ac engineering.pdf

ASSEMBLY AND RIGGING b. Tail to pivot in the direction of torque rotation around the main rotor axis 1. The purpose of the vertical fin is to provide c. Anti-tor...

ASSEMBLY AND RIGGING b. Tail to pivot in the direction of torque rotation around the main rotor axis 1. The purpose of the vertical fin is to provide c. Anti-torque system to become more efficient a. Directional stability in the hover mode b. Longitudinal stability 10. Which statement concerning the 100-hour c. Lateral stability inspection of an airplane equipped with a push-pull 2. A universal propeller protractor used to measure tube-type control system is true? the degrees of aileron travel should be zeroed a. The threaded rod ends should not be adjusted a. With the aileron in the NEUTRAL position in length for rigging purposes because the rod b. With the aileron in the DOWN position ends have been properly positioned and staked c. When the aircraft is in a level flight attitude during manufacture 3. Other than the manufacturer maintenance manual b. The terminal end threads of the turnbuckles what other document could be used to determine should be visible through the safety hole in the the primary flight control surface deflection for an barrel imported aircraft that is reassembled after c. The threaded rod ends should be checked shipment? for the amount of thread engagement by a. Aircraft type certificate data sheet means of the inspection hole provided b. Import manual for the aircraft 11. Main rotor blades that do not cone by the same c. The certificate of airworthiness issued by the amount during rotation are said to be out of importing country a. Balance 4. If all instructions issued by the swaging tool b. Collective pitch manufacturer are followed when swaging a cable c. Track terminal, the resultant swaged terminal strength 12. An airplane which has good longitudinal stability should be should have a minimum tendency to a. The full rated strength of the cable a. Roll b. 80 percent of the full rated strength of the b. Pitch cable c. Yaw c. 70 percent of the full rated strength of the 13. Movement about the lateral axis (pitch) in a cable helicopter is effected by movement of the 5. If control cables are adjusted properly and the a. Collective pitch control control surfaces tend to vibrate, the probable cause b. Cyclic pitch control is c. Tail rotor pitch control a. Worn attachment fittings 14. The chord of a wing is measured from b. Oil can effects on the control surfaces a. Wingtip to wingtip c. Excessive cable tension b. Wing root to the wingtip 6. Fairleads should never deflect the alignment of a c. Leading edge to trailing edge cable more than 15. The purpose of spring tabs or servo tabs is to a. 12° a. Assist the pilot in moving the control b. 8° surfaces c. 3° b. Contribute to the static balance of the control 7. Movement about the longitudinal axis (roll) in a surface helicopter is affected by movement of the c. Make in-flight trim adjustments possible a. Collective pitch control 16. Why is it generally necessary to jack an aircraft b. Cyclic pitch control indoors for weighing? c. Tail rotor pitch control a. So aircraft may be placed in a level position 8. What physical factors are involved in the aspect b. So that air currents do not destabilize the ratio of airplane wings? scales a. Thickness and chord c. So weighing scales may be calibrated to 0 b. Span and chord pounds c. Dihedral and angle of attack 17. Which is an acceptable safety device for a castle 9. A reduction in anti-torque thrust will cause the nut when installed on secondary structures? a. Tail pivot in the opposite direction of torque a. Star washer rotation around the main rotor axis b. Lock washer c. Cotter pin 18. As the angle of attack of an airfoil increases, the check of the elevator trim tab system will cause the center of pressure will trailing edge of the trim tab to move in which a. Move toward the trailing edge direction? b. Remain stationary because both lift and drag a. Downward regardless of elevator position components increase proportionally to b. Upward regardless of elevator position increased angle of attack c. Downward if the elevator is in the UP position c. Move toward the leading edge and upward if the elevator is in the DOWN 19. During inspection of the flight control system of an position airplane equipped with differential-type aileron 25. Where would you find precise information to control, side-to-side movement of the control stick perform a symmetry alignment check for a will cause particular aircraft? a. Each aileron to have a greater up travel a. Aircraft Specification or Type Certificate Data (from the streamlined position) than down Sheet travel b. Manufacturer’s service bulletins b. Each aileron to have a greater down travel c. Aircraft service or maintenance manual (from the streamlined position) than up travel 26. If the right wing of a monoplane is improperly c. The left aileron to move through a greater rigged to a greater angle of incidence than number of degrees (from full up to full down) designated in the manufacturer’s specifications, it than the right aileron will cause the 20. What