AIR LAW AND ATC PROCEDURES PDF

Total 1461 Questions AIR LAW AND ATC PROCEDURES RULES OF THE AIR--ANNEX 2- VFR Question Except when necessary for take-off or landing A VFR flight over congested areas of cities, towns or settlements or over an open-air assembly of persons shall not be flown at a height less...

Total 1461 Questions AIR LAW AND ATC PROCEDURES RULES OF THE AIR--ANNEX 2- VFR Question Except when necessary for take-off or landing A VFR flight over congested areas of cities, towns or settlements or over an open-air assembly of persons shall not be flown at a height less than Choices Answers Correct A 300 m above the highest obstacle within a radius of 600 ft from the aircraft B 300 m above the highest obstacle C 300 m above the highest obstacle within a radius of 600 m from the aircraft C D 600 m above the highest obstacle within a radius of 300 m from the aircraft Ref All Question You are outside controlled airspace on a VFR flight above 3000 ft. Your distance from the cloud should be: Choices Answers Correct A 1000 ft horizontally and 1000 ft vertically B 2000 ft and 3 NM horizontally C clear of cloud and in sight of the surface D 1000 ft vertically and 1.5m horizontally D Ref All Question SVFR may be authorised when the ground visibility is not less than: Choices Answers Correct A 1000m B 1500m B C 1800m D 5 km Ref All Question In order to operate under visual flight rules above FL 100 in uncontrolled airspace these must be: Choices Answers Correct A flight visibility of 8 km B horizontal separation from cloud of 1.5m C 8 km visibility, 1000 ft vertical and 1500 m horizontal separation from clouds C D vertical separation from cloud of 1000 ft Ref All Question On a VFR flight, your magnetic track is 005o, the magnetic heading 355o. Which of the following flight level is correct? Choices Answers Correct A FL 60 AIR LAW AND ATC PROCEDURES RULES OF THE AIR--ANNEX 2- VFR Question On a VFR flight, your magnetic track is 005o, the magnetic heading 355o. Which of the following flight level is correct? B FL 55 B C FL 65 D FL 70 Ref All Question VFR flights shall not be operated under which of the following conditions:l) Above FL 200ll) At transonic and supersonic speeds Choices Answers Correct A Both statements are correct A B Neither statement is correct C l is correct D ll is correct Ref All Question VFR operations can be suspended by which of the following: Choices Answers Correct A The area control centre within whose CTA the aerodrome is located A B Any aerodrome controller C The appropriate aerodrome authority D None of the above Ref All Question If the ground visibility is reported 1000m, can a special VFR flight take-off from an aerodrome in a control zone? Choices Answers Correct A No A B Yes, provided the cloud ceiling is higher than 500 ft C Yes D Yes, provided the pilot remains in visual contact with the ground Ref All Question Except where necessary for landing and take off, VFR flights are not permitted over congested areas of cities, towns of settlements, or over an open air assembly of persons at a height less than ___ above the Choices highest obstacle within a radius of ___ from the aircraft. Ref: all Answers Correct A 300m, 600m A B 300m, 600ft AIR LAW AND ATC PROCEDURES RULES OF THE AIR--ANNEX 2- VFR Question Except where necessary for landing and take off, VFR flights are not permitted over congested areas of cities, towns of settlements, or over an open air assembly of persons at a height less than ___ above the highest obstacle within a radius of ___ from the aircraft. Ref: all C 500ft, 600m D 1000ft, 600ft Ref All Question Except when a clearance is obtained from an ATC unit, a VFR flight cannot enter or leave a control zone when ceiling is less than: Choices Answers Correct A 1500 feet or visibility is less than 5 km A B 1000 feet or visibility is less than 8 km C 1000 feet or visibility is less than 5 km D 2000 feet or visibility is less than 5 km Ref All Question A special VFR clearance may be obtained from ATC for the following airspaces: Choices Answers Correct A CTR, TMA and AWY B CTR B C CTR and CTA D CTR and TMA Ref All Question What is put in item 8 of a flight plan form if the flight is to start under VFR and then change to IFR at the point specified in item 15? Choices Answers Correct A I B V C Y D Z D Ref All Question A VFR flight shall not be flown: Choices Answers Correct A Over the congested areas of cities, towns or settlements or over an open air assembly of persons at a height less than 300m (1000 ft) above the highest obstacle within a radius of 6000m from the aircraft B Elsewhere, other than specified in the paragraph above, at a height less that 150ft above the AIR LAW AND ATC PROCEDURES RULES OF THE AIR--ANNEX 2- VFR Question A VFR flight shall not be flown: C Over the congested areas of cities, towns or settlements or over an open air assembly of persons C at a height less than 300m (1000 ft) above the highest obstacle within a radius of 600m from the aircraft D Elsewhere, other than specified in the paragraph above, at a height less than 150m (1000 ft) above the ground or water Ref All Question Procedure to be applied in case of communication failure in VMC: Choices Answers Correct A maintain VMC, land at the nearest suitable airfield and advise ATC as soon as possible A B maintain last assigned level proceed to destination perform visual landing, advise ATC as soon as possible after landing C maintain VMC, proceed to destination and land within 30 minutes of the ETA D proceed according to the filed flight plan to destination Ref All Question On a VFR-flight which of the following cruising levels would you select under the following conditions: True track 358o, variation 3oE, deviation 2oW? Choices Answers Correct A FL 80 B FL 65 B C FL 70 D FL 75 Ref All Question An aircraft operating in accordance with VFR, above the sea at altitudes between 4500 ft and 9000 ft AMSL, outside controlled airspace shall maintain at least Choices Answers Correct A a distance from cloud of 1000m horizontally and 1000 ft vertically and a flight visibility of 5km B a distance from cloud of 1500m horizontally and 1000 ft vertically and a flight visibility of 8 km C a distance from cloud of 600m horizontally and 1000 ft vertically and a flight visibility of 5 km D a distance from cloud of 1500m horizontally and 1000 ft vertically and a flight visibility of 5 D km Ref All Question If the reported ground visibility is 1000 metres, can a special VFR flight take off from an aerodrome in a control zone? AIR LAW AND ATC PROCEDURES RULES OF THE AIR--ANNEX 2- VFR Question If the reported ground visibility is 1000 metres, can a special VFR flight take off from an aerodrome in a control zone? Choices Answers Correct A No A B Yes C Yes, providing that a cloud ceiling of 500 ft exists before a SVFR flight is permitted to take off D Yes, providing the pilot remains in visual contact with the ground Ref All Question An aircraft flying above the sea between 4500 feet MSL and 9000 feet MSL outside controlled airspace under VFR, must remain on principle at least: Choices Answers Correct A Clear of clouds and in sight of the surface, 8 km visibility B 1500 m horizontally, 1000 feet vertically from clouds; 8 km visibility C 1500 m horizontally, 1000 feet vertically from clouds; 5 km visibility C D 2000 feet horizontally, 1000 feet vertically from clouds: 5 km visibility Ref All Question If a State finds that it is impracticable to comply with an International Standard: Choices Answers Correct A It shall give immediate notice to ICAO of the differences between its own practices and the A International Standard B It shall give 45 days notice to ICAO of the differences between its own practices and the International Standard C It shall give 60 days notice to ICAO of the differences between its own practices and the International Standard D It shall give 90 days notice to ICAO of the differences between its own practices and the International Standard Ref ATPL A Question In the event of a delay of 30 minutes in excess of the estimated EOBT for a controlled