AILET_2024_BA_LLB_Question_Paper_842772c1210dca9f935ed1f7e5b299c7.pdf

Question Booklet Sl. No. LL.B. ADMISSION TEST – 2024 Date of Exam : Center’s Name : ___________________________ Duration : 120 Minutes Roll No. : _______________...

Question Booklet Sl. No. LL.B. ADMISSION TEST – 2024 Date of Exam : Center’s Name : ___________________________ Duration : 120 Minutes Roll No. : ___________________________ Max. Marks : 150 OMR Sheet No. : ___________________________ INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES 1. No clarification on the Question Paper can be sought. Answer the questions as they are. 2. There will be 150 Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) of one mark each to be answered in the OMR Response Sheet only. Total marks are 150. Answer ALL the Questions. 3. There will be Negative Marking for Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs). For every wrong answer 0.25 marks will be deducted. 4. Candidates have to indicate the most appropriate answer by darkening one of the four responses provided, with only BLACK/BLUE BALL POINT PEN in the OMR Response Sheet. M Example : For the question, “Where is the Taj Mahal located ?” (a) Kolkata (b) Agra (c) Bhopal (d) Delhi Right Method Wrong Methods ——————— ————————————————————— a b c d a b c d a b c d a b c d 5. Answering the question by any method other than the method mentioned above shall be considered wrong answer. 6. More than one response to a question shall be counted as wrong answer. 7. The candidate shall not write anything on the OMR Response Sheet other than the details required and in the spaces provided for. 8. After the examination is over, the candidate can carry the Question Booklet along with candidate’s copy of the OMR Response Sheet. Candidate will hand over the original OMR Response Sheet to the invigilator. 9. The use of any unfair means by any candidate will result in the cancellation of his/her candidature. 10. Impersonation is an offence and the candidate, apart from disqualification, may have to face criminal prosecution. 11. Electronic gadgets like mobile phones, digital watch, pagers and calculators etc. are strictly not permitted inside the Test Centre/Hall. 12. The candidates shall not leave the hall before the end of the Test. M -1-  LLB BREAK-UP OF MARKS Section Subject Marks Q. No. Page No. A English 50 1 – 50 3 – 16 Current Affairs B and General 30 51 – 80 17 – 22 Knowledge C Logical Reasoning 70 81 – 150 23 – 42 Total Marks 150 M -2-  LLB SECTION – A : E g n lish I. Read the given extract and answer the following questions by choosing the most appropriate answer. The past century has drastically changed the concept of community, no matter if you live in a rural area, a suburban neighbourhood, or an urban metropolis. Families no longer co-habitat as intergenerationally as they once did, especially as the appeal of the nuclear family began to increase. The move from rural living to urban lifestyles to suburbia and then back to city-life has meant that extended families often fracture and live further and further apart. We are often caught up in the reality of constant “busy-ness” that we don’t take the time to get to know our neighbours. And social media has redefined “connection” and “friendship,” leaving us staring at screens more than engaging with the people around us. The impact of this is apparent on parents and children. The adage “it takes a village to raise a child” is absolutely still true. But somewhere along the way, we’ve lost the “village” we need to raise kids in nurturing, creative, and safe ways. And as a result, families are missing out on crucial learning experiences and much needed support systems. n the end, many parents I feel isolated and alone in their struggles, and kids don’t have the opportunity to engage with a diverse group of people and personalities. 1. The primary reason for breaking up of the traditional community set up is a) preference for expanding suburban neighbourhoods. b) attraction of the small family unit. c) changing concept of cohabiting in the modern world. d) the lack of desire to live with the oldest family members. 2. The reason people do not know their neighbour very well is because a) they are always in transit. b) their lifestyle is self-destructive. c) they are constantly preoccupied with their own affairs. d) their self-centredness keeps them from interacting with the neighbour. 3. The writer’s attitude towards the ‘connections’ formed via social media is a) disparaging b) concurrence c) apathetic d) elusive -3- M  LLB 4. Which of the following statements is incorrect with respect to the passage? a) The community provides a safe and healthy environment for positive interaction with the children. b) Crucial learning experiences and much needed support systems at home clash with the values of the community. c) The collective effort of the community raises children in nurturing, creative, and safe ways. d) Modern communities lack meaningful interactions, leaving the parents feeling isolated and alone in their struggles. 5. Statement 1: People are available to raise other people’s children. Statement 2: The nature of communities has undergone tremendous transformation regardless of their location. Choose the most appropriate answer. a) Both statements are true and 2 is the correct explanation of 1. b) Both statements are true but 2 is not the correct explanation of 1. c) Statement 1 is true but statement 2 is false. d) Statement 1 is false but statement 2 is true. II. Read the given extract and answer the following questions by choosing the most appropriate answer. used to be the person that would strive for perfection from the beginning I of a creative process. With more time given at the beginning an obvious decline of quality is seen and it has become a pattern all throughout my other works. Here’s why had to change my system of production. I Being stuck at the beginning of a creative process (i.e., writing, designing, painting) due to overthinking will have a ripple effect on the entire output. n art school, ’ve had many classmates taking their time planning on how I I to produce a material and half of the time given for production was wasted. They then had more pressure to finish their works just to meet the deadline and sacrifice the quality of output all together. Being a working student to help support myself in school, never had the I luxury of time that my classmates had when we were in college; when we were given a project, started immediately. call my process “Finished, Not I I Perfect Method” (FNPM). FNPM allows me to be efficient. I divide the amount of time I have by the number of parts my project has - Beginning, Middle, End, mprovements. I Each part is given focus and time for potential improvements or changes. A friend or two could tell you what their opinion is and you may add the necessary changes based on their input. However, keep the maximum number of people you consult for opinion to two. Anything more than that will create more opinions that will paralyse you from progressing later on. M -4-  LLB When your work can give what’s needed and you’ve finished your work on time (if not earlier) then the next step is to stop and find a way to be happy about it. Contentment is important in this stage for people always feel regret for not doing their best in a work they’ve laboured so hard for. 6. Although the writer described herself as being a perfectionist, the eventual quality of her work was____? Choose the most appropriate answer. a) dilapidated. b) disappointing. c) devastating. d) distorted. 7. ‘Overthinking’ posed a big hurdle for the narrator as a) she would be coerced into being dull. b) she would sulk over her spoiled assignments. c) it would not allow her to start her work. d) it would make her anxious about her submission. 8. dentify the sequence of events that ultimately led to art school students I submitting subpar work. (1) quality of work compromised to meet the deadline (2) large amount of time invested on planning (3) mounting pressure to complete the task (4) wasted half of the time in production Choose the appropriate option: a) (2), (3), (4), (1) b) (2), (3), (1), (4) c) (2), (4), (3), (1) d) (2), (4), (1), (3) 9. ‘Ripple effect’ means a) the continuing and spreading results of an event or action. b) the cumulative effect produced when one event sets off a chain of similar or other events. c) anything that can go wrong will go wrong. d) moving in a circular path towards the centre of the circle. 