nondestructive checking method is normally a. Airplane to be off balance both laterally used to ensure that the correct amount of swaging and directionally has taken place when installing swaged-type b. Airplane to pitch and roll about the lateral axis terminals on aircraft control cable? c. Right wing to have both an increased lift and a a. Check the surface of the swaged portion of the decreased drag terminal for small cracks which indicate 27. The universal propeller protractor can be used to incomplete swaging measure b. Measure the finished length of the terminal a. Propeller track barrel and compare with the beginning length b. Aspect ratio of a wing c. Use a terminal gauge to check the diameter c. Degrees of flap travel of the swaged portion of the terminal 28. One purpose of the freewheeling unit required 21. Aircraft flight control trim systems must be between the engine and the helicopter transmission designed and installed so that the is to a. Pilot can determine the relative position of a. Automatically disengage the rotor from the the trim tab from the cockpit engine in case of an engine failure b. Operating control and the trim tab will always b. Disconnect the rotor from the engine to relieve move in the same direction the starter load c. Trim system will disengage or become c. Permit practice of autorotation landings inoperative if the primary flight control system 29. An airplane that has a tendency to gradually fails increase a pitching moment that has been set into 22. Which statement is correct concerning torque motion has effect on helicopters? a. Poor longitudinal stability a. Torque direction is the same as rotor blade b. Good lateral stability rotation c. Poor lateral stability b. As horsepower decreases, torque increases 30. The primary purpose of stall strips is to c. Torque direction is the opposite of rotor a. Provide added lift at slow speeds blade rotation b. Stall the inboard portion of the wings first 23. In a hovering helicopter equipped with a tail rotor, c. Provide added lift at high angles of attack directional control is maintained by 31. The auxiliary (tail) rotor of a helicopter permits the a. Changing the tail rotor RPM pilot to compensate for and/or accomplish which of b. Tilting the main rotor disk in the desired the following? direction a. Attitude and airspeed c. Varying the pitch of the tail rotor blades b. Lateral and yaw position 24. Movement of the cockpit control toward the c. Torque and directional control nosedown position during a ground operational 32. If the control stick of an aircraft with properly a. Decrease rigged flight controls is moved rearward and to the b. Also increase left, the right aileron will move c. Increase while the lift is changing but will a. Down and the elevator will move down return to its original value b. Up and the elevator will move down 41. Very often, repairs to a control surface require c. Down and the elevator will move up static rebalancing of the control surface. Generally, 33. The correct dihedral angle can be determined by flight control balance condition may be determined a. Measuring the angular setting of each wing at by the rear spar with a bubble protractor a. Checking for equal distribution of weight b. Placing a straightedge and bubble protractor throughout the control surface across the spars while the airplane is in flying b. The behavior of the trailing edge when the position surface is suspended from its hinge points c. Using a dihedral board and bubble level c. Suspending the control surface from its along the front spar of each wing leading edge in the stream line position and 34. Excessive wear on both of the sides of a control checking weight distribution cable pulley groove is evidence of 42. If a single-rotor helicopter is in forward horizontal a. Pulley misalignment flight, the angle of attack of the advancing blade is b. Cable misalignment a. More than the retreating blade c. Excessive cable tension b. Equal to the retreating blade 35. What is the purpose of the free-wheeling unit in a c. Less than the retreating blade helicopter drive system? 43. A helicopter in forward flight, cruise configuration, a. It disconnects the rotor whenever the engine changes direction by stops or slows below the equivalent of rotor a. Varying the pitch of the main rotor blades RPM b. Changing rotor RPM b. It releases the rotor brake for starting c. Tilting the main rotor disk in the desired c. It relieves bending stress on the rotor blades direction during starting 44. Differential control on an aileron system means 36. The angle of incidence is that acute angle formed that by a. The down travel is more than the up travel a. The angular difference between the setting of b. The up travel is more than the down travel the main airfoil and the auxiliary airfoil c. One aileron on one wing travels further up (horizontal stabilizer) in reference to the than the aileron on the opposite wing to adjust longitudinal axis of the aircraft for wash-in and wash-out b. A line parallel to the wing chord and a line 45. The vertical flight of a helicopter is controlled by parallel to the longitudinal axis of the