flight, which of the following actions is required? Choices Answers Correct A The flight plan should be amended or a new flight plan should be submitted and the old flight A plan cancelled, whichever is applicable B No action required because the air traffic system accommodates delays of up to 60 minutes C None, because ATC will automatically amend the current flight plan D A new flight plan must be submitted if required by ATC Ref ATPL A, H AND I.R. AIR LAW AND ATC PROCEDURES RULES OF THE AIR--ANNEX 2- VFR Question What is a low visibility take-off? Choices Answers Correct A A take-off on a runway where the RVR is less than 400m A B A take-off on a runway where the RVR is less than 200m C A take-off on a runway where the RVR is less than 125m D A take-off on a runway where the RVR is less than 50m Ref ATPL A, H AND I.R. Question According to the Chicago Convention, aircraft of Contracting States shall have the right to make flights into or in transit non-stop across the territory of other contracting States and to make stops for non- Choices traffic purposes without the necessity of obtaining prior permission. This applies to the following flights: Answers Correct A To aircraft of scheduled air services only B To aircraft engaged in commercial non-scheduled flights only C To aircraft on non-commercial flights only D To aircraft not engaged in scheduled international air services D Ref ATPL AND H Question Which of the following is obligating for members of ICAO? Choices Answers Correct A ICAO shall approve the pricing of tickets on international airline connections B ICAO must be informed about new flight crew licenses and any suspended validity of such licenses C ICAO must be informed about differences from the standards in any of the Annexes to the C convention D ICAO must be informed about changes in the national regulations Ref ATPL AND H Question What is the obligation of a State in the event of non-compliance with an International Standard? Choices Answers Correct A The State has to publish such differences in the national AIP only B The State has to notify the Assembly of ICAO and publish such differences in the national AIP C The State has to notify the Council of ICAO and publish such differences in the national AIP C D Modifications to International Standards shall be published in the national AIP only; differences to Recommended Practices have to be notified to ICAO Ref ATPL AND H AIR LAW AND ATC PROCEDURES RULES OF THE AIR--ANNEX 2- VFR Question The Standards contained in the Annexes to the Chicago convention are to be considered: Choices Answers Correct A binding for all member states B Advice and guidance for the aviation legislation within the member states C binding for all airline companies with international traffic D binding for the member states that have not notified ICAO about a national difference D Ref ATPL AND H Question An aircraft flying over the territory of another state must: Choices Answers Correct A Follow the rules of the Air of the State of Registration B Follow the rules of the Air of the State it is overflying B C Follow the rules of the Air of the State of the Operator D Follow the rules of the Air of the State that has issued the aircraft Certificate of Airworthiness Ref ATPL AND H Question Where there is an amendment to an International Standard a State must give notice to: Choices Answers Correct A The ICAO Council within 30 days of the adoption of the amendment B The ICAO Council within 60 days of the adoption of the amendment B C The ICAO Assembly within 30 days of the adoption of the amendment D The ICAO Assembly within 60 days of the adoption of the amendment Ref ATPL AND H Question Article 36 of the Chicago Convention is concerned with photographic apparatus in aircraft. What rights does a state have with regard to article 36? Choices Answers Correct A The state may prohibit or regulate the use of photographic equipment in aircraft over its A territory B The use of cameras is espionage and is therefore prohibited C The police can arrest persons using cameras in aircraft D All of the above Ref All Question Where was the Convention on International Civil Aviation signed in 1944? AIR LAW AND ATC PROCEDURES RULES OF THE AIR--ANNEX 2- VFR Question Where was the Convention on International Civil Aviation signed in 1944? Choices Answers Correct A Montreal B Rome C Chicago C D Geneva Ref All Question Concerning the Chicago Convention of 1944: Choices Answers Correct A Each state has total sovereignty over the airspace above its territory A B Each state was required to recognise the other states attending C Only 52 nations were permitted to attend D All states in the world attended Ref All Question Which Annex to the Chicago Convention covers dangerous goods carried in aircraft? Choices Answers Correct A Annex 15 B Annex 16 C Annex 17 D Annex 18 D Ref All Question The International Civil Aviation Organisation (ICAO) establishes: Choices Answers Correct A standards and recommended practices applied without exception by all states, signatory to the Chicago convention B standards and recommended international practices for contracting member states B C aeronautical standards adopted by all states D proposals for aeronautical regulations in the form of 18 annexes Ref All Question The International Civil Aviation Organisation (ICAO) was established by the international convention of: Choices Answers Correct AIR LAW AND ATC PROCEDURES RULES OF THE AIR--ANNEX 2- VFR Question The International Civil Aviation Organisation (ICAO) was established by the international convention of: A Warsaw B Montreal C Chicago C D The Hague Ref All Question Which of the following ICAO documents contain International Standards and Recommended Practices (SARPS)? Choices Answers Correct A Procedures for Air Navigation Services (PANS) B Annexes to the Convention on international civil aviation B C ICAO Technical Manuals D Regional Supplementary Procedures (SUPPS) Ref All Question The objectives of ICAO were ratified by the: Choices Answers Correct A Warsaw convention 1929 B Montreal convention 1948 C Geneva convention 1936 D Chicago convention 1944 D Ref All Question Annex 14 to the convention on international civil aviation contains SARPS for: Choices Answers Correct A Security B Aerodromes B C Facilitation D none of the above Ref All Question For aircraft flying over the high seas, which rules shall be in force? Choices Answers Correct A The rules established by the state of registry of the aircraft B The rules established by the state(s) adjacent to the high seas overflown AIR LAW AND ATC PROCEDURES RULES OF THE AIR--ANNEX 2- VFR Question For aircraft flying over the high seas, which rules shall be in force? C The rules established by the state of the operator of the aircraft D The rules established under the Convention of international civil aviation D Ref All Question For which flights is the article about cabotage in the Convention of Chicago applicable? Choices Answers Correct A For cargo flights B For domestic flights B C For international flights D For national carriers Ref All Question The Chicago convention was formed in: Choices Answers Correct A 1929 B 1944 B C 1969 D 1958 Ref All Question Aircraft wishing to conduct IFR flights within advisory airspace, but not electing to use the air traffic advisory service: Choices Answers Correct A may file a flight plan under pilot¿s discretion B need to file a flight plan C Shall nevertheless submit a flight plan but changes made thereto are not necessary to be notified D Shall nevertheless submit a flight plan and notify changes made thereto to the ATS unit D providing that service Ref All Question An aircraft is flying under Instrument Flight Rules in an area where the visibility is unlimited and the sky is clear (free of clouds), when it totally loses radio communications. The procedure to be followed is: Choices Answers Correct A descend to En-route Minimum Safe Altitude and join closest airfield open to IFR operations B land on the closest appropriate aerodrome, then advise Air Traffic Services