10. ‘Time’ is referred to as a ‘luxury’ because a) she had to work after classes and thus, could not spare any time. b) she had a lot of time on her hands to get things done slowly. c) time was a valuable commodity she paid a heavy price for. d) she was mostly running out of time because of overthinking. 11. The writer had to innovate her “Finished, Not Perfect Method” (FNPM) since: a) she had to get better grades than her privileged classmates. b) her overthinking pattern was a dismal failure. c) she had very little time to spare. d) chasing perfection never got her work done. -5- M  LLB 12. Segregating the various parts of the project helps a) while consulting friends for their opinion. b) to work on each part separately and improve it. c) to reduce production time at the beginning. d) reduces stress that is usually accompanied by missed deadlines. III. Read the given extract and answer the following questions by choosing the most appropriate answer. n recent years, medical schools and institutions have increasingly integrated I VR (Virtual Reality) into their curriculum, offering near real experiences for training future healthcare professionals. While VR offers numerous advantages in medical training, it also presents significant challenges that must be addressed. One of the primary benefits of VR in medical education is its ability to provide realistic and immersive simulations of medical procedures. Medical students can use VR to practice surgeries, diagnose illnesses, and engage in patient interactions in a controlled and risk-free environment. These simulations allow students to gain valuable hands-on experience before they encounter real patients, thereby increasing their confidence and competence. Furthermore, VR can enhance the understanding of complex anatomical structures. By immersing students in 3D models of the human body, they can explore organs, tissues, and systems from various angles, improving their spatial awareness and comprehension. This interactive learning experience fosters a deeper understanding of human anatomy, a crucial foundation for medical practice. However, the integration of VR into medical education is not without its challenges. Firstly, the cost of implementing VR technology in medical schools can be substantial. High-quality VR equipment and software require a significant financial investment, which may strain the budgets of educational institutions. Additionally, ongoing maintenance and updates are necessary to ensure the technology remains effective. Another challenge lies in the development of accurate and comprehensive VR medical simulations. Creating realistic virtual patients and medical scenarios that mimic real-world complexities demands extensive research and development efforts. Ensuring the accuracy of simulations is crucial to the educational value of VR training. Moreover, VR raises concerns about potential over-reliance on technology. Medical students must strike a balance between virtual training and hands-on clinical experience. While VR offers a safe and controlled environment for learning, it cannot replace the valuable lessons learned through direct patient interaction. M -6-  LLB To sum up, Virtual Reality has the potential to transform medical education but it also presents financial and developmental challenges, as well as concerns about balancing virtual and real-world experiences. Addressing these challenges will be crucial in harnessing the full potential of VR for medical education. 13. This passage most likely appeared as part of a __________. Complete the sentence with an appropriate option. a) technology magazine feature b) medical school’s informational brochure c) government report on education d) debate on the future of medical training 14. The author’s primary purpose in this passage is __________ a) To advocate for the complete replacement of traditional medical training with VR. b) To provide a balanced discussion of the advantages and challenges of using VR in medical education. c) To persuade readers to invest in VR technology for medical schools. d) To critique the high cost of VR equipment in medical education. 15. The passage mentions “immersive experiences” to emphasise _________ a) The potential for escapism in VR. b) The intensity and realism of VR training. c) The need for virtual tours of medical facilities. d) The limited scope of VR simulations. 16. dentify the sentence in the passage that contains a participial phrase. I a) ‘Virtual reality technology has been steadily advancing.’ b) ‘This immersive experience can significantly enhance their learning.’ c) ‘ t allows them to practice complex surgical procedures.’ I d) ‘The medical students, wearing VR headsets, feel as if they are in an operating room.’ 17. According to the passage, why is the cost of implementing VR in medical schools a challenge? a) VR technology is difficult to maintain. b) VR equipment is currently unavailable. c) VR requires a significant financial investment. d) VR simulations are not realistic enough. -7- M  LLB 18. What does the passage suggest about the balance between VR training and hands-on clinical experience? a) VR training can entirely replace hands-on clinical experience. b) VR training should be the sole focus of medical education. c) Clinical experience is no longer relevant in medical education. d) A balance between VR training and real-world experience is essential. 19. The author’s discussion of the challenges of VR in medical education is primarily intended to ______ a) Present a well-rounded view of the topic. b) Convince readers that VR is not suitable for medical training. c) Discourage investment in VR technology. d) Highlight the need for more research and development in VR. 20. Which word from paragraphs 4-5, in the passage could be substituted with ‘financially burden’, without changing the meaning? a) integration b) accuracy c) mimic d) strain 21. In the passage, the phrase ‘fosters a deeper understanding’, is best defined as – a) Promotes a more profound insight. b) Creates a stronger resistance. c) Reduces the complexity of. d) Develops a superficial grasp of. 22. Which of the following, if true, would most weaken the conclusion that addressing the challenges is crucial for harnessing the full potential of VR in medical education? a) Medical schools are rapidly adopting VR without considering the costs. b) Traditional medical training methods are becoming less effective. c) VR technology is becoming more affordable and accessible. d) VR simulations can replace all aspects of clinical experience. IV. Read the given extract and answer the following questions by choosing the most appropriate answer. Why do we relentlessly pursue these gleaming awards and coveted certificates? These tokens of recognition, ranging from simple course completion certificates to the grandeur of global trophies, what drives us? Do we not have an innate sense of our own value? The human pursuit of accolades and certificates, an intricate interplay of self-worth, external validation, and societal pressures. M -8-  LLB At the heart of our chase for these honours lies an unquenchable thirst for acknowledgment and validation. No matter how confident or self-assured one may be, the allure of external validation is irresistible. t’s not about I doubting our capabilities; it’s about the affirmation that our dedication and hard work have been seen, recognized, and applauded. n this light, awards I and certificates stand not just as tokens but as symbols of our relentless pursuit of excellence. Our relentless pursuit of accolades is deeply woven into the fabric of our society. From an early age, we are indoctrinated to compete, to shine in academics, sports, or our careers. Society’s measure of success often hinges on these tangible milestones, which illustrate our ability not just to meet but to exceed expectations. Moreover, these recognitions bestow an unparalleled sense of accomplishment and pride. They are emblematic of the tireless hours, the unwavering dedication, and the indomitable spirit invested in chasing our dreams. This recognition is transformative, elevating an individual’s self-esteem, inspiring them to reach for the stars, and to redefine their self-worth. The satisfaction gleaned from these acknowledgments extends beyond the realm of external validation; it is an ode to personal growth. However, as we embark on this relentless journey, we must tread with caution. A relentless pursuit of external validation can lead to a superficial sense of self-worth. A person’s true worth cannot be distilled from the certificates adorning their walls or the trophies glittering on their shelves. Intrinsic motivation and personal fulfilment must hold equal sway. To conclude, our burning desire for awards and certificates mirrors our unyielding quest for recognition, validation, and the unquenchable sense of accomplishment they bring. These accolades undeniably hold great significance, but we must not forget that our self-worth should not be tethered solely to the whims of external validation. Our achievements are undeniably important, but they represent just one facet of our intricate, multi-dimensional identities. 