a. Collective pitch changes aircraft b. Cyclic pitch changes c. A line parallel to the wing from root to tip and c. Increasing or decreasing the RPM of the main a line parallel to the lateral axis of the aircraft rotor 37. Which should be accomplished before jacking an 46. What is the smallest size cable that may be used in aircraft? aircraft primary control systems? a. Install critical stress panels or plates a. ¼ inch b. Determine that the fuel tanks are empty b. 5/16 inch c. Make sure the aircraft is leveled laterally c. 1/8 inch 38. The acute angle formed by the chord line of a wing 47. The cable-operated control system of an all-metal and the relative wind is known as the aircraft, not incorporating a temperature a. Longitudinal dihedral angle compensating device, has been rigged to the b. Angle of incidence correct tension in a heated hangar. If the aircraft is c. Angle of attack operated in very cold weather, the cable tension 39. An airplane is controlled directionally about its will vertical axis by the a. Decrease when the aircraft structure and a. Rudder cables become cold b. Elevator(s) b. Increase when the aircraft structure and cables c. Ailerons become cold 40. When the lift of an airfoil increases, the drag will  c. Be unaffected if stainless steel cable is 55. How are changes in direction of a control cable installed accomplished? 48. Washing-in the left wing of a monoplane, for a. Pulleys purposes of rigging corrections after flight test, will b. Bell cranks have what effect on the lift and drag of that wing? c. Fairleads a. Both drag and lift will decrease due to 56. If the travel of an airplane’s controls is correct but decreased angle of attack the cables are rigged exceptionally tight, what b. Both drag and lift will increase due to probable effect will this have when flying the increased angle of attack airplane? c. The drag will decrease due to the effect of the a. The airplane will tend to fall off on one wing lift increase b. The airplane will be heavy on the controls 49. A tension regulator in the flight control cable c. The pilot will be unable to fly the airplane system of a large all-metal aircraft is used hands-off primarily to 57. The angle of incidence of an airplane at rest a. Increase the cable tension in cold weather a. Affects the dihedral of the wings in flight b. Provide a means of changing cable tension in b. Is the same as the angle between the relative flight wind and the chord of the wing c. Retain a set tension c. Does not change when in flight 50. Buffeting is the intermittent application of forces to 58. When a fiber or nylon insert-type, self-locking nut a part of an airplane. It is caused by can be threaded on a bolt or stud through the insert a. Incorrect rigging of flaps with only the fingers, it should be b. An unsteady flow from turbulence a. Re-torqued frequently c. Incorrect rigging of ailerons b. Rejected 51. Wing dihedral, a rigging consideration on most c. Reused only in a different location airplanes of conventional design, contributes most 59. In rotorcraft external-loading, the ideal location of to stability of the airplane about its the cargo release is where the line of action passes a. Longitudinal axis a. Aft of the center of gravity at all times b. Vertical axis b. Forward of the center of gravity at all times c. Lateral axis c. Through the center of gravity at all times 52. Where is the buttock line or buttline of an aircraft? 60. Where does the breakage of control cable wires a. A height measurement left or right of, and occur most frequently? perpendicular to, the horizontal centerline a. Breakage usually occurs where cables pass b. A width measurement left of, and over pulleys and through fairleads perpendicular to, the vertical centerline b. Breakage sites are unpredictable and usually c. A width measurement left or right of, and occur randomly anywhere along the length of parallel to, the vertical centerline a cable 53. If a pilot reports that an airplane flies left wing c. Breakage usually occurs where cables are heavy, this condition may be corrected by swaged to turnbuckle and ball terminals a. Increasing the angle of incidence of the left 61. Stability about the axis which runs parallel to the wing, or decreasing the angle of incidence of line of flight is referred to as the right wing, or both a. Longitudinal stability b. Increasing the dihedral angle of the left wing, b. Lateral stability or decreasing the dihedral angle adjusting the c. Directional stability dihedral of the right wing, or both 62. Movement of an airplane along its lateral axis (roll) c. Adjusting the dihedral angle of the left wing so is also movement that differential pressure between the upper a. Around or about the longitudinal axis and lower wing surfaces is increased controlled by the elevator 54. If the vertical fin of a single-engine, propeller- b. Around or about the lateral axis controlled by driven airplane is rigged properly, it will generally the ailerons be parallel to c. Around or about the longitudinal axis a. The longitudinal axis but not the vertical axis controlled by the ailerons b. The vertical axis but not the longitudinal 63. The