A. Inhibition of cell growth B. Destruction of the cell wall C. Deactivation of pathogenic enzymes D. Increase in cell membrane permeability Answer: Inhibition of cell growth (A) Aromatic oils have a mechanical effect that inhibits cell growth, in addition to impacting other cell constituents. 167. What role do acids play in the disinfection process? A. Facilitating nutrient uptake B. Enhancing cellular respiration C. Precipitating cell proteins and destroying cell walls D. Neutralizing alkaline substances Answer: Precipitating cell proteins and destroying cell walls (C) Acids are important for their ability to precipitate cell proteins and destroy cell walls during disinfection. 168. Which property of oligodynamic metals makes them effective disinfectants? A. Rapid evaporation rates B. Color changes during reactions C. Low concentrations required D. High toxicity to humans Answer: Low concentrations required (C) The effectiveness of oligodynamic metals lies in their ability to act at low concentrations, making them potent disinfectants. 169. What is a primary application of benzoic acid? A. Deodorants for living tissues B. Treatment for fungal infections C. Food preservatives D. Disinfectants for surgical instruments Answer: Food preservatives (C) Benzoic acid is widely used in food preservation due to its effectiveness in inhibiting bacterial and fungal growth. 170. What distinguishes salicylanilides and carbanilides from other disinfectants? A. They catalyze oxidation and inhibit cell growth B. They are predominantly used in industrial applications C. They are derived from traditional aromatic compounds D. They require high concentrations for efficacy Answer: They catalyze oxidation and inhibit cell growth (A) Salicylanilides and carbanilides are unique due to their ability to catalyze oxidation of cells and inhibit growth efficiently. 171. Which mode of action is typical of aromatic oils when used as disinfectants? A. Mechanical effect resulting in metabolic disruption B. Inhibition of aerobic respiration C. Destruction of genetic material D. Binding to fibrous proteins in cells Answer: Mechanical effect resulting in metabolic disruption (A) Aromatic oils primarily work through a mechanical effect that disrupts cell metabolism, inhibiting growth. 172. What is a crucial characteristic of an excellent vaccine regarding immunogenicity? A. Induces the carrier state in vaccinates B. Does not stimulate detectable antibody levels C. Stimulates both humoral and cellular immune responses D. Affords protection of at least 75% of vaccinates Answer: Stimulates both humoral and cellular immune responses (C) An excellent vaccine should stimulate both humoral and cellular immune responses to be effective. 173. Which guideline is essential for proper vaccine administration? A. Vaccinate sick animals to ensure herd immunity B. Vaccinate before observing animal behavior changes C. Avoid vaccination during calm weather conditions D. Check for expired vaccines before use Answer: Check for expired vaccines before use (D) It is crucial to avoid using expired vaccines and those with broken seals to ensure effectiveness. 174. What storage condition is recommended for vaccines? A. At ambient temperatures without refrigeration B. In a regular household freezer C. In a warm environment to maintain potency D. At cold temperatures between 20-60C Answer: At cold temperatures between 20-60C (D) Vaccines should be stored at cold temperatures to preserve their effectiveness. 175. Why should stress on animals be avoided during vaccination? A. Stress ensures a quicker recovery time post-vaccination B. Stressed animals may not respond optimally to vaccine C. Stressed animals can enhance immune response D. Stress can lead to improved effectiveness of the vaccine Answer: Stressed animals may not respond optimally to vaccine (B) Avoiding stress on animals is critical to ensure they respond optimally to the vaccine. 176. Which of the following is NOT a safety feature for an ideal vaccine? A. Does not cause disease in man B. Can be stored at room temperature indefinitely C. Does not induce the carrier state in vaccinates D. Does not cause allergic reactions in vaccinates Answer: Can be stored at room temperature indefinitely (B) An ideal vaccine cannot be stored at room temperature indefinitely, as vaccines are perishable. 177. What aspect of animal health does the publication aim to provide information on? A. Animal behavior study B. Animal hygiene and vaccination C. Animal breeding techniques D. Meat processing methods Answer: Animal hygiene and vaccination (B) The publication focuses on important practices like hygiene, vaccination, and emergency procedures for livestock health. 