of landing B AIR LAW AND ATC PROCEDURES RULES OF THE AIR--ANNEX 2- VFR Question An aircraft is flying under Instrument Flight Rules in an area where the visibility is unlimited and the sky is clear (free of clouds), when it totally loses radio communications. The procedure to be followed is: C continue flight on to destination, complying with last received clearances then with filed flight plan D adopt a VFR flight level and continue flight on to destination Ref All Question Changing of flight rules from IFR to VFR is possible: Choices Answers Correct A If the commander so requests A B If instructed by ATC as long as VMC is forecasted during the next 30 minutes C If instructed by ATC as long as VMC is forecasted during the next 60 minutes D Only when leaving controlled airspace Ref All Question Unless otherwise prescribed, what is the rule regarding level to be maintained by an aircraft flying IFR outside controlled airspace? Choices Answers Correct A 2000 feet above the highest obstacle within 8 nautical miles of course B 2000 feet above the highest obstacle within 8 kilometres of course C 1000 feet above the highest obstacle within 8 nautical miles of course D 1000 feet above the highest obstacle within 8 kilometres of the estimated position of the D aircraft Ref All Question When flying on an airway on a heading of 255(M) the correct flight level will be: Choices Answers Correct A usually ODD B always EVEN C always ODD D usually EVEN D Ref All Question Where State has not established minimum IFR altitudes, the minimum height of an aircraft above the highest obstacle over high terrain, or in mountainous areas shall be for an IFR flight: Choices Answers Correct A at least 1000 feet within 5 km of the estimated position B at least 2000 feet within 8 km of the estimated position B AIR LAW AND ATC PROCEDURES RULES OF THE AIR--ANNEX 2- VFR Question Where State has not established minimum IFR altitudes, the minimum height of an aircraft above the highest obstacle over high terrain, or in mountainous areas shall be for an IFR flight: C at least 1000 feet within 8 km of the estimated position D at least 2000 feet within 5 km of the estimated position Ref All Question When flying in IFR you experience a total communications failure in VMC conditions. What should you do? Choices Answers Correct A descend to minimum sector altitude and land at the nearest suitable IFR aerodrome B proceed to destination as planned C continue under IFR and follow filed flight plan D land at the nearest suitable aerodrome and report your arrival by the most expeditious means to D the appropriate ATCU Ref All Question Flying a magnetic track of 125o, what is the correct non RVSM semi-circular flight level? Choices Answers Correct A FL 310 B FL 330 B C FL 350 D FL 390 Ref All Question If a communication failure is experienced on an IFR flight in IMC, the pilot shall: Choices Answers Correct A try to reach VMC and land at the nearest suitable aerodrome B proceed to the navigation aid serving the destination aerodrome and commence descent at the estimated time of arrival or the expected approach time, whichever is later C land at the nearest suitable aerodrome D proceed to the navigation aid serving the destination aerodrome and commence descent at the D expected approach time or, if no expected approach time has been received, as close as possible to the estimated time of arrival resulting from the current flight plan Ref All Question If the intention is to change from IFR to VFR at some pint during flight, the letter __ is to be inserted in item ___ of the flight plan. Choices Answers Correct A V, 8 AIR LAW AND ATC PROCEDURES RULES OF THE AIR--ANNEX 2- VFR Question If the intention is to change from IFR to VFR at some pint during flight, the letter __ is to be inserted in item ___ of the flight plan. B Y, 8 B C X, 6 D I, 8 Ref All Question During an IFR flight in VMC in controlled airspace you experience a two-way radio communication failure. You will: Choices Answers Correct A Land at the nearest suitable aerodrome and inform ATC B Descend to the flight level submitted for that portion of flight C Land at the nearest suitable aerodrome maintaining VMC and inform ATC C D Select A7600 and continue according current flight plan to destination Ref All Question While on IFR flight, a pilot has an emergency which causes a deviation from an ATC clearance. What action must be taken? Choices Answers Correct A The appropriate ATC unit shall be notified of the action taken as soon as circumstances permit A B Request an amended clearance or cancel the IFR flight plan C Squawk 7700 D Submit a detailed report to ATC within 24 hours Ref All Question Which procedure do you follow after having experienced a two-way communication failure during a flight in accordance with IFR in VMC? Choices Answers Correct A Continue the flight at the assigned level and route, carry out level changes as indicated in the filed ATC flight plan, start the approach to the flight plan destination at the planned ETA B Maintain the assigned level and route and land at the nearest aerodrome where VMC conditions prevail C Continue to fly in VMC, land at the nearest suitable aerodrome, report the arrival by the most C expeditious means to the appropriate Air Traffic Control unit D Continue to fly in VMC and return to te aerodrome of departure Ref All Question Over high terrain or mountainous areas, where no minimum flight altitude has been established, flights in accordance with IFR shall be flown at a level which is at least: Choices Answers Correct A 1000 ft above the highest obstacle located within 8 km of the estimated position of the aircraft AIR LAW AND ATC PROCEDURES RULES OF THE AIR--ANNEX 2- VFR Question Over high terrain or mountainous areas, where no minimum flight altitude has been established, flights in accordance with IFR shall be flown at a level which is at least: B 2000 ft above the highest obstacle located within 8 km of the estimated position of the aircraft B C 1000 ft above the highest obstacle located within 10 NM of the estimated position of the aircraft D 2000 ft above the highest obstacle located within 10 NM of the estimated position of the aircraft Ref All Question If you are flying IFR in IMC conditions and you experience a total communications failure, you should: Choices Answers Correct A try to contact another aircraft for relay B land at the nearest suitable aerodrome and report to ATS C try to make contact on another frequency with either a ground station or another aircraft D continue the flight according to flight plan D Ref All Question On an IFR flight, you experience a total communication failure in conditions of no clouds and in unlimited visibility. What should you do? Choices Answers Correct A Continue under IFR and follow filed flight plan B Descend to en route minimum sector altitude and land at the nearest suitable IFR aerodrome C Land at the nearest suitable aerodrome and inform ATS immediately C D Continue to destination in VMC Ref All Question Instrument Meteorological Conditions (IMC) are: Choices Answers Correct A in force only when the aircraft is in cloud B applied when the aircraft is less than 1,500m horizontally and 1000ft vertically from cloud, with a visibility of less than 5 km below FL 100 C mandatory when the visibility is less than 5 km D meteorological conditions which preclude flight under visual flight rules D Ref All Question After experiencing a communication failure on a flight in accordance with IFR, the aircraft shall comply with the communication failure procedures. When flying in VMC, the aircraft shall: Choices Answers Correct A continue to fly in VMC, land at the nearest suitable aerodrome and report its arrival by most A AIR LAW AND ATC PROCEDURES RULES OF THE AIR--ANNEX 2- VFR Question After experiencing a communication failure on a flight in accordance with IFR, the aircraft shall comply with the communication failure procedures. When flying in VMC, the aircraft shall: B adopt a VFR flight level and continue according to VFR to the flight plan destination