purpose in checking main rotor blade tracking axis is to determine the c. Both the longitudinal and vertical axes  a. Relative position of the blades during a. Lateral axis rotation b. Longitudinal axis b. Flight path of the blades during rotation c. Vertical axis c. Extent of an out of balance condition during 72. After repairing or re-covering a rudder, the surface rotation should be rebalanced 64. Where is fuselage station No. 137 located? a. To its spanwise axis a. 137 centimeters aft of the nose or fixed b. In its normal flight position reference line c. To manufacturer’s specifications b. 137 inches aft of the zero or fixed reference 73. The purpose of wing slats is to line a. Reduce stalling speed c. Aft of the engine b. Decrease drag 65. The vast majority of aircraft control cables are c. Increase speed on takeoff terminated with swaged terminals, that must be a. Corrosion treated to show compliance with the 74. Proper wing twist in a sheet metal constructed manufacturer’s requirements after the swaging wing can usually be checked by utilizing operation a. Plum bob, string, and straightedge b. Pull tested to show compliance with the b. Bubble level and special fixtures described manufacturer’s requirements after the swaging by the manufacturer operation c. Straightedge, tape measure, and carpenter’s c. Checked with a go-no-go gauge before and square after, to show compliance with 75. Placing a piece of cloth around a stainless steel manufacturer’s requirements after the control cable and running it back and forth over the swaging operation length of the cable is generally a satisfactory 66. When inspecting a control cable turnbuckle for method of proper installation, determine that a. Applying methyl-ethyl-ketone a. No more than four threads are exposed on b. Inspecting for broken strands either side of the turnbuckle barrel c. Inspecting for wear or corrosion b. The terminal end threads are visible through 76. An airplane’s center of lift is usually located aft of the safety hole in the barrel its center of gravity c. The safety wire ends are wrapped a a. So that the airplane will have a tail-heavy minimum of four turns around the terminal tendency end shanks b. So that the airplane will have a nose-heavy 67. The elevators of a conventional airplane are used to tendency provide rotation about the c. To improve stability about the longitudinal a. Longitudinal axis axis b. Lateral axis 77. The dihedral angle of a wing may be measured by c. Vertical axis placing a straightedge and level protractor on the 68. What type of flap system increase the wing area a. Front spar and changes the wing camber? b. Wing root a. Fowler flaps c. Wing chord b. Slotted flaps 78. Rigging and alignment checks should not be c. Split flaps undertaken in the open; however, if this cannot be 69. With which system is differential control avoided, the aircraft should be positioned associated? a. Obliquely into the wind a. Trim b. Facing any direction since it makes no b. Aileron difference if the wind is steady (not gusting) c. Elevator c. With the nose into the wind 70. When used in close proximity to magnetic compasses, cotter pins are made of what material? a. Corrosion resisting steel AIRCRAFT ELECTRICAL SYSTEM b. Anodized aluminum alloy 1.Where electric cables must pass through holes in c. Cadmium-plated low carbon steel bulkheads, formers, ribs, Firewalls, etc., the wires should be 71. Improper rigging of the elevator trim tab system protected from chafing by will affect the balance of the airplane about its  a. wrapping with electrical tape. b. voltage rating with the contacts closed. b. using a suitable grommet. c. current rating with the contacts closed. c. wrapping with plastic. 12. What is normally used to bond noncontiguous stainless- 2. Which motor would be most likely to have an armature steel aircraft components? brake? a. Stainless steel jumpers. a. Starter motor. b. Copper jumpers. b. Landing light retraction motor. c. Aluminum jumpers. c. lnverter drive motor. 13. Grounding is electrically connecting a conductive object 3. What is the principal advantage of the series-wound dc to the primary motor? structure. One purpose of grounding is to a. High starling torque. a. prevent current return paths. b. Suitable for constant speed use. b. allow static charge accumulation. c. Low starting torque. c. prevent development of radio frequency 4. How can it be determined if a transformer winding has potentials. some of its turns 14. A battery-generator system provides direct current. On shorted together? installations requiring alternating current from the battery- a. Measure the input voltage with an ohmmeter. generator system, it is necessary to have b. The output voltage will be high. a. a transformer. c. The transformer will get hot in normal b. an inverter. operation. c. a variable resistor between the battery and 5. If the reverse current cutout relay contact points fail to generator. open after the 15. Which of the following must be accomplished when generator output has dropped below battery potential, installing an anti-collision light? current will flow a. Install a switch independent of the position through the generator armature light switch. a. in the normal direction and through the shunt b. Use shielded electrical cable to assure fail-safe field opposite the normal direction. operation. b. and the shunt field opposite the normal direction. c. Connect the anticollision light to the aircraft c. opposite the normal direction and through the position light switch. shunt field in the normal direction. 