Mock CLAT 21 Questions PDF

LEGALEDGE TEST SERIES Part of the Most Comprehensive & Consistently Successful Study Material & Test Series Module, spanning across both Offline and Online Programs in the entire Country. As a result LegalEdge was able to engineer Clean-Sweep-Landslide figures of a handsome 64 Selections & 65 Selections in Top 100 (including AIR 1, 2 & 3 from Classroom Contact Programs in 2023, 2022 & 2021) & a whopping 273 selections & 327 selections in Top 500, in CLAT 2021 & CLAT 2022, respectively. With AILET being no different, a total of 34 of our students found their way into NLU, Delhi in 2021 & 35 in 2022. In a nutshell, every second admit in a Top National Law School in 2021 & 2022 came from the LegalEdge Preparation Ecosystem. MOCK COMMON LAW ADMISSION TEST 2024 MOCK CLAT - 21 Duration : 120 Minutes Candidate Name : _____________ Max. Marks : 150 Batch : _____________ Centre Name : __________ Contact No. : _____________ INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES 1. No clarification on the question paper can be sought. Answer the questions as they are. 2. There are 150 multiple choice objective type questions. 3. There is negative marking of 0.25 for every incorrect answer. Each question carries ONE mark. Total marks are 150 4. You have to indicate the correct answer by darkening one of the four responses provided, with a BALL PEN (BLUE OR BLACK) in the OMR Answer Sheet. Example: For the question, "Where is the Taj Mahal located?", the correct answer is (b). The student has to darken the corresponding circle as indicated below: (a) Kolkata (b) Agra (c) Bhopal (d) Delhi Right Method Wrong Methods 5. Answering the questions by any method other than the method indicated above shall be considered incorrect and no marks will be awarded for the same. 6. More than one response to a question shall be counted as wrong. 7. Do not write anything on the OMR Answer Sheet other than the details required and, in the spaces, provided for. 8. You are not required to submit the OMR Answer Sheet and Test Paper after the test. 9. The use of any unfair means by any candidate shall result in the cancellation of his/her candidature. 10. Impersonation is an offence and the student, apart from disqualification, may have to face criminal prosecution. SECTION-A: ENGLISH LANGUAGE Directions (Q.1-Q.30): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions that follow. Passage (Q.1-Q.5): In his introduction to The World Is What It Is: The Authorised Biography of VS Naipaul (2008), Patrick French wrote, “My approach to writing biography is what it was when I began my first book. I wrote then that the aim of the biographer should not be to sit in judgement, but to expose the subject with ruthless clarity to the calm eye of the reader… Sometimes, a critic or biographer can see things that an author cannot.” As many writers have attested, the art of the biography is notoriously difficult to pin (____). There’s a thin line that separates a good biography from a hagiography, a discretion at the disposal of only the most discerning of biographers. It requires skill and wit, but also imagination — an ability to distance oneself from a subject just enough to be able to do justice to the story of the person’s life. It was an art that came naturally to French, the English writer and historian who passed away after a long battle with cancer on Thursday. French, 56, was known for biographies such as that of British Army officer Sir Francis Edward Younghusband, Younghusband: The Last Great Imperial Adventurer (1994) and The World Is What It Is, as well as works of history such as Liberty Or Death: India’s Journey to Independence and Division (1997). If patience and curiosity were his strengths as a writer, French also had a generosity of spirit that made no room for malice in his criticism or scholarship. He wore his erudition with humility and with a commitment to nurturing a younger generation of writers and scholars — both in his personal capacity and during his tenure as the inaugural dean at the School of Arts and Sciences at Ahmedabad University between 2017 and 2021. French will be missed, for the depth and luminosity of his scholarship and writing, and for the books he will write no more. 1. What can be inferred from the idiomatic expression, ‘sit in judgement’? (a) It means to have been given the right to judge someone, based on parameters. (b) It means to critically analyse someone, based on their life. (c) It means to sit as an adjudicator in matters pertaining to critical evaluation. (d) It means to assume the right to judge someone, especially in a critical manner. 2. ‘As many writers have attested, the art of the biography is notoriously difficult to pin _____.’ Which of the following will fill in the blank to bring out the correct phrasal verb to make the sentence meaningful? (a) down (b) up (c) in (d) out 3. Which of the following characterises a good biographer? (a) A good biographer requires skill and wit. (b) A good biographer requires imagination. (c) A good biographer must maintain distance enough from the subject to give a fair account of the person’s life. (d) All of the following. 4. The tone that the author uses to talk of Patrick French, is (a) Venerating. (b) Acerbic (c) Condescending (d) Grandiose 5. Which of the following is not true of the passage? (a) To write a discerning biography, a writer must possess wit and imagination. (b) The writer is paying a tribute to Patrick French. (c) Patrick French was 56, when he wrote a biography, Younghusband: The Last Great Imperial Adventurer (1994) (d) ‘The World Is What It Is’ is the biography of VS Naipaul. Head Office: 127, Zone II, MP Nagar, Bhopal |+91-7676564400| https://www.toprankers.com Page 2 of 40 Passage (Q.6-Q.10): What do Indian men want? Apparently, not a wife who works. A recent survey, ‘Women’s Work, Social Norms and the Marriage Market’, by researchers from the Indian Statistical Institute, Harvard, Oxford and Ashoka University found that for suitors of above-average education and wealth, especially in North India, working women are a no-no. After all, how can the comfort of being a double-income household compare to hot rotis on demand, prepared by loving hands? The sacrifice of the woman’s aspirations, presumably, is a small price to pay. What the survey really shows is that even as Indian women make a mark beyond their home and hearth, including in areas that remain male-dominated, men remain stuck in a man-hunts-woman-nests fantasy and stereotype that is long past its sell-by date. Indian women are rapidly making up for a long history of being rendered “the second sex”, leaving their male partners at a loss in a world that is, almost suddenly, no longer theirs to inherit. A week ago, it was reported that the first woman officer in the Indian Air Force’s 90-year history is leading a frontline combat unit. Women’s enrollment in IITs increased to 20 per cent in 2021-22 from 8 per cent in 2016. By 2021, the percentage of women in senior management positions in India was above the global average (31 per cent) at 39 per cent — making India the third-ranked globally for women in senior positions. These are changes that, as the survey makes evident, Indian men are struggling to process. The women they hope to marry would much rather climb the professional ladder than be the “angel in the home”. Perhaps if men attempted to understand and express this (____) in expectations, it might help them adjust to reality better — and find true companionship too. 6. Which of the following best expresses the main objective of the author in the write-up? (a) Various researches indicate that the Indian male stuck in a man-hunts-woman-nests stereotype is a thing of the past. (b) The Express View of various researches indicate that the Indian male is stuck in a man-hunts-woman-nests stereotype, while women have gone beyond the stereotypical role (c) The Express View of various researches indicate that the traditional families are still stuck in a man-hunts- woman-nests stereotype. (d) The express view of researches indicate that the Indian male stuck in a man-hunts-woman-nests stereotype is entrenched in the Indian society and will remain so. 7. Which of the following can be inferred from the expression, ‘long past its sell-by date’? (a) Prevalent (b) Recent (c) Obsolete (d) Controversial 8. The author in the passage (a) supports the idea of women transcending the stereotypical boundaries and making mark in different professions. (b) criticises men for their parochial perception of women as bearers of home and hearth. (c) is indifferent towards the plight of women who are stuck at home and sacrificing their professional ambitions. (d) is praises for women who are finding their footings in various professional pursuits that were earlier male- dominated. 9. ‘Perhaps if men attempted to understand and express this ______ in expectations, it might help them adjust to reality better — and find true companionship too.’ Which of the following word will fill in the blank to make the sentence meaningful? (a) gulf (b) blight (c) wall (d) moment 10. The sacrifice of the woman’s aspirations, presumably, is a small price to pay. The bold and underlined word belongs to which of the following parts of speech? (a) Noun (b) Pronoun (c) Adjective (d) Adverb Head Office: 127, Zone II, MP Nagar, Bhopal |+91-7676564400| https://www.toprankers.com Page 3 of 40 Passage (Q.11-Q.15): Climate change is a major threat to forest health and this is manifested in a number of ways. For instance, there are indications that the incidence and severity of forest fires and pests is increasing. The COVID-19 pandemic also had a significant impact on forest value chains and trade in early 2020. There is a possible longer-term link between forests and disease. More than 30% of new diseases since 1960 are ascribed to land-use change, including deforestation, and 15% of 250 emerging infectious diseases have been linked to forests. Deforestation, specifically in the tropics, has been associated with an increase in infectious diseases such as malaria and dengue. Moreover, worldwide almost 90% of deforestation is driven by agricultural expansion such as conversion of forest to cropland or grassland for livestock grazing. FAO’s report ‘The State of the World’s Forests (2022)’ suggests three forest-based pathways as a means for tackling local to global challenges — first, halting deforestation and maintaining forests; second, restoring degraded lands and expanding agroforestry; and finally, yet importantly, sustainably using forests and building green value chains. The Government of India (GoI) has launched a global movement on Lifestyle for Environment (LiFE), or Mission LiFE. This is designed with the objective of mobilising at least one billion Indians and other global citizens to take individual and collective action for protecting and conserving the environment. (__________) As per the Economic Survey of India (2022-23), one of the quantifiable targets of India’s nationally determined contributions (NDCs) is to achieve an additional carbon sink of 2.5 billion to 3.0 billion tonnes through additional forest and tree cover by 2030. The country ranks third globally with respect to the net gain in average annual forest area between 2010 and 2020. This gain is mainly attributed to the robust framework and policies of GoI and state governments that have promoted and protected forests. A robust forest ecosystem acts as a vital carbon sink. The Indian State of Forest Report (ISFR) estimates the carbon stock (which is the quantity of carbon sequestrated from the atmosphere and stored in biomass, deadwood, soil, and litter in the forest) of forests to be about 7,204 million tonnes in 2019, which is an increase of 79.4 million tonnes of carbon stock as compared to the estimates in 2017. Among the Indian States, Arunachal Pradesh has the maximum carbon stock in forests (1023.84 million tonnes), followed by Madhya Pradesh (609.25 million tonnes). Link: https://www.thehindu.com/opinion/op-ed/international-day-of-forests-2023-healthy-forests-for-healthy- people/article66645183.ece Excerpts from ‘The Hindu’ for educational purposes. 