178. Which organizations contributed to the preparation of this publication? A. World Health Organization B. Philippine Agricultural Research Council C. University of the Philippines, Central Luzon State University, and Bureau of Animal Industry D. Department of Health and Human Services Answer: University of the Philippines, Central Luzon State University, and Bureau of Animal Industry (C) Experts from various universities and the Bureau of Animal Industry were involved in creating this publication. 179. What is an essential component of maintaining good animal health mentioned in the publication? A. Proper animal hygiene and sanitation B. High-density housing for livestock C. Regular feeding schedules D. Use of performance-enhancing drugs Answer: Proper animal hygiene and sanitation (A) Proper hygiene and sanitation practices are vital for ensuring the health of animals in various production environments. 180. What role does the Animal Health Division, Pfizer, Inc. play in relation to this publication? A. Expressing gratitude to contributors and promoting new technologies B. Proofreading the publication C. Funding the research for animal behavior D. Conducting hands-on training for farmers Answer: Expressing gratitude to contributors and promoting new technologies (A) Pfizer, Inc. acknowledges the contributions of various individuals and commits to sharing new developments in animal production. 181. What type of cooperation was acknowledged by PCARRD and Pfizer, Inc. in the publication? A. Collaboration with academic and government institutions B. Animal welfare campaigns C. Research funding D. Community outreach programs Answer: Collaboration with academic and government institutions (A) The publication recognizes the teamwork of academic and government institutions in contributing to animal health recommendations. 182. Which individuals were acknowledged for their support in publishing the document? A. International veterinary consultants B. Animal producers and farmers C. Veterinarians from private practice D. Universities and government officials Answer: Universities and government officials (D) Key individuals from universities and the Bureau of Animal Industry were recognized for their essential roles in the publication. 183. What is a key focus area highlighted for livestock raised for different purposes? A. Emergency handling procedures B. Animal entertainment and training C. The aesthetic qualities of livestock D. Livestock competition standards Answer: Emergency handling procedures (A) Emergency handling procedures are addressed as crucial for maintaining the health status of livestock in various production scenarios. 184. What did the publication aim to improve in relation to animal health care? A. Culinary skills in meat preparation B. Health status of livestock and poultry C. Marketing strategies for animal products D. Animal breeding efficiency Answer: Health status of livestock and poultry (B) The overarching goal of the publication is to enhance the health status of animals raised for meat, egg, milk production, and draft power. 185. What is the recommended dosage timing for the first dose of the anthrax vaccine? A. 1 month B. 6 months C. 4 months D. 2 months Answer: 4 months (C) The first dose of the anthrax vaccine is recommended at 4 months. 186. What is the administration route for the hog cholera vaccine? A. Oral B. Intravenous C. IM D. Subcutaneous Answer: IM (C) The hog cholera vaccine is administered intramuscularly (IM). 187. At what age is the second dose of the swine foot and mouth disease vaccine typically given? A. 3-4 months B. 2-3 months C. 1-2 months D. 4-5 months Answer: 3-4 months (A) The second dose of the swine foot and mouth disease vaccine is given at 3-4 months. 188. What type of vaccine is used for pseudorabies? A. Inactivated in oil B. Recombinant C. Subunit D. Live attenuated Answer: Inactivated in oil (A) The pseudorabies vaccine is an inactivated vaccine in oil emulsion. 189. For which type of animal is the transmissible gastroenteritis vaccine primarily administered? A. Pigs over 6 months B. All breeds C. Weaned piglets D. Breeders and replacement gilts Answer: Breeders and replacement gilts (D) The transmissible gastroenteritis vaccine is primarily for breeders and replacement gilts. 190. What is a key consideration regarding the administration of the hog cholera vaccine? A. Do not vaccinate pregnant animals B. Only after weaning C. Can vaccinate at any time D. Administer before 4 months Answer: Do not vaccinate pregnant animals (A) It is recommended not to vaccinate pregnant animals with the hog cholera vaccine before weaning. 191. How often should the vaccine for anthrax be administered after the initial dose in endemic zones? A. Annually B. Every two years C. Monthly D. Semi-annually Answer: Annually (A) The anthrax vaccine should be administered annually in endemic zones. 