23. What is the tone of the passage? a) Informative b) Reflective c) Persuasive d) Ironic 24. What is the cause-and-effect relationship presented in the passage? a) Cause: Pursuit of awards and certificates, Effect: Increased self-worth b) Cause: ntrinsic motivation, Effect: Pursuit of awards I c) Cause: Unquenchable sense of accomplishment, Effect: Extrinsic validation d) Cause: ronic tone, Effect: Entertainment of readers I -9- M  LLB 25. What is the purpose of the word “relentless” in the passage? a) To describe the journey as short-lived. b) To emphasise the continuous and persistent nature of the pursuit. c) To indicate a sudden change in direction. d) To convey a sense of calm and tranquillity. 26. Which of the following, if true, would most weaken the conclusion that external validation is superficial in determining self-worth? a) ndividuals who possess numerous awards tend to have high I self-esteem. b) The pursuit of awards and certificates is often driven by personal goals and intrinsic motivation. c) People who lack external validation through awards still maintain high levels of self-worth. d) Studies show that individuals with more certificates are perceived as more competent by employers. 27. The author would probably agree with which of the following statements? a) “Awards and certificates are the sole determinants of self-worth.” b) “ ntrinsic motivation plays no role in the pursuit of external I validation.” c) “The pursuit of awards and certificates is driven by societal pressures.” d) “Personal growth is solely influenced by external validation.” 28. The author implies that pursuing awards and certificates would be _____ to personal growth. Choose the most appropriate answer. a) detrimental b) irrelevant c) integral d) insignificant 29. Given the author’s position on the pursuit of awards and certificates, what stand would the author probably take on the issue of external recognition in academia? a) The author would argue for stricter external recognition criteria in academia. b) The author would likely advocate for a reduced emphasis on external recognition in academia. c) The author would insist on increasing the number of awards available in academia. d) The author would emphasise the importance of formal dress codes in academic institutions. M -10-  LLB 30. n the passage, which sentence correctly uses the past perfect tense? I a) “Our relentless pursuit of accolades is deeply woven into the fabric of our society.” b) “No matter how confident or self-assured one may be, the allure of external validation is irresistible.” c) “The human pursuit of accolades and certificates, an intricate interplay of self-worth, external validation, and societal pressures.” d) “These recognitions had been elusive until recently, but now they have become more attainable.” 31. Which of the following substitutions for ‘emblematic of’ in the given sentence would NOT change the meaning of the quoted sentence?” They are emblematic of the tireless hours, the unwavering dedication, and the indomitable spirit invested in chasing our dreams a) Similar to b) Representative of c) Proof of d) Conducive to 32. What is the writer’s aim in referring to people as “multi-dimensional identities”? a) To emphasise that individuals possess numerous facets that contribute to their complexity. b) To suggest that people are hard to understand and often contradictory. c) To indicate that individuals should focus on their external accomplishments. d) To convey that people have only one defining trait that leads them to success. V. Read the following passage and answer the following questions by choosing the most appropriate answer. n recent years, electric vehicles (EVs) have emerged as a catalyst for change, I not only in terms of sustainable transportation but also in empowering individuals to become micro-entrepreneurs. Particularly in Tier 2 markets, where access to traditional job opportunities may be limited, EVs have opened up new avenues for women to assert their economic independence and contribute significantly to household income. According to our data, an inspiring 25% of women in these markets have embraced the EV platform as a means to earn their livelihoods. Electric vehicles, be it e-rickshaws, e-carts, or e-bikes, offer an affordable and eco-friendly mode of transportation that can be easily adopted by individuals. This has allowed women to enter various service sectors like last-mile delivery, transportation, and local commuting, empowering them to generate income and uplift their communities. -11- M  LLB 33. The popularity of EVs can be ascribed to it being (1) the latest technology. (2) a sustainable mode of transportation. (3) a means of empowerment. (4) easily available. Choose the most appropriate answer. a) (1) and (2) b) (1) and (4) c) (2) and (3) d) (2) and (4) 34. A significant limitation in Tier 2 cities is a) the lack of enough EVs b) the dearth of sufficient number of jobs c) the slow pace of development d) the absence of adequate number of entrepreneurs 35. The use of the word “catalyst” conveys that it is something a) that initiates a sudden and important change. b) that becomes the end to justify the means. c) that contributes to sustainable growth. d) surfaces at regular intervals of time. 36. Statement 1: EVs are extremely versatile and have a wider range to offer. Statement 2: More women than men have bought EVs. Choose the most appropriate answer. a) Both statements are true and 2 is the correct explanation of 1. b) Both statements are true but 2 is not the correct explanation of 1. c) Statement 1 is true but statement 2 is false. d) Statement 1 is false but statement 2 is true. 37. “Last-mile delivery” refers to the journey of the product a) reaching the customer’s doorstep. b) in the back of a delivery truck. c) from the warehouse shelf. d) at the manufacturing plant. 38. n which of the following sentences is the word ‘avenue’ used in the same I sense as given in the passage? a) As you go through the entrance, you are surrounded by an avenue of golden trees. b) The authors suggest several further avenues of research in which their findings could prove useful. c) n spite of the late hour, the lights at 22 Canning Avenue were still ablaze. I d) One of these improvements consists of a central avenue cut across the old city to the water-front. M -12-  LLB 39. n which sectors have electric vehicles (EVs) enabled women to generate I income and empower their communities in Tier 2 markets? a) Healthcare and education b) Agriculture and farming c) Last-mile delivery, transportation, and local commuting d) Manufacturing and heavy industries VI. Read the following passage and answer the following questions by choosing the most appropriate answer. t is not surprising that students are experiencing a wide range of mental I health challenges, such as paralyzing stress, anxiety and depression. n I 2021-22, the National Health Survey found that college students’ anxiety and depression were at historic levels, with 37 percent reporting some anxiety and 44 percent experiencing some depression in the two weeks prior to the survey. Moreover, approximately 83 percent reported that emotional or mental difficulties had impaired their academic performance at some time during the month prior to taking the survey. Although some observers might try to dismiss these statistics as just a result of the pandemic, national data suggest that mental health issues were on the rise before the virus arrived. t is vital that institutions pay more attention and take more responsibility I for their part in causing these trends. Research in this area suggests that cultivating caring, affirming and connected communities on college campuses is critical when it comes to mental health. Networks of professors, staff and fellow students who care can become lifelines when college stressors become all consuming. And if colleges affirm student cultures, values and identities, they can boost students’ self-esteem and sense of empowerment, help them feel less isolated and promote a greater sense of belonging. Prioritizing caring, connected and affirming communities helps more students thrive. A curriculum that allows students to simultaneously deepen their connections to their community’s cultural values and their learning environment can help them feel like they belong to both. Research also shows that culturally relevant learning experiences improve academic success. Campuses therefore should provide mental health services that are culturally responsive, via professionals who understand diverse student backgrounds and experiences. Offering counselling services, support groups and outreach programs designed for diverse communities can help students feel understood and supported. 