11. According to the passage, which of the following is true? (a) In India, the State of Madhya Pradesh ranks second in carbon stocks in forests. (b) India ranks second globally as far as the net gain in average annual forest area between 2010 and 2020. (c) The more deforestation, the more is the carbon sink. (d) Climate change vicariously affects the health of a forest. 12. Which of the following best reflects the title of the passage? (a) Healthy forests: a prerequisite for a healthy Earth. (b) Healthy forests are shrinking day by day. (c) Healthy forests essential for human beings. (d) Deforestation: an urban blight 13. According to the passage, what can be inferred from carbon sink? (a) An area with maximum carbon deposits in air. (b) Natural environment’s ability to absorb carbon dioxide from the atmosphere. (c) Natural environment’s ability to absorb carbon dioxide from only the forests. (d) A forest having the greatest ability to store carbon. Head Office: 127, Zone II, MP Nagar, Bhopal |+91-7676564400| https://www.toprankers.com Page 4 of 40 14. The word ‘sequestrated’ in the context of the passage means (a) Released (b) Misappropriated (c) Seized (d) Taken 15. Which of the following will fill in the missing part given in the passage? (a) Healthy forests are crucial for all aspects of a healthy planet, from livelihoods and nutrition to biodiversity and the environment, but they are facing risk. (b) Governments and business entities need to direct funding for recovery towards long-term policies aimed at creating sustainable and green jobs and further mobilising private sector. (c) In India, at least 80% of all villages and urban local bodies are intended to become environment-friendly by 2028. (d) More than 30% of new diseases since 1960 are ascribed to land-use change, including deforestation, and 15% of 250 emerging infectious diseases have been linked to forests. Passage (Q.16-Q.20): I feel an almost savage envy on hearing that London has been flooded in my absence, while I am in the mere country. My own Battersea has been, I understand, particularly favoured as a meeting of the waters. Battersea was already, as I need hardly say, the most beautiful of human localities. Now that it has the additional splendour of great sheets of water, there must be something quite incomparable in the landscape (or waterscape) of my own romantic town. Battersea must be a vision of Venice. The boat that brought the meat from the butcher’s must have shot along those lanes of rippling silver with the strange smoothness of the gondola. The greengrocer who brought cabbages to the corner of the Latchmere Road must have leant upon the oar with the unearthly grace of the gondolier. There is nothing so perfectly poetical as an island; and when a district is flooded it becomes an archipelago. Some consider such romantic views of flood or fire slightly lacking in reality. But really this romantic view of such inconveniences is quite as practical as the other. The true optimist who sees in such things an opportunity for enjoyment is quite as logical and much more sensible than the ordinary “Indignant Ratepayer” who sees in them an opportunity for grumbling. Real pain, as in the case of being burnt at Smithfield or having a toothache, is a positive thing; it can be supported, but scarcely enjoyed. But, after all, our toothaches are the exception, and as for being burnt at Smithfield, it only happens to us at the very longest intervals. And most of the inconveniences that make men swear or women cry are really sentimental or imaginative inconveniences— things altogether of the mind. Link: http://essays.quotidiana.org/chesterton/running_after_ones_hat/ The passage is extracted and revised for educational purposes. 16. What can be understood from the expression ‘savage’ in the context of envy? (a) Tamed (b) Barbarian (c) Violent (d) Severe 17. The author’s attitude towards the flood in London is (a) Optimistic (b) Quixotic (c) Pessimistic (d) Intense Jealousy. 18. All of the following can be inferred from the passage, except? (a) Most inconveniences are mind’s imaginings. (b) Battersea is a district in Venice. (c) According to the author, a person who diverts inconvenience to romanticism adopts a practical approach. (d) All of the following. 19. ‘The boat that brought the meat from the butcher’s must have shot along those lanes of rippling silver with the strange smoothness of the gondola.’ The author implies that (a) The streets are flooded with water. (b) The streets are filled with gondolas. (c) The boats are carrying meat. (d) The streets carry a silver hue. Head Office: 127, Zone II, MP Nagar, Bhopal |+91-7676564400| https://www.toprankers.com Page 5 of 40 20. Which of the following hypothetical situations would be most akin to the author’s perspective? (a) A patient at the doctors, waiting for his turn. (b) A small boy hanging about a railway station and waiting for a train. (c) A jammed drawer that a person is unable to free. (d) A milkman ringing the doorbell and waiting for the owner to attend to him. Passage (Q.21-Q.25): Dear Elena Ferrante, It’s been a while. We haven’t been in touch since I interviewed you for The New York Times in December 2014—by email via your publisher, of course, because you are an artist of absence as well as a literary presence. I’ve always been impressed that back in 1992, when you published your first novel—Troubling Love, a vexing exploration of the female psyche—you made clear to your editors at Edizioni E/O that you would never appear in public. You didn’t want to do author tours or go on television, you told them; you wanted the work to speak for itself. And when you did choose to respond to questions, you would do so only on your terms—in writing. You published nothing for a decade after the glowing reviews of your debut. When you reemerged in 2002 and 2006 with two more slim, raw novels featuring female protagonists navigating difficult and painful moments in their lives, The Days of Abandonment and The Lost Daughter, you stuck to your vow. Your refusal to show your face seemed a bold act as social media exploded, and an even bolder one when your four Neapolitan novels, which trace the lives of two girls born in poverty in postwar Naples, made you a bona fide global superstar. With those books, you published more than 1,600 pages in three years, from 2011 to 2014. Complimenti! You kept your strategic silence even after the bombshell in the fall of 2016, when the Italian investigative journalist Claudio Gatti posited that the person writing under your pseudonym was Anita Raja, a retired librarian and freelance literary translator for your Rome-based publisher. In his sleuthing, Gatti had rifled through financial and real-estate records, and discovered that Raja had struck it rich just when your Neapolitan novels were becoming international best sellers. When his story ran concurrently in The New York Review of Books and outlets in France, Italy, and Germany, readers fiercely defended your right to remain faceless. It was a fraught moment. Gatti’s story landed a month before Donald Trump defeated Hillary Clinton, when the righteous anger of women was very much in the air, and some Anglophone readers saw the attempted unmasking as a violation; a few even compared it to an act of sexual violence. Your refusal to show your face seemed a bold act, and even bolder when your Neapolitan novels made you a bona fide global superstar. Even then, I wasn’t entirely surprised that you didn’t say a word. You hadn’t deigned to weigh in on earlier rounds of speculation about your identity, speculation that had prompted different accusations of sexism. Various Italian literary sleuths (and scholars using computer programs to analyze prose styles) had for years proposed that Domenico Starnone might be writing your books. He happens to be Raja’s husband, and one of Italy’s most important living novelists—to my mind, one of its best—as well as a prolific screenwriter for Italian film and television, and a longtime newspaper columnist who was once a culture editor for the Communist daily Il Manifesto. (Source: https://www.theatlantic.com/magazine/archive/2018/12/elena-ferrante-pseudonym/573952/ ) 21. In context of the passage, how did Elena Ferrante’s stance differ from some Anglophonic readers with regards to Italian investigative journalist Claudio Gatti’s claim that the face behind Troubling Love and other works was Anita Raja? (a) Elena raised her voice through her writing while readers considered the attempted unmasking a violation. (b) Elena raised her voice through her writing and the readers were indifferent and unbothered. (c) Elena maintained strategic silence and the readers were particularly hostile towards the sleuth. (d) Elena chose to stay silent while the Anglophonic readers voted for Donald Trump which resulted in the defeat of Hillary Clinton. Head Office: 127, Zone II, MP Nagar, Bhopal |+91-7676564400| https://www.toprankers.com Page 6 of 40 22. Which pair of the following figures of speech has been used in the bold text? (a) Hyperbole, Embodiment (b) Euphemism, Personification (c) Litotes, Personification (d) Metaphor, Epigram 23. “In his sleuthing…” Which of the following is most likely an example of sleuthing? (a) A newspaper investigation series called ‘Pandora’s Box’ where journalists deep dive into some of the most critical mysteries and scams in and around the world. (b) A literary criticism published in The New York Review of Books of the book, Troubling Love written by a pseudonymous author, Elena Ferrante. (c) An interview of an anonymous author, given to a monthly magazine, The Caravan where the author answers questions on plot, characters and the movie adaptation. (d) An OTT documentary that encapsulates the life of the banned and exiled author, Taslima Nasreen whose contentious novels have sparked outrage previously. 