192. What is the primary purpose of administering the pseudorabies vaccine to breeders? A. Control infectious diseases B. Enhance reproductive performance C. Prevent digestive disorders D. Increase milk production Answer: Control infectious diseases (A) The pseudorabies vaccine is primarily aimed at controlling infectious diseases in breeders. 193. What time frame is recommended for the second dose of the transmissible gastroenteritis vaccine? A. 2 months B. 1 month C. 3-4 months D. 6-7 months Answer: 6-7 months (D) The second dose for the transmissible gastroenteritis vaccine is recommended at 6-7 months. 194. Which vaccine type is specifically not recommended for use during pregnancy in hog cholera? A. Modified live B. Inactivated C. Recombinant D. Subunit Answer: Modified live (A) The modified live vaccine for hog cholera is not recommended for pregnant animals. 195. What is the consequence of prior vaccination against P.multocida in animals? A. It eliminates the need for further vaccinations. B. It prevents the occurrence of hemorrhagic septicemia. C. It reduces the chances of any disease outbreak. D. It guarantees total immunity to any infection. Answer: It prevents the occurrence of hemorrhagic septicemia. (B) Prior vaccination can prevent hemorrhagic septicemia even if P.multocida becomes pathogenic. 196. What factors must be fully understood to prevent the occurrence of diseases? A. The relationship between the animal's diet and environment. B. The relationship between the disease agent, the susceptible host, and the environment. C. The genetic makeup of the animal and its surroundings. D. The role of veterinary care and medical treatments. Answer: The relationship between the disease agent, the susceptible host, and the environment. (B) Understanding the interplay between these factors is crucial for disease prevention. 197. Which disease is associated with high occurrences in livestock, particularly in tropical environments? A. Coryza B. Blackleg C. Coccidiosis D. Anthrax Answer: Coccidiosis (C) Coccidiosis shows a significantly high occurrence rate in livestock. 198. What is indicated by the high total reported cases of coccidiosis in the animal disease situation report? A. A widespread failure of vaccination programs. B. The effectiveness of treatment protocols in place. C. A significant impact of environmental factors on animal health. D. An increase in livestock population density. Answer: A significant impact of environmental factors on animal health. (C) Environmental factors can have a major impact on the incidence of diseases like coccidiosis. 199. In the animal disease situation report, what does 'C' most likely represent? A. Cases in cattle. B. Confirmed cases. C. Chronic cases. D. Cases in chickens. Answer: Cases in cattle. (A) The 'C' designation typically refers to reported cases in cattle based on context. 200. What is one characteristic that combinations of vaccines should ensure? A. They can only be administered at the same time if they are the same type. B. They must cover multiple diseases without increasing adverse effects. C. They should always use live pathogens for better effectiveness. D. They should require minimal veterinary involvement post-administration. Answer: They must cover multiple diseases without increasing adverse effects. (B) Combination vaccines should effectively cover multiple diseases while minimizing adverse reactions. 201. How can immunity to hemorrhagic septicemia be achieved in animals? A. Through consistent and timely vaccinations. B. By improving the nutrient intake of the animals. C. By increasing the population density of the livestock. D. By exposure to the pathogen in a controlled environment. Answer: Through consistent and timely vaccinations. (A) Timely vaccinations are key in providing immunity to diseases like hemorrhagic septicemia. 202. What aspect of animal health care is crucial for mitigating the effects of diseases? A. Regular veterinary check-ups. B. Knowledge of the historical prevalence of various diseases. C. Management of disease agents along with susceptible hosts. D. Understanding the symbiotic relationships in ecosystems. Answer: Management of disease agents along with susceptible hosts. (C) Managing the interaction between disease agents and hosts is essential for effective health care. 203. What does a significant total reported for anthrax suggest? A. It is a newly emerging disease in the area. B. It might indicate environmental contamination. C. The disease is primarily flourishing among poultry. D. There is effective vaccination coverage. Answer: It might indicate environmental contamination. (B) High reports can be an indicator of possible environmental contamination leading to anthrax outbreaks. 