40. Based on the data from the National Health Survey, what could be a potential consequence for educational institutions if they don’t address the mental health challenges of their students? a) mproved student performance I b) No impact on the institution c) Decreased student enrolment d) Decreased academic success and retention rates -13- M  LLB 41. n what ways might educational institutions contribute to the rising trend I in student mental health challenges, as mentioned in the paragraph? a) Higher educational institutions have no role in this trend b) By appointing dedicated mentors for all students c) Through insufficient awareness and support for student mental health d) By increasing the academic rigor 42. What broader implications can be drawn from the statistics in the paragraph for the overall well-being of society? a) An indication of the need for more stringent admission standards in educational institutions to address mental health concerns b) A potential decline in workforce productivity and innovation due to mental health issues c) An increased emphasis on academic rigor and competitiveness in the job market d) A call for re-evaluation of social support systems to address mental health challenges, as these issues extend beyond educational institutions 43. According to research, what is the relationship between culturally relevant learning experiences and academic success? a) They have no correlation b) Culturally relevant learning experiences primarily hinder academic success c) Culturally relevant learning experiences can improve academic success d) They are only relevant for certain student populations 44. What is the significance of a curriculum that allows students to deepen their connections to both their community’s cultural values and their learning environment? a) t hinders academic success I b) t has no impact on the sense of belonging I c) t helps students feel like they belong to both the institution and their I culture d) t emphasizes academic rigidity I VII. Read the following passage and answer the following questions by choosing the most appropriate answer. Linguistics, an intricate and ever-evolving academic discipline, has undergone a remarkable transformation in recent decades, transcending its origins as a mere study of language to become a profound exploration of the complexities of human cognition and communication. The expanding purview of linguistics is a testament to its growing significance in understanding our world and enhancing our technological prowess. M -14-  LLB One of the most fundamental paradigm shift within linguistics has been its transition from a prescriptive to a descriptive approach. Early linguistic studies, embodied by the structuralist principles of Ferdinand de Saussure, predominantly focused on normative rules and language structures. However, the advent of modern linguistics, spearheaded by Noam Chomsky’s groundbreaking generative grammar theory, has heralded a new era of linguistic inquiry—one that seeks to understand not how languages should be used but how they are used in practice. This transformation has enabled linguists to uncover the underlying universals that govern human language, revealing its intricate tapestry. The synergy between linguistics and computer science has been instrumental in shaping our digital age. The birth of computational linguistics has given rise to transformative technologies, such as machine translation, speech recognition, and sentiment analysis. These applications, weaving the intricacies of human language with cutting-edge technology, have revolutionised fields as diverse as e-commerce, healthcare, and social media. The confluence of linguistics and computer science continues to chart new frontiers, shedding light on the symbiotic relationship between humans and machines. Moreover, interdisciplinary collaborations have propelled linguistics into uncharted territories. Cognitive linguistics marries linguistic theory with insights from psychology, neuroscience, and anthropology, unravelling the profound interplay between language and human cognition. Sociolinguistics and anthropological linguistics delve into the social and cultural dimensions of language, elucidating linguistic variations and their socio-cultural implications. This interdisciplinary nexus enriches our understanding of how language permeates all facets of human life. 45. What does the term ‘ever-evolving’ imply in the first paragraph? a) Linguistics is becoming stagnant and unchanging. b) Linguistics is a dynamic field that continuously develops and changes. c) Linguistics has reached its peak and will not change further. d) Linguistics is regressing and losing its significance. 46. Which option does NOT correctly infer the meaning based on the following sentence from the first paragraph? “The expanding purview of linguistics is a testament to its growing significance in understanding our world and enhancing our technological prowess.” a) Linguistics plays a significant role in our comprehension of the world and technological advancements. b) The scope of linguistics has grown, reflecting its increasing importance in understanding our world and advancing our technological capabilities. c) Linguistics has a declining influence on our understanding of the world and technological advancements. d) Expanding the field of linguistics has led to a greater focus on understanding the world and enhancing our technological capabilities. -15- M  LLB 47. Why has the writer used the word “tapestry” in the phrase “revealing its intricate tapestry”? a) To emphasise the colourful and decorative nature of linguistic studies. b) To suggest that linguistics involves the crafting of physical artworks. c) To indicate the presence of hidden and mysterious aspects in linguistics. d) To imply that linguistics is like a woven fabric of interconnected elements. 48. Select the option that correctly analyses the impact of the writer’s use of words like “synergy” and “confluence”. a) To highlight the tension and conflicts between linguistics and computer science. b) To illustrate the collision of linguistic theories with computer science, creating chaos in both fields. c) To describe the harmonious collaboration between linguistics and computer science, resulting in transformative technologies. d) To depict the isolation of linguistics from other academic disciplines and its struggle to adapt. 49. How can the relationship between humans and machines be described as ‘symbiotic’ ? (paragraph 3) a) Because machines fully depend on humans for their functionality. b) As humans and machines work together, benefiting from each other’s capabilities. c) Because machines have replaced humans in various linguistic tasks. d) As humans have become overly reliant on machines for linguistic analysis. 