24. What is the common element that Elena implements in the storyline of her works? (a) Poverty (b) Feminism (c) Female protagonist (d) Pseudonymity 25. Which of the following is the main idea of the passage? (a) Elena Ferrante, a pseudonymous author, who denied appearing on TV or going to author tours had been claimed to be Anita Raja by an Italian investigative journalist Claudio Gatti and it had attracted readers’ hostility, amidst which the author had maintained strategic silence. (b) Gatti rifled through financial and real-estate records, and discovered that Anita Raja had struck it rich just when Elena’s Neapolitan novels were becoming international best sellers and the story ran in The New York Review of Books. (c) Elena made clear to her editors that she would never appear in public. She wanted the work to speak for itself and denied making public appearances. (d) All of the above Passage (Q.26-Q.30): The Elephant Whisperers follows the story of a young orphaned elephant, Raghu, and his two human “parents”, Bomman and Bellie, in Tamil Nadu’s Mudumalai Tiger Reserve. Taking full advantage of the forest’s natural beauty, and shot almost exclusively in natural light, the film’s stunning visuals complement Gonsalves’s gentle, exposition-free storytelling. While the tragedy that undergirds Raghu’s story — his mother was electrocuted when she went looking for food during a prolonged period of drought in the region — is never hidden, Gonsalves retains a tight focus on the love and hope that Bomman and Bellie come to represent in his life. Not surprisingly, the most moving scenes in the film have little dialogue, often featuring Raghu — or, later, his “sister” Ammu — sitting with one of the human caretakers in silent companionship. It’s a heartwarming portrayal of an inter-species bond, a talisman of hope at a time when stories from and about the natural world present — with good reason — far more reason for gloom. With its Oscar win, could The Elephant Whisperers (___A___) a trail for other documentary films from India? The global recognition for India’s non-fiction cinema talent has been building up for a few years: Last year, Rintu Thomas and Sushmit Ghosh’s Writing With Fire, which followed the story of Khabar Lahariya, India’s only newspaper run by Dalit women, made it to the Documentary Feature nominations. That was followed this year by a nomination in the same category for All That Breathes, Shaunak Sen’s film about two Muslim brothers in Delhi, running a clinic for black kites. The story of the brothers’ love for these magnificent birds is beautifully interwoven with the depiction of a city that is plagued by bad air and an unravelling social fabric. Sen’s film won the prestigious Golden Eye award at the 2022 Cannes Film Festival — the same award had been won by Payal Kapadia’s A Night of Knowing Nothing the year before. These films, along with Cinema Travellers by Shirley Abraham and Amit Madhesiya, An Insignificant Man by Khushboo Ranka and Vinay Shukla and Against The Tide by Sarvnik Kaur, have generated an unprecedented international interest in Indian documentaries. At Head Office: 127, Zone II, MP Nagar, Bhopal |+91-7676564400| https://www.toprankers.com Page 7 of 40 home, however, the challenge for non-fiction filmmakers – in terms of recognition as well as funds, both government and private — remains huge. The fact that the Films Division, which used to fund documentary films in India, along with PSBT, has been merged with the National Films Development Corporation (NFDC) is believed by several filmmakers to add further odds against them. In this dreary landscape of few resources and almost no recognition at home, the Oscar for The Elephant Whisperers stands as a beacon of hope. When it comes to international awards, few others have the commercial cache that the Academy Awards do. Will it lead to more Indian documentaries getting a commercial release in the domestic market? (___B____). But thanks to The Elephant Whisperers’ historic win, the path for other non- fiction filmmakers may just have gotten a little bit easier. 26. According to the passage, Raghu is (a) the caretaker of the cub. (b) the young orphaned elephant. (c) the mother of the young orphaned elephant. (d) The elephant whisperers. 27. ‘With its Oscar win, could The Elephant Whisperers (___A___) a trail for other documentary films from India?’ Which of the following options will fill in the blank to make the sentence coherent? (a) will blaze (b) blaze (c) blazes (d) blazed 28. What can be understood from the expression ‘unravelling social fabric’? (a) Loosening of societal values (b) Societal plagues (c) Collapsing of societies (d) Exposure of hidden agenda in society 29. Which of the following presents the central theme of the passage? (a) Oscar for ‘The Elephant Whisperers’ could make the path for other documentary makers a walk up to the garden. (b) Oscar for ‘The Elephant Whisperers’ could make the path for other documentary makers a little more difficult. (c) Oscar for ‘The Elephant Whisperers’ could make the path for other filmmakers a little less difficult. (d) Oscar for ‘The Elephant Whisperers’ could make the path for other documentary makers a little less difficult. 30. Which of the following options will fill in the missing link in blank B to make the passage coherent? (a) Perhaps immediately and to a great extent. (b) Perhaps not immediately or to any great extent. (c) Perhaps it is too soon to judge the consequence. (d) Perhaps not in the distant future. Head Office: 127, Zone II, MP Nagar, Bhopal |+91-7676564400| https://www.toprankers.com Page 8 of 40 SECTION-B : CURRENT AFFAIRS, INCLUDING GENERAL KNOWLEDGE Directions (Q.31–Q.65): Read the information given below and answer the questions based on it. Passage (Q.31-Q.35): On Thursday (February 23), hundreds of followers of Amritpal Singh, a radical preacher, and pro-Khalistan leader, clashed violently with police outside Ajnala police station near Amritsar, demanding the release of one of their colleagues who had been taken into custody in an alleged kidnapping case. (This individual, an aide of Amritpal Singh named Lovepreet Singh ‘Toofan’, was released from Amritsar Central Jail on Friday (February 24) after a court in Ajnala issued orders to discharge him based on an application by the police.) Amritpal Singh, 29, is a follower of the slain Sikh militant Jarnail Singh Bhindranwale, and is often dubbed as “Bhindranwale 2.0” in Punjab. He returned from Dubai last year to take the reins of the ‘Waris Punjab De’ organisation following the death of its founder, actor-activist Deep Sidhu. Source – Indian Express 31. What is the Khalistan movement? (a) It’s a demand for a separate, sovereign Sikh state in present-day Indian and Pakistan Punjab (b) It’s a movement for the special rights and reservations for Sikhs (c) It’s a movement of uniting Punjab of Pakistan in India (d) It’s a movement of bringing an organic revolution in the Punjab state 32. How is the operation of blue star related to the Khalistan movement? (a) was used to crush this movement (b) was passed by the state legislature to grant special rights to Sikhs in the legislature (c) was conducted by the Indian government to unite Punjab (India and Pakistan) (d) was a mission under which fortified seeds were distributed by the state government 33. What is the meaning of Punjab Suba? (a) It signifies the inception of the political movement for Khalistan. (b) It represents the proposed name for a region with a dominant Sikh population. (c) It denotes the first political party to emerge victorious in the Punjab state after independence. (d) None of the above options correctly define Punjab Suba. 34. Which of the following place was the capital of Maharaja Ranjit Singh’s great Sikh Empire? (a) Amritsar (b) Lahore (c) Gurdaspur (d) Chandigarh 35. Which article of the Indian Constitution upholds the principle of secularism? (a) Article 25 (b) Article 26 (c) Article 27 (d) Article 28 Passage (Q.36-Q.40): The La Niña itself is going on for a record-breaking consecutive year. Now, forecasts for the 2023 fall and winter are predicting that its companion phenomenon – the El Niño (“el ninyo”) – will occur with more than a 50% probability. The first thing to note is that El Niño forecasts before spring tend to be notoriously unreliable due to a so-called ‘spring predictability barrier’. The climate system is quite noisy in spring as the Sun transitions across the equator, from one hemisphere to the other. This complicates El Niño predictions before the spring. Intraseasonal or sub-seasonal timescale variability in sea-surface temperature and winds is also very important for cyclogenesis over the northern Indian Ocean. These timescales denote the durations for which certain temperature and wind characteristics persist in the pre-and post-monsoon periods. Source: The Hindu Head Office: 127, Zone II, MP Nagar, Bhopal |+91-7676564400| https://www.toprankers.com Page 9 of 40 36. Which of the following can be redacted by ? (a) Second (b) Third (c) Fourth (d) Fifth 37. Why La Nina and El Nino have a direct effect on the Indian economy? (a) La Nina and El Nino cause variations in rainfall patterns, leading to droughts, floods, and uneven distribution of rainfall. (b) Changes in rainfall patterns also affect hydroelectric power generation in the country. (c) They impact the frequency and intensity of cyclones and natural disasters, leading to increased expenditure on relief and rehabilitation efforts. (d) All of the above 38. Which of the following is not a characteristic of El-Nino? (a) El Nino is characterized by the warming of ocean surface temperatures in the eastern and central Pacific oceans, which alters the normal weather patterns around the globe. (b) El Nino leads to changes in rainfall patterns, with increased rainfall in the eastern Pacific and decreased rainfall in the western Pacific. (c) The warming of the Pacific Ocean disrupts the normal ocean currents, which can affect marine life and fishing industries around the world. (d) El Niño and La Niña make up a cyclical process called the El Niño Southern Oscillation (or ENSO). 