A350 Question Bank PDF

Page: 1 Issue : 00 7-2016 A350 QUESTIONS BANK...

Page: 1 Issue : 00 7-2016 A350 QUESTIONS BANK Revision : 00 7-2016 A350 QUESTION BANK 1. Type ratings shall be established: a. Only for aircraft certificated for operation with a minimum crew of at least two pilots. b. Only for aircraft certificated for operation with a minimum crew of at least two pilots and each type of helicopter. c. For any type of aircraft whenever considered necessary by the authority. d. All of the above are correct. 2. According to VAR, an applicant for ATPL(A) shall have demonstrated the ability to perform as pilot-in-command, the procedures and manoeuvres of an aeroplane type certificated for: a. A minimum crew of two pilots under IFR b. Operations by pilots under training. c. For the carriage of passengers at night. d. A minimum crew of two pilots plus a flight engineer. 3. Except when a clearance is obtained from an ATC unit, a VFR flight cannot enter or leave a control zone when ceiling is less than: a. 1,500 feet or visibility is less than 5 km b. 2,000 feet or visibility is less than 5 km c. 1,000 feet or visibility is less than 5 km d. 1,000 feet or visibility is less than 8 km 4. The person who has final authority as to the disposition of an aircraft during flight time is: a. The airliner operator b. The commander c. The ATC controller if the aircraft is flying in a controlled airspace d. The aircraft owner 5. Which of the following flights has the greatest priority to land? a. Military aircraft b. Emergency aircraft c. VIP (head of state) aircraft d. Hospital aircraft carrying a very sick person needing immediate medical attention 6. An aircraft intercepted by another aircraft, if equipped with SSR transponder shall, unless otherwise instructed by the appropriate ATS unit, select one of the following codes in mode "A": a. 7500 b. 7600  Page: 2 Issue : 00 7-2016 A350 QUESTIONS BANK Revision : 00 7-2016 c. 7700 d. 7000 7. An aircraft intercepted by another aircraft shall immediately attempt to establish radio communication with the intercepting aircraft on the following frequencies: a. 121.5 MHz - 125.5 MHz b. 121.5 MHz - 282.8 MHz c. 121.5 MHz - 243 MHz d. 243 MHz - 125.5 MHz 8. Which manoeuvre shall be executed by an intercepting aircraft if the pilot wants to communicate to the intercepted aircraft "you may proceed”? a. Rocking wings twice and crossing in front of the aircraft. b. Circling the intercepted aircraft in a clock-wise pattern. c. Executing a climbing turn of 90 degrees or more without crossing the line of flight of the intercepted aircraft. d. Rocking the wings and flashing the navigational lights. 9. Which action shall be taken by an aircraft in the traffic pattern of an aerodrome, experiencing radio failure to indicate difficulties which compel it to land without requiring immediate assistance? a. Switching on and off three times the landing lights b. The repeated switching on and off of the landing lights c. Switching on and off four times the landing lights d. Switching on and off four times the navigation lights 10. A flashing red light from control tower during an approach to land means: a. The airport is temporarily closed, continue circling b. Give way to other aircraft in emergency c. Continue circling and wait for further instructions d. The airport is unsafe, do not land 11. Which of the following actions shall be taken in case of a controlled flight deviates from the track? a. Inform the ATC unit immediately b. Adjust the heading of aircraft to regain track as soon as practicable c. If VMC, maintain this condition, waiting for the ATC instructions d. Notify ATC of the new track immediately and comply with instructions  Page: 3 Issue : 00 7-2016 A350 QUESTIONS BANK Revision : 00 7-2016 12. While on IFR flight, a pilot has an emergency which causes a deviation from an ATC clearance. What action must be taken? a. Request an amended clearance or cancel the IFR flight plan b. Submit a detailed report to ATC within 24 hours c. Squawk 7700 d. The appropriate ATC unit shall be notified of the action taken as soon as circumstances permit 13. A signalman will ask the pilot to apply parking brakes by the following signals: a. Arms down, palms facing inwards, moving arms from extended position inwards. b. Raise arm and hand, with fingers extended, horizontally in front of body , then clench fist c. Crossing arms extended above his head d. Horizontally moving his hands, fingers extended, palms toward ground 14. An aircraft is flying under instrument flight rules in an area where the visibility is unlimited and the sky is clear (free of clouds), when it totally loses radio communications. The procedure to be followed is: a. Adopt a VFR flight level and continue flight onto destination b. Land on the closest appropriate aerodrome, then advise air traffic services of landing c. Continue flight onto destination, complying with last received clearances then with filed flight plan. d. Descend to en-route minimum safe altitude and join closest airfield open to IFR operations 15. A red flare addressed to a flying aircraft means : a. Dangerous airfield. Do not land. b. Come back and land. c. Not with standing any previous instructions, do not land for the time being d. Give way to another aircraft and hold the circuit. 16. An aircraft shall display, if so equipped, an anti-collision light: a. On the ground when the engines are running b. Outside the daylight-period at engine-start. During the daylight-period this is not applicable c. Outside the daylight-period in flight, but not on the ground when it is being towed d. While taxiing, but not when it is being towed 17. The white dumb-bell with black perpendicular bar indicates that: a. Taxiing needs not be confined to the taxiways b. Landing, take-off and taxiing is allowed on runway and/or taxiway only c. Gliderflying is performed outside the landing area  Page: 4 Issue : 00 7-2016 A350 QUESTIONS BANK Revision : 00 7-2016 d. This aerodrome is using parallel runways 18. An aircraft which is being subjected to unlawful interference ('hijacked') and is forced to divert from the cleared track or cruising level without being able to communicate with ATS shall try to: a. Fly the emergency triangle b. Declare an emergency c. Continue at an altitude that differs from the semicircular rule with 1,000 feet when above FL 290 and 500 feet when lower than FL 290 d. As soon as possible commence emergency descent in order minimize the difference between cabin pressure and outside pressure 19. Whilst flying in an aerodrome's traffic circuit, an aircraft receives a series of green flashes from the tower. The aircraft: a. Must come back to land and the landing clearance will be sent in due time. b. Must give way to another aircraft. c. Is cleared to land. d. Must land immediately and clear the landing area. 20. While taxiing an aircraft receives the following light signal from the control tower, series of red flashes. This signal means that the aircraft: a. Must stop. b. Must vacate the landing area in use c. Must return to its point of departure d. May continue to taxi to the take-off area 21. A manoeuvre in which a turn is made away from a designated track followed by a turn in the opposite direction to permit the aircraft to intercept and proceed along the reciprocal of the designated track is called a: a. Base turn. b. Procedure turn. c. Race track. d. Reversal track. 22. You are on an IFR flight executing a circling approach. A descent below the MDA should not be made until: 1. The pilot has the landing threshold in sight 2. Visual reference has been established and can be maintained 3. The required obstacle clearance can be maintained and a landing can be made. The combination regrouping all the correct answers is:  Page: 5 Issue : 00 7-2016 A350 QUESTIONS BANK Revision : 00 7-2016 a. 1, 2, 3. b. 2, 3. c. 1, 2. d. 1, 3. 23. In an instrument approach procedure, the segment in which alignment and descent for landing are made is called: a. Initial approach segment. b. Intermediate approach segment. c. Arrival segment. d. Final approach segment. 24. In a precision approach (ILS), generally glide path intersection occurs at heights above runway elevation from: a. 150m (492 ft) to 300m (984 ft). b. 300m (984 ft) to 600m (1,968 ft). c. 150m (492 ft) to 900m (2,955 ft) d. 300m (984 ft) to 900m (2,955 ft). 25. In an offset entry into an omnidirectional racetrack procedure, the time on the 30° offset track is limited to: a. 1 minute. b. 2 minutes. c. 1 minute 30 seconds. d. 3 minutes. 26. How many separate segments does an instrument approach procedure have? a. 3 b. 4 c. Up to 5 d. Up to 4 27. In a procedure turn (45°/180°), a 45° turn away from the outbound track is performed from the start of the turn for categories c, d, e aircraft for: a. 1 minute 30 seconds. b. 1 minute. c. 2 minutes d. 1 minute 15 seconds.  Page: 6 Issue : 00 7-2016 A350 QUESTIONS BANK Revision : 00 7-2016 28. In a precision approach (ILS), obstacle clearance surfaces assume that the pilot does not normally deviate from the centerline, after being established on track, more than: a. One and a half of scale deflection. b. Half a scale deflection c. One scale deflection. d. A quarter of scale deflection. 29. Which are the phases of a missed approach procedure? a. Initial, intermediate and final. b. Arrival, intermediate and final. c. Arrival, initial, intermediate and final. d. Initial and final. 30. Normally missed approach procedures are based on a nominal missed approach climb gradient of: a. 0.8%. b. 3.3%. c. 2.5%. d. 5%. 