Air La LPJ PDF Exam Questions

1. How many O2 masks must be installed in a PAX aircraft certified above FL320? A Number of pax seat plus 10% B None of the above C Number of pax seat plus 5% D Number of pax seat plus 20% Flag this question View explanation 2. Noise minimum climb thrust change altitude is: A 600 feet AGL B 1200 fee...

1. How many O2 masks must be installed in a PAX aircraft certified above FL320? A Number of pax seat plus 10% B None of the above C Number of pax seat plus 5% D Number of pax seat plus 20% Flag this question View explanation 2. Noise minimum climb thrust change altitude is: A 600 feet AGL B 1200 feet AGL C 1000 Feet AGL D 800 feet AGL Flag this question View explanation 3. Which items of a received clearance must be read back to the ATC? (1) Altimeter settings (2) Correct time (3) Level, heading and speed instructions (4) Runwayin use (5) SSR codes (6) Taxi clearance (7) Wind speed and direction A 2, 3, 5, 6, 7 B 3, 4, 5, 6, 7 C 1, 2, 4, 5, 6 D 1, 3, 4, 5, 6 Flag this question View explanation 4. In the ATS flight plan Item 15 (Cruising speed), when not expressed as a Mach number, cruising speed is expressed as: A CAS. B IAS. C Groundspeed. D TAS. Flag this question View explanation 5. The criterion which shall be used to determine that a specific level is occupied by an aircraft shall be, (except that appropriate ATS authorities may specify a smaller criterion): A +/- 250 ft. B +/- 150 ft. C +/- 300 ft. D +/- 200 ft. Flag this question View explanation 6. Modern pressurised transport airplanes are equipped with: A two oxygen systems both supplying the cockpit and the cabin. B only portable oxygen bottles. C only one oxygen system supplying the whole aircraft. D two independent oxygen systems, one supplying the cockpit, the other the cabin. Flag this question View explanation 7. Runway threshold identification lights, when provided, should be: A Fixed green B Flashing green C Fixed white D Flashing white Flag this question View explanation 8. What is the civil use of a TACAN? A GPS navigation B Both A and B C Reporting position D DME Flag this question View explanation 9. The runway edge lights shall be: A Blue B Red C Green D White Flag this question View explanation 10. Radio-communication failure on IFR flight while in VMC, What is your action? A Squawk 7600, proceed in VMC to an appropriate airfield and inform ATC ASAP. B Squawk 7700, proceed in VMC to an appropriate airfield and inform ATC ASAP. C None of the above D Squawk 7600, land on an airfield. Flag this question View explanation 11. The fix distance markings on a RWY are at what distance? A 400 meter B None of the above C 600 meter D 300 meter (990 feet). Flag this question View explanation 12. The pilot of an aircraft losing two-way communications shall set the transponder to Mode A Code: A 7500 B 7700 C 7600 D 2000 Flag this question View explanation 13. According to the JAR-OPS regulations, an IFR flight with no alternate airfield can be undertaken only if the minimum weather conditions stipulated in the regulations are effective for at least : A 3 hours before to at least 1 hour after the expected time of arrival B 1 hour before to at least 1 hour after the expected time of arrival C 2 hours before to at least 2 hours after the expected time of arrival D 3 hours before to at least 3 hours after the expected time of arrival Flag this question View explanation 14. An aircraft manoeuvering in an airport's circuit receives a series of red flashes from the control tower. This signifies that the aircraft must: A give way to another aircraft B not land because the airport is not available for landing C return to land and that clearance to land will be communicated in due course D not land for the moment regardless of previous instructions Flag this question View explanation 15. What does the abbreviation 'H24' mean? A Aircraft handling available 24 hours a day B No specific working hours C Continuous day and night service D Sunrise to sunset Flag this question View explanation 16. The 'Standards' contained in the Annexes to the Chicago convention are to be considered: A binding for all member states B binding for the member states that have not notified ICAO about a national difference C binding for all air line companies with international traffic D advice and guidance for the aviation legislation within the member states. Flag this question View explanation 17. Rapid decompression first action? A Squawk 7700 B Oxygen mask on C Seat belt on. D Both A and C Flag this question View explanation 18. What’s the seperation in NON RVSM for aircraft flying the same direction? A 4000 ft B 2000 ft C 5000 ft D 1000 ft Flag this question View explanation 19. In the Area where the MNPS is applicable, the vertical separation that can be applied between FL 290 and FL410 inclusive is: A 500 ft B 1000 ft C 1500 ft D 2000 ft Flag this question View explanation 20. The navigation lights must be capable of being seen within how many degrees? A 100 degrees B 110 degrees C 