C continue on to destination, complying with last received and confirmed clearances or with filed flight plan D descend to Minimum Safe Altitude/Level, continue to the nearest aerodrome with instrument approach procedure Ref All Question When flying under IFR, you experience total communications failure in conditions of no cloud and unlimited visibility. What should you do? Choices Answers Correct A Proceed to destination under VFR B Descend to en-route minimum sector altitude and land at the nearest suitable IFR aerodrome C If able to maintain VMC, land at the nearest suitable aerodrome and then inform ATC C D Continue under IFR and follow the filed flight plan Ref All Question RNP 4 represents a navigation accuracy of: Choices Answers Correct A 1 m on a 95% containment basis B 4 mm either side of track C 4 nm on a 95% containment basis C D 4 km on a 95% containment basis Ref All Question When not flying over high terrain or mountainous areas and where no minimum flight altitude has been established, flights in accordance with IFR shall be flown at a level which is at least: Choices Answers Correct A 1000 ft above the highest obstacle located within 10 NM of the estimated position of the aircraft B 2000 ft above the highest obstacle located within 10 NM of the estimated position of the aircraft C 1000 ft above the highest obstacle located within 8 km of the estimated position of the aircraft C D 2000 ft above the highest obstacle located within 8 km of the estimated position of the aircraft Ref All Question An aircraft which is being subjected to unlawful interference (hijacked) and is forced to divert from the cleared track or cruising level without being able to communicate with ATS shall try to: Choices Answers Correct AIR LAW AND ATC PROCEDURES RULES OF THE AIR--ANNEX 2- VFR Question An aircraft which is being subjected to unlawful interference (hijacked) and is forced to divert from the cleared track or cruising level without being able to communicate with ATS shall try to: A As soon as possible commence emergency descent in order to minimise the difference between cabin pressure and outside pressure B Continue at an altitude that differs from the semi-circular rule with 1000 feet when above FL B 290 and 500 feet when lower than FL 290 C Fly the emergency triangle D Declare an emergency Ref All Question Pre-flight briefing for flights away from the vicinity of an aerodrome and all IFR flights shall include which of the following:l) A meteorological briefll) A consideration of the fuel requirementslll) Alternative Choices actions if the flight cannot be completed as planned Answers Correct A l B l and ll C l, ll and lll C D all of the above are recommended but not mandatory Ref All Question An aircraft with a communications failure is attempting to land at this destination. It must land within: Choices Answers Correct A 15 minutes of the last acknowledged EAT B 30 minutes of the last acknowledged EAT B C 45 minutes of the last acknowledged EAT D 1 hour minutes of the last acknowledged EAT Ref All Question An aircraft on a controlled flight suffers a radio failure in IMC. Unless a regional navigation agreement states otherwise: Choices Answers Correct A The last assigned speed and level must be maintained for a period of 20 minutes following the aircrafts last acknowledged radio transmission B The last assigned speed and level must be maintained for a period of 30 minutes following the aircrafts last acknowledged radio transmission C The last assigned speed and level must be maintained for a period of 20 minutes following the C aircrafts failure to report its position over a compulsory reporting point D The last assigned speed and level must be maintained for a period of 30 minutes following the aircrafts failure to report its position over a compulsory reporting point Ref All AIR LAW AND ATC PROCEDURES RULES OF THE AIR--ANNEX 2- VFR Question Where no minimum flight altitudes have been established for IFR flights, which statement concerning minimum flight altitudes for IFR flights is correct: Choices Answers Correct A Over high terrain or in mountainous areas, at a level which is at least 600m (2000 ft) above the highest obstacle located within 8 nm of the estimated position of the aircraft B Over high terrain or in mountainous areas, at a level which is at least 300m (1000 ft) above the highest obstacle located within 8 km of the estimated position of the aircraft C Over high terrain or in mountainous areas, at a level which is at least 600m (2000 ft) above the C highest obstacle located within 8 km of the estimated position of the aircraft D Over high terrain or in mountainous areas, at a level which is at least 300m (1000 ft) above the highest obstacle located within 8 nm of the estimated position of the aircraft Ref All Question You are flying IFR in IMC and you suspect communications failure. Which combination of the following actions would you take? Choices (i) Try to contact another aircraft for relay (ii)Try to make contact with ATC on another frequency (iii) Land at the nearest suitable aerodrome and report to ATC (iv) Continue the flight according to the flight plan Answers Correct A All the above B (i), (ii) and (iii) C (i), (ii) and (iv) C D (ii), (iii) and (iv) Ref All Question An aircraft used for simulated instrument flying must have: Choices Answers Correct A dual controls B dual controls and a competent observer C a qualified safety pilot and fully functioning dual controls C D a competent observer in the front seat Ref All Question Given: AGL= above ground level AMSL = above mean sea level FL =flight level. Within uncontrolled airspace the first usable level in IFR must provide a 500 ft margin above the following two levels: Choices Answers Correct A 3000 ft or 1500 ft AGL B FL 30 or 100 ft AGL C 3000 ft AMSL or 1000 ft AGL C D FL 30 or 1500 ft AGL AIR LAW AND ATC PROCEDURES RULES OF THE AIR--ANNEX 2- VFR Question Given: AGL= above ground level AMSL = above mean sea level FL =flight level. Within uncontrolled airspace the first usable level in IFR must provide a 500 ft margin above the following two levels: Ref All Question Which body of ICAO finalises the Standard and Recommended Practices (SARPS) for submission for adoption? Choices Answers Correct A the Regional Air Navigation meeting B the Assembly C the Air Navigation Commission C D the Council Ref CPL A AND H Question Who is responsible for the development and modifications of the SARPS: Choices Answers Correct A the Contracting States B the ICAO Council C the ICAO Air Navigation Commission C D the ICAO Assembly Ref CPL A AND H Question Which is the permanent body of ICAO being responsible to the Assembly? Choices Answers Correct A The Secretary-General of ICAO B The President of the Assembly C The Council C D The Air Navigation Commission Ref CPL A AND H Question The president of the ICAO Council is elected for: Choices Answers Correct A 1 year B 3 years B C 5 years D 10 years Ref CPL A AND H AIR LAW AND ATC PROCEDURES RULES OF THE AIR--ANNEX 2- VFR Question The privilege for an airplane registered in one state and en-route to or from that state, to take on passengers, mail and cargo in a second state and put them down in a third state is called: Choices Answers Correct A 3rd freedom rights B 4th freedom rights C 5th freedom rights C D 1st freedom rights Ref CPL A AND H Question Any contracting state may denounce the Convention of Montreal by written notification to the depository governments. The denunciation shall take effect: Choices Answers Correct A 3 months following the date on which notification is received by the Depository Governments B 6 months following the date on which notification is received by the Depository Governments B C 4 months following the date on which notification is received by the Depository Governments D 2 months following the date ICAO is informed Ref ATPL AND H Question Within Europe, certain non-scheduled commercial flights between ECAC States may be carried out without the obligation to request prior permission from the state concerned by the