31. The loading limitations shall include: a. All limiting mass, centers of gravity position and floor loadings b. All limiting mass, centers of gravity position, mass distributions and floor loadings c. All limiting mass and centers of gravity d. All limiting mass, mass distributions and centers of gravity 32. Load factors has the following meaning: a. The loads assumed to occur in the anticipated operating conditions b. The ratio of a specified load to the weight of the aircraft, the former being expressed in terms of aerodynamic forces, inertia forces and ground reactions c. The ratio of a specified load to the mass of the aircraft, the former being expressed in terms of aerodynamic forces, inertia forces and ground reactions d. The ratio of a specified load to the mass or the aircraft, the former being expressed in terms of aerodynamic and inertia forces 33. The assignment of the common mark to a common mark registering authority will be made by: a. The state of registry  Page: 7 Issue : 00 7-2016 A350 QUESTIONS BANK Revision : 00 7-2016 b. The international civil aviation organization c. The state of registry and accepted by the international telecommunication union d. The international telecommunication union 34. The registration mark shall be letters, numbers or a combination of letters and numbers and shall be that assigned by: a. The state of registry or common mark registering authority b. The international civil aviation organization c. The state of registry only d. The international telecommunication union 35. The certificate of registration shall: a. Be visible to the passengers at all times. b. Be carried on board the aircraft at all times. c. Be reproduced on the portion of the airline ticket that stays with the passenger d. Both a and c are correct. 36. The validity of the instrument-rating aeroplane - IR(A) is : a. 6 months b. 5 years c. 1 year d. 2 years 37. The age of an applicant for a commercial pilot license shall not be less than : a. 18 years of age b. 21 years of age c. 17 years of age d. 16 years of age 38. An applicant for a commercial pilot license shall hold: a. A current class 1 medical assessment b. A current class 3 medical assessment c. A current class 2 medical assessment d. A current class medical assessment as prescribed by the state issuing the license 39. The duration of the period of currency of a medical assessment shall begin on the date: a. The license is issued or validated b. The medical assessment is issued c. The license is issued or renewed  Page: 8 Issue : 00 7-2016 A350 QUESTIONS BANK Revision : 00 7-2016 d. The license is delivered to the pilot 40. When the holders of aircraft transport pilot licenses - aeroplane and helicopter - have passed their 40th birthday, the medical examination shall be reduced from : a. 12 months to 6 months b. 24 months to 12 months c. 12 months to 3 months d. None of the answers are correct 41. According to the Chicago convention, aircraft of contracting states shall have the right to make flights into or in transit non-stop across the territory of other contracting states and to make stops for non-traffic purposes without the necessity of obtaining prior permission. This applies to the following flights: a. To aircraft on non-commercial flights only. b. To aircraft not engaged in scheduled international air services. c. To aircraft of scheduled air services only. d. To aircraft engaged in commercial non-scheduled flights only. 42. For aircraft flying over the high seas, which rules shall be in force? a. The rules established under the convention of international civil aviation. b. The rules established by the state of registry of the aircraft. c. The rules established by the state of the operator of the aircraft. d. The rules established by the state(s) adjacent to the high seas overflown. 43. Which of the following ICAO documents contain international standards and recommended practices (SARPS)? a. Procedures for air navigation services (PANS). b. Regional supplementary procedures (SUPPS). c. Annexes to the convention on international civil aviation. d. ICAO technical manuals. 44. According to which convention may an aircraft commander impose measures upon a person committing a crime or an offence on board the aircraft? a. The convention of Rome. b. The convention of Tokyo. c. The convention of Warsaw. d. The convention of Chicago. 45. Which convention deals with the unification of rules related to damage caused by aircraft to  Page: 9 Issue : 00 7-2016 A350 QUESTIONS BANK Revision : 00 7-2016 third parties on the surface? a. The Montreal convention. b. The Rome convention. c. The Tokyo convention d. The Guatemala convention 46. Annex 17 to the convention of Chicago covers: a. Aerodromes b. Security c. Facilitation d. Operation of aircraft 47. The international civil aviation organization (ICAO) establishes: a. Standards and recommended practices applied without exception by all states, signatory to the Chicago convention. b. Standards and recommended international practices for contracting member states. c. Aeronautical standards adopted by all states. d. Proposals for aeronautical regulations in the form of 18 annexes. 48. The international civil aviation organization (ICAO.) was established by the international convention of: a. Chicago b. Warsaw c. The Hague d. Montreal 49. The second freedom of the air is the: a. Right to operate a commercial passenger flight with passengers on board between two states. b. Right to land for a technical stop c. Right to overfly without landing d. Right to "cabotage" traffic, (trans-border traffic). 50. The first freedom of the air is: a. The right to board passengers from the state where the aircraft is registered and to fly to another state. b. The right to land for a technical stop. c. The right to overfly without landing. d. The opportunity to operate a commercial flight with passengers on board between two states.  Page: 10 Issue : 00 7-2016 A350 QUESTIONS BANK Revision : 00 7-2016 51. To cross lighted stop bars on the manoeuvring area of an aerodrome, the following applies: a. Lighted stop bars may only be crossed with the authorization of the aerodrome control tower. b. An aircraft shall stop and hold at all lighted stop bars unless otherwise authorized by the aerodrome control tower. c. An aircraft has to stop and hold at all lighted stop bars if so required by the aerodrome control tower. d. An aircraft may only proceed further if the lights are switched off. 52. When has a flight plan to be filed at the latest? a. 60 minutes before departure or, if filed in flight, 10 minutes before the aircraft is estimated to reach the intended point of entry into a control area or advisory area or the point of crossing an airway or advisory route. b. 60 minutes before the flight plan becomes active. c. 10 minutes before departure into an advisory area. d. 60 minutes before departure or, if filed in flight, 30 minutes before the aircraft is estimated to reach the intended point of entry into a control area or advisory area or the point of crossing an airway or advisory route. 53. If the time estimated for the next reporting point differs from that notified to ATS, a revised estimate shall be notified to ATS if the time difference is: a. Three minutes or more. b. Plus or minus two minutes or more. c. In excess of three minutes. d. None of the above is correct. 54. Which of the following signals is a distress signal? a. A parachute flare showing a red light. b. In radiotelephony the spoken words pan, pan. c. The repeated switching on and off of the landing lights. d. The repeated switching on and off of the navigation lights. 55. A horizontal white dumb-bell when displayed on a signal area of an aerodrome means: a. Aircraft are required to land, take off and taxi on runways and taxiways only. b. Aircraft are required to land and take-off on runways only, but other manoeuvres need not be confined to runways and taxiways. c. Aircraft are required to land and take-off on runways only. d. Aircraft are not required to land, take-off and taxi on runways and taxiways  Page: 11 Issue : 00 7-2016 A350 QUESTIONS BANK Revision : 00 7-2016 56. An aircraft which is intercepted by another aircraft shall set its transponder to: a. Mode A, code 2000 unless otherwise instructed by the appropriate ATS unit. b. Mode A, code 7000 unless otherwise instructed by the appropriate ATS unit. c. Mode A, code 7700 unless otherwise instructed by the appropriate ATS unit. d. Mode A, code 7600 unless otherwise instructed by the appropriate ATS unit. 57. "Raise arm and hand, with fingers extended, horizontally in front of body, then clench fist". This signal from a signalman to an aircraft means: a. Start engines. b. Chocks removed. c. Engage brakes. d. Release brakes. 58. (IR) An ETA for an IFR flight refers to the following: a. FAF/FAP. b. IAF. c. Touch down. d. None of the above. 59. Aircraft on the manoeuvring area have to give way to: a. Aircraft landing. b. Aircraft taking off. c. Aircraft landing and taking off. d. Follow-me vehicles (and pedestrians) 60. What defines a danger area? a. A zone where military activity includes firing projectiles in the air. b. Notified airspace (zone or area) where activities dangerous to flight may exist. c. NOTAM activated airspace where the normal flight rules are disregarded. d. Airspace of defined dimension where activities dangerous to flight may exist. 61. ATIS broadcast messages containing departure and arrival information should include cloud cover, when the clouds are: a. Below 1,500 m (5,000 ft) or below the highest minimum sector altitude, whichever is the greater b. Below 2,000 m (600 ft) or below the highest minimum sector altitude, whichever is the greater c. Below 900 m (3,000 ft) or below the highest minimum sector altitude, whichever is the greater d. Cumulonimbus  Page: 12 Issue : 00 7-2016 A350 QUESTIONS BANK Revision : 00 7-2016 62. When on a RNP 1 route is indicated a342 z, means that all turns shall be made within the allowable RNP tolerance of a tangential arc between the straight leg segments with a radius of : a. 15 nm on the route between 30° and 90° at and below FL 190 b. 15 nm on the route between 30° and 90° at and above FL 200 c. 22.5 nm on the route between 30° and 90° at and above FL 250 d. 25 nm on the route between 30° and 90° at and below FL 190 63. When on a RNP 1 route is indicated b235 y, means that all turns shall be made within the allowable RNP tolerance of a tangential arc between the straight leg segments defined with a radius of: a. 25.0 nm on the route between 30° and 90° at and above FL 250 b. 22.5 nm between 30° and 90° at and above FL 260 c. 22.5 nm between 30° and 90° at and above FL 200 d. 20 nm on the route between 30° and 90° at and above FL 200 64. A flight plan shall be submitted prior to departure for a controlled flight at least: a. 30 minutes prior to leave the blocks. b. 10 minutes prior to departure. c. 50 minutes prior to leave the blocks. d. 60 minutes prior to departure. 