204. Which of the following diseases may show dual responses in terms of case severity represented by 'C' and 'D'? A. Blackleg B. Coccidiosis C. A. malaria D. Coryza Answer: Coryza (D) Coryza cases can vary in severity, indicated by differing responses classified as 'C' and 'D'. 205. What type of vaccine is used for Avian encephalomyelitis? A. Subunit B. Modified live C. Inactivated D. Killed Answer: Modified live (B) The vaccine for Avian encephalomyelitis is a modified live vaccine. 206. What is the recommended administration route for Fowl cholera vaccination? A. Intranasal B. Subcutaneous C. Intramuscular D. Oral Answer: Intramuscular (C) Fowl cholera vaccination is administered intramuscularly. 207. When should the second dose of the Fowl herpes virus vaccine be administered? A. 8-10 weeks after the first dose B. 1-2 weeks after the first dose C. 5-6 weeks after the first dose D. 2-3 weeks after the first dose Answer: 5-6 weeks after the first dose (C) The second dose of the Fowl herpes virus vaccine is given 5-6 weeks after the first dose. 208. What age range is recommended for the first dose of the Egg drop syndrome vaccine? A. 14-16 weeks B. 12-14 weeks C. 8-10 weeks D. 10-12 weeks Answer: 12-14 weeks (B) The first dose of the Egg drop syndrome vaccine is recommended for 12-14 weeks old birds. 209. Which vaccine type is used in the vaccination against Fowl pox? A. Recombinant vaccine B. Subunit vaccine C. Inactivated virus D. Modified live virus Answer: Modified live virus (D) Fowl pox vaccination involves a modified live virus. 210. Which disease is associated with the use of Reovirus vaccines? A. Fowl pox B. Viral arthritis C. Fowl cholera D. Avian encephalomyelitis Answer: Viral arthritis (B) Reovirus vaccination is specifically associated with Viral arthritis. 211. What is the first dose timing for the Viral arthritis vaccine? A. 3-4 weeks B. Before start of lay C. 1-2 weeks D. 5-6 weeks Answer: 1-2 weeks (C) The first dose of the Vaccine for Viral arthritis should be given at 1-2 weeks. 212. What should be done with layers and breeders after vaccination for Viral arthritis? A. Reduce water supply B. Increase feed intake C. Cull infected individuals D. Switch to a different vaccine Answer: Cull infected individuals (C) It's recommended to cull infected layers and breeders after vaccination for Viral arthritis. 213. What timing is prescribed for the second dose of the Fowl herpes virus vaccine? A. 10-12 weeks B. 12-14 weeks C. 14-16 weeks D. 5-6 weeks Answer: 5-6 weeks (D) The second dose of the Fowl herpes virus vaccine is given 5-6 weeks after the first dose. 214. Which of the following is an administration route for the Egg drop syndrome vaccine? A. Topical B. Intravenous C. Eyedrop D. Intramuscular Answer: Eyedrop (C) The Egg drop syndrome vaccine can be administered via eyedrop. 215. What is the first step that occurs when larvae of Toxocara vitulorum are ingested by a calf? A. Larvae penetrate the wall of the small intestine B. Larvae are expelled through feces C. Larvae travel to the lungs via the bloodstream D. Larvae develop into adults in the large intestine Answer: Larvae penetrate the wall of the small intestine (A) The larvae released in the small intestine penetrate the intestinal wall. 216. Which process describes how larvae from the infective eggs can infect calves? A. Larvae are transferred through milk or colostrum B. Calves ingest larvae in contaminated water C. Adult worms shed eggs directly into the calf's feed D. Calves come into contact with infected feces Answer: Larvae are transferred through milk or colostrum (A) Infective larvae may pass out with milk or colostrum and subsequently infect the calf. 217. What ultimately happens to the eggs laid by adult worms in the small intestine? A. They are absorbed into the bloodstream B. They hatch inside the calf's intestine C. They are excreted with feces D. They are stored in the liver Answer: They are excreted with feces (C) The eggs laid by adults are passed out with the feces. 218. After larvae penetrate the intestinal wall, where do they move to next in the life cycle of Toxocara vitulorum? A. They travel to the lungs via blood circulation B. They remain in the intestine until maturity C. They migrate to the stomach where they develop D. They move directly to the lymphatic system Answer: They travel to the lungs via blood circulation (A) Larvae reach the liver through the peritoneal cavity and then to the lungs via blood circulation. 219. What term describes the eggs that are ready to begin the next phase of the lifecycle of Toxocara vitulorum? A. Inactive eggs B. Embryonated eggs C. Fertilized eggs D. Empty eggs Answer: Embryonated eggs (B) Embryonated eggs contain larvae that are capable of developing into infective larvae. 