operator of the aircraft. This is Choices based on which international agreement/convention? Answers Correct A Cyprus convention B Agreement of Paris B C Warsaw agreement D Convention of The Hague Ref All Question The privilege to land in another ICAO participating State for technical reasons is called: Choices Answers Correct A the Second Freedom A B the Third Freedom C the First Freedom D the Fourth Freedom Ref CPL A AND H Question What does the second Freedom of the Air permit? Choices Answers Correct AIR LAW AND ATC PROCEDURES RULES OF THE AIR--ANNEX 2- VFR Question What does the second Freedom of the Air permit? A To put down passengers mail and cargo in a state have taken them on in another state B To transport passengers, mail and cargo for valuable consideration from the aerodrome in a state to another in the same state C To land for technical purposes (non commercial) in the territory of another state C D To fly across the territory of another state without landing Ref CPL A AND H Question What can the Commander of an aircraft do if he has reason to believe that a person has or is about to commit an offence in the aeroplane that is against penal law? Choices Answers Correct A Land in any country and off-load the offender B Use force to place the person in custody C Deliver the person to the competent authority D All the answers are correct D Ref CPL A AND H Question What privilege does the first Freedom of the Air grant? Choices Answers Correct A Technical (non-commercial) landings in the territory of another state B To take on passengers, mail and cargo in the territory of another state destined for the territory of another state C To pick up passengers, mail or cargo in a state and deliver to another aerodrome in that state D To fly across the territory of a state without landing in that state D Ref CPL A AND H Question Under the terms of the Tokyo convention of 1963, what is a contracting state required to do in the event of an act of unlawful seizure occurring within the territory of that state? Choices Answers Correct A The responsibility of the state is limited to the safety of the passengers only B The state shall take all appropriate measures to restore control of the aircraft to its lawful B Commander, or to preserve his control of the aircraft C The responsibility rests with the Commander not the contracting state D Nothing Ref CPL A AND H Question Which convention deals with the liability of a carrier to passengers and freight consignees where the limit of compensation is limited to US$ 10,000 except in cases of gross negligence? Choices Answers Correct AIR LAW AND ATC PROCEDURES RULES OF THE AIR--ANNEX 2- VFR Question Which convention deals with the liability of a carrier to passengers and freight consignees where the limit of compensation is limited to US$ 10,000 except in cases of gross negligence? A Rome B Tokyo C Paris D Warsaw D Ref CPL A AND H Question The privilege of landing in another state for a technical stop only is called: Choices Answers Correct A the second freedom of the air A B the first freedom of the air C the fifth freedom of the air D the third freedom of the air Ref CPL A AND H Question Which convention on international air navigation resulted in the agreements concerning the responsibilities with illegal acts committed on board aircraft: Choices Answers Correct A The Geneva Convention B The Tokyo Convention B C The Chicago Convention D The Montreal Convention Ref CPL A AND H Question An aircraft having sustained damage while on the territory of a Contracting State other than the State of Registry may fly without fare-paying passengers to an airport at which it can be restored to an airworthy Choices condition if: Answers Correct A It receives permission of the State of Registry A B It receives permission from the Contracting State where the damage occurred C It receives permission from the manufacturer of the aircraft D The repair works may be done at an airport that is not more than 250 nm away Ref CPL A AND H Question The first freedom of the air is: Choices Answers Correct A The right to board passengers from the state where the aircraft is registered and to fly to AIR LAW AND ATC PROCEDURES RULES OF THE AIR--ANNEX 2- VFR Question The first freedom of the air is: B The right to overfly without landing B C The right to land for a technical stop D The opportunity to operate a commercial flight with passengers on board between two states Ref CPL A AND H Question When an aircraft subjected to an unlawful interference has landed it shall notify by the most expeditious means of the State of Registry of the aircraft and the State of the operator of the landing and shall Choices similarly transmit all other relevant information to the: Answers Correct A two aforementioned States and the ICAO B two aforementioned States, each State whose citizens suffered fatalities or injuries, each State whose citizens are known to be on board the aircraft and the ICAO C two aforementioned States, each State whose citizens suffered fatalities or injuries on board the aircraft and the ICAO D two aforementioned States, each State whose citizens suffered fatalities or injuries, each State D whose citizens were detained as hostages, each State whose citizens are known to be on board the aircraft and the ICAO Ref CPL A AND H Question The Warsaw convention and later amendments deals with: Choices Answers Correct A limitation of the operator's liability for damage caused to passengers and goods transported A B the regulation of transportation of dangerous goods C the security system at airports D operator's licence for international scheduled aviation Ref CPL A AND H Question The convention of Tokyo applies to damage: Choices Answers Correct A caused in the territory of a contracting state or in a ship or aircraft registered therein, by an aircraft registered in the territory of another contracting state B caused in the territory of a contracting state by any aircraft regardless of the registration C the above convention does not deal with this item C D only caused in the territory of a contracting state by an aircraft registered in the territory of another contracting state Ref CPL A AND H AIR LAW AND ATC PROCEDURES RULES OF THE AIR--ANNEX 2- VFR Question The privilege to fly across the territory of another participating state without landing is called: Choices Answers Correct A the fifth freedom of the air B the second freedom of the air C the fourth freedom of the air D the first freedom of the air D Ref CPL A AND H Question The aircraft commander, when he has reasonable grounds to believe that a person has committed or is about to commit on board the aircraft, an offence against penal law¿. Choices Answers Correct A may require the assistance of passengers to restrain such person B may request such person to disembark C may not require or authorise the assistance of other crew members D may deliver such person to the competent authorities D Ref CPL A AND H Question The convention which deals with offences against penal law, is: Choices Answers Correct A the convention of Tokyo A B the convention of Warsaw C the convention of Rome D the convention of Madrid Ref CPL A AND H Question The convention on offences and certain acts committed on board aircraft, is called: Choices Answers Correct A the convention of Rome B the convention of Paris C the convention of Chicago D the convention of Tokyo D Ref CPL A AND H Question The privilege to land for non-traffic purposes, eg. refuelling, maintenance is to following freedom of the air: Choices Answers Correct A 4th freedom AIR LAW AND ATC PROCEDURES RULES OF THE AIR--ANNEX 2- VFR Question The privilege to land for non-traffic purposes, eg. refuelling, maintenance is to following freedom of the air: B 2nd freedom B C 1st freedom D 3rd freedom Ref CPL A AND H Question Which freedom gives the privilege to land for non-traffic purposes in another ICAO contracting state: Choices Answers Correct A the 4th freedom B the 2nd freedom B C the 1st freedom D the 3rd freedom Ref CPL A AND H Question The international