65. In the event of a delay of a controlled flight, the submitted flight plan should be amended or cancelled and a new flight plan submitted when the delay is: a. 30 minutes in excess of the estimated time of departure. b. 30 minutes in excess of the estimated time off blocks. c. 60 minutes in excess of the estimated time off blocks. d. 60 minutes in excess of the estimated time of departure 66. Who is responsible for an ATC clearance to be safe in respect to terrain clearance? a. The aircraft operator. b. The pilot in command. c. The ATC. d. The air traffic service reporting office when accepting the flight plan. 67. In the event of a delay for an uncontrolled flight which a flight plan has been submitted, the flight plan should be amended or a new flight plan submitted and the old one cancelled, when: a. The delay is more than 60 minutes of the estimated time off-blocks. b. The delay is more than 30 minutes of the estimated time off-blocks.  Page: 13 Issue : 00 7-2016 A350 QUESTIONS BANK Revision : 00 7-2016 c. The delay is more than 60 minutes of the estimated time of departure. d. The delay is more than 30 minutes of the estimated time off departure. 68. Change from IFR to VFR will always take place : a. When the aircraft is leaving controlled airspace during VMC b. On the initiative of the aircraft commander c. At the clearance limit, irrespective of the weather conditions d. As instructed by an air traffic control unit 69. Aircraft in which wake turbulence category shall include their category immediately after the call sign in the initial radiotelephony contact with the aerodrome control tower or the approach control office prior to departure or arrival? a. Medium aircraft. b. Heavy aircraft. c. Medium and heavy aircraft. d. Medium, heavy and light aircraft 70. If an ATC clearance is not suitable to the pilot in command of an aircraft: a. The pilot has to accept the ATC clearance because it has been based on the flight plan filed with ATC. b. He may request another clearance and the ATC concerned has to accept the pilot request. c. He may request and, if practicable, obtain an amended clearance. d. The pilot should propose another clearance to the ATC concerned. 71. Taxiway edge lights shall be: a. Fixed showing green. b. Fixed showing yellow. c. Flashing showing blue. d. Fixed showing blue. 72. Runway end lights shall be: a. Fixed lights showing variable white. b. Fixed unidirectional lights showing white in the direction of the runway. c. Fixed lights showing variable red. d. Fixed unidirectional lights showing red in the direction of the runway 73. Runway threshold lights shall be: a. Fixed unidirectional lights showing white in the direction of approach to the runway. b. Fixed lights green colors.  Page: 14 Issue : 00 7-2016 A350 QUESTIONS BANK Revision : 00 7-2016 c. Fixed unidirectional lights showing green in the direction of approach to the runway. d. Fixed lights showing green or white colors 74. Runway edge lights excepted in the case of a displaced threshold shall be: a. Fixed lights, white or yellow color. b. Fixed lights showing variable white or yellow. c. Fixed lights showing variable white. d. Flashing white. 75. Runway threshold identification lights, when provided, should be: a. Fixed green. b. Flashing white. c. Flashing green. d. Fixed white. 76. The light shown by an "aerodrome identification beacon" at a land aerodrome shall be: a. Green color identification given by Morse code. b. White and green color identification given by Morse code. c. Blue color identification given by Morse code. d. White color identification given by Morse code. 77. In the "VASIS", how many light units are in each wing bar? a. 3. b. 4. c. 2. d. 5. 78. What color is taxiway edge lighting? a. Blue b. White c. Green d. Yellow 79. What does a white line drawn across a runway indicate? a. The threshold. b. The beginning of the touch down zone. c. A displaced threshold. d. 1,000 ft from the end zone. 80. What color are runway edge lights?  Page: 15 Issue : 00 7-2016 A350 QUESTIONS BANK Revision : 00 7-2016 a. White b. Blue c. Yellow d. Red 81. What is meant when a departure controller instructs you to "resume own navigation" after you have been vectored to an airway? a. Radar service is terminated. b. Advisories will no longer be issued by ATC. c. You should maintain that airway by use of your navigation equipment. d. You are still in radar contact, but must make position reports. 82. The air traffic control unit has reported 'radar contact', what does that mean to the pilot? a. The radar identity of the aircraft has been established b. Position reports may be omitted c. The pilot does not have to follow up the position of the aircraft d. The aircraft is subject to positive control 83. When a radar operator says the following to an aircraft: "fly heading 030", the pilot must fly heading: a. 030° magnetic in still air conditions (thereby flying the magnetic track) b. 030° true c. 030° magnetic d. 030° true, in still air conditions (thereby flying the true track) 84. "A defined rectangular area on the ground at the end of take-off run available prepared as a suitable area in which an aircraft can be stopped in the case of an abandoned take-off" is the definition for: a. Stopway. b. Runway strip. c. Runway end safety area. d. Clearway. 85. "An area symmetrical about the extended runway centerline and adjacent to the end of the strip primarily intended to reduce the risk of damage to an aeroplane undershooting or overrunning the runway" is the definition for: a. Clearway. b. Stopway.  Page: 16 Issue : 00 7-2016 A350 QUESTIONS BANK Revision : 00 7-2016 c. Runway end safety area. d. None of the above is correct. 86. The stopway is a defined rectangular area on the ground at the end of take-off run available prepared as a suitable area where: a. An aircraft can be stopped in the case of an abandoned take-off. b. A landing aircraft can be stopped only in emergency. c. A landing aircraft can be stopped if overcoming the end of runway. d. An aircraft taking-off or landing can be stopped. 87. "ASDA" (acceleration stop distance available) is: a. The length of the runway plus the length of stopway available (if stopway provided) b. The length of the take-off run available plus the length of stopway (if stopway provided) c. The length of the take-off run available plus the length of stopway and clearway (if provided) d. The length of the take-off run available plus the length of the clearway 88. "Instrument runways" are the following runways intended for the operation of aircraft using instrument approach procedures: a. Precision approach runways in general. b. Non precision approach runways, precision approach runways category I, II and III. c. Precision approach runways category I, II and III. d. Instrument approach runways, precision approach runways category I, II and III. 89. "TODA" take-off distance available is: a. The length of the runway available plus the length of clearway available (if provided). b. The length of the take-off run available plus the length of the stopway and clearway (if provided). c. The length of the take-off run available plus the length of clearway available (if provided). d. The length of the take-off run available plus the length of the stopway. 90. In the "PAPI" system, the pilot during an approach will see the two units nearest the runway as red and the two units farthest from the runway as white when: a. Above the approach slope. b. Below the approach slope. c. Only on the approach slope d. On or close to the approach slope. 91. The MSA, which must be established around a navigation facility, is in general valid within a sector of :  Page: 17 Issue : 00 7-2016 A350 QUESTIONS BANK Revision : 00 7-2016 a. 25 nm b. 30 nm c. 10 nm d. 15 nm 92. As a rule, while establishing the departure procedures, the operator reckons that aeroplane has a climb gradient of: a. 3.3% with all engines operating. b. 2.4% with two engines, 2.7% with three engines, 3% with four engines. c. 5% with all engines operating and a climb gradient margin respectively of 0.8%, 0.9%, 1% with two, three and four engines, taking in account one engine inoperative. d. 2.4% with all engines operating and 1.5% with one engine inoperative. 93. If in an instrument departure procedure, the track to be followed by the aeroplane is published, the pilot is expected: a. To request from ATC different heading for wind correction. b. To correct for known wind to remain within the protected airspace. c. To ignore the wind and proceed on a heading equal to the track. d. To request clearance from ATC for applying a wind correction. 94. In an instrument departure procedure, the minimum obstacle clearance at the departure end of runway equals: a. 0 ft. b. 35 ft. c. 3.3 % gradient. d. 0.8 % gradient 95. In a straight departure, the initial departure track is of the alignment of the runway center line within: a. 45° b. 30° c. 12.5° d. 15° 96. Turning departures provide track guidance within: a. 20 km b. 10 km c. 5 km  Page: 18 Issue : 00 7-2016 A350 QUESTIONS BANK Revision : 00 7-2016 d. 15 km 97. The protection areas associated with instrument approach procedures are determined with the assumption that turns are performed at a bank angle of: a. 25° or the bank angle giving a 3°/s turn rate, whichever is lower, for departure, approach or missed approach instrument procedures, as well as circling-to-land (with or without prescribed flight tracks) b. 25° or the bank angle giving a 3°/s turn rate, whichever is lower, for departure and approach instrument procedures, 25° for circling-to-land with prescribed flight tracks and 15° for missed approach procedures. c. 25° or the bank angle giving a 3°/s turn rate, whichever is lower, for departure and approach instrument procedures, as well as circle-to-land, and 15° for missed approach procedures. d. The bank angle giving a 3°/s turn rate for all procedures with airspeed limitation related to aeroplane categories. 