140 degrees D 120 degrees Flag this question View explanation 21. When a controlled flight inadvertently deviates from its current flightplan, ATC has to be informed in case: A the estimated time is in error by more than 10 minutes B of an emergency C the TAS varies by plus or minus 5% of the TAS notified in the flightplan. D it is a deviation from the track. Flag this question View explanation 22. In the appropriate box of a flight plan, for endurance, one must indicate the time corresponding to: A The total usable fuel on board B None of the above C The total usable fuel on board minus reserve fuel D The required fuel for the flight plus the alternate and 45 minutes Flag this question View explanation 23. What is the minimum obstruction clearance for IFR flights in mountainous regions? A Within 4km of the estimated position of the aircraft 1000ft above the highest obstacle B Within 6km of the estimated position of the aircraft 1000ft above the highest obstacle C Within 8km of the estimated position of the aircraft 1000ft above the highest obstacle D Within 8km of the estimated position of the aircraft 2000ft above the highest obstacle Flag this question View explanation 24. An aircraft having undergone an anti-icing procedure and having exceeded the protection time of the anti-icing fluid: A must only undergo a new anti-icing procedure for take-off. B must undergo a de-icing procedure before a new application of anti-icing fluid for take-off C need not to undergo a new anti-icing procedure for take-off. D must only undergo a de-icing procedure for take-off. Flag this question View explanation 25. On an ATC flight plan, an aircraft indicated as "J" for "Super" A has a certified landing mass greater than or equal to 136000 kg B has a certified take-off mass greater than or equal to 140000 kg C requires a runway length of at least 2 000m at maximum certified take-off mass D is of the highest wake turbulence category Flag this question View explanation 26. You have been intercepted, the frequency for communication is: A 121.5 or 243 MHz B 122 or 243 MHz C 120.5 or 243 MHz D Both B and C Flag this question View explanation 27. Flight crew members on the flight deck shall keep their safety belt fastened: A while at their station. B only during take off and landing. C only during take off and landing and whenever necessary by the commander in the interest of safety. D from take off to landing. Flag this question View explanation 28. The maximum permissible take-off mass of an aircraft for the L wake turbulence category on a flight plan is: A 2.700 kg B 5.700 kg C 7 000 kg D 10.000 kg Flag this question View explanation 29. What cruise speed is inserted in the ICAO flight plan form? A IAS B TAS C CAS D MN Flag this question View explanation 30. A traffic is approaching your aircraft from right side. Which light do you see? A Fixed Red B Fixed Blue C Fixed Green D Fixed Yellow Flag this question View explanation 31. For the purpose of, what is the ICAO minimum radar separation distance if a heavy aeroplane is following directly behind another heavy aeroplane on the approach to the same runway? A 11.1 km (6 NM) B 7.4 km (4 NM) C 3.7 km (2 NM) D 9.3 km (5 NM) Flag this question View explanation 32. In the ATS flight plan Item 13, in a flight plan submitted before departure, the departure time entered is the: A Estimated time over the first point en route? B Allocated slot time C Estimated off-block time D Estimated take-off time Flag this question View explanation 33. At what moment during the approach should the reported airfield altimeter setting be set? A When passing 3000 FT AMSL or 1000 FT AGL B Within the transition layer C When passing the transition altitude D When passing the transition level Flag this question View explanation 34. Distance covered by MSA? (Minimum sector altitude) A 20 NM from homing facility, provides 300m (1000ft) or 2000 ft in mountains vertical clearance. B 15 NM from homing facility, provides 300m (1000ft) or 2000 ft in mountains vertical clearance. C 50 NM from homing facility, provides 300m (1000ft) or 2000 ft in mountains vertical clearance. D 25 NM from homing facility, provides 300m (1000ft) or 2000 ft in mountains vertical clearance. Flag this question View explanation 35. Time limit to delay or change your flight plan is: A 45 min B 2 hours C 1 hour D 30 min Flag this question View explanation 36. Mod C 2000 means: A Hijack B Communication Failure C Flying over areas without transponder requirement D Engine Failure Flag this question View explanation 37. From which of the following would you expect to find the dates and times when temporary danger areas are active A RAD/NAV charts. B Only AIP ( Air Information Publication) C SIGMET D NOTAM and AIP ( Air Information Publication) Flag this question View explanation 38. Which code shall be used on Mode "A" to provide recognition of an aircraft subjected to unlawful interference? A Code 7600. B Code 7700. C Code 7500. D Code 2000. Flag this question View explanation