convention defining rules relative to the responsibilities of international air carriers for the carriage of passengers, baggage and freight is the: Choices Answers Correct A Montreal Convention B Warsaw Convention B C Hague Convention D Tokyo Convention Ref CPL A AND H Question Any person who suffers damage on the surface shall, upon proof only that damage was caused by an aircraft in flight or by any person or thing falling therefore will be entitled to compensation as provided by: Choices Answers Correct A the Chicago Convention B the Warsaw Convention C the Montreal Convention D the Rome Convention D Ref CPL A AND H Question The problems of hijacking were discussed at: Choices Answers Correct A the Tokyo convention A B the Montreal convention C the Geneva convention AIR LAW AND ATC PROCEDURES RULES OF THE AIR--ANNEX 2- VFR Question The problems of hijacking were discussed at: D the Chicago convention Ref CPL A AND H Question The Rome Convention and later amendments deal with: Choices Answers Correct A Damage caused by any aircraft to third parties on the surface B Regulation of transportation of dangerous goods C Offences and certain other acts committed on board aircraft D Damage caused by foreign aircraft to third parties on the surface D Ref CPL A AND H Question The second freedom of the air is the: Choices Answers Correct A right to land for a technical stop A B right to operate a commercial passenger flight with passengers on board between two states C right to cabotage traffic (trans-border traffic) D right to overfly without landing Ref CPL A AND H Question An airline is planning a flight that will require a technical landing in a neighbouring state. Which freedom of the Air will be exercised? Choices Answers Correct A 2nd freedom A B 3rd freedom C 1st freedom D 4th freedom Ref CPL A AND H Question What flights are protected by the Prevention of Terrorism Act? Choices Answers Correct A Public transport flights only B Private flights only C All flights C D Military flights only Ref CPL A AND H AIR LAW AND ATC PROCEDURES RULES OF THE AIR--ANNEX 2- VFR Question Which convention deals with the unification of rules related to damage caused by aircraft to third parties on the surface? Choices Answers Correct A The Tokyo Convention B The Guatemala Convention C The Montreal Convention D The Rome Convention D Ref CPL A AND H Question According to which Convention may an aircraft commander impose measures upon a person committing a crime or an offence on board the aircraft? Choices Answers Correct A The Convention of Warsaw B The Convention of Rome C The Convention of Chicago D The Convention of Tokyo D Ref CPL A AND H Question Cabotage refers to: Choices Answers Correct A domestic air services A B a flight above territorial waters C crop spraying D a national air carrier Ref CPL A AND H Question Any contracting state may denounce the Convention of Tokyo by notification addressed to Choices Answers Correct A all State Members of United Nations B International Civil Aviation Organisation B C the other Contracting States D United Nations Ref CPL A AND H Question Which convention makes acts of violence on board, destruction of aircraft in flight and destroying or damaging any air navigation facility punishable: Choices Answers Correct A The Tokyo convention AIR LAW AND ATC PROCEDURES RULES OF THE AIR--ANNEX 2- VFR Question Which convention makes acts of violence on board, destruction of aircraft in flight and destroying or damaging any air navigation facility punishable: B The Montreal convention B C The Chicago convention D The Warsaw convention Ref CPL A AND H Question How will a member State withdraw from the Tokyo Convention? Choices Answers Correct A By informing ICAO A B By informing all ICAO member states and ICAO C By informing all ICAO member states D By informing Japanese Civil Aviation Administration Ref CPL A AND H Question 5th Freedom of the Air is: Choices Answers Correct A The right to carry revenue traffic from treaty partner's territory (b) to carrier's base nation (A) B The right to carry revenue traffic between any points of landing on flights between 3 or more B treaty partner nations (B to C to D) C Revenue traffic flown between two nations (C to A) by carrier of a third nation (B) D The right to carry revenue traffic between two points within a treaty nation (B) by the carrier of another nation (A) Ref CPL A AND H Question 6th Freedom of the Air is: Choices Answers Correct A The right to carry revenue traffic between any points of landing on flights between 3 or more treaty partner nations (B to C to D) B Revenue traffic flown between two nations (C to A) by carrier of a third nation (B) C The right to carry revenue traffic between two points within a treaty nation (B) by the carrier of another nation (A) D A combination of Freedoms 3 and 4. Revenue traffic flown between two treaty partner nations (C D to A) through carriers base nation (B) Ref CPL A AND H Question The right to damages is lost if an action is not brought within: AIR LAW AND ATC PROCEDURES RULES OF THE AIR--ANNEX 2- VFR Question The right to damages is lost if an action is not brought within: Choices Answers Correct A 6 months B 1 year C 2 years C D 5 years Ref CPL A AND H Question The right to damages is lost if an action is not brought within 2 years, this time starts from: Choices Answers Correct A The date of arrival at the destination B The date of arrival at the destination, or from the date on which the carriage ceased C The date of arrival at the destination, or from the time at which the aircraft ought to have arrived, or from the date on which the carriage ceased D The date of arrival at the destination, or from the date on which the aircraft ought to have D arrived, or from the date on which the carriage ceased Ref CPL A AND H Question What is Cabotage? Choices Answers Correct A Flying over territorial waters B Crop spraying C Routes flown by a national carrier D Limitation of domestic scheduled air services to a national carrier D Ref CPL A AND H Question Which freedom of the air permits an aeroplane to land in a state for the purpose of refuelling? Choices Answers Correct A 1st freedom B 2nd freedom B C 3rd freedom D 4th freedom Ref CPL A AND H Question The Convention concerning offences and Certain Other Acts Committed on board an aircraft is: AIR LAW AND ATC PROCEDURES RULES OF THE AIR--ANNEX 2- VFR Question The Convention concerning offences and Certain Other Acts Committed on board an aircraft is: Choices Answers Correct A The Paris Convention B The Chicago Convention C The Tokyo Convention C D The Rome Convention Ref CPL A AND H Question To what did the Tokyo convention of 1963 address itself? Choices Answers Correct A Licensing of scheduled air services B Damage caused by a contracting states aircraft to property in the same state C Damage caused by a contracting states aircraft to property in another state D Interference with an aircraft in flight D Ref CPL A AND H Question Where was the 1952 convention that deals with damage caused by foreign aircraft to third parties on the ground, held? Choices Answers Correct A Warsaw B Rome B C Paris D Tokyo Ref CPL A AND H Question If a person is injured by a part falling from an aircraft flying over the state but registered in another state, which convention covers this? Choices Answers Correct A Rome A B Paris C Tokyo D Chicago Ref CPL A AND H Question The convention signed by the states and moved by a desire to endure adequate compensation for persons who suffer damage caused on the surface by foreign aircraft is: Choices Answers Correct A the Paris Convention AIR LAW AND ATC PROCEDURES RULES OF THE AIR--ANNEX 2- VFR Question The convention signed by the states and moved by a desire to endure adequate compensation for persons who suffer damage caused on the surface by foreign aircraft is: B the Rome Convention B C the Warsaw Convention D the Tokyo Convention Ref CPL A AND H Question You are on the surface and are injured by an object from an aeroplane. Which convention allows you to claim damages? Choices