50. What is an example of an interdisciplinary collaboration mentioned in the passage? (Paragraph 4) a) Collaboration between linguistics and art history to study language’s visual representation. b) Collaboration between linguistics and chemistry to analyse language composition. c) Collaboration between linguistics and psychology, neuroscience, and anthropology to understand the interplay between language and human cognition. d) Collaboration between linguistics and astronomy to explore the influence of celestial bodies on human languages. M -16-  LLB SECTION – B : CURRENT AFFAIRS AND ENERAL KNOWLED E G G 51. The ‘COP26’ conference has been a significant global event. What is its primary focus? a) An annual event celebrating cinematic achievements b) A global summit addressing climate change and environmental sustainability c) A technology conference for the gaming industry d) A forum for discussions on international trade agreements 52. A key thrust area for the Supreme Court of ndia has been towards securing I diversity and inclusion in its ranks. Who was the first woman judge of the Supreme Court of ndia? I a) Justice Ranjana Prakash Desai b) Justice BV Nagarathna c) Justice M Fathima Beevi d) Justice Sujata V Manohar 53. What does the Gross Domestic Product (GDP) measure? a) Total government revenue collection and expenditure incurred during a financial year b) Total money in circulation in the economy at any given point of time c) s a measure of income distribution and inequality within a country I d) Broadly understood as the final value of the goods and services produced within the geographic boundaries of a country during a specified period of time 54. The Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) were adopted by the United Nations in 2015 as a universal call for peace and prosperity. Which of the following statements about SDGs is NOT true? a) Plan of action for people, plant and prosperity b) Development must balance social, economic and environmental sustainability c) Creativity, knowhow, technology and financial resources from all of society is necessary to achieve the goals in every context d) Rank countries according to their economic growth and GDP per capita 55. n 1960 a Standford Professor, Walter Mischel, conducted an interesting I experiment called the ‘Marshmallow Experiment’ to test the connection between delayed gratification and better success later in various facets of life. The outcome of the experiment can also be referred to as: a) Present Bias b) G..Joe Fallacy I c) Cognitive Dissonance d) Confirmation Bias -17- M  LLB 56. Which international agreements remain central in efforts to enable a permanent solution to the geopolitical tensions between Russia and Ukraine? a) Minsk Agreements b) Geneva Conventions c) Baku Accords d) Moscow Peace Treaty 57. The world’s tallest statue, an ode to Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel, situated in Kevadia, Gujarat is also referred to as a) Statue of Equality b) Statue of ndependence I c) Statue of Unity d) Statue of Belief 58. n 2022, ndia introduced the KAVACH system, which is: I I a) indigenously developed Automatic Train Protection (ATP) System b) software network developed by DRDO and used by intelligence agencies to intercept and analyse internet traffic c) constellation of remote sensing satellites to monitor weather patterns and early warning of natural disaster d) indigenously developed counter drone systems most recently deployed during the G20 summit 59. The ‘Five Eyes Alliance’ is a global intelligence network, pooling resources and sharing sensitive information to collectively secure peace and combat global threat. The following countries make up the alliance: a) US, UK, France, Germany, Japan b) US, UK, Australia, Japan, ndia I c) US, UK, Germany, Australia, New Zealand d) US, UK, Canada, Australia, New Zealand 60. The G20 Summit in ndia brought together leaders from the World’s major I economies to address pressing global issues. ndia used this platform to I underscore its commitment to fostering global growth and stability. Which of the following areas was NOT a focus of the summit ? a) Managing Global Debt Vulnerabilities b) Eliminating Hunger and Malnutrition c) Bridging the Gender Digital Divide d) Making space exploration more equitable 61. The ndian Premier League is a professional T20 cricket league. t was I I established in 2008, and has since become one of the most popular cricketing leagues in the world. Which of the following player has played for the same team (franchise) since the inaugural edition? a) David Warner b) Virat Kohli c) Ben Stokes d) Hardik Pandya M -18-  LLB 62. The NASA OS R S-REx mission (Origins, Spectral nterpretation, Resource I I I Identification and Security – Regolith Explorer) recently brought back a capsule of rocks and dust collected from: a) Asteroid Bennu b) Mars c) Saturn’s rings d) Halley’s comet 63. Which is the longest river in ndia ? I a) Godavari b) Ganga c) Narmada d) Mahanadi 64. A key ndian foreign policy initiative is the ‘Act East Policy’. Which statement I correctly captures its objective ? a) is to promote economic cooperation, cultural ties and develop strategic relationship with countries in the Indo-Pacific region b) securing an active intelligence sharing network between ndia, Sri-Lanka I and Bangladesh c) promotes a key partnership to combat human and drug trafficking through South East Asian nations d) promotes India as a hub of scientific education by attracting best minds from various South East Asian nations 65. The Jnanpith Award recognizes the most outstanding contributions in the field of – a) Medicine b) Literature c) Science and Engineering d) Public Affairs 66. Which of the following global companies is led by a CEO of ndian origin? not I a) Starbucks b) Microsoft c) Chanel d) RedBull GmBH 67. The Reserve Bank of ndia having regard to the needs of securing the I monetary stability in the country, prescribes the CRR (Cash Reserve Ratio). Which of the following most closely explains this ratio ? a) percentage of bank’s total deposits that is required to be maintained either in cash or as deposits with the Reserve Bank of ndia I b) minimum rate at which Reserve Bank of ndia lends funds to commercial I bank c) minimum percentage of net profit to cash flow over that banks require to maintain over a financial year d) maximum percentage of deposits that can be extended as loans by a bank at any given point of time 68. Which Author made history by being the first Indian (non-expatriate) to win the Booker Prize? a) Arundhati Roy – God of Small Things b) Kiran Desai – The nheritance of Loss I c) Arvind Adiga – White Tiger d) Chetan Bhagat – Five Point Someone -19- M  LLB 69. Who among the following is a recipient of a Nobel Prize? not a) Mother Teresa b) Kailash Satyarthi c) Amartya Sen d) Mahatma Gandhi 70. Pick the NCORRECT combination. I a) New Horizons – Pluto b) Cassini Huygens – Saturn c) Juno – Jupiter d) gnis – Sun I 71. Which of the following countries is NOT a member of SAARC? a) Afghanistan b) Bhutan c) Cambodia d) Bangladesh 72. Dr. APJ Abdul Kalam, known as the Missile Man of ndia, was instrumental I in the creation of which of these offices? He was also the first person to hold this office. a) Principal Scientific Advisor to the Government of India b) Director of the ndian Space Research Organisation I c) Director of the Defence Research and Development Organisation d) Secretary to the Department of Atomic Energy 73. Which of the following countries have neither signed nor ratified the Rome Statute?. ndia I I. United States of America II. Russian Federation III V. Azerbaijan I Choose the most appropriate answer. a) , , V. b) Only. I II I I c) Only and V. d) All of the above. I I 74. Omar al-Bashir was the first Head of State to be indicted by the International Criminal Court. He was indicted by the Court in relation to which of the following incidents? a) Alleged war crimes committed under his Presidency during the Sudanese civil war. b) Alleged war crimes and crimes against humanity committed at Darfur between at least 2003 to 2008. c) Alleged crimes against humanity of murder and rape committed in the Central African Republic in between 2002 to 2003. d) Alleged crimes against humanity resulting from waging war against South Sudan. M -20-  LLB 75. A big roadblock towards concluding Brexit was the failure of the UK and the EU to agree on transport of goods to reland (a member of the EU) through I Northern reland (one of the constituent countries of the UK). This problem I was resolved with the conclusion of the Windsor framework, effectively the final step in the Brexit process. Which of the following statements about the Windsor Framework are accurate?. t is a tripartite agreement between England, Northern reland, and the I I I United Kingdom.. The agreement proposes to establish red and green lanes for goods II moving into Northern reland to reduce checks and paperwork related I hurdles on such goods.. The agreement does not provide for separation of goods entering Northern III reland from those entering reland. I I V. The agreement is concluded between the United Kingdom and the I European Union. Choose the most appropriate answer. a) , and. I II III b) and V. II I c) Only. II d) , , V. II III I 76. Which of the following statements about BR CS is incorrect? I not. South Africa is not an original member of the BR CS coalition. I I. The bloc was started as an attempt to strategically assist the United II States of America as allies.. The BR CS member countries represent at least 40% of the world’s III I population. V. The acronym for the bloc was coined in 2001 by then Goldman Sachs I chief economist Jim O’Neill in a research paper that underlined the growth potential of Brazil, Russia, ndia and China. I Choose the most appropriate answer. a) and. I II b) Only. II c) , and V. I III I d) All of the above. -21- M  LLB 77. ndia recently hosted the G20 Conference in New Delhi as it served as the I President for the coalition. Which of the following is the only country to have permanent guest invitee status at the G20? a) Spain b) reland I c) South Africa d) Portugal 78. A change in exchange rate leads to a change in supply and demand of foreign goods in the domestic market and domestic goods in the foreign market. This also leads to an imbalance in the balance of payments. What is Balance of Payments? a) Balance of payments is the statement of a country’s trade with other nations. b) Balance of payments is the money a country owes other nations. c) Balance of payments is the money owed to a country from another nation. d) None of the above. 