98. Under which conditions may an aircraft on a straight-in-VOR approach continue its descent below the OCA? a. When the aircraft has the control tower in sight b. When the aircraft is in contact with the ground but not with the runway in sight yet c. When the aircraft is in visual contact with the ground and with the runway lights in sight d. When it seems possible to land 99. If a stepdown fix is established on the final approach track, a descent shall be made so as to : a. Pass the fix at the rate of descent of 500 feet/min, which is obligatory. b. Follow approximately 50 feet above the nominal glide path. c. Leave the intermediate approach altitude, step by step until reaching the MAPT. d. Pass the fix not below the specified crossing altitude. 100. In the ILS-approach, the OCA is referenced to: a. Mean sea level. b. Aerodrome elevation. c. Aerodrome reference point. d. Relevant runway threshold. 101. (IR) Why is the descent gradient kept as low as possible in the intermediate approach segment? a. It is not possible to guarantee full obstacle clearance in this segment. b. This is the segment in which speed and configuration are adjusted.  Page: 19 Issue : 00 7-2016 A350 QUESTIONS BANK Revision : 00 7-2016 c. Usually track guidance is poor in this segment resulting in a requirement for a high MOC. d. Pilots cannot cope with track maintenance a high rate of descent. 102. What is the normal procedure design climb gradient for a missed approach procedure? a. 3° b. 3.3 % c. 2.5 % d. 2.5° 103. What will be your action if you cannot comply with a standard holding pattern? a. Inform the ATC immediately and request a revised clearance. b. Follow the radio communication failure procedure. c. A non-standard holding pattern is permitted. d. It is permitted to deviate from the prescribed holding pattern at pilot’s discretion. 104. In a holding pattern, all turns are to be made at a : a. Rate of 3°per second. b. Maximum bank angle of 25°. c. Rate of 3°per second or at a bank angle of 20°, which ever requires the lesser bank. d. Rate of 3°per second or at a bank angle of 25°, which ever requires the lesser bank. 105. Entering a holding pattern at FL110 with a jet aircraft, which will be the maximum speed? a. 230 kt IAS. b. 230 kt TAS. c. 240 kt IAS. d. 240 kt TAS. 106. Unless otherwise published or instructed by ATC, all turns after initial entry into the holding pattern shall be made into which direction? a. To the right. b. Teardrop to the left and then to the right. c. To the left. d. First right and then to the left. 107. What is the outbound timing in a holding pattern up to FL 140? a. 1 minute b. 30 seconds c. 2 minutes d. 1,5 minutes  Page: 20 Issue : 00 7-2016 A350 QUESTIONS BANK Revision : 00 7-2016 108. What is the outbound timing in a holding pattern above FL 140? a. 2 minutes 30 seconds. b. 1 minute 30 seconds c. 1 minute. d. 2 minutes. 109. In relation to the three entry sectors, the entry into the holding pattern shall be according to: a. Bearing. b. Course. c. Track. d. Heading. 110. In a standard holding pattern, turns are made: a. In a direction depending on the entry. b. To the right. c. To the left. d. In a direction depending on the wind direction. 111. The term used to describe the visual phase of flight after completing an instrument approach, to bring an aircraft into position for landing on runway which is not suitably located for straight-in approach, is: a. Visual manoeuvring (circling). b. Contact approach. c. Visual approach. d. Aerodrome traffic pattern. 112. A circling approach is: a. A flight manoeuvre to be performed only under radar vectoring. b. A visual flight manoeuvre keeping the runway in sight. c. A visual manoeuvre to be conducted only in IMC. d. A contact flight manoeuvre. 113. If visual reference is lost while circling to land from an instrument approach, it is expected that the pilot will make an initial climbing turn towards the: a. Map. b. FAF. c. Landing runway. d. Final missed approach track.  Page: 21 Issue : 00 7-2016 A350 QUESTIONS BANK Revision : 00 7-2016 114. On a non-precision approach, a so-called "straight-in-approach" is considered acceptable, if the angle between the final approach track and the runway centerline is: a. 30 degrees or less b. 40 degrees or less c. 20 degrees or less d. 10 degrees or less 115. Normally, the maximum descent gradient, applicable in the final approach segment to ensure the required minimum obstacle clearance, is : a. 6,5%. b. 8%. c. 5%. d. 7%. 116. During an instrument approach, followed by a missed approach, the minimum obstacle clearance (MOC) in the intermediate phase of this missed approach is: a. 30 m (98 ft) b. 90 m (295 ft) c. 50 m (164 ft) d. 120 m (384 ft) 117. Minimum sector altitudes are determined by the inbound radial in relation to the IAF. These sectors are established for a distance from the IAF of: a. 5 nm b. 25 nm c. 20 nm d. 10 nm 118. In general, during a straight-in approach, the MDH cannot be below: a. 200 ft b. The OCH c. 350 ft d. 400 ft 119. (IR) If, during a visual circling, visual reference is lost while circling to land from an instrument approach, the pilot shall: a. Require immediate assistance from ATC which is obliged to provide radar vectors in order to maintain obstacle clearance.  Page: 22 Issue : 00 7-2016 A350 QUESTIONS BANK Revision : 00 7-2016 b. Make an initial climbing turn towards the landing runway and follow the missed approach procedures. c. Descend further in order to reach an altitude where visual reference can be maintained. d. Climb straight ahead to the minimum sector altitude 120. (IR) Where does the missed approach procedure start? a. At the missed approach point. b. At DH/MDH. c. At any point that the criteria to continue the approach is lost. d. Over the threshold of the instrument runway 121. When an aircraft is subjected to unlawful interference, the pilot-in-command shall indicate the situation by setting the transponder to: a. 7500. b. 7000. c. 7700. d. 7600. 122. Which of the following correctly lists special purpose codes that are to be used in conjunction with secondary surveillance radar (SSR)? a. Distress 7600. Hijacking 7500. Communication failure 7700. b. Distress 7700. Hijacking 7500. Communication failure 7600 c. Distress 7700. Hijacking 7600. Communication failure 7500. d. Distress 7500. Hijacking 7700. Communication failure 7600. 123. Except in some special cases the establishment of change-over points should be limited to route segments of: a. 60 nm or more b. 100 nm or more c. 75 nm or more d. 50 nm or more 124. Required navigation performance (RNP) shall be prescribed: a. By regional air navigation agreements b. By states on the basis of regional air navigation agreements c. By states but not on the basis of regional air agreements d. By ICAO on the basis of regional air navigation agreements 125. The longitudinal separation minima based on time between aircraft at same cruising level  Page: 23 Issue : 00 7-2016 A350 QUESTIONS BANK Revision : 00 7-2016 where navigation aids permit frequent determination of position and speed, is: a. 5 minutes. b. 15 minutes. c. 10 minutes. d. 3 minutes 126. The longitudinal separation minima based on time between aircraft at same cruising level where navigation aids permit frequent determination of position and speed and the preceding aircraft is maintaining a true airspeed of 20 kt or more faster than the succeeding aircraft, is: a. 3 minutes. b. 10 minutes. c. 5 minutes. d. 15 minutes 127. The longitudinal separation minima based on time between aircraft at same cruising level where navigation aids permit frequent determination of position and speed and the preceding aircraft is maintaining a true airspeed of 40 kt or more faster than the succeeding aircraft, is: a. 5 minutes. b. 3 minutes. c. 6 minutes. d. 10 minutes 128. The longitudinal separation minima based on distance using DME, and each aircraft "on track" uses DME stations, is: a. 20 nm. b. 5 nm. c. 10 nm. d. 20 nm when the leading aircraft maintains a true airspeed of 20 kt or faster than the succeeding aircraft. 129. When applying longitudinal separation based on distance (DME), the minimum separation between two aircraft on reciprocal tracks climbing or descending through the same flight level shall be at least: a. 6 nm b. 10 km c. 3 nm d. 2 km  Page: 24 Issue : 00 7-2016 A350 QUESTIONS BANK Revision : 00 7-2016 130. Two aircraft are departing from a reporting point defined by an NDB. What is the minimum track separation required before one aircraft would be permitted to climb/descend through the other aircraft's level? a. 30° and a distance of 15 nm or more. b. 15° and a distance of 15 nm or more. c. 15° and a distance of 15 km or more. d. 30° and a distance of 15 km or more 131. Standard airway holding pattern below 14,000 ft: a. Right hand turns / 1 minute outbound b. Left hand turns / 1 minute outbound c. Right hand turns / 1.5 minutes outbound d. Left hand turns / 1.5 minutes outbound 132. (IR) The entry into a holding pattern shall be according to: a. Magnetic track in relation to the three entry sectors. b. Magnetic heading in relation to the three entry sectors. c. True heading in relation to the three entry sectors. d. True track in relation to the three entry sectors. 