39. What are the predictions of 2023 as an El Nino year? (a) A 15% deficit in monsoon can be seen this year (b) Being a transition year from La Nina to El Nino, pre-monsoon circulations will be comparatively stronger (c) Due to weaker vertical sheer, less chances of cyclogenesis (d) South India will receive comparatively less rainfall than North India 40. Which of the following countries get affected by severe drought due to El-Nino? (a) Indonesia (b) Peru (c) Ecuador (d) Brazil Passage (Q.41-Q.45): Rajiv Gandhi’s most mesmerising line may have been “I too have a dream”. But it was what he said in Parliament when passing the anti-defection law that shaped Indian politics for decades to come. “This bill is the first step towards cleaning our public life,” Gandhi said in the Lok Sabha on 30 January 1985, arguing in favour of the 52nd amendment to the Indian Constitution. On that day, at least 47 MPs debated the Bill for more than seven hours – even skipping their lunch break — before it was unanimously cleared, records of parliamentary debates show. Rajya Sabha cleared the Bill the next day and the President approved it two weeks later. On 18 March 1985, it was officially enacted. India now had its own law against what is popularly used to describe chronic defectors as Aya Ram Gaya Ram. Source: The Print 41. Recently, which state’s political controversy regarding Anti-defection law was pending before Supreme Court? (a) Punjab (b) Maharashtra (c) Tamil Nadu (d) Rajasthan 42. In which of the following countries defectors are known as ‘waka-jumper’? (a) Kenya (b) New Zealand (c) Nigeria (d) Brazil Head Office: 127, Zone II, MP Nagar, Bhopal |+91-7676564400| https://www.toprankers.com Page 10 of 40 43. Which of the following is part of verdict of SC in Keisham Meghachandra case (2020)? (a) Set 3 months as the outer limit for speakers to conclude disqualification proceedings against defectors (b) Recommended that Parliament should amend the constitution to set up a Permanent tribunal to decide the cases (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) Neither (a) nor (b) 44. What was the last journey year of the amendment of the Anti-defection law? (a) 1994 (b) 2000 (c) 2003 (d) 2010 45. According to the law, what is the time frame within which the presiding officer must decide the defection case? (a) 45 days (b) 60 days (c) 90 days (d) None of the above Passage (Q.46-Q.50): Supreme Court is now witnessing a turnaround. The court, during the Media One telecast ban hearing, orally observed that the government should claim “specific privilege” in an affidavit and explain the “extenuating circumstances” to keep documents secret from the other party. The court said the burden would lie on the government to prove that even sharing redacted copies of the records would prove detrimental to national security and public order. The Pegasus case judgment saw the court underscore that the “Union of India must necessarily plead and prove the facts which indicate that the information sought must be kept secret as their divulgence would affect national security concerns… The state cannot get a free pass every time the spectre of ‘national security’ is raised. National security cannot be the bugbear that the judiciary shies away from”. Source: The Hindu 46. Recently, the government proposed the formation of a committee to enquire into the Hindenburg report on the Adani Group in ‘sealed cover’. What was the court’s reaction? (a) SC accepted the cover and permitted them for the formation (b) SC refused the suggestions as it threatens the credibility of the judicial institution (c) SC accepted the suggestion as this procedure is protecting the reputation of involved personalities (d) SC refused the suggestions as the sealed cover procedure is deleted from the Act 47. Mark the incorrect statement regarding sealed cover jurisprudence. (a) One of its purposes is to protect the rape victim's identity (b) It is against the fundamental right to know (c) Its origin can be traced back to Bhima Koregaon case (d) Court-appointed committee reports, as in the BCCI case, have been accepted in sealed covers 48. Which of the following cases recognized the right to privacy as a fundamental right in India? (a) Kharak Singh v. State of Uttar Pradesh (b) Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India (c) Puttaswamy (Privacy) v. Union of India (d) ADM Jabalpur v. Shivakant Shukla 49. SC derived its power to use sealed cover jurisprudence from which of the following? (a) SC rules 2013 (b) Evidence Act 1843 (c) IPC Act 1890 (d) Article 234 of the Indian constitution Head Office: 127, Zone II, MP Nagar, Bhopal |+91-7676564400| https://www.toprankers.com Page 11 of 40 50. Which of the following Section of IPC is related to hate speech? (a) Section 110A (b) Section 123B (c) Section 153A (d) Section 223D Passage (Q.51-Q.55): Chairman of the Economic Advisory Council to the Prime Minister (EAC-PM) Dr. Bibek Debroy has released the Foundational Literacy and Numeracy report. The second edition of the report was released at the India Dialogue Conference organised by Institute for Competitiveness and US-Asia Technology Management Center, Stanford University. A section of the report explicitly focuses on the numerous initiatives currently implemented at the national and state level in achieving foundational learning goals as outlined in National Initiative for Proficiency in Reading with Understanding and Numeracy, NIPUN. Source: News on Air 51. What is the definition of Foundational Literacy and Numeracy (FLN)? (a) The ability of a child to read and comprehend any text (b) The ability of a child to perform complex mathematical problems (c) The ability of a child to read basic texts and perform basic mathematical problems (d) The ability of a child to write effectively 52. What is the purpose of the FLN report? (a) To highlight the challenges of teaching mathematics in schools (b) To track the performance of states and UTs in achieving universal foundational learning (c) To promote the use of digital technology in education (d) To increase the number of students in schools 53. What are the key aspects covered by the FLN report? (a) The role of nutrition, access to digital technology, and language-focused instructional approach (b) The role of Mathematics, social studies, and Science in Education (c) The role of Sports and extracurricular activities in Education (d) The role of Teachers and their training in Education 54. Which of the following resource has been launched to enhance the fundamental skills of students? (a) Magic Box (b) Jadugiri (c) Jadui Pitara (d) EduMagic 55. What is the Institute for Competitiveness, India? (a) An international initiative centered in India (b) A local research center focused on Indian businesses (c) A think tank focused on government policy in India (d) An educational institution dedicated to teaching business strategy Head Office: 127, Zone II, MP Nagar, Bhopal |+91-7676564400| https://www.toprankers.com Page 12 of 40 Passage (Q.56-Q.60): Assuring SEBI that it does not intend to go on a “witch hunt” and is more interested in an ‘open dialogue”, a three-judge Bench led by Chief Justice of India DY Chandrachud flagged the court’s concern. Chief Justice Chandrachud said the stock market was no longer a place for just “high-value investors” to dabble in. “It is also a place now where a whole wide spectrum of the middle class is investing... everybody is in the market now. There is a need for circuit-breakers here like how you have in other areas,” the CJI told Solicitor General Tushar Mehta, appearing for SEBI. The court, on the S-G’s submission, recorded that the SEBI was “closely monitoring the situation and continues to do so”. The Supreme Court clarified in its order that its observations should not be construed as a reflection on the SEBI or other statutory authorities. If the Centre wanted, the court said it could even consider constituting an expert committee of domain experts in banking and securities along with a former judge to act as a “wise guiding force”. The court made it clear that it did not want to encroach into the policy domain. It would tread carefully, keeping a wary eye against causing any upsets in the stock market. Source – Business Line 56. Why SC asked SEBI and the government to produce the existing regulatory framework after the Hindenburg report release? (a) To protect Indian investors from sudden market volatility (b) To impose stricter penalties on fraudulent entities in the securities market (c) To form an additional regulatory body along with SEBI (d) To deregulate the securities market and reduce government intervention 57. Identify the incorrect match. (a) The Companies Act – 2013 (b) The Securities and Exchange Board of India Act – 1992 (c) The Securities Contracts Act – 1972 (d) The Depositories Act – 1996 58. Recently, SEBI to help investors have mandated _______ to maintain a website. (a) Stockbroker (b) Institutional Investors (c) Depository participant (d) Both (a) and (c) 59. How SEBI can curb market volatility? (a) It can issue directions to stock exchanges to stop trading, totally or selectively (b) It can lock all accounts of participants that have a maximum investment in the market (c) It cannot curb market volatility as the share market is completely dependent on the international market (d) None of the above 60. 20 Russian banks are opening VOSTRO accounts by partnering with Indian banks. What are Vostro accounts? (a) It is an account that is opened by an Indian bank but maintained by a foreign bank (b) It is an account that is operated and maintained by an Indian bank. Here account folders are citizens of partner country (c) it is an account which open and maintained by foreign banks in the domestic currency (d) it is an account in which citizens of both Russia and India can open accounts without any address proof Head Office: 127, Zone II, MP Nagar, Bhopal |+91-7676564400| https://www.toprankers.com Page 13 of 40 Passage (Q.61-Q.65): A 53-year-old man from Germany, referred to as the Dusseldorf patient, has become at least the person to have been “cured of HIV” with the virus not being detectable in his body even four years after stopping the medicine. This was achieved with a bone-marrow transplant from people carrying a specific HIV-resistant genetic mutation. Referred to as the Berlin patient, Timothy Ray Brown overcome HIV after he underwent two stem cell transplants in 2007 and 2008 for treating his blood cancer. As a person with HIV, his doctors selected a donor carrying two copies of a CCR5-delta 32 genetic mutation – a mutation that is known to make the carriers almost immune to HIV. He remained HIV-free till his death due to cancer in 2020. Two other cases of ‘The City of Hope patient’ and ‘New York patient’ were also reported in 2022. The transplant in the New York patient was done using a dual stem cell therapy – using stem cells from the umbilical cord of a neonate, complemented with stem cells from an adult – that requires less restrictive HLA matching. This is important as it may help people from different races get transplants with CCR5-delta 32 mutation, which is naturally found mostly in Europeans. Source: Indian Express 61. Which of the following can be redacted by ? (a) first (b) second (c) third (d) fourth 62. What is the function of bone marrow in the human body? (a) To produce insulin for glucose regulation. (b) To store calcium for bone density. (c) To produce red and white blood cells for the circulatory system. (d) To produce neurons for transferring signals to the brain 63. Timothy Ray Brown also overcome HIV after he went for a stem cell transplant for blood cancer. What are stem cells? (a) Cells that are found only in men (b) Cells that have the ability to differentiate into various types of cells (c) Cells that are responsible for carrying oxygen in the body (d) Cells that are involved in the immune response 64. H3N2 is commonly known as __________. (a) Japanese flu (b) Hong Kong flu (c) Asian flu (d) Tela flu 65. What are the applications of stem cells? (a) Tissue