79. The gaming industry witnessed its largest acquisition in recent history involving the following major entities: a) Microsoft – Activision b) Sony - Nintendo c) Apple – Tencent d) Google – Electronic Arts 80. SRO’s PSLV has been the workhorse for ndian space programme, launching I I many critical payloads including the recent Chandrayaan mission. What does PSLV stand for? a) Plasma Synthesis Launch Vehicle b) Planetary Surface Lander Vehicle c) Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle d) Planetary Survey and Lander Vehicle M -22-  LLB SECTION – C : LO ICAL REASONIN G G 81. All Supreme Court judgements are binding on all High Courts. All High Court judgements have persuasive value in other High Courts. Some High Court judgements also have persuasive value in the Supreme Court. Examine the following statements:. Some High Court judgments are binding on the Supreme Court. I. Some judgements with persuasive value are binding on High Courts. II. Some High Court judgements are persuasive in both the Supreme Court III and the High Courts. Choose the most appropriate answer. a) Only follows. b) Both & follow. I I II c) Only follows. d) Both & follow. III II III 82. All ducks are birds. Some birds fly, and no reptiles are birds. A snake is a reptile. f the above are true, which of the following would also be true? I a) Snakes do not fly. b) No snakes are ducks. c) All ducks fly. d) Some birds are snakes. 83. All Cats are singers. All birds dance. Some Cats are birds. Albert Einstein is a Singer. Examine the following statements:. Albert Einstein does not dance I. Albert Einstein dances II. Albert Einstein is a bird III V. Albert Einstein is not a bird I V. Albert Einstein is not a cat V. Albert Einstein is a cat I Which of the following conclusion(s) is necessarily correct? Choose the most appropriate answer. a) Only and V b) Only , and V III I II III c) Only d) None of the above III 84. All Watches are Chronographs. Some Chronographs are antiques. All Antiques are expensive. D is a Chronograph. Which of the statement necessarily follows ? a) D is a watch b) f ‘D’ is antique, it must be a watch I c) D must be expensive d) None of the above -23- M  LLB 85. All Philosophers are logicians. Some logicians are critical thinkers. All Critical thinkers are rationalist. Z is a rationalist. Examine the following statements:. Z is a logician I. Z may be a logician II. Z is a Philosopher III V. Z is a critical thinker I Choose the most appropriate answer. a) Only V b) Only and V I III I c) Only d) None of the above II 86. Some Rivers are Ponds. All Ponds are Ocean. No Ocean is Sea. Examine the conclusions: ) Some Ponds are Sea I ) All Rivers are Ocean II ) Some Sea may be a River III Which of the conclusions necessarily follows ? Choose the most appropriate answer: a) Only b) Only I II c) Only d) None of the above III 87. Some Ships are Boats. All Boats are ubmarines. Some Submarines are s Yachts. Examine the following statements: ) Some Yachts are Boats I ) Some Submarines are Ships II ) Some Yachts are Ships III Choose the most appropriate answer: a) Only b) Only I II c) Only d) None of the above III 88. All States are ountries. Only some ountries are States. Some States c c are democratic. Given that X is democratic, examine the following conclusions:. X is a State I. X is a country II. X is not a State III V. X is not a country I Choose the most appropriate answer: a) Only follows. I b) and follow. I II c) and V follow. III I d) None of the four conclusions necessarily follow. M -24-  LLB 89. Statement I: All books are valuables. Statement II: Some souvenirs are books. Statement III: Some books are souvenirs. Statement IV: No valuables are souvenirs. Choose the most appropriate answer: a) Statements , and are consistent with each other. I II III b) Statements ,II and V are consistent with each other. III I c) Both ‘a’ and ‘b’ are correct. d) None of the above. 90. All lions are animals. No animal is a zombie. All zombies are rainbows. All rainbows are zombies. Given this information, which of the options necessarily follows ? a) No lions are rainbows. b) Some lions are rainbows. c) All lions are rainbows. d) None of the above. 91. ‘Frankly, technology is often baffling to me, too. Luckily, I have kids who delight in parenting me – advising, explaining and guiding me, on all things digital. But studies suggest that this helpfulness might not be as beneficial as we think. Grappling with new and baffling things forces the ageing brain to work in novel ways. A recent study from the University of Texas involving more than 200 elderly adults found that those who engaged with technology had better cognition and memory than their non-engaging peers.’ Which of the following assumption is made in the above passage? a) Elderly adults are technology averse b) All elderly adults are incapable of understanding technology without significant help c) At present technology is designed in a manner that most elderly adults find difficult to work with d) Elderly adults must engage with technology as it improves their health 92. Depression among the elderly is on the rise and often goes unnoticed. Most Gerontologists now believe that it is an extremely common psychiatric disorders among the elderly – with half of all cases going undiagnosed. When elderly parents become depressed (many of them come from a generation not accustomed to talking about their mental health), it can be difficult to know how to respond. Which of the following assumption is made in the above passage? a) Gerontologists unanimously agree on the prevalence of depression in the elderly b) Depression is increasingly prevalent among the elderly c) f the elderly talk more often, it is easy to detect if they have depression I d) While they may not talk about mental health, the elderly are very aware about the condition -25- M  LLB 93. Players have long been able to buy virtual items with real money in video games, such as special weapons and features. But Nintendo raised the ire of parents and egulators in 2018 when it added so-called loot boxes—a virtual r lottery for in-game items—to its kid-friendly game ‘Animal Crossing: Pocket Camp.’ That same year, the US Federal Trade Commission said it would investigate loot boxes, which critics liken to a slot machine or a scratch ticket that’s more accessible to children. The video game industry pushed back hard, arguing that loot boxes are an integral part of the strategy and skills players use to compete. The passage assumes which of the following: a) Video games industry’s sole purpose is to maximise profit via active exploitation of players through any means possible without consideration as to the age of the player b) There are no limitations in US as to who can make an in-game purchase, since children have access to loot boxes c) The highest utilisation of loot boxes happens in Nintendo’s games d) By choosing to investigate the matter, the US FTC has expressed its displeasure at presence of loot boxes in video games 94. Any attempt at fighting the camp’s psychopathological influence on the prisoner by psychotherapeutic or psychogenic methods has to aim at giving inner strength by pointing out to him a future goal to which he could look forward. Instinctively some of the prisoners attempted to find one on their own. t is a peculiarity of man that he can only live by looking to the future. I And this is his salvation in the most difficult moments of his existence, although he sometimes has to force his mind to the task. Which one of the following conclusions can be properly inferred from the passage?. Each individual has the ability to preserve their sanity by remaining I focussed on the future II. Looking to the future is difficult for many, as they get caught up in the present. Those going through a tough time must rely on their past experiences III for inner strength Choose the most appropriate answer. a) Only b) Only c) and d) and I II I II I III M -26-  LLB 95. The problem with eugenics and genetic engineering is that they represent the one-sided triumph of wilfulness over giftedness, of dominance over reverence, of moulding over beholding. But why, we may wonder, should we worry about this triumph? Why not shake off our unease with enhancement as so much superstition? What would be lost if biotechnology dissolved our sense of giftedness ? Which of the following conclusions can be properly inferred from the passage?. Genetically engineered kids would be ungifted. I. Genetic engineering might make people more focussed on controlling II things and less respectful of natural abilities.. Controlling and dominating abilities through genetic engineering should III be seen as natural part of human progress. Choose the most appropriate answer. a) Only b) Only I II c) Only and d) Only and II III I III 96. Statements: Young adults spend most of their time on social media. Young adults should spend more time making connections in the real world. Conclusions. Young Adults should avoid social media. I. Young adults cannot make real life connections because they spend II most of their time on social media. Which of the following conclusions can be properly inferred? Choose the most appropriate answer. a) Only follows b) Only follows I II c) Both and follows d) Neither nor follows I II I II 97. While television and print media are still bound by regulations that require a modicum of truthful content, social media is a battleground of facts, lies, and deception, where governments, journalists, law enforcement, and activists are on an uneven playing field. Lack of stringent regulation or periodic verification, enable unbridled access to social media, resulting in unchecked dissemination of information with elusive credibility. Which of the following conclusions can be properly inferred from the passage?. Anyone can post anything on the social media. I II. It is generally difficult to ascertain the accuracy of content posted on social media. III. People are easily influenced by what they read on social media. Choose the most appropriate answer. a) Only b) Only c) Both and d) , and III II I II I II III -27- M  LLB 98. Fitness tracking devices often recommend we take 10,000 steps a day. But the goal of taking 10,000 steps, which many of us believe is rooted in science, in fact rests on coincidence and sticky history rather than research. Research suggests use of time, not steps, and suggest we exercise for at least 150 minutes a week, or half an hour most days, in addition to any moving around we do as part of our normal daily lives. Which of the following conclusions can be properly inferred from the passage? a) most people walk 10,000 steps but become frustrated when no apparent benefits are noticeable b) it is better to measure effort through time rather than number of steps, being a more scientific measure c) most people find it difficult to complete 10,000 steps daily d) none of the above 99. Human beings are entitled to dignity and rights while non-human animals are not, because human beings are autonomous while animals are heteronomous. n other words, animals are not in control of their actions and I are guided entirely by pleasure and pain, while human beings are capable of acting, for moral reasons, even contrary to pleasure and consonant with pain. Which of the following assumption is made in the above passage? a) Entitlement to dignity and rights flows from the ability to act, for moral reasons, contrary to pleasure and consonant with pain. b) Human beings are worthy of asserting superiority over animals. c) Both (a) and (b) d) Neither (a) nor (b) 100. The negative psychological effects of pornography, including addiction and emotional distress, are well-documented. We have a moral obligation to protect our society from these potential harms. Banning pornography is a responsible step to safeguard the mental well-being of individuals, especially our youth. Which of the following assumption is made in the above passage? a) The negative psychological effects of pornography are significant and concerning enough to warrant a ban on pornography. b) There are no substantial positive or beneficial aspects to pornography consumption that might counterbalance the negative effects. c) Both (a) and (b) d) Neither (a) nor (b) M -28-  LLB 101. Excessive use of mobile phones has been associated with a range of health issues. Prolonged screen time and constant connectivity can lead to physical problems like eye strain, neck and back pain, and disrupted sleep patterns. Additionally, excessive use of mobile phones raises concerns about the potential long-term health effects of exposure to electromagnetic radiation. Therefore, one should not use mobile phones. Which of the following assumption is made in the above passage? a) One should not use anything the excessive use of which can cause health problems. b) One should not use anything associated with electromagnetic radiation. c) Both (a) and (b) d) Neither (a) nor (b) 102. Dark comedy should be banned. Dark comedy often relies on humour that is edgy and insensitive, making light of serious or sensitive topics such as death, mental illness, or tragedy. t can normalize insensitivity and I desensitize people to the gravity of these issues. Over time, individuals may become less empathetic or more willing to dismiss the real-life pain and suffering of others as mere punchlines. Which of the following assumption is made in the above passage? a) nsensitive things should be banned. I b) t is not acceptable to dismiss the real-life pain and suffering of others. I c) Both (a) and (b) d) Neither (a) nor (b) 103. An environmental organization claims that replacing traditional light bulbs with LED bulbs in households will significantly reduce electricity consumption. Which of the following, if true, would most support this claim? a) LED bulbs are more expensive than traditional light bulbs. b) LED bulbs have a longer lifespan than traditional light bulbs. c) LED bulbs emit less heat than traditional light bulbs. d) LED bulbs are available in a variety of colours. 104. A research study concluded that regular exercise leads to better mental health. The study found that individuals who exercised on an average for 30 minutes every day reported lower levels of stress and anxiety. Which of the following, if true, would undermine the study’s conclusion? a) The study included participants from a wide range of age groups. b) ndividuals who exercised for longer durations reported did not report I marked decrease in stress and anxiety. c) The study was limited in its geographic scope. d) Participants who exercised experienced physical injuries. -29- M  LLB 105. Gun violence in schools is a significant and concerning issue, and discussing ways to prevent it and ensure the safety of students and faculty is crucial. An important way of limiting it is by implementing background checks and waiting periods for gun purchases. This can prevent individuals with mental health issues from obtaining firearms. Which of the following is the most appropriate assumption required by the above passage? a) Gun violence in school is primarily committed by individuals with mental health issues. b) ndividuals with mental health issues are more likely to purchase guns I to commit a crime. c) Both (a) and (b) d) Neither (a) nor (b) 106. The question of whether colonialism was ‘good’ is a complex and debated topic. Some argue that colonialism led to advancements in technology, infrastructure, and education in some regions. However, it also brought about immense suffering, exploitation, and the loss of sovereignty for many indigenous populations. The negative consequences, including cultural erosion, displacement, and violence, often outweigh any potential benefits. n contemporary discourse, it is generally recognized that the harms of I colonialism far outweigh any perceived ‘good,’ and its legacy continues to shape global inequalities and injustices. Which of the following