220. What is the primary function of an antibiotic? A. To rapidly kill parasites in the body B. To inhibit the growth or kill bacteria C. To stimulate the immune response to an infection D. To enhance the effectiveness of vaccines Answer: To inhibit the growth or kill bacteria (B) Antibiotics are substances produced by molds that specifically have the ability to inhibit the growth or kill bacteria. 221. What distinguishes a booster dose from the initial vaccination? A. It is given to adults instead of children B. It is the first vaccine administered over a longer interval C. It is only necessary for those with allergic reactions D. It is the second administration at intervals after the initial dose Answer: It is the second administration at intervals after the initial dose (D) A booster dose is the subsequent administration of a vaccine given at proper intervals after the first injection to enhance protection. 222. Which term describes a substance that both prevents and halts the action of microorganisms? A. Antiseptic B. Antibody C. Antitoxin D. Chemoprophylaxis Answer: Antiseptic (A) An antiseptic is a substance that prevents or arrests the growth or action of microorganisms through either inhibition or destruction. 223. What is the primary characteristic of a bivalent vaccine? A. It consists of two strains of the same microorganism B. It combines two strains of different microorganisms C. It is produced from attenuated pathogens D. It is used for multiple species at once Answer: It consists of two strains of the same microorganism (A) A bivalent vaccine consists of two strains of the same microorganism, aimed at providing immunity against different variations. 224. What is a key characteristic of chemotherapeutic compounds? A. To replace vaccines in disease prevention B. To be exclusively natural and derived from plants C. To be used solely in animals D. To treat infectious diseases through chemical agents Answer: To treat infectious diseases through chemical agents (D) Chemotherapeutic compounds are chemical substances specifically used for the treatment of infectious diseases. 225. Which of the following describes the role of antiparasitic compounds? A. They reduce the spread of viral infections B. They enhance the growth of beneficial bacteria C. They only expel external parasites D. They are effective against both internal and external parasites Answer: They are effective against both internal and external parasites (D) Antiparasitic compounds are agents capable of expelling or killing both internal and external parasites. 226. What is the result of the body forming an antitoxin? A. It enhances the virulence of bacteria B. It creates life-long immunity like vaccines C. It directly kills bacteria and viruses D. It neutralizes the toxins from specific pathogens Answer: It neutralizes the toxins from specific pathogens (D) Antitoxins are antibodies formed in response to toxins, specifically neutralizing these toxins and their effects. 227. What does 'chemoprophylaxis' primarily aim to achieve? A. To prevent infectious diseases using chemical agents B. To promote bacterial growth for digestion C. To enhance vaccine effectiveness D. To create antibodies in healthy individuals Answer: To prevent infectious diseases using chemical agents (A) Chemoprophylaxis refers to the prevention of infectious disease through the use of chemical agents. 228. What is the primary mode of action for oligodynamic metals like silver and copper? A. Disruption of DNA synthesis B. Inhibition of enzymes C. Water absorption regulation D. Cell membrane destruction Answer: Cell membrane destruction (D) Oligodynamic metals are known for their ability to destroy cell membranes and coagulate cell materials. 229. Which concentration range is commonly used for acids as antiseptics? A. 5.0-10.0% B. 1.5-3.5% C. 0.1-5.0% D. 0.5-2.0% Answer: 0.1-5.0% (C) Acids like salicylic and benzoic acids are effective as skin antiseptics in the range of 0.1-5.0%. 230. What is the main application of coal-tar derivatives in medical use? A. Skin antiseptics B. Antifungal treatment C. Blood coagulation D. Muscle relaxants Answer: Skin antiseptics (A) Coal-tar derivatives are primarily used as skin antiseptics in diluted solutions. 231. Which of the following describes the action of salicylanilides and carbanilides? A. Increase metabolic rate B. Inhibit cell growth C. Enhance skin hydration D. Boost immune response Answer: Inhibit cell growth (B) Salicylanilides and carbanilides bind cell proteins and inhibit cell growth. 232. For what purpose are aromatic oils, especially pine oil, commonly used? A. Food flavoring B. Disinfectants with soaps C. Enhancing soil nutrients D. Improving air quality Answer: Disinfectants with soaps (B) Aromatic oils, particularly pine oil, are used as disinfectants in combination with soaps for cleaning. 