133. (IR) Is the length of the outbound leg of a holding pattern always expressed in terms of time? a. Yes. b. Yes even where DME is used, the maximum length is always in time. c. No, where DME is used, it may be specified in terms of distance. d. No, where g/s is less than 65 kt, the outbound leg must be at least 2 nm long. 134. The transition altitude of an aerodrome should not be below: a. 1,500 ft. b. 2,500 ft. c. 1,000 ft d. 3,000 ft. 135. In the vicinity of an aerodrome that is going to be used by the aircraft, the vertical position of the aircraft shall be expressed in: a. Altitude above sea level on or above the transition altitude b. Altitude above sea level on or below the transition altitude c. Flight level on or below the transition level  Page: 25 Issue : 00 7-2016 A350 QUESTIONS BANK Revision : 00 7-2016 d. Flight level on or below the transition altitude 136. During flight through the transition layer, the vertical position of the aircraft should be expressed as: a. Altitude above mean sea level during descent b. Flight level during descent c. Altitude above mean sea level during climb d. Either altitude above mean sea level or flight level during climb 137. The transition level: a. Shall be the highest available flight level below the transition altitude that has been established b. For the aerodrome is published in the AGA section of the AIP c. Shall be the lowest available flight level above the transition altitude that has been established d. Is calculated and decided by the commander 138. Transition from altitude to flight level, and vice-versa is done: a. At transition level during climb and transition altitude during descent. b. At transition altitude during climb and transition level during descent. c. Only at transition altitude. d. Only at transition level. 139. What will be the transponder mode and code for radio communication failure? a. Mode A code 7600. b. Mode B code 7600. c. Mode A code 7500. d. Mode A code 7700. 140. When the aircraft carries serviceable mode C equipment, the pilot: a. Shall continuously operate this mode only when directed by ATC. b. Shall continuously operate this mode regardless of ATC instructions. c. Shall continuously operate this mode unless otherwise directed by ATC. d. Shall continuously operate this mode only when the aircraft is within controlled airspace. 141. Normally all turns, which are requested by a radar controller have to be executed as: a. Prescribed by the aircraft operations. b. Decided on pilot's discretion. c. The weather permits. d. Standard rate turns if not otherwise instructed by ATC. 142. A "RNAV" distance based separation minimum may be used at the time the level is  Page: 26 Issue : 00 7-2016 A350 QUESTIONS BANK Revision : 00 7-2016 crossed, provided that each aircraft reports its distance to or from the same "on track" way- point. This minimum is: a. 80 nm. b. 50 nm. c. 60 nm. d. 20 nm. 143. One minute separation may be used between departing aircraft if they are to fly on tracks diverging by at least: a. 45° immediately after take-off. b. 15° immediately after take-off. c. 30° immediately after take-off. d. 25° immediately after take-off 144. Two minutes separation may be used between departing aircraft if they are to fly on the same track, when: a. The preceding aircraft is 30 kt or faster than the following aircraft. b. The preceding aircraft is 20 kt or faster than the following aircraft. c. The preceding aircraft is 40 kt or faster than the following aircraft. d. The preceding aircraft is 10 kt or faster than the following aircraft. 145. What is the minimum vertical separation between aircraft flying IFR below flight level 290? a. 500 feet b. 1,500 feet c. 1,000 feet d. 2,000 feet 146. During a take-off into IMC conditions with low ceiling, the pilot should contact departure control: a. Before penetrating the clouds. b. When clear of the airport and established on the first heading given in the clearance. c. When advised by tower. d. After take-off. 147. Independent parallel approaches may be conducted to parallel runways provided that : a. The missed approach track for one approach diverges by at least 20° (degrees) from the missed approach track of the adjacent approach b. The missed approach track for one approach diverges by at least 25° (degrees) from the  Page: 27 Issue : 00 7-2016 A350 QUESTIONS BANK Revision : 00 7-2016 missed approach track of the adjacent approach c. The missed approach track for one approach diverges by at least 30° (degrees) from the missed approach track of the adjacent approach d. The missed approach track for one approach diverges by at least 45° (degrees) from the missed approach track of the adjacent approach 148. When independent parallel approaches are being conducted and vectoring to intercept the ILS localizer course or MLS final approach track, the final vector shall be such as to enable the aircraft to intercept the ILS localizer course or MLS final approach track at an angle not greater than : a. 25 degrees b. 20 degrees c. 30 degrees d. 15 degrees 149. Under which circumstances may a pilot deviate from a published instrument approach procedure? a. If visual reference is established before the completion of the instrument approach procedure and the aircraft is cleared for a visual approach. b. If visual reference is established before the completion of the instrument approach procedure. c. Under no circumstances a pilot may deviate from a published instrument approach procedure. d. None of the above is correct. 150. Which wake turbulence radar separation minima shall be applied between a heavy aircraft and a succeeding medium aircraft during the approach and departure phases of a flight? a. 5 nm. b. 2.5 nm. c. 4 nm. d. 6 nm 151. A category III A precision approach (CAT III A) is an approach which may be carried out with a runway visual range of at least : a. 50 m b. 200 m c. 100 m d. 250 m 152. A category III B precision approach (CAT III B) is an approach which may be carried out  Page: 28 Issue : 00 7-2016 A350 QUESTIONS BANK Revision : 00 7-2016 with a runway visual range of at least : a. 75 m b. 250 m c. 150 m d. 200 m 153. A category II precision approach (CAT II) is an approach with : a. A decision height of at least 200 ft b. A decision height of at least 50 ft c. A decision height of at least 100 ft d. No decision height 154. During an ILS procedure, if the information transmitted by the appropriate services and received by the crew contains parameters below the crew's operational minimums, the point beyond which the approach must not be continued is: a. The outer marker (OM). b. The start final descent point (glide slope intersection). c. The FAF. d. The middle marker. 155. In MNPS airspace, the speed reference is the: a. Mach number. b. Indicated airspeed. c. Ground speed. d. True airspeed. 156. For an operation in MNPS airspace along notified special routes unless otherwise specified, an aircraft must be equipped with at least: a. One Inertial Navigation System (INS). b. Two Inertial Navigation Systems (INS). c. One Long Range Navigation System (LNRS). d. Two independent Long Range Navigation Systems (LRNS). 157. In the event of an en-route HF communication failure in an MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification) airspace, the appropriate VHF frequency for air-air communications is: a. 118.800 MHz b. 121.800 MHz  Page: 29 Issue : 00 7-2016 A350 QUESTIONS BANK Revision : 00 7-2016 c. 131.800 MHz d. 128.800 MHz 158. The MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification) airspace extends from : a. 30° North to 90° North. b. 27° North to 70° North. c. 27° North to 90° North. d. 30° North to 70° North. 159. The MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification) airspace extends vertically between flight levels: a. 275 and 400. b. 280 and 400. c. 280 and 390. d. 285 and 420. 160. The minimum longitudinal spacing of two aircraft flying in MNPS airspace at the same Mach number is : a. 15 minutes. b. 5 minutes. c. 20 minutes. d. 10 minutes. 161. Following an emergency landing which will need an escape from the aircraft, you will: 1. remain on the runway, 2. clear the runway using the first available taxiway, 3. keep one engine or the APU running in order to maintain the electrical power supply on, 4. turn off all systems. The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: a. 1,4. b. 2,3. c. 1,3. d. 2,4. 162. The correct definition of a safe forced landing is: a. An inevitable landing on land or sea from which one may reasonably expect no injuries on board b. A landing on land or sea from which it is guaranteed no injuries will result to the occupants c. An inevitable landing on land or sea from which one may reasonably expect no injuries on board or on the surface  Page: 30 Issue : 00 7-2016 A350 QUESTIONS BANK Revision : 00 7-2016 d. A voluntary landing on land or sea carried out by the crew in order to protect the aircraft and its occupants 163. If obliged to jettison part of the fuel in flight, it would be better to do so: a. Under flight level 50 (FL50). b. In a holding stack, after control clearance. c. In a straight line and at a relatively high flight level. d. During final phase of approach. 164. The dangerous goods transport document, if required, shall be drawn up by : a. The operator. b. The captain. c. The shipper. d. The handling agent. 165. In addition to the languages required by the State of Origin, what language should be set for the markings related to dangerous goods : a. English b. English, French or Spanish c. French d. Spanish 166. The presence of dynamic hydroplaning depends primarily on the : a. Aircraft's weight. b. Strength of the headwind. c. Depth of the standing water on the runway. d. Amount of the lift off speed. 