regeneration (b) Brain disease treatment (c) Cell deficiency therapy (d) All the above Head Office: 127, Zone II, MP Nagar, Bhopal |+91-7676564400| https://www.toprankers.com Page 14 of 40 SECTION - C: LEGAL REASONING Directions(Q.66-Q.105): Read the comprehension and answer the questions: Passage (Q.66-Q.70): Neither the substantive law nor procedural law defines the term child witness. However, section 118 of Evidence Act contemplates that "All persons shall be competent to testify unless the court consider that they are prevented from understanding questions put to them or from giving rational answers to those questions, by tender years, extreme old age, disease whether of body or mind, or any other cause of the same kind." The Evidence Act does not prescribe any particular age as a determinative factor to render a witness to be competent one. Herein, the concept of Voir dire test derived from Anglo- Norman phrase which refers to "Oath to tell the truth” assumes importance. The test can be called as precursor test which is supposed to be conducted by the trial court to determine the maturity and capability of the child. In that test, the judge must ascertain the competency of the child by asking some questions unrelated to the case on hand, before testifying the child witness as a part of trial proceedings. However, subsequently it was held by the Supreme Court that mere non-compliance of Voir Dire Test would not ipso facto lead to the whole sale rejection of the evidence of child witness when it inspires confidence and trust of the court. The tender years of the child, coupled with other circumstances appearing in the case, such for example as its demeanor, unlikelihood of tutoring and so forth, may render corroboration unnecessary but that is a question of fact in every case. The only rule of law is that this rule of prudence must be present to the mind of the Judge as the case may be understood and appreciated by him. There is no rule of practice that corroboration for the testimony of child witness is sin qua non for every case to sustain conviction. 66. Although Nandan was a bright boy of 10 years, his poor financial situation forced him to work as an assistant at the Raju tea shop on NH27. Sanchi would always take the same route to work and would always meet Nandan, occasionally even giving him chocolates. One day Nandan noticed a man driving an Audi and crashing with Nandini as she stood on the sidewalk. Nandan was brought in as a young witness in court. When the Judge gave him the chance to speak, Nandan described what he had seen exactly, without making any additions or deletions. Even during the cross-examination, his claims remained true. Nandan's testimony satisfied the judge, who found the driver guilty. Is the conviction sustainable if Nandan was the sole witness? (a) Yes, because the judge failed to apply the rule of prudence in understanding and appreciating the facts of the case (b) Yes, because the judge applied his mind and was satisfied with Nandan’s statements because of his consistency and unlikelihood of tutoring (c) No, because the testimony of a child witness like Nandan cannot be the sole basis of conviction because of his tender years. (d) No, because the judge failed to apply the rule of prudence in understanding and appreciating the facts of the case Head Office: 127, Zone II, MP Nagar, Bhopal |+91-7676564400| https://www.toprankers.com Page 15 of 40 67. In the preceding factual scenario, the convicted man contested his conviction. According to him, the court should have questioned Nandan at some point throughout the trial to determine his maturity and competency. In light of the same, the judge could not have placed sole reliance on Nandan's testimony to convict the driver. Is the driver correct in his assertions? (a) Yes, when a child is called to testify as a witness during a trial, the court must first determine whether or not they are competent by asking them some questions irrelevant to the subject at hand. (b) Yes, because merely failing to comply with the Voir Dire Test would not result in the evidence being rejected when it inspires confidence in the court; (c) No, because failing to inquire about Nandan's competency would not result in the evidence being rejected when it inspires confidence in the court. (d) No, because failing to comply with the Voir Dire Test results in the ipso facto rejection of the child witness's testimony. 68. Subsequently, the driver’s arguments were rejected by the Court. He then asserted that the judge did not corroborate Nandan's testimony. Based on the same, he submitted that his conviction could not be considered sustainable. If the driver’s assertion is true and Nandan's testimony is uncorroborated, can the driver's conviction be sustained? (a) Yes, because the driver cannot be convicted on the sole uncorroborated testimony of a child witness due to the immaturity and tender age of the witness (b) Yes, because there is no necessity that the testimony of a child witness must be corroborated in order to sustain conviction (c) No, because as per rule of practice the testimony of a child witness must be corroborated in order to sustain conviction (d) No, because the driver cannot be convicted on the sole uncorroborated testimony of a child witness due to the immaturity and tender age of the witness 69. Mala and Ravi married in defiance of their parents' wishes. They both moved to Prayagraj. Since the city is large therefore the couple took some time to adjust. It was difficult to survive when they had very little money in hand. Later, Ravi found a job as a waiter in a reputable restaurant and made enough money to support his family. Mala began her employment in a customer service center. Despite not liking it, Ravi remained silent. But after a while, he began making mockery of Mala's employment, and often, their fights got so physical that they both ended up using physical force on each other, even in front of their 5 year old child Nikki. Her parents ultimately decided to get divorced. While hearing their plea, the family court called Nikki to the witness box to hear the real story through his words, even though he was just 5 years old. Despite being cross-examined, Nikki answered numerous important questions with a nod of the head in a smart and cogent manner. As a result, the divorce was approved since the Court felt confident in his testimony. Is this consistent with the ideas expressed in the passage? (a) No, because Nikki is only 5 years old and it is unreasonable to expect such a young child to testify in court. (b) No, there is no rule of practise stating that the corroboration of a child witness' testimony is a requirement for every case to support a conviction. (c) Yes, because the only rule of law is that the judge must have the rule of prudence on his mind in order for him to understand and appreciate the case. (d) Yes, because Nikki's young age in combination with other factors that may come into play in the case, such as her demeanour, the likelihood that she will receive tutoring, and other factors, may necessitate corroboration. Head Office: 127, Zone II, MP Nagar, Bhopal |+91-7676564400| https://www.toprankers.com Page 16 of 40 70. When Chutki, a 7-year-old from Dholakpur, came to play with Indumati, she ended up being an eyewitness to a robbery that took place in the Rajmahal. Chutki not only recognised the robbers but also consented to firmly testify as much in court. A night before Chutki's testimony in court, the robbery crew paid a visit to her home. She paused numerous times while giving her statement, as if she were attempting to recall something. She once remarked, "I stated so before the court because Tuntun Mausi urged me to,” Chutki’s testimony was rejected on the ground of tutoring. Based on your reading of the passage, is this correct? (a) Yes, because factors like Chutiki’s demeanour and likelihood of tutoring did not inspire confidence and trust of the Court (b) Yes, because Chutiki’s testimony inspired confidence and trust of the Court and could have been relied upon (c) No, because Chutiki’s testimony inspired confidence and trust of the Court and could have been relied upon (d) No, because factors like Chutiki’s demeanour and likelihood of tutoring did not inspire confidence and trust of the Court Passage (Q.71-Q.75): Section 123 of the Representation of People’s Act, 1951 defines ‘corrupt practices’ to include bribery, undue influence, false information, and promotion or attempted promotion of “feelings of enmity or hatred between different classes of the citizens of India on grounds of religion, race, caste, community, or language” by a candidate for the furtherance of his prospects in the election. Section 123 (2) deals with ‘undue influence’ which it defines as “any direct or indirect interference or attempt to interfere on the part of the candidate or his agent, or of any other person, with the consent of the candidate or his election agent (an individual who takes care of all the election related affairs of the candidate), with the free exercise of any electoral right.” This could also include threats of injury, social ostracism and expulsion from any caste or community. Moreover, using religious sentiments or convincing a candidate or an elector that they will become “an object of divine displeasure or spiritual censure” will also be considered an interference “with the free exercise of the electoral right of such candidate or elector.” Section 123 (4) extends the ambit of “corrupt practices” to the intentional publication of false statements which can prejudice the outcome of the candidate’s election. Under the provisions of the Act, an elected representative can be disqualified if convicted of certain offenses; on grounds of corrupt practices; for failing to declare election expenses; and for interests in government contracts or works. 