233. What effect do acids have on bacterial and viral cells? A. Encapsulation B. Enhancement of reproduction C. Protein donation D. Destruction of cell walls Answer: Destruction of cell walls (D) Acids lead to the precipitation of cell proteins and destruction of cell walls in bacteria and viruses. 234. What is a common use of oligodynamic metals like mercury in health care? A. Nutritional supplements B. Surgical instrument sterilization C. Pain relief medication D. Vaccination adjuvant Answer: Surgical instrument sterilization (B) Oligodynamic metals such as mercury are often used in the sterilization of surgical instruments. 235. How do aromatic oils function as disinfectants? A. Chemical reaction with oxygen B. Thermal destruction of pathogens C. Oxidative stress on tissues D. Mechanical effect inhibiting cell growth Answer: Mechanical effect inhibiting cell growth (D) Aromatic oils exert a mechanical effect that inhibits cell growth, in addition to their chemical properties. 236. In what context are salicylanilides used aside from antiseptics? A. As a flavoring agent B. In soaps and detergents C. In concrete mixtures D. As emulsifiers in foods Answer: In soaps and detergents (B) Salicylanilides are incorporated in various soaps and detergents for their antiseptic properties. 237. What is the primary function of coal-tar derivatives beyond skin antiseptics? A. Nutritional improvement B. Disruption of cell walls C. Promotion of wound healing D. Surgical procedure enhancement Answer: Disruption of cell walls (B) Coal-tar derivatives are cytoplasmic poisons that disrupt cell walls, thus playing a critical role in disinfection. 238. What is colostrum primarily known for? A. High sugar content B. Containing harmful bacteria C. Providing essential immune bodies D. Low protein levels Answer: Providing essential immune bodies (C) Colostrum is the milk produced shortly after parturition, and it is rich in protein, vitamins, and antibodies essential for newborns. 239. What is the primary purpose of a cold compress? A. To provide warmth to a body part B. To increase blood flow to the affected area C. To apply pressure and cool an area D. To promote bleeding in a wound Answer: To apply pressure and cool an area (C) Cold compresses are applied to reduce swelling and bleeding by cooling the affected area. 240. What does the term 'cytotoxic' refer to? A. Promoting cell growth B. Repairing damaged tissues C. Having a lethal effect on cells D. Stimulating immune responses Answer: Having a lethal effect on cells (C) Cytotoxic substances are harmful to cells and can destroy them. 241. What is the significance of electrolytes in biological systems? A. They act as genetic material B. They cause cellular dehydration C. They become ionic conductors in solution D. They inhibit enzyme functions Answer: They become ionic conductors in solution (C) Electrolytes, when dissolved, allow the flow of electrical current and are vital for numerous cellular functions. 242. What condition is characterized by gas accumulation intermixed with fluid in ruminants? A. Hemolysis B. Hydration C. Colic D. Frothy bloat Answer: Frothy bloat (D) Frothy bloat is a digestive disorder that occurs primarily in ruminants, which can lead to respiratory distress and death if untreated. 243. Complete fixation is primarily used for what purpose? A. To increase blood flow to an injury B. To facilitate the healing of fractures C. To enhance mobility post-injury D. To permanently bond tissues Answer: To facilitate the healing of fractures (B) Complete fixation is a method to immobilize fractured areas to ensure proper alignment and healing. 244. What does the term 'dehydrated' indicate? A. Balanced fluid levels B. Deficiency in total body fluid volume C. Excess body fluid D. Increased metabolic activity Answer: Deficiency in total body fluid volume (B) Dehydration refers to a state where there is insufficient fluid in the body's systems. 245. What characterizes an inactivated vaccine? A. It requires refrigeration for storage B. Its disease-inducing ability has been destroyed C. It contains live microorganisms D. It has an unchanged disease-inducing ability Answer: Its disease-inducing ability has been destroyed (B) Inactivated vaccines utilize microorganisms that have been killed or rendered inactive to stimulate an immune response without causing disease. 246. What is the function of a diluent in vaccine preparation? A. To enhance the vaccine's side effects B. To dilute the vaccine for storage only C. To increase the vaccine's potency D. To reconstitute vaccines or antibiotic powders Answer: To reconstitute vaccines or antibiotic powders (D) Diluent is used to dissolve or dilute a concentrated vaccine or medication to prepare it for use. 247. What is hypersensitivity primarily associated with? A. Inflammation of healthy tissues B. Abnormal responses to antigens or drugs C. Normal immune response to antigens D. An inability to respond to drugs Answer: Abnormal responses to antigens or drugs (B) Hypersensitivity refers to exaggerated or inappropriate immune responses to substances that normally do not provoke an immune reaction. 