167. In case of landing on a flooded runway and in heavy rain: 1. You increase your approach speed, 2. You land firmly in order to obtain a firm contact of the wheels with the runway and immediately land your nose gear, 3. You decrease your approach speed, 4. You use systematically all the lift dumper devices, 5. You land as smoothly as possible, 6. You brake energetically. The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: a. 3, 5 b. 1, 2, 4 c. 2, 3, 4 d. 1, 4, 5, 6 168. A runway covered with 4 mm thick water, is said to be:  Page: 31 Issue : 00 7-2016 A350 QUESTIONS BANK Revision : 00 7-2016 a. Contaminated. b. Flooded. c. Wet. d. Damp. 169. The maximum validity of a SNOWTAM is : a. 12 hours b. 24 hours c. 6 hours d. 3 hours 170. Your flight manual does not include specific supplementary information on landing distances on wet runways and the service bulletins or weather reports indicate that the runway may be wet at the estimated time of arrival. The required landing distance on a dry runway must be increased by: a. 15 % b. 20 % c. 18 % d. 17,6 % 171. To avoid wake turbulence, when departing behind a larger aircraft, the pilot should manoeuver : a. Below and downwind from the larger aircraft b. Above and upwind from the larger aircraft c. Above and downwind from the larger aircraft d. Below and upwind from the larger aircraft 172. The wake turbulence is greater when the aircraft has a : a. High weight and high speed b. Low weight and low speed c. High weight and low speed d. Low weight and high speed 173. For the purpose of wake turbulence separation, what is the ICAO minimum radar separation distance if a heavy aeroplane is following directly behind another heavy aeroplane on the approach to the same runway? a. 9.3 km (5 NM) b. 11.1 km (6 NM)  Page: 32 Issue : 00 7-2016 A350 QUESTIONS BANK Revision : 00 7-2016 c. 3.7 km (2 NM) d. 7.4 km (4 NM) 174. According DOC 4444 (ICAO), a wake turbulence non-radar separation minima of 2 minutes shall be applied to : a. MEDIUM aircraft taking-off behind a HEAVY aircraft from an intermediate part of a parallel separated by less than 760 m b. LIGHT aircraft taking-off behind a MEDIUM aircraft from an intermediate part of the same runway c. MEDIUM aircraft landing behind a HEAVY aircraft d. LIGHT aircraft landing behind a MEDIUM aircraft 175. According with DOC 4444 (ICAO), a wake turbulence non-radar separation minima of 3 minutes shall be applied to : a. LIGHT aircraft landing behind a MEDIUM aircraft b. LIGHT aircraft taking-off behind a MEDIUM aircraft from a parallel runway separated by less than 760 m. (using whole runway) c. LIGHT aircraft taking -off behind a MEDIUM aircraft when aircraft are using the same runway d. MEDIUM aircraft landing behind a HEAVY aircraft 176. DOC 4444 (ICAO) establishes, that wake turbulence separation minima shall be based on a grouping of aircraft types into three categories according to the maximum certificated take-off mass. Heavy (H) Category includes all aircraft types of : a. 136,000 Kg or more b. 146,000 Kg or more c. 135,000 Kg or more d. Less than 136,000 Kg but more than 126,000 Kg 177. In case of a serious threat based on the presence of a bomb on board a pressurized aircraft and disregarding any fuel considerations: a. You descend to the flight level corresponding to the indicated cabin altitude or the safety altitude if higher and take preventive steps by putting yourself in a landing approach configuration. b. You go down to the level corresponding to the indicated cabin altitude and keep the airplane in a clean configuration until the final approach. c. You carry out an emergency descent to reach the safety altitude.  Page: 33 Issue : 00 7-2016 A350 QUESTIONS BANK Revision : 00 7-2016 d. You climb to the maximum flight level which does not need the use of pressurization. 178. Following an act of unlawful interference on board an aeroplane, to whom the commander should submit a report of the act? a. The Authority of the State of the operator only b. The local authority only c. Both the local authority and the Authority of the State of the operator d. The Authority of the State within which the aeroplane is operating at the time of the unlawful interference 179. What transponder code should be used to provide recognition of an aircraft which is being subjected to unlawful interference : a. Code 7700 b. Code 7500 c. Code 7600 d. Code 2000 180. An aircraft is flying in heavy rain. To carry out a safe approach, it is necessary to : a. Increase its approach speed, because the rain affects the lift by deteriorating the boundary layer b. Carry out an approach with flaps up, in order to avoid exposing too much lifting surface to the rain c. Reduce the approach speed, because the runway may be very slippery on landing d. Maintain the normal approach speed up to landing 181. For twin-engined aircraft, the take-off alternate shall be located at a distance that : a. Does not exceed the equivalent of two hours of flight time, at cruising speed with all engines operating. b. Does not exceed the equivalent of two hours of flight time, at cruising speed with only one engine operative. c. Does not exceed the equivalent of one hour of flight time, at cruising speed with only one engine operative. d. Does not exceed the equivalent of one hour of flight time, at cruising speed all engines operating. 182. One shall not initiate any flight made in accordance with instrument flight rules unless the available information indicates that the conditions at the aerodrome of predicted destination or, at an aerodrome of alternative destination, are:  Page: 34 Issue : 00 7-2016 A350 QUESTIONS BANK Revision : 00 7-2016 a. At the predicted time of take-off equal to or better than the minimum conditions required for aerodrome use. b. At the predicted time of arrival, and for a reasonable period before and after such a predicted time, equal to or better than the minimum conditions required for aerodrome use. c. At the predicted time of arrival equal to or better than the minimum conditions required for aerodrome use. d. At the predicted time of arrival better than the minimum conditions required for aerodrome use. 183. When refueling is being performed while passengers are boarding or disembarking the aircraft, it is necessary that: a. Communications be maintained between ground personnel and qualified personnel on board. b. All the flight crew be on board. c. The aircraft's stairs be completely extended. d. Refueling is prohibited while passengers are boarding and/or disembarking. 184. The M.E.L. (Minimum Equipment List) is drawn up by : a. The manufacturer b. The aircraft manufacturer's list c. The operator d. The aircraft state of registry 185. The M.M.E.L. (Master Minimum Equipment List) is drawn up by : a. The operator. b. The aircraft manufacturer's list. c. The manufacturer. d. The aircraft state of registry. 186. A category I precision approach (CAT I) is an approach which may be carried out with a runway visual range of at least : a. 550 m b. 800 m c. 350 m d. 500 m 187. The term decision height (DH) is used for : a. A conventional approach. b. An indirect approach.  Page: 35 Issue : 00 7-2016 A350 QUESTIONS BANK Revision : 00 7-2016 c. A precision approach. d. A conventional approach followed by a visual maneuver. 188. A life jacket is mandatory for any passenger on board an aircraft flying away from the shore by more than : a. 50 NM b. 100 NM c. 200 NM d. 400 NM 189. The determination of the aerodrome minimum operating conditions must take the following into account: 1. Equipment available for navigation 2. Dimensions and characteristics of the runways 3. Composition of the flight crew 4. Obstacles in the vicinity of approach and missed approach areas 5. Facilities for determining and communicating the weather conditions. a. 1,2,4,5 b. 2,4,5 c. 1,2,3,4,5 d. 2,3,5 190. For turbo-jet aircraft, in the flight preparation stage, the landing distance at the scheduled destination aerodrome shall be less than the available landing distance multiplied by a factor of a. 0.6 b. 0.5 c. 0.7 d. 0.8 191. Where a runway has a displaced threshold, what color are the edge lights between the beginning of the runway and the displaced threshold showing in the direction of the approach? a. Red b. Blue c. White d. Green 192. What lighting is required for runways to be used for take-off in an operating minimum below an RVR of approximately 400 m? a. Centerline lighting. b. Edge lighting. c. Edge lighting and centerline lighting.  Page: 36 Issue : 00 7-2016 A350 QUESTIONS BANK Revision : 00 7-2016 d. Either edge lighting or centerline lighting. 193. High intensity obstacle lights should be: a. Fixed orange. b. Flashing white. c. Flashing red. d. Fixed red. 194. Low intensity obstacle lights on fixed objects shall be: a. Fixed red. b. Flashing yellow. c. Flashing red. d. Fixed orange. 195. The color identification of the contents of droppable containers and packages containing survival equipment should take the form of colored streamers according to the following code: a. Blue for blankets and protective clothing. b. Black for food and water. c. Red for medical supplies and first aid equipment. d. Yellow for miscellaneous equipment. 196. The color identification of the contents of droppable containers and packages containing survival equipment should take the form of colored streamers according to the following code: a. Red for food and water. b. Blue for medical supplies and first aid equipment. c. Yellow for blankets and protective clothing. d. Black for food and water. 197. The color identification of the contents of droppable containers and packages containing survival equipment should take the form of colored streamers according to the following code: a. Blue for food and water. b. Yellow for medical supplies and first aid equipment. c. Black for food and water. d. Red for miscellaneous equipment. 198. The ground - air visual code illustrated means: a. Require assistance b. Proceeding in the direction shown c. Please indicate direction d. Require medical assistance  Page: 37 Issue : 00 7-2016 A350 QUESTIONS BANK Revision : 00 7-2016 199. Which of the following is not an international distress frequency? a. 2430 kHz b. 2.182 kHz c. 121.5 MHz d. 243.0 MHz 200. Selecting an alternate aerodrome, the runway of this facility must be sufficiently long to allow a full stop landing from 50 ft above the threshold (jet type aircraft, dry runway) within: a. 80% of the landing distance available. b. 70% of the landing distance available. c. 50% of the landing distance available d. 60% of the landing distance available. 