16. Which of the following copper electrical cable sizes 6. What is the color and orientation of the position lights for should be selected to replace a No. 6 aluminum electrical navigation on cable? civil airplanes? a. No. 4. a. Left side - green, right side - red, rear aft - white. b. No.6. b. Left side - red, right side - green, rear aft - c. No.8. white. 17. Major adjustments on equipment such as regulators, c. Left side - white, right side - green, rear aft – red. contactors, and inverters are best accomplished outside the 7. What is required when operating two aircraft ac airplane on test benches with necessary instruments and generators in parallel? equipment. Adjustment procedure should be as outlined by a. Amperes and frequency must both be equal. a. the equipment manufacturer. b. Frequency and voltage must both be equal. b. the FAA. c. Amperes and voltage must both be equal. c. aircraft technical orders. 8. What is the minimum bend radius for an electrical wire 18. Which of the following factors must be taken into bundle? consideration when determining the wire size to use for an a. Ten times the outside diameter of the bundle. aircraft installation? b. Five times the outside diameter of the bundle. 1. Mechanical strength. c. Fifteen times the outside diameter of the bundle. 2. Allowable power loss. 9. What is a cause of generator brush arcing? 3. Ease of installation. a. Seating brushes with No. 000 sandpaper. 4. Resistance of current return path through the aircraft b. Carbon dust particles. structure. c. Low spring tension. 5. Permissible voltage drop. 10. When handling a high voltage capacitor in an electrical 6. Current carrying capability of the conductor. circuit, be sure it 7. Type of load (continuous or intermittent). a. has a full charge before removing it from the a. 2,5,6,7. circuit. b. 1,2,4,5. b. has at least a residual charge before removing it c. 2,4, 6,7. from the circuit. 19. Residual voltage is a result of magnetism in the c. is fully discharged before removing it from the a. field windings. circuit. b. field shoes. 11. The nominal rating of electrical switches refers to c. armature. continuous 20. Electric circuits are protected from overheating by a. current rating with the contacts open. means of  a. thermocouples. b. residual voltage. b. shunts. c. normal voltage. c. fuses. 30. During ground operation, aircraft generator cooling is 21. What is the purpose of the selection of derated switches usually accomplished by for known continuous load current applications? a. auxiliary air cooled through an air/fuel heat a. To calculate the voltage, drop across the circuit. exchanger. b. To prevent short circuits in the motor field b. an integral fan. windings. c. an external motor-driven fan. c. To obtain reasonable switch efficiency and 31. (1) There are three basic types of dc motors; series, service life. shunt, and compound. 22. Aircraft fuse capacity is rated in (2) In the series motor, the field windings, consisting of a. volts. relatively few, turns of heavy wire, are connected in series b. ohms. with the armature winding. c. Amperes Regarding the above statements, 23. Which of the following should be accomplished in the a. only No. 1 is true. installation of aircraft wiring? b. only No. 2 is true. a. Support the bundle to structure and/ or solid fluid c. both No. 1 and No. 2 are true. lines to prevent chafing damage. 32. Certain transport aircraft use ac electrical power for all b. Provide adequate slack in the wire bundle to normal operation and battery furnished dc electrical power compensate for large changes in temperature. for standby emergency use. In aircraft of this type that c. Locate the bundle above flammable fluid lines operate no dc generators, the batteries are kept charged by and securely clamp to structure. a. inverters which use the aircraft’s ac generators 24. If one switch is used to control all navigation lights, the as a source of power. lights are most likely connected b. alternators which use the aircraft’s generators as a. in series with each other and parallel to the a source of power. switch. c. rectifiers which use the aircraft’s ac b. in series with each other and in series with the generators as a source of power. switch. 33. The most common method of regulating the voltage c. parallel to each other and in series with the output of a compound dc switch. generator is to vary the 25. The purpose of a rectifier in an electrical system is to a. current flowing through the shunt field coils. change b. total effective field strength by changing the a. the frequency of alternating current. reluctance of the magnetic circuit. b. direct current to alternating current. c. resistance of the series field circuit. c. alternating current to direct current. 