248. What is a key characteristic of a highly immunogenic vaccine? A. Induces a carrier state in vaccinates B. Available at all temperatures without degradation C. Contains multiple contaminants for enhanced effect D. Stimulates both humoral and cellular immune responses Answer: Stimulates both humoral and cellular immune responses (D) An ideal vaccine should be highly immunogenic, affording protection to at least 95% of those vaccinated and stimulating both humoral and cellular immune responses. 249. Which of the following describes a safety feature of an ideal vaccine? A. Must contain allergens to test immune responses B. Spreads infection to unvaccinated animals C. Does not cause diseases in vaccinated animals D. Reverts to a virulent state under stress Answer: Does not cause diseases in vaccinated animals (C) An excellent vaccine should not produce disease in the vaccinated animals and should not spread infection to others. 250. Why is it crucial to avoid vaccinating during very hot or wet weather? A. Vaccines are less effective in high humidity B. Vaccines are only effective under cold temperatures C. Increased likelihood of allergic reactions in hot weather D. Stress from heat or wetness can impair the immune response Answer: Stress from heat or wetness can impair the immune response (D) Avoiding vaccination during extreme weather conditions helps reduce stress on the animal, which can negatively affect their immune response. 251. What guideline should be followed regarding the storage of vaccines? A. Vaccines must be refrigerated or stored at cold temperatures B. Live vaccines should always be frozen for longevity C. Vaccines need exposure to air for effectiveness D. Vaccines can be stored at room temperature indefinitely Answer: Vaccines must be refrigerated or stored at cold temperatures (A) Proper storage in a refrigerator or at cold temperatures (20-60°C) is essential to maintain the efficacy of vaccines. 252. What is a critical aspect to check before using a vaccine? A. The vaccine's price B. The number of doses remaining in the container C. The color of the packaging D. Expiration date and for any signs of damage Answer: Expiration date and for any signs of damage (D) Always check for expiration dates and any signs of damage before using vaccines to ensure their safety and effectiveness. 253. What is the most appropriate way to transport vaccines? A. By holding them in hand on a warm day B. In your pockets to avoid damage C. In a handbag to keep them warm D. In an ice chest or container packed with ice Answer: In an ice chest or container packed with ice (D) Vaccines should be transported in an ice chest or styrofoam containers packed with ice to maintain their required temperature and integrity. 254. What should be done if an animal showing signs of stress is due for vaccination? A. Quickly vaccinate to avoid any loss of time B. Administer the vaccine alongside stress relief medication C. Vaccinate anyway, as the vaccine will help reduce stress D. Delay vaccination until the animal is calm Answer: Delay vaccination until the animal is calm (D) It’s essential to wait until the stressed animal is relaxed before vaccination to ensure the best immune response. 255. Which of the following is NOT a reason to check the vaccine contents before use? A. To confirm the absence of contaminants B. To ensure there is no moldy growth C. To verify the absence of discoloration D. To ascertain the necessity of using a diluent Answer: To ascertain the necessity of using a diluent (D) Checking for signs of damage like discoloration and mold is vital, but whether a diluent is needed should be indicated by the label. 256. What is an important feature of storage for both live and killed vaccines? A. They should be stored at ambient temperatures B. They must be kept in a refrigerator or at cold temperatures C. They require exposure to light for effectiveness D. They can be stored in an open container for easier access Answer: They must be kept in a refrigerator or at cold temperatures (B) Both live and killed vaccines must be kept in a refrigerator or at controlled temperatures to maintain their effectiveness. 257. What should veterinarians ensure before vaccinating an animal? A. The animal has not been sick recently B. The animal has been vaccinated previously C. The animal is in a crowded and noisy environment D. The animal is free from any stressors Answer: The animal has not been sick recently (A) Vaccination should only occur in healthy animals; those that are sick should be deferred until they fully recover. 