is/are most appropriate conclusion(s) of the above passage?. t is important to see both the ‘good’ and ‘bad’ of colonialism to understand I I its true impact.. rrespective of the ‘good’ that colonialism brought, it can never justify II I the ‘bad’ it perpetrated.. t was necessary to do ‘bad’ to attain the good in colonialism. III I V. iscussions on effects of colonialism must end with attainment of I d independence, otherwise it tends to become a continuing excuse. Choose the most appropriate answer. a) Only I b) Only II c) Both and I II d) None of the above M -30-  LLB 107. The Examination Department at prominent National Law School is considering setting its class schedules for the incoming batch. The subjects are Sociology, Contracts, Political Science, Constitutional Law and Administrative Law. The following considerations are kept in mind:. All classes must be held every day I. Political Science must immediately follow Contracts on any day II III. Sociology cannot be the first or the last subject on any day V. Constitutional Law and Administrative law cannot immediately precede I or follow each other f Administrative Law is the third class of the day, what does the class I schedule for that day looks like a) Constitutional Law, Sociology, Administrative Law, Contracts, Political Science b) Contracts, Political Science, Administrative Law, Constitutional Law, Sociology c) Contracts, Constitutional Law, Administrative Law, Sociology, Political Science d) Sociology, Contracts, Administrative Law, Political Science, Constitutional Law 108. Before announcing its policy of Non-Performing Assets (NPA), the Finance Ministry has decided to consult heads of six of the largest banks in the country (A,B,C,D,E,F). t is a well-known fact that not all heads get along I very well with each other and prefer not to sit next to each other in any meeting. During the meeting they all will sit in a line facing the finance minister. You have been tasked to devise a seating plan keeping in mind the following conditions.. A cannot be on the immediate left or right of B I. D cannot be at either end II. E and F would ideally like to sit next to each other III V. C would prefer to sit one seat removed from E I Which of the following is a possible seating arrangement? a) D,A,F,E,B,C b) E,F,A,B,D,C c) A,D,E,F,C,B d) F,E,C,A,D,B -31- M  LLB 109. Cities are the engines of a nation’s progress. However, many cities are poorly managed and struggle to provide a basic standard of living to many residents. At the core of the problem is the question of autonomy of cities that are almost always dependent on central or state governments for even basic needs. A new report suggests that this can be remedied through constitutional amendments to provide more autonomy, means of revenue- generation and discretion in spending to cities. Which of the below facts, if true, most weakens the above argument? a) Cities which are self-governing have historically not been able to provide a good standard of living to its residents. b) Constitutional amendments may take some time to be passed. c) t is easier for the central or state governments to administer cities. I d) None of the above. 110. A town was faced with the problem of an excessive number of rats. To solve this, the town started offering a financial reward for every rat killed, which was to be proved by showing the severed tail of the rat. Which of the following facts, if true, would be an argument in favour of the town’s policy? a) Merely cutting off the tail of a rat does not stop that rat from surviving and producing more rats. b) Once the tail of a rat is cut off, the rat cannot survive. c) Cutting off tails is an inhumane way to solve the problem. d) None of the above. 111. Not wearing a seatbelt in a moving vehicle is illegal and punishable. However, X argues that since not wearing a seatbelt can at most only harm the person who has chosen not to wear a seatbelt, and does not harm any other person, it should not be illegal or punishable. Which of the following facts, if true, would weaken X’s argument? a) People who don’t wear a seatbelt are likely to suffer severe injuries in the event of an accident, and consequently make use of public health resources such as government hospitals. b) n the event of an accident, people who are not wearing a seatbelt may I also be thrown about and cause harm to other people or property. c) Both (a) and (b) d) Neither (a) nor (b) M -32-  LLB 112. Certain tennis tournaments have started a policy for equal pay for men and women players. Supporters of the policy argue that lack of equal pay would violate the principle of equal pay for equal work. Which of the following arguments most weakens the supporters’ argument? a) Men’s matches generate more revenue than women’s matches. b) Men usually play 5-set matches while women play 3-set matches, i.e. men usually play longer matches. c) The principle of equal pay for equal work did not originate in sports. d) None of the above. 113. Certain tennis tournaments have started a policy for equal pay for men and women players. Critics of the policy argue that because men’s matches generate more revenue than women’s matches, this policy is ill-conceived. Which of the following most weakens the critics’ argument? a) Revenue generation should result in equal pay. b) Organisers of tennis tournaments have more than enough money and can afford to pay all players high amounts. c) Both (a) and (b) d) Neither (a) nor (b) 114. Statement: “Nudge theory” is the theory that by shaping the environment, also known as the choice architecture, one can influence the likelihood that one option is chosen over another by individuals, without adding any significant incentives or disincentives for any option. For example, a retail store may place its more expensive items at eye-level, and cheaper items at a lower shelf. Perhaps the most frequently mentioned example of nudge theory is the setting of defaults, which are pre-set courses of action that take effect if nothing is specified by the decision-maker. Which of the following facts, if true, best supports the above statements?. f a default option is provided, decision-makers are likely to choose that I I option.. Consumers in a retail store are likely to choose items that are placed at II eye level rather than items which are placed on a lower shelf. Choose the most appropriate answer. a) Only. I b) Only. II c) Both and. I II d) None of the above. -33- M  LLB 115. Some children’s books which were published in the 1950s contain racist and sexist language that would be unacceptable today. These books should be re-published with the racist and sexist language omitted. Which of the following most strengthens the above argument? a) Children who are exposed to racist or sexist language will think that such language is acceptable. b) Racist or sexist language should never be permitted to be published for any reason. c) Both (a) and (b) d) Neither (a) nor (b) 116. Darshan is attempting to build a 5-day meal-plan from 6 dishes - U, V, W, X, Y, and Z - in accordance with the following conditions:. No dish may be repeated unless two other dishes are cooked before the I repetition.. W and V must not be made on consecutive days. II. U and Z must not be made on alternate days. III V. Y must always be followed by X. I Which of the following is a valid meal-plan if V must be included? a) X, U, V, X, Y b) X, U, Y, W, V c) Z, V, U, W, X d) None of the above 117. Joseph must decide which songs - A, B, C, D, and E - to sing in a 5-day performance schedule, with each song being performed only on one day, in accordance with the following conditions:. C and D must not be scheduled on adjacent days. I. B may immediately follow E, but not vice-versa. II III. The first day must either be A or C. V. The last day cannot be D. I f B is the mid-point of the performance schedule, which of the following is I a valid 5-day schedule? a) A, E, B, C, D b) A, D, B, E, C c) C, A, B, D, E d) None of the above 118. Anisha must decide how to seat her friends - V, W, X, Y, Z - at a circular wedding table in accordance with the following conditions:. Z and W must sit next to each other. I. Y may only sit with V if Y is also sitting with Z. II. X is happy to sit with anyone. III f Y and X arrive early and take seats 1 and 3, which of the following is a I valid arrangement ? a) Y, V, X, Z, W b) Y, Z, X, W, V c) Y, W, X, Z, V d) None of the above M -34-  LLB 119. Arjun is prioritizing his set of tasks for the day - V, W, X, Y, and Z - in accordance with the following condit