Answers Correct A The Hague B Rome B C Warsaw D Tokyo Ref CPL A AND H Question PANS-OPS means: Choices Answers Correct A Procedures for Air Navigation Systems Airfield operations B Procedures for Air Navigation Services Aircraft operations B C Pilots Alternate Navigational Systems and Operational Procedures D Primary and Alternate Navigation Systems and Operations Ref CPL A AND H Question What is the meaning of DER: Choices Answers Correct A dead end of runway B departure end of runway B C dead reckoning D displaced end of runway Ref CPL A AND H Question The minimum height to which an aircraft may safely continue a precision approach, without visual reference is known as the: Choices Answers Correct A minimum break-off altitude B minimum descent altitude C decision altitude AIR LAW AND ATC PROCEDURES RULES OF THE AIR--ANNEX 2- VFR Question The minimum height to which an aircraft may safely continue a precision approach, without visual reference is known as the: D decision height D Ref CPL A AND H Question What is a STAR? Choices Answers Correct A Standard arrival B Standard instrument arrival B C Special terminal arrival D Supplementary terminal arrival Ref CPL A AND H Question In an instrument approach procedure, the segment in which alignment and descent for landing are made is called: Choices Answers Correct A Final approach segment A B Initial approach segment C Intermediate approach segment D Arrival segment Ref I.R. Question What is the meaning of OCA? Choices Answers Correct A Oceanic control area B Obstacle clearance altitude C Oceanic control area or obstacle clearance altitude C D Occasional Ref I.R. Question OCH for a precision approach is defined as: Choices Answers Correct A The lowest altitude above the aerodrome elevation used in establishing compliance with appropriate obstacle clearance requirements B The lowest height above mean sea level of the relevant runway used in establishing compliance with appropriate obstacle clearance requirements C The lowest height above the elevation of the relevant runway threshold, at which a missed C approach must be initiated to ensure compliance with the appropriate obstacle clearance criteria AIR LAW AND ATC PROCEDURES RULES OF THE AIR--ANNEX 2- VFR Question OCH for a precision approach is defined as: D The lowest altitude at which an aircraft can perform a safe flight Ref I.R. Question What does the abbreviation OIS mean? Choices Answers Correct A Obstruction in surface B Obstacle in surface C Obstacle identification slope D Obstacle identification surface D Ref I.R. Question What is the meaning of MEHT? Choices Answers Correct A Mean height over threshold B Maximum eye height C Minimum elevation height D Minimum eye height D Ref I.R. Question What does the abbreviation DER mean? Choices Answers Correct A Departure end of runway A B Distance end of route C Departure end of route D Distance end of runway Ref I.R. Question A precision approach is a direct instrument approach Choices Answers Correct A using at least one source of bearing information and one source of elevation or distance information B using bearing, elevation and distance information B C using bearing, elevation and distance information, providing the pilot uses a flight director or an autopilot certified to a height below 200 ft AIR LAW AND ATC PROCEDURES RULES OF THE AIR--ANNEX 2- VFR Question A precision approach is a direct instrument approach D carried out by a crew of at least two pilots trained with a specific working method Ref I.R. Question What does AAL mean? Choices Answers Correct A Above aerodrome level A B Angle of attack limitation C Acknowledge D Aerodrome altitude level Ref I.R. Question A visual approach is: Choices Answers Correct A An instrument approach where the pilot has the option to continue the approach visually, A providing that he has the necessary visual criteria B an approach made under VFR using height and track guidance C Any part of an instrument approach that is carried out in VMC D The circling part of a precision approach to a runway other than the runway on which the landing is to be made Ref I.R. Question Runway visual range is reported when it falls below: Choices Answers Correct A 1500m A B 1000m C 800m D 1200m Ref I.R. Question Based on operational considerations, a margin may be added to the OCA of a non-precision approach. The result is then called: Choices Answers Correct A DH B MDA B C MDH AIR LAW AND ATC PROCEDURES RULES OF THE AIR--ANNEX 2- VFR Question Based on operational considerations, a margin may be added to the OCA of a non-precision approach. The result is then called: D DA Ref I.R. Question Aerodrome rescue and fire fighting categories are based upon: Choices Answers Correct A length and weight of aircraft B length and width of aircraft B C fuel load and passenger capacity of aircraft D fuel load and maximum take-off weight of aircraft Ref All Question Rescue and firefighting (emergency) services provision is categorised according to physical characteristics of the type of aeroplane using the aerodrome. This classification is based upon Choices Answers Correct A aeroplane length and maximum take-off mass B maximum number of passengers and crew C aeroplane overall length and fuselage width C D maximum landing mass and maximum number of passengers Ref All Question What is the fire fighting and rescue category of an aerodrome based on? Choices Answers Correct A MTOM B Seating capacity of the aeroplanes using the aerodrome C Overall length and fuselage width of aeroplanes using the aerodrome C D Number of passengers using the aerodrome Ref All Question What colour are emergency vehicles painted that are used on the manoeuvring area of an aerodrome? Choices Answers Correct A Green B Orange C A single conspicuous colour, preferably red or yellowish green C D White and red chequered Ref All AIR LAW AND ATC PROCEDURES RULES OF THE AIR--ANNEX 2- VFR Question The aerodrome category for rescue and fire fighting is based on: Choices Answers Correct A the longest aeroplane maximum width only B The overall length of the longest aeroplane normally using the aerodrome and its maximum B fuselage width C The overall length of the longest aeroplane normally using the aerodrome and its maximum fuselage weight D The overall length of the longest aeroplane Ref All Question TODA take off distance available is: Choices Answers Correct A The length of the runway available plus the length of clearway available (if provided) B The length of the take-off run available plus the length of clearway available (if provided) B C The length of the take-off run available plus the length of the stopway and clearway (if provided) D The length of the take-off run available plus the length of the stopway Ref All Question TODA is defined as: Choices Answers Correct A TORA plus clearway A B TORA plus stopway C TORA plus EDA D TORA plus clearway and stopway Ref All Question The declared take-off run available at an aerodrome is: Choices Answers Correct A the take-off distance available less the stopway B the take-off distance available less the clearway B C the take-off distance available less the clearway and the stopway D the same as the landing distance available Ref All Question Regrding declared airfield distances the ASDA is: AIR LAW AND ATC PROCEDURES RULES OF THE AIR--ANNEX 2- VFR Question Regrding declared airfield distances the ASDA is: Choices Answers Correct A the distance from the start of the take-off run to the end of the clearway B the distance from the start of the take-off run to the last point capable of bearing the full weight of the aircraft under normal operating conditions C the distance from the start of the take-off run to the end of the stopway C D the area beyond the end of the prepared surface only available to aircraft stopping in an emergency Ref All Question Take-off distance available is defined as: Choices Answers Correct A take off run available plus the stopway B the take off run available C take off run available plus stopway and clearway D the take off run available plus the clearway D Ref All