258. What is the role of infective eggs in the life cycle of Toxocara vitulorum? A. They are ingested by the calf and lead to adult worm development. B. They are passed directly with the feces into a water source. C. They cause immediate illness in adult cattle. D. They develop into larvae only in cattle. Answer: They are ingested by the calf and lead to adult worm development. (A) Ingested infective eggs by the calf eventually lead to the development of adult Toxocara vitulorum in the small intestine. 259. What is a consequence of larvae passing out with milk or colostrum in cattle? A. It allows the transmission of infective larvae to the calf. B. It solely contributes to the adult worm population. C. It ensures that larvae remain dormant until weaning. D. It eliminates the risk of infection in calves. Answer: It allows the transmission of infective larvae to the calf. (A) When larvae pass out with milk or colostrum, they can infect the calf, contributing to the spread of the infection. 260. What process occurs after larvae are released in the small intestine of a host? A. They settle in the stomach and remain inactive. B. They penetrate the intestinal wall and migrate to the liver. C. They are excreted without impacting the host. D. They immediately reproduce and lay eggs. Answer: They penetrate the intestinal wall and migrate to the liver. (B) After larvae are released in the small intestine, they penetrate the intestinal wall and migrate to the liver, indicating their developmental journey. 261. How do adult Ascaris suis worms complete their life cycle? A. By migrating to the stomach for maturation. B. Through laying eggs that are excreted with feces. C. Through a direct transmission from one adult to another. D. By developing their larvae within the host's tissues. Answer: Through laying eggs that are excreted with feces. (B) Adult Ascaris suis lay eggs that are passed out with feces, allowing for the continuation of their life cycle. 262. What initial step occurs when a host ingests embryonated eggs of Toxocara vitulorum? A. The eggs pass through the digestive system unchanged. B. The larvae develop inside the egg before hatching. C. The eggs immediately hatch in the stomach. D. The host's immune system destroys the ingested eggs. Answer: The larvae develop inside the egg before hatching. (B) Embryonated eggs develop larvae inside before being released in the small intestine of the host. 263. What is the main objective of the Philippines Recommends publication for livestock and poultry care? A. To replace traditional farming techniques with modern ones B. To provide a reference for basic veterinary practices C. To advocate for animal rights regulations D. To promote urban livestock raising Answer: To provide a reference for basic veterinary practices (B) The publication aims to serve as a reference for basic information on common veterinary practices. 264. What is one of the anticipated outcomes if backyard raisers adopt the recommended veterinary practices? A. Increase in disease outbreaks B. Reduction in demand for veterinary services C. Decrease in livestock population D. Growth in healthy and prolific livestock Answer: Growth in healthy and prolific livestock (D) The expectation is that adoption of recommended practices will lead to an increase in healthy livestock populations. 265. What has been a major issue for smallholder farmers in the Philippines regarding livestock and poultry management? A. Access to premium feeds B. High adoption of innovative technologies C. Animal rights activism challenges D. Financial losses due to diseases and parasitism Answer: Financial losses due to diseases and parasitism (D) The financial losses are primarily due to diseases and traditional animal management practices that do not support good health. 266. What is the role of the Animal Health Division of Pfizer, Inc. as stated in the document? A. To oversee all animal breeding practices B. To improve productivity of livestock and poultry C. To conduct research on animal welfare D. To enforce regulations for animal health Answer: To improve productivity of livestock and poultry (B) They aim to support Filipino animal raisers in enhancing the productivity of livestock and poultry. 267. Which farming approach suffers from financial losses due to outdated management practices? A. Commercial farming in urban areas B. Traditional livestock raising by smallholders C. Integrated farming systems D. Organic farming movements Answer: Traditional livestock raising by smallholders (B) Smallholder farmers face financial losses due to the adoption of traditional animal management practices. 268. What type of information is primarily targeted for disseminat