201. The minimum lateral spacing to be maintained between aircraft flying in MNPS Airspace is: a. 30 NM. b. 60 NM. c. 90 NM. d. 120 NM. 202. For a long-range four-jet aircraft in cruising flight, the optimum altitude and the lock- on altitude increase. The most cost-effective flight plan will consist of choosing cruising levels which increase during the flight in order to fly : a. About the optimum altitude b. Between the lock-on altitude and the optimum altitude c. About the lock-on altitude d. Just below the optimum altitude 203. During a de-icing/anti-icing procedure carried out in two stages, the waiting time starts: a. At the beginning of the first stage (de-icing stage). b. At the beginning of the second stage (anti-icing stage). c. At the end of the second stage (anti-icing stage). d. At the end of the first stage (de-icing stage). 204. When taking-off, in winter conditions, the wing contamination by ice or frost will cause the following effects: 1. an increase in the take-off distance 2. a diminution of the take-off run 3. an increase in the stalling speed 4. a diminution of the stalling speed 5. a diminution of the climb gradient. The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:  Page: 38 Issue : 00 7-2016 A350 QUESTIONS BANK Revision : 00 7-2016 a. 2, 4, 5 b. 1, 3, 5 c. 1, 2, 3 d. 2, 3, 5 205. The protection time of an anti-icing fluid depends on: 1. The type and intensity of the showers 2. The ambient temperature 3. The relative humidity 4. The direction and speed of the wind 5. The temperature of the airplane skin 6. The type of fluid, its concentration and temperature. The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: a. 1, 3, 5, 6 b. 2, 3, 4, 5 c. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 d. 1, 2, 4, 6 206. The holdover time following an anti-icing procedure being carried out will vary considerably depending on the ambient temperature and the weather conditions. For a given ambient temperature, the longest protection will be in weather conditions of: a. Freezing fog b. Rain on a cold soaked wing c. Frost d. Steady snow 207. For a given ambient temperature and type of de-icing fluid used, in which one of the following types of weather condition will the holdover (protection) time be shortest ? a. Freezing rain b. Frost c. Steady snow d. Freezing fog 208. Which one of the following magnitudes will be the first to change its value when penetrating a windshear? a. Pitch angle. b. Vertical speed. c. Indicated airspeed. d. Groundspeed. 209. In case of an unexpected encounter with windshear, you will: 1. Set the maximum take-off thrust 2. Increase the pitch-up attitude up to the limit actuating the stick shaker 3. Pull in the  Page: 39 Issue : 00 7-2016 A350 QUESTIONS BANK Revision : 00 7-2016 drag devices (gear and flaps) 4. Keep the airplane's current configuration 5. Try to reach the maximum lift-to-drag ratio. The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: a. 1, 2, 4 b. 3, 5 c. 1, 3, 5 d. 2, 3 210. Windshear is: a. A vertical or horizontal wind velocity and / or wind direction variation over a short distance b. A vertical wind velocity variation over a short distance c. A horizontal wind velocity variation over a short distance d. A vertical or horizontal wind velocity and / or wind direction over a large distance 211. As a relief pilot, a first officer can operate on the left hand seat as PNF/PM only: a. At take-off and landing. b. From 20,000 feet and above. c. At any time during the flight. 212. The objective of CRM is to enhance: a. The communication skills of the flight crew. b. The management skills of the flight crew. c. Both a and b are correct. 213. Crew members must not commence a flight duty period with a blood alcohol level in excess of: a. 0.05 grams per litre. b. 0.15 grams per litre. c. 0.2 grams per litre. 214. A crew member should not donate blood within: a. 48 hours before a flight assignment. b. 36 hours before a flight assignment. c. 24 hours before a flight assignment. 215. If the time difference (TD) between the countries of origin and destination is 04 hours or more: a. 04 hours ≤ TD ≤ 06 hours: the subsequent rest period is at least as long as the preceding flight duty period or 14 hours, whichever is greater.  Page: 40 Issue : 00 7-2016 A350 QUESTIONS BANK Revision : 00 7-2016 b. TD > 06 hours: the subsequent rest period is at least as long as the preceding flight duty period or 16 hours, whichever is greater. c. Both a and b are correct. 216. A clearance must be read back to ATC and for a confirmation between both pilot crew members in the case of clearances received: a. In areas of high terrain. b. That include heading, flight level, frequency, route/waypoint changes. c. That include instructions for holding short of a runway. d. All of the above are correct. 217. Temperature correction: The calculated minimum safe altitudes/heights must be corrected when the OAT is much ----- than that predicted by the standard atmosphere. a. Higher. b. More. c. Lower. 218. Pressure correction: When flying at levels with the altimeter set to 1013hPa, the minimum safe altitude must be corrected for deviations in pressure when the pressure is -----------than the standard atmosphere (1013hPa). a. Higher. b. More. c. Lower. 219. Airport categories B and C are considered special airports and: a. Special flight crew qualifications are required. b. Special flight crew qualifications are required for airport category C only. c. None of them requires special flight crew qualifications. 220. Company aircraft are categorized as follows: a. B787-9 is category D, A350-900 is category C b. Both are category D. c. Both are category C. 221. Where no outer marker or equivalent position exists the pilot in command shall make the decision to continue or stop the approach before descending below --------------- on the final approach segment. a. 1,500 AGL  Page: 41 Issue : 00 7-2016 A350 QUESTIONS BANK Revision : 00 7-2016 b. MDA. c. 1,000 feet above the airport. 222. Final Reserve Fuel is the amount of fuel to fly: a. For 30 minutes at holding speed at FL150 at last holding pattern of airport’s STAR in standard conditions, calculated at the estimated mass on arrival at the destination alternate airport. b. For 30 minutes at holding speed at 1,500 FT above airport elevation in standard conditions, calculated at the estimated mass on arrival at the destination alternate airport. c. For 30 minutes at holding speed at go-around altitude at the holding pattern of the approach in standard conditions, calculated at the estimated mass on arrival at the destination alternate airport. 223. For ETOPS flights above 120 minutes, take-off alternate distance for B787-9/ A350-900 is: a. 830 NM. b. 840 NM. c. 850 NM 224. The standard weight of crew, passengers and cargo for normal flights is as follows: a. Flight crew: 75kgs, Cabin crew: 70kgs; Passengers: 90kgs; Children: 37kgs b. Flight crew: 80kgs, Cabin crew: 70kgs; Passengers: 70kgs; Children: 30kgs c. Flight crew: 90kgs, Cabin crew: 75kgs; Passengers: 75kgs; Children: 35kgs 225. Which statement is correct? a. When showing compliance with the take-off obstacle clearance: Track changes shall not be allowed up to the point at which the net take-off flight path has achieved a height equal to the full wingspan but not less than 35 ft above the elevation of the end of the take-off run available. Thereafter, up to a height of 400 ft it is assumed that the aircraft is banked by no more than 25°. Above 400 ft height bank angles greater than 15°, but not more than 25° may be scheduled. b. When showing compliance with the take-off obstacle clearance: Track changes shall not be allowed up to the point at which the net take-off flight path has achieved a height equal to one half the wingspan but not less than 50 ft above the elevation of the end of the take-off run available. Thereafter, up to a height of 400 ft it is assumed that the aircraft is banked by no more than 15°. Above 400 ft height bank angles greater than 15°, but not more than 25° may be scheduled.  Page: 42 Issue : 00 7-2016 A350 QUESTIONS BANK Revision : 00 7-2016 c. Both a and b are incorrect. 226. For depressurization, it may be necessary to descend below the en-route minimum altitude determined for normal operation in order to cope with passenger oxygen requirements. At any time, the aircraft gross (actual) flight path must clear vertically all obstacles by: a. 2,000 ft. b. 1,500 ft. c. 1,000 ft. 227. When the passenger checked baggage (loaded in the cargo compartment) is not weighed, the following standard weight per piece of checked baggage is used: a. Domestic flights: 11kgs; International flights: 15kgs FOM 8.1.8.4 (8.1.8/P5) b. Domestic flights: 15kgs; International flights: 25kgs c. Domestic flights: 15kgs; International flights: 15kgs 228. An augmented flight crew is scheduled to carry out no more than: a. 02 landings within a flight duty period. b. 03 landings provided that the block time for one sector ≤ 03 hours and the rest period immediately following this flight duty period is increased by 06 hours. c. Both a and b are correct. 229. Blocktime calculation method for each duty augmented flight crew member: a. Blocktime for each flight crew member = (Blocktime of a sector of flight x 2) / Number of duty flight crew member. b. Blocktime is the period of time from “wheel chocks away” to “wheel chocks on”. c. None is correct. 230. Last minute change means any change concerning passengers, crew or cargo occurring after the using of the load sheet. This LMC must immediately be communicated as soon as noticed by traffic agent if take-off weight variation exceeds the following values per aircraft type: a. B787-9: 1850kgs; A350-9: 1750kgs b. B787-9: 2000kgs; A350-9: 1500kgs c. B787-9: 1500kgs; A350-9: 1500kgs 231. A pilot ------accept a clearance with which he cannot safely comply or which exceeds the capabilities of the aircraft. The commander is the final authority as to the operation of the aircraft.  