Question Clearway is defined as rectangular area established to: Choices Answers Correct A Reduce the risk of damage to aircraft running off a runway B Permit aircraft to make a portion of its initial climb to a specific height B C Protect aircraft during take-off or landing operations D Permit the aircraft to stop if it fails the take-off Ref All Question ASDA (Acceleration Stop Distance Available) is: Choices Answers Correct A The length of the take-off run available plus the length of stopway (if stopway provided) A B The length of the runway plus the length of stopway available (if stopway provided) C The length of the take-off run available plus the length of stopway and clearway (if provided) D The length of the take-off run available plus the length of the clearway Ref All Question Which of the statements below describes the Accelerate Stop Distance Available (ASDA)? AIR LAW AND ATC PROCEDURES RULES OF THE AIR--ANNEX 2- VFR Question Which of the statements below describes the Accelerate Stop Distance Available (ASDA)? Choices Answers Correct A The length of the runway declared available and suitable for the ground run of an aeroplane taking off B The length of the runway plus the length of the clearway C The length of the runway plus the length of the stopway C D The length of the runway declared available and suitable for the ground run of an aeroplane landing Ref All Question What is the length of an approach lighting system of a precision-approach runway CAT II: Choices Answers Correct A 900 m A B 150 m C 300 m D 600 m Ref All Question Where no barrettes are used, each centre line light position of a category I precision approach lighting system shall consist of: Choices Answers Correct A A single light source B A capacitor discharge light C A single light source in the innermost 300m, two light sources in the central 300m and three C light sources in the outer 300m D A single light source in the outer 300m, two light sources in the central 300m and three light sources in the innermost 300m Ref All Question CAT I approach lights (centre lights and crossbars) shall be fixed lights showing Choices Answers Correct A variable intensity white A B flashing white C variable intensity yellow D white, flashing every 2 seconds Ref All AIR LAW AND ATC PROCEDURES RULES OF THE AIR--ANNEX 2- VFR Question Within the Annex to the ICAO convention that specifies dimensions of aerodrome is a specific dimension given for the approach light system for CAT 1 ILS. What should be the length of this approach light system? Choices Answers Correct A 1000 metres B 420 metres C 900 metres C D 1200 metres Ref All Question Runway lead-in lighting should consist: Choices Answers Correct A of an arbitrary amount of green lights B always of a straight row of lights towards the runway C of flashing lights only D of group of at least three white lights flashing in sequence towards the runway D Ref All Question In a precision approach category I lighting system, the single, two and three light sources on the centre line have a length of: Choices Answers Correct A 300m A B 150m C 200m D 250m Ref All Question What is the only object permitted to protrude through the plane of a precision approach CAT II and CAT III lighting system within 60m of the centre line of the approach lights? Choices Answers Correct A An ILS or MLS azimuth (centre line guidance) antenna A B Any fixed object not more than 45 ft high C The ILS glidepath antenna D The aerodrome boundary security fence Ref All Question For a full Calvert CAT I approach lighting system, how many bars are required and what is the configuration of the centre line? Choices Answers Correct A 5 bar and single centre line AIR LAW AND ATC PROCEDURES RULES OF THE AIR--ANNEX 2- VFR Question For a full Calvert CAT I approach lighting system, how many bars are required and what is the configuration of the centre line? B One bar and single centre line C 5 bar and distance coded centre line increasing from the threshold C D 5 bars with centre line barrettes Ref All Question For a precision CAT II/III approach lighting system, what colour are the side row barrettes of the supplemental approach lighting in the inner segment? Choices Answers Correct A White B Red B C Yellow D Green Ref All Question Which of the following alternatives describes the complete CAT I (Calvert) type of approach light system? Choices Answers Correct A 3 crossbars, centre line with 3 or 2 lamps per light unit B 5 crossbars, centre line with 3, 2 and 1 lamp per light unit B C 4 crossbars, centre line with 3 or 2 lamps per light unit D 3 crosssbars, centre line with 3, 2 or 1 lamp per light unit Ref All Question Lights on and in the vicinity of aerodromes may be turnedoff, provided that they can be again brought into operation: Choices Answers Correct A At least 15 minutes before the expected arrival of an aircraft B At least 5 minutes before the expected arrival of an aircraft C At least one hour before the expected arrival of an aircraft C D At least 30 minutes before the expected arrival of an aircraft Ref All Question For a CAT I approach lighting system what is the length of the pre-threshold centre line lighting? Choices Answers Correct A 300m B 600m C 900m C AIR LAW AND ATC PROCEDURES RULES OF THE AIR--ANNEX 2- VFR Question For a CAT I approach lighting system what is the length of the pre-threshold centre line lighting? D 150m Ref All Question On a CAT I lighting system, what is the distance between the single, double and triple lights on the extended centre line of a runway? Choices Answers Correct A 150 metres B 200 metres C 250 metres D 300 metres D Ref All Question How many bars are there on a full Calvert approach light system? Choices Answers Correct A 5 A B 4 C 3 D 2 Ref All Question Lead in lights are: Choices Answers Correct A Green at threshold across the runway B White flashing in direction pointing towards the runway B C Yellow D White across the runway Ref All Question Runway approach lights must include: Choices Answers Correct A flashing lights B a group of atleast three white lights which are flashing in sequence in the direction of the runway C green lights D a straight row of lights in the direction of the runway D AIR LAW AND ATC PROCEDURES RULES OF THE AIR--ANNEX 2- VFR Question Runway approach lights must include: Ref All Question For inbound procedures, how many copies of the required forms are to be delivered to the public authority in a state? Choices Answers Correct A 3 gen dec; 3 cargo manifest; 2 simple stores list A B 2 gen dec; 3 cargo manifest; 2 simple stores list C 3 gen dec; 3 cargo manifest; 3 simple stores list D 3 gen dec; 2 cargo manifest; 2 simple stores list Ref All Question When de-insecting is required by a Contracting State as a public health measure, the de-insecting is made when the aircraft is suitably equipped by means of an automatic dispersal or vapour while the aircraft is Choices flying, but as far in advance as possible and: Answers Correct A At least one hour prior to landing B At least when the aircraft enter that state airspace C At least 30 minutes prior to landing C D At least immediately before landing Ref All Question The documents for entry and departure of aircraft: Choices Answers Correct A has to be typewritten or produced by electronic data processing techniques B has to be typewritten C are accepted at the contracting state discretion D are accepted in handwritten block lettering in ink D Ref All Question In case of aircraft registered in other Contracting States, which are not engaged in schedule international services, and which are making flights across the territory of a Contracting State or stopping for non- Choices traffic purposes, such Contracting State shall accept the information contained in a flight plan as adequate advance notification. This information is to be received: Answers Correct A at least 12 hours in advance of the expected ETA B at least 2 hours in advance of arrival B C at least 1 hour in advance of arrival D at least 4 hours in advance of arrival AIR LAW AND ATC PROCEDURES RULES OF