71. There is a local election for a municipal council seat in a city in India. Two candidates are contesting for the seat, and their campaigns are in full swing. Candidate A is a popular local figure and has a strong grassroots support base. Candidate B is relatively unknown but has the backing of a political party with significant resources. During the course of the campaign, it comes to light that Candidate B has embellished their educational qualifications. Specifically, Candidate B has claimed to hold a degree from a prestigious university, but it turns out that they have only completed a diploma course from a local college. Candidate A's supporters raise this issue in public forums and on social media, and demand that Candidate B withdraw their candidacy. However, Candidate B's supporters argue that providing false information about educational qualifications cannot amount to a "corrupt act" under Section 123 of the Representation of People’s Act, 1951. The dispute between the two sides escalates, and eventually, the Election Commission of India is asked to weigh in on the matter. Choose a correct statement: (a) Candidate A will succeed as Candidate B's false claims about their educational qualifications are a deliberate attempt to mislead voters. (b) Candidate B will succeed as Section 123 was designed to prevent, and that providing false information about educational qualifications should be considered a corrupt act. (c) Candidate A will succeed as false claims about their educational qualifications falls under the categories listed in Section 123, and therefore can be considered a corrupt act. (d) Candidate B will succeed as false claims about their educational qualifications do not fall under any of the categories listed in Section 123, and therefore cannot be considered a corrupt act. Head Office: 127, Zone II, MP Nagar, Bhopal |+91-7676564400| https://www.toprankers.com Page 17 of 40 72. Two candidates, A and B, are contesting, for a state legislative assembly seat in a village in India. During the election campaign, a group of men associated with Candidate B approaches a voter, named Rajesh, who is known to support Candidate A. These men have been photographed multiple times with Candidate B and are generally considered to form a part of his campaigning bureau. The men tell Rajesh that if he votes for Candidate A, they will burn down his house and harm his family. They also offer Rajesh a sum of money if he agrees to vote for Candidate B instead. Rajesh is understandably terrified and tells the men that he will vote for Candidate B. Candidate A's supporters file a complaint with the Election Commission of India, alleging that Candidate B's campaign is engaging in "undue influence" in violation of Section 123 (2) of the Representation of People's Act, 1951. Candidate B's supporters argue that Candidate B and his agent had no knowledge of the incident and that the men involved acted on their own. Decide upon the liability of candidate B for violation of Section 123 (2) of the Representation of People's Act, 1951. (a) He will be held liable as Rajesh was harassed by no one but a group of men associated with Candidate B. (b) He will not be held liable under section 123(2) as neitherCandidate B nor his election agent gave consent for the said actand that the men involved acted on their own. (c) He will be held liable as threats and intimidation tactics used by Candidate B's associates are a clear attempt to interfere with the free exercise of Rajesh's electoral right. (d) He will not be held liable as he is not responsible for the actions of his supporters. 73. During a state election in India, a candidate, Mr. Singh, is known for using religious sentiments to influence voters. Mr. Singh's campaign team members, who are mostly affiliated with a particular religious group, visit various villages and towns to campaign for him. One incident in particular stands out. The religious leader addresses a crowd of his supporters, claiming that anyone who votes for anyone other than him would be cursed and punished by the gods since the God himself has sent him to enlighten the way of religion to all its followers. Feeling intimidated and pressured, many of the religious leader's followers agree to vote for Candidate A. However, some members of the community are disturbed by the religious leader's behavior and report the incident. Choose a correct statement: (a) Mr. Singh’s act is in violation of Section 123 (2) of the Representation of People’s Act, 1951as he used emotion to influence voters. (b) Mr. Singh is liable for violation of Section 123 (2) of RPA as he used religious sentiments to influence voters and interfered with the free exercise of their electoral rights. (c) Mr Singh will be held liable for violation of section 123 as he interfered with the free exercise of the electoral right of him as a candidate. (d) Mr. singh will not be held liable as he was merely sating his opinion and did not intend to interference with the free exercise of the electoral right of other candidate or elector. 74. Which of the following situations is an example of "corrupt practices" as defined under the act? I. Candidate A decides in its election campaign that he will distribute a latest cell phone to all of the voters.. II. Candidate A who was running second time used his personal funds instead of using public funds for advertising or rallies. III. A candidate accepted donations, and failed to disclose the amount of donations to the election commission upon an inquiry. (a) I and III (b) III (c) II and III (d) II Head Office: 127, Zone II, MP Nagar, Bhopal |+91-7676564400| https://www.toprankers.com Page 18 of 40 75. There is an election for a local city council, and one of the candidates, John, wins by a significant margin. However, the opposing candidate, Sarah, accuses John of ballot stuffing and rigging the election results. She claims that John's team tampered with the ballot boxes and added fake ballots to secure his victory. However, after a thorough investigation, it is revealed that there is no evidence of ballot stuffing or rigging and Sarah's campaign team spread false rumors about John and his team, with no evidence to support their claims. John claims compensation from Sarah and her team for indulging in corrupt practice. Will he succeed? (a) Sarah will be held liable as she spread false rumors against John. (b) Sarah will be held accountable regardless of whether John won the election since she disseminated false rumors about John and his team. (c) Sarah will not be held accountable because anyways john is the winner. (d) Sarah will not be held liable under section 123(4) as she spread the rumors after the election which had no affect on the outcome of the election. Passage (Q.76-Q.80): The Madhya Pradesh High Court recently amended a condition of Bail of two persons accused of tax evasion, which would consequently allow them to travel abroad 'in furtherance of their business and professional pursuits.' Relying on the decisions of the Apex Court in Atul Shukla v. State of M.P. & Anr. and the Karnataka High Court in Imran Khan &Anr. v. The State of Karnataka Forest Department, the Prosecuting agency argued that no recall, review or modification of an order passed under CrPC is permissible by exercise of inherent powers under Section 482 CrPC. Disagreeing with the contention put forth by the State, the Court opined that since there is no specific provision to amend the conditions of bail granted under Section 439(1) (a) CrPC, the only course available for seeking and granting modification/ deletion of such a condition would be by invoking the inherent powers of the Court under Section 482 CrPC to ensure the ends of justice- Section 482 of Cr.P.C. saves inherent powers of this Court to be exercised inter alia to secure the ends of justice…. If such inherent powers are otherwise not available to this Court u/S.482 of Cr.P.C., then object of insertion of Section 482 of Cr.P.C. would stand defeated and this Court would be rendered a toothless tiger. The Legislature while enacting the Code of Criminal Procedure could never have approved a situation where this superior Court is handicapped to exercise its inherent powers to modify/delete a condition imposed u/S.439(1)(a) of Cr.P.C. despite existence of compelling circumstances merely because of absence of enabling provision in the Cr.P.C. It further noted that the inherent powers were saved with the Court to be exercised in such circumstances where cause for doing complete justice or preventing failure of justice existed, but there was no express provision in CrPC. Source- Livelaw, “High Court can exercise inherent jurisdiction…” published on 02 April 2022, https://www.livelaw.in/news-updates/madhya-pradesh-high-court-section-362-crpc-inherent-power-482-crpc- modify-bail-condition- 195640#:~:text=The%20Madhya%20Pradesh%20High%20Court,their%20business%20and%20professional% 20pursuits.' ] Based on the passage above, answer the following questions: Head Office: 127, Zone II, MP Nagar, Bhopal |+91-7676564400| https://www.toprankers.com Page 19 of 40 76. Based on the passage above, decide which of the following options aptly summarise Section 482 of the CrPC (a) The court observed that the object behind bestowing inherent powers upon it was to avoid making it a toothless tiger. (b) The court observed that the object behind bestowing inherent powers upon it was to provide only for situations which are not provided in CrPC. (c) The Court observed that the object behind bestowing inherent powers upon it was to do complete justice and to prevent miscarriage of justice. (d) The court observed that the object behind best showing inherent powers upon it was too modify the conditions of bail granted to any accused. 77. Sudesh was arrested on grounds of cheating and fraud as defined in IPC. After the trial was over, the Sessions Court convicted him and sentenced him to 10 years of imprisonment. However, after 3 years of imprisonment, Sudesh fell extremely ill. He moved a bail application under section 482 before the Sessions Court citing medical reasons. Will Sessions Court grant him bail on medical grounds under section 482? (a) Sessions court can invoke the power under section 482 to grant bail on medical grounds. (b) Sessions court can invoke the power under section 482 to grant bail on medical grounds as otherwise this will lead to failure of justice. (c) Sessions court can invoke the power under section 482 to grant bail on medical grounds as this is a situation where inherent jurisdiction can be invoked. (d) None of the above 78. Mr. Kamal Dwivedi is a renowned businessman and is extremely rich. He lives in London with his family. However, due to tax evasion charges, he is summoned by the Indian Court. He refused to appear before the Court on the pretext of long distance travel. He moves an Application under Section 482 before the High Court in order to stop the proceedings. Will High Court interfere? (a) The High Court will interfere to secure the ends of justice. (b) The High Court will not interfere as there is no injustice caused to an accused who has evaded tax. (c) The High Court will interfere to secure the ends of justice since it will be extremely difficult for the accused to come to India for the trial (d) The High Court will not interfere as section 482 cannot be used to quash the criminal proceedings 79. The Legislature passed a new Act, “Prevention of War and Terrorism in India Act” for preventing terrorism in India. Section 4 of the Act provides that in any case where an accused is charged under this Act, provisions of Section 482 of CrPC shall not apply. Raju, an accused under the Terrorism Act files his bail application under section 482 of CrPC before the High Court. As a High Court judge, can you hear the bail application? (a) Since the Terrorism Act ousts the jurisdiction of High Court under section 482, the judge cannot here the bail application. (b) The judge can hear the bail application by invoking its inherent power under section 482, irrespective of whether the Terrorism Act ousts its jurisdiction. (c) The judge will not hear the bail application as there is no injustice being caused to invoke section 482. (d) None of the above. Head Office: 127, Zone II, MP Nagar, Bhopal |+91-7676564400| https://www.toprankers.com Page 20 of 40 80. CrPC provides for rigorous and simple imprisonment. Under rigorous imprisonment, the accused is obligated to do economic work inside the jail. Prathmesh, aged 45 years, was convicted for rape and sentenced to 30 years of rigorous imprisonment. When he was aged 65 years, he moved an application to convert rigorous imprisonment into simple imprisonment. The High Court notices that it has no such power under any provision of CrPC and denied his request. Prathmesh filed an appeal before the Supreme Court. Decide. (a) The Supreme Court will overrule the decision of High Court as High Court can invoke its inherent power under section 482 to secure ends of justice (b) The Supreme Court will overrule the decision of High Court and will itself allow the request of the accused under section 482 (c) The Supreme Court will not overrule the decision of High Court as High Court cannot entertain such application without any provision in law (d) The Supreme Court may or may not overrule the decision, depending upon whether the application filed is bona fide or not. Passage (Q.81-Q.85): The final formulation (Article 163) reads: “There shall be a Council of Ministers with the chief minister at the head to aid and advise the Governor in the exercise of his functions, except in so far as he is by or under this Constitution required to exercise his functions or any of them in his discretion”. The Governor has discretion only in cases where it was provided in other Articles of the Constitution (such as the Sixth Schedule related to tribal areas of Assam). Indeed, Ambedkar clarified, “The Governor under the Constitution has no functions which he can discharge by himself; no functions at all”. Over the last 70 years, two questions have kept cropping up. Are individuals appointed by the central government able to maintain their independence from the political preference of the central government? What is the level of discretion that governors have in their decision-making powers? The Constitution provides the governor full discretion for certain actions such as special powers in some states in the North-East. There are some other areas where the governor needs to exercise judgement. For example, after an election, the governor will have to decide whom to invite to form government whenever a single party or coalition does not have a clear majority. The decision to dissolve the assembly also has to be made if no one is able to demonstrate majority support in the legislative assembly. The governor also has to act in certain circumstances when the unity of the nation is at stake. The governor has full discretion to recommend the dismissal of the chief minister and imposition of President’s rule. Clearly, no chief minister is likely to recommend such an action, and this decision has to be made by the governor. Six high-level committees and commissions have looked into the issue. These include three in the 1969-71 period, the Sarkaria Commission in the 1980s, the National Commission to Review the Working of the Constitution and the Punchhi Commission in the 2000s. These commissions suggested that the governor should be an individual from a different state who was not recently involved in politics, and that the chief minister should be consulted before appointment. They recommended security of tenure and term limits to ensure independence. They also said that President’s Rule should be a last resort, and that the confidence in a government should be tested only on the floor of the House. Head Office: 127, Zone II, MP Nagar, Bhopal |+91-7676564400| https://www.toprankers.com Page 21 of 40 81. In State B the Governor wants to appoint an Executive officer. The Constitution grants the power of appointment for such Executive Officer to Governor who have to take advice of the Cabinet before appointment. In state B election the assembly has been dissolved as no party is in majority and therefore, there is no cabinet. Therefore, the Governor appoints the officer on his own. Decide the validity of the action of Governor. (a) The appointment by Governor is valid as there exists no Cabinet to consult and the appointment is necessary. (b) The appointment by Governor is valid as the Governor is the head of the state and he is empowered to appoint officers for state. (c) The appointment is invalid as the Governor should have waited till the time a new Cabinet is formed and should have appointed on the advice of new cabinet. (d) The appointment is invalid as the Constitution provides for Governor to appoint after taking the advice of the Cabinet which was not fulfilled. 82. In accordance with the passage, which statement express Ambedkar’s opinion in the most appropriate manner. (a) The Governor has no power at all under the Constitution. (b) The Governor is just a titular head of the State and the real power lies with the Chief Minister of the State. (c) The Governor is bound by the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers to perform any function provided in Constitution. (d) The Constitution provides no function which Governor can perform on his own but there exists certain functions which are not provided in the Constitution which Governor can perform on his own. 83. As per the passage, in which of the following matter the Governor can exercise his discretion: i. To dissolve assembly. ii. When people of the State are protesting against government, damaging the public property and demanding a separate statehood. iii. To invite a party to form government after every election. iv. To recommend dismissal of Chief Minister. (a) i, iii and iv (b) ii and iv (c) i, ii, iii and iv (d) ii, iii, and iv 84. Which of the following is not a recommendation made by the Commissions? (a) Floor-test is one of the way to check the confidence of the house in government. (b) The Governor can be independent when he is resident of a different state having no political ties. (c) The Chief Minister should be the one who must appoint the Governor. (d) (a) and (c) 85. Which the following statement can be derived from the passage? (a) Ambedkar opinion regarding the discretion of Governor is inconsistent with Article 163. (b) When an individual is appointed by the Central Government, he associates himself with the political party which is in power at the central level. (c) The Governor can exercise discretion only in exceptional cases when the law as well as circumstances permit. (d) The Governor has the power to recommend dismissal of Chief Minister and therefore, he holds superior position and power. Head Office: 127, Zone II, MP Nagar, Bhopal |+91-7676564400| https://www.toprankers.com Page 22 of 40 Passage (Q.86-Q.90): The concept of medical negligence has undergone a major transformation from being a crime to a tort. Today, medical negligence means negligence on the part of the doctor to act in accordance with medical standards in vogue, being practiced by an ordinarily reasonably competent man practicing the same art. It suggests some irregular conduct on the part of any member of the medical profession or related services in discharge of his/her professional duties. Under civil law, liability arises for the tort of negligence as applied to medical accidents and the development of the concept of ‘duty of care’ in negligence as a whole has a constant bearing on ‘duty of care’ in the medical context also. Negligence is the breach of a legal duty to take care, resulting in undesired damage. Therefore, there has to exist a legal duty of care by the defendant towards the plaintiff, there should be a breach of such duty and some damage should have resulted from such breach. In alleging negligence against a doctor, the patient has to show, on the balance of probabilities that the particular defendant owed the patient a duty of care, that the doctor has breached that duty by acting below the standard prescribed by law and that this breach has caused damage. Such a person when consulted by a patient owes him certain duties, viz., (i) a duty of care in deciding whether to undertake the case; and (ii) a duty of care in deciding what treatment to give or a duty of care in the administration of that treatment. A breach of any of these duties gives a right of action for negligence. [Source:https://articles.manupatra.com/article-details/Supreme-Court-and-Medical-Negligence-Necessary- Protection-or-License-to-Kill] 86. Ram, a 45-year-old diabetic patient, consulted Dr. Ramesh, a renowned endocrinologist, for the treatment of his uncontrolled blood sugar levels. Dr. Ramesh prescribed Ram a new medication without properly assessing his medical history, including the fact that Ram was already taking medication for high blood pressure. After taking the medication for a week, Ram developed severe complications and was hospitalized for kidney damage. Ram wants to sue Dr. Ramesh for medical negligence. To prove medical negligence, what must Ram show on the balance of probabilities in the given factual situation? (a) That Dr. Ramesh had no intention of providing proper medical care to Ram. (b) That Dr. Ramesh breached the duty of care by not assessing Ram’s medical history before prescribing new medication. (c) That Ram’s kidney damage was not caused by the medication prescribed by Dr. Ramesh. (d) That Ram’s uncontrolled blood sugar levels were the sole cause of his kidney damage. 87. A patient named Tom visited a doctor for a routine check-up. During the check-up, the doctor discovered that Tom had high blood pressure and prescribed him medication to manage it. A few weeks later, Tom returned to the doctor and reported that the medication had caused him to experience a significant increase in heart rate. The doctor then stopped the medication and prescribed a different one. Did the doctor’s actions in this scenario amount to medical negligence? (a) Yes, the doctor was negligent in failing to monitor the side effects of the first medication and prescribing a different one. (b) No, the doctor acted appropriately in stopping the first medication and prescribing a different one when the side effects became apparent. (c) Yes, the doctor was negligent in not thoroughly reviewing Tom’s medical history before prescribing the first medication. (d) No, the doctor did not have a duty to ensure the first medication would not have any side effects. Head Office: 127, Zone II, MP Nagar, Bhopal |+91-7676564400| https://www.toprankers.com Page 23 of 40 88. A patient named Mary visited a doctor for treatment of a back injury. The doctor prescribed her physical therapy and pain medication. After several weeks of treatment, Mary’s condition worsened and she was unable to walk. She then went to a specialist who discovered that the original doctor had misdiagnosed her injury as a sprain when it was actually a herniated disk. The specialist recommended surgery to correct the problem. Can Mary sue the original doctor for medical negligence? (a) No, Mary cannot sue the original doctor for medical negligence as the misdiagnosis was not a significant factor in her worsened condition and the need for additional medical treatment. (b) No, Mary cannot sue the original doctor for medical negligence as the doctor acted in good faith and did not intend to cause harm. (c) Yes, Mary can sue the original doctor for medical negligence as the doctor failed to diagnose her injury accurately and did not refer her to a specialist in a timely manner. (d) No, Mary cannot sue the original doctor for medical negligence as the doctor’s actions did not breach the standard of care for a reasonable doctor in the same circumstances. 