Page: 43 Issue : 00 7-2016 A350 QUESTIONS BANK Revision : 00 7-2016 a. Must. b. May co-operate and. c. Must not. 232. Crew members should keep walking in line (single or double) when walking in the terminal or public areas in the following orders: a. Double line: Captain - First officer, female cabin crew, male cabin crew b. Single line: Captain, First officer, female Purser, female cabin crew and male cabin crew. c. Single line: Female crew followed by male crew. 233. Crew members shall, on request of a law enforcement officer or the Authority, yield to a test to indicate the presence of alcohol or psychoactive substances in the blood at any time: a. Up to 8 hours before acting as a crew member. b. Immediately after attempting to act as a crew member. c. Immediately after acting as a crew member. d. All of the above are correct. 234. If a flight is cleared to hold, ATC holding instructions must be complied with… a. These instructions may be issued by the controller or they may be required on the charts. b. These instructions may be issued by the controller only. c. These instructions may be required on the charts only. 235. Which statement is correct? a. A pilot should make a visible record of each ATC clearance, and all route changes should be recorded on any paper adjacent to the waypoint where the clearance for route change was issued. b. A pilot should make a visible record of each ATC clearance, and all route changes should be recorded on the flight plan log adjacent to the waypoint where the clearance for route change was issued. 236. All flight crew members when on duty MUST bring: a. Their licenses and medical certificates. b. Their licenses only. c. Their licenses, medical certificates and logbooks. 237. A pilot shall not be assigned to operate an aeroplane as part of the minimum certified crew, either as pilot flying or pilot non-flying: a. Unless he has carried out at least three take-offs and three landings in the previous 120 days  Page: 44 Issue : 00 7-2016 A350 QUESTIONS BANK Revision : 00 7-2016 as pilot flying in an aircraft or an approved flight simulator; b. Unless he has carried out at least three take-offs and three landings in the previous 90 days as pilot flying in an aircraft or an approved flight simulator c. Unless he has carried out at least three take-offs and three landings in the previous 06 calendar months as pilot flying in an aircraft or an approved flight simulator. 238. For IFR planning purposes, a destination alternate is not required if the airport is isolated and no suitable alternate is available, but a -----------will be calculated and included in the flight plan remarks. a. ETP. b. CP. c. Point-of-no-return 239. ACARS computerized Load and trim sheet must show name and staff ID number of the person preparing the sheet. The Commander acknowledges his receipt of ACARS computerized Load and trim sheet via ACARS data link network, giving his …. a. Full name. b. ID number c. Name and his position. 240. Airport Rescue and Fire-fighting category for B787-9/A350-900 is: a. 10. b. 9. c. 8. 241. Can any fluctuation caution be deleted by the EMER cancel PB? a. Yes b. No 242. What specific action is required for a green pulsating advisory? a. Crew monitor b. ECAM actions c. QRH procedures 243. BTV aims to: a. Decelerate the aircraft in order to reach 20 kts by 65 mtrs before the runway exit b. Decelerate the aircraft in order to reach 15 kts by 65 mtrs before the runway exit c. Decelerate the aircraft in order to reach 10 kts by 65 mtrs before the runway exit  Page: 45 Issue : 00 7-2016 A350 QUESTIONS BANK Revision : 00 7-2016 244. What is the objective of BTV? a. To minimize crew workload b. To enhance safety c. To optimize runway occupancy time 245. Is BTV certified on all runway conditions? a. Yes b. Only on dry and wet runways c. Only on dry runways 246. Can you use BTV when the active NOTAM states “slippery when wet”? a. Yes b. No 247. What is the correct crew procedure to follow before arming the BTV? a. No special procedure, just arm BTV b. Must insert applicable threshold shift in the ANF c. Must insert applicable runway end and threshold SHFT in the ANF 248. After the flight crew has armed the BTV, what must they check? BTV light on: a. Crosscheck LDA appears on upper left corner of the ND b. Crosscheck LDA appears on the upper right corner of the ND c. Crosscheck that no LDA can be seen on the ND 249. What is the correct BTV procedure when there is a runway change? a. Display ANF in PLAN mode, click on new runway QFU, click on SET LDG RWY, BTV automatically disarms, select new BTV exit, press A/BRK on, BTV appears on FMA, check LDA between ANF and charts b. Display ANF in PLAN mode, click on new runway QFU, click on SET LDG RWY, select new BTV exit, press A/BRK on, BTV appears on ND, check LDA between ANF and charts c. Display ANF in PLAN mode, click on new runway QFU, click on SET LDG RWY, BTV automatically disarms, select new BTV exit. 250. When BTV is armed, can the flight crew modify the BTV exit without disarming BTV? a. Yes b. No 251. When BTV is armed, can the end label be displayed? a. Yes  Page: 46 Issue : 00 7-2016 A350 QUESTIONS BANK Revision : 00 7-2016 b. No 252. What happens with the BTV when a late runway change occurs? a. The BTV remains armed and functions as normal b. When BTV detects landing runway is different at 500ft, it reverts to basic auto brake mode (BRK LO) c. When BTV detects landing runway is different at 300ft, it reverts to basic auto brake mode (BRK MED) 253. Does BTV remain operative in the case of overweight landing? a. Yes b. No 254. If the crew presses the A/THR instinctive disconnect pb in time on the ground, what will happen? a. The A/THR system disconnects b. The A/BRAKE system disconnects c. The A/P disconnects 255. If the crew presses the A/THR instinctive disconnect pb twice, in time on the ground, what will happen? a. The A/THR system disconnects b. The A/BRAKE off memo disappears c. The A/BRAKE memo disappears and the single chime cancels 256. In the case of a missed exit, what should the crew do? a. Deactivate BTV, taxi to the next appropriate exit, manage braking manually b. Allow BTV to increase brake application up to 0.35g c. No action required as BTV will automatically take next exit 257. What does BTV take into account for landing on a wet runway? a. Lo braking and idle reverse b. Max braking and idle reverse c. Braking only d. Full reverse 258. Is it recommended to fly manually with the FDs on? a. Yes b. No 259. What is the “triple click”?  Page: 47 Issue : 00 7-2016 A350 QUESTIONS BANK Revision : 00 7-2016 a. A caution to the crew b. An attention getter c. An alert designed to wake the crew 260. Can the ROW/ROP correctly detect the landing runway? a. Yes b. No c. Under certain conditions and with correct input by the crew 261. The rudder can be used to introduce roll and counter roll induced by any type of turbulence. a. True b. False 262. The height of the aircraft above the terrain display as shown on the VD is: a. Geographically correct and varies with altimeter setting b. Geographically correct and does not vary with altimeter setting c. Geometrically correct and varies with altimeter setting d. Geometrically correct and does not vary with altimeter setting 263. When WX pb is pressed on the EFIS CP, is a complete display available immediately? a. Yes, because there is no buffer to fill b. No, because it takes 30secs to fill the buffer with radar data c. No, because it takes 45 secs to fill the buffer with radar data d. No, because it takes 60 secs to fill the buffer with radar data 264. Should the flight crew press the APU fire test pb if the APU is already running? a. No b. Yes 265. During cockpit preparation, who is responsible to compute preliminary take off data? a. Captain via the OIS b. F/O via the OIS c. Each crew member independently via the OIS 266. What happens if the ENG start selector remains in the IGN/START position after engine start? a. It will allow continuous ignition on the ground b. It will prevent continuous ignition on the ground c. It will provide continuous electrical supply to the igniters on ground and in flight  Page: 48 Issue : 00 7-2016 A350 QUESTIONS BANK Revision : 00 7-2016 267. Is the triggering of the alpha lock function a normal situation in any case? a. It is not a normal situation and occurs when angle of attack goes beyond 8 degrees b. It is not a normal situation and occurs when flaps are retracted at low speed (below 165kts) and angle of attack more than 8 degrees c. It is a normal situation at high gross weight 268. The crew should enter wind and temperature changes into the F-PLN of the FMS when between waypoints: a. There is a 30 degree change in wind direction b. There is a 30kt velocity change c. There is a 5 degree Celsius temperature deviation d. All of the above are correct. 269. What factors can cause a speed decay in cruise on an aircraft with no failures? a. Increasing tailwind b. Decreasing headwind c. Increase in OAT d. Large downdraft e. All of the above are correct 270. What is the definition of thrust margin? a. Difference between climb thrust and TOGA thrust b. Difference between actual thrust and maximum available thrust c. Difference between actual thrust and MCT 271. When does the “REC MAX FL” decrease in flight? a. As aircraft weight changes b. As wind changes and decreases c. As OAT increases 272. What does GREENDOT speed do? a. It is optimum lift/drag speed b. It uses lowest quantity of thrust to maintain required/desired altitude c. All of the above are correct 273. What does the REC MAX FL indicate? a. It indicates current engine and wing performance b. It indicates the cost aspect c. It provides 0.5g margin  Page: 49 Issue : 00 7-2016 A350 QUESTIONS BANK Revision : 00 7-2016 274. How should the crew perform the gear bay fire test? a. They should not, it is a maintenance function b. They should test it before every flight through the gear bay fire test pb c. They should test it with the APU fire test pb 275. The ANF function takes into account NOTAMS concerning taxi way closures. a. True b. False 276. What is the maximum nose wheel steering angle at low speeds with full rudder deflection? a. 4 degrees b. 6 degrees c. 8 degrees 277. The nose wheel steering system is efficient up to what speed? a. 50 kts b. 100 kts c. 150 kts 278. What is the appropriate pit