89. A patient named Jack visited a doctor for a routine check-up. The doctor performed a physical examination and took a blood sample for testing. The test results showed that Jack had high blood pressure, but the doctor failed to inform Jack of the results or provide any treatment or follow-up care. Jack was later diagnosed with a heart condition that could have been prevented with early treatment for high blood pressure. Can Jack sue the doctor for medical negligence? (a) Yes, Jack can sue the doctor for medical negligence as the doctor failed to inform him of the test results and provide necessary treatment or follow-up care. (b) No, Jack cannot sue the doctor for medical negligence as the doctor did not cause harm through any action or inaction. (c) No, Jack cannot sue the doctor for medical negligence as the doctor acted in good faith and did not intend to cause harm. (d) No, Jack cannot sue the doctor for medical negligence as the doctor’s actions did not breach the standard of care for a reasonable doctor in the same circumstances. 90. A patient named Tom visited a doctor for a routine physical examination. During the examination, the doctor discovered that Tom had high blood pressure and prescribed him medication to lower it. The doctor also advised Tom to make lifestyle changes, such as reducing his salt intake and exercising regularly. Despite following the doctor’s advice, Tom’s blood pressure did not improve, and he suffered a stroke. Can Tom sue the doctor for medical negligence? (a) Yes, Tom can sue the doctor for medical negligence as the doctor’s failure to effectively treat his high blood pressure directly led to his stroke. (b) No, Tom cannot sue the doctor for medical negligence as the doctor did everything within their power to treat his high blood pressure and it was ultimately beyond their control that Tom suffered a stroke. (c) Yes, Tom can sue the doctor for medical negligence as the doctor failed to properly diagnose his condition and did not refer him to a specialist in a timely manner. (d) No, Tom cannot sue the doctor for medical negligence as the doctor did breach the standard of care for a reasonable doctor in the same circumstances. Head Office: 127, Zone II, MP Nagar, Bhopal |+91-7676564400| https://www.toprankers.com Page 24 of 40 Passage (Q.91-Q.95): In order to avoid exploitation to the workers engaged through outsourcing agencies in State/UT Government offices/otherwise, Ahuja has advised Chief Secretaries/ Administrators of all States/UTs to incorporate certain statutory obligations in their contract so that the rights of the workers could be protected. The centre asks states to include provisions in job contracts to protect rights of outsourced staff. The Ministry of Labour and Employment recently incorporated six statutory obligations on GeM (Government e Marketing) portal in the contract of hiring manpower through outsourcing agencies in Government of India offices/otherwise in order to protect the interest of the contractual workers, a labour ministry statement said. These obligations include mandatory contribution of EPF and ESIC by the agencies in timely manner. States are also asked to provide in the contract that the service provider/contractor shall be responsible for paying wages to contract labour at rates not less than the minimum wages as notified by the Appropriate Government. Another provision is that the service provider/contractor shall not make any unauthorized deductions from the wages of the contract labour. As per the Contract Labour (Regulation and Abolition) Act, 1970, the service provider/contractor shall be responsible for ensuring that wages are paid to the contract labour on time, she also suggested. In case the service provider/contractor fails to pay the wages on time or makes a short payment, the principal employer/buyer shall be liable to pay the wages to the contract labour directly and recover the amount from the service provider/contractor, is another provision. The service provider/contractor shall be responsible for paying bonus to contract labour in the manner prescribed by the Payment of Bonus Act, 1965 & shall get reimbursed from the buyer, was also suggested. The service provider/contractor shall be responsible for paying proportionate gratuity to contract labour that have rendered continuous service as per the provisions of the Payment of Gratuity Act, 1972, was also provided. (Source: https://indianexpress.com/article/india/centre-provisions-job-contracts-protect-outsourced-staff- 8565591/ ) 91. According to the passage, which of the following obligations were recently incorporated on the GeM portal to protect the rights of contractual workers in Government of India offices? i. Mandatory training for outsourced staff ii. Timely payment of wages by the outsourcing agencies iii. Free transportation for outsourced staff iv. Mandatory health check-ups for outsourced staff. (a) Only one of the given statements is correct. (b) Only two of the given statements are correct. (c) Only three of the given statements are correct. (d) All four statements are correct. 92. In Chhattisgarh, R ran an outsourcing agency that offered salon services using imported products. He had been in charge of the organization for three years. While T was chosen to serve as his agency's service provider, he was the principal employer. For the following three months, T neglected to pay H, a hair stylist employed by the agency, wages. Consider the passage carefully and identify the remedies H possesses. (a) H has the option to complain to the court about the non-payment of his wages. (b) T can be forced by H to pay the wages, and H has the right to charge him extra interest if he doesn't. (c) H does not have a remedy because he was required to act when he was not given the payment in the first month. (d) If T fails to pay the defaulted compensation, H may ask R to do so. 93. HP served as an outsourcing company. In its contract, it was stated that taking more than three leaves in a month would result in a 3% deduction from pay, regardless of the reason for the absence. Y worked for the agency but had to take a one-week leave due to his medical condition. He got a deducted income at the end of the month. In accordance with the Labour Contract Act, he complained. Check to see if his complaint is legitimate. (a) Y's complaint will not be upheld because he took more time off than was permitted. (b) Since the contractor made an unauthorized deduction from Y's pay, his complaint will be upheld. (c) Since Y's complaint had a medical justification, it will be considered valid. (d) Y's complaint will be dismissed because the wages are at the agency's discretion. Head Office: 127, Zone II, MP Nagar, Bhopal |+91-7676564400| https://www.toprankers.com Page 25 of 40 94. In the state of Uttar Pradesh, the government announced a monthly minimum wage of 1350 rupees. V hired G to work as a delivery person in his store. He owned a grocery store that also offered home delivery. G was provided with a monthly wage of 1500 rupees. For that particular month, he only received 700 rupees because he was on vacation for two weeks when the permitted leave was of only two days per month. He filed a complaint for noncompliance with the minimum wage guideline. Determine whether G is qualified to make such a claim. (a) G is not qualified to make such a claim because wages are paid at the discretion of the employer. (b) G is eligible to file such a claim because he was not even paid the minimum wage. (c) G is not qualified to make such a claim because he was paid the minimum wage when he had not taken extra leaves. (d) G is qualified to make such a claim because he was not informed in advance that it was a non-paid leave. 95. F ran an outsourcing company and had hired Z and X as workers. Both received remuneration based on the quality of their services. Z was paid 1200 rupees per month, while X was paid 1600 rupees, despite the fact that the government's minimum wage was 1500 rupees. Determine whether or not both employees were paid an adequate wage. (a) X was paid a valid wage because it was higher than the minimum prescribed wage, whereas Z was not. (b) Z received a valid wage because it was higher than the minimum wage prescribed, whereas Z did not receive a valid wage. (c) Given that the wages did not meet government standards, neither X nor Z were paid valid wages. (d) Both were paid a fair wage because it was determined by the quality of the work performed. Passage (Q.96-Q.100): The Supreme Court expressed its inclination towards constituting an expert committee to determine if the execution of death penalty through hanging was proportionate. A bench comprising Chief Justice DY Chandrachud and Justice PS Narasimha was hearing a PIL seeking to abolish the present practice of executing a death row convict by hanging which involves “prolonged pain and suffering” and to replace it with intravenous lethal injection, shooting, electrocution or gas chamber in which a convict could die in just a matter of minutes. The petitioner-in-person, Advocate Rishi Malhotra argued that when a man was hanged, his dignity stood lost and that dignity, even in death was necessary. He submitted that a convict, whose life has to be ended, should not have to suffer the pain of hanging as "nothing can be equated with dignity in death". Malhotra established before the court that the course of events in other countries showed that hanging was slowly being abandoned as a method of executing the death penalty. He stated that 36 states in the USA had already abandoned the practice of hanging. To establish the cruel and barbaric nature of death by hanging, he provided examples of cases where death row convicts had to be left hanging for two days as they slowly strangulated. He said - "Our own armed forces law provides for two choices - either by shooting or by hanging. These provisions are missing in our CrPC provisions. It (death by hanging) is neither quick, nor humane - 30 minutes the body keeps hanging till the doctor checks if the person is dead or not." To support his arguments, Malhotra cited the dissenting judgement of Justice PN Bhagwati in Bachan Singh vs. State Of Punjab and read - "If the drop is too short, there will be a slow and agonising death by strangulation. On the other hand, if the drop is too long, the head will be torn off." (Source: https://www.livelaw.in/top-stories/death-penalty-by-hanging-barbaric-supreme-court-to-examine- less-p

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