34. In the American Wire Gauge (AWG) system of numbers 26. Which statement relating to electric wiring is true? used to designate a. When attaching a terminal to the end of an electric electrical wire sizes, the number assigned to a size is related cable, it should be determined that the strength of to its the cable-to-terminal joint is at least twice the a. combined resistance and current-carrying tensile strength of the cable. capacity. b. When attaching a terminal to the end of an b. current-carrying capacity. electric cable, it should be determined that the c. cross-sectional area. strength of the cable-to-terminal joint is at least 35. Why are the iron cores of most induction coils equal to the tensile strength of the cable itself. laminated? c. All electric cable splices should be covered with a. To reduce the core reluctance. soft insulating tubing (spaghetti) for mechanical b. To increase the core permeability. protection against external abrasion. c. To reduce the effects of eddy currents. 27. One purpose of a growler test is to determine the 36. One advantage of using ac electrical power in aircraft is presence of a. that ac electrical motors can be reversed while dc a. an out-of-round commutator. motors cannot. b. a broken field lead. b. greater ease in stepping the voltage up or c. a shorted armature. down. 28. The inductor-type inverter output voltage is controlled c. that the effective voltage is 1.41 times the by the maximum instantaneous voltage; therefore, less a. number of poles and the speed of the motor. power input is required. b. voltage regulator. 37. When necessary during operation, CSD disconnect is c. dc stator field current. usually accomplished by 29. If the positive field lead between a generator and a a. a switch in the cockpit. generator control panel breaks and is shorted while the b. circuit breaker activation. engine is running, a voltmeter connected to generator output c. a shear section in the input shaft. would indicate 38. When a diode is checked for an open circuit or a short a. zero voltage. circuit, it should be  a. in the circuit. 48. The method most often used in overcoming the effect of b. checked with a milliamp ammeter. armature reaction is through the use of c. disconnected from the circuit. a. interpoles. 39. The circuit breaker in the instrument lighting system b. shaded poles. protects the c. drum-wound armatures in combination with a a. lights from too much current. negatively connected series field b. wiring from too much current. 49. The commutator of a generator c. wiring from too much voltage. a. changes direct current produced in the armature 40. The generator rating is usually found stamped on the into alternating current as it is taken from the a. firewall. armature. b. generator. b. changes alternating current produced in the c. Engine armature into direct current as it is taken 41. Which type of dc generator is not used as an airplane from the armature. generator? c. reverses the current in the field coils at the proper a. Externally grounded. time in order to produce direct current. b. Series wound. 50. What is the ratio of turns between the primary coil c. Compound wound. winding and the secondary coil winding of a transformer 42. How many cycles of ac voltage are produced in a six- designed to triple its input voltage? pole alternator of the revolving-field type for each a. Primary will have one-third as many turns as revolution of the rotor? its secondary. a. Four. b. Primary will have twice as many turns as its b. Three. secondary. c. Six. c. Primary will have three times as many turns as its 43. If several long lengths of electrical cable are to be secondary installed in rigid conduit, the possibility of damage to the 51. What kind of switch should you install in a single wire cable as it is pulled through the conduit will be reduced by circuit that required the switch to be manually held in the a. dusting the cable with powdered graphite. ON position? b. dusting the cable with powdered soapstone. a. Single-pole, single-throw (SPST), two-position c. applying a light coat of dielectric grease. normally open (NO). 44. If a generator is equipped with a vibrator-type voltage b. Single-pole, single-throw (SPST), single- regulator, the actual time the voltage regulator points remain position. open c. Single-pole, double-throw (SPDT), single- a. depends on the load carried by the generator. position normally open (NO). b. is controlled by the reverse-current cutout relay 52. When using the voltage drop method of checking circuit point clearance. resistance, the c. is increased when the external load is greater than a. input voltage must be maintained at a the generator output. constant value. 45. What is an important factor in selecting aircraft fuses? b. output voltage must be maintained at a constant a. The current exceeds a predetermined value. value. b. The voltage rating should be lower than the c. input voltage must be varied. maximum circuit voltage. 53. Electric wire terminals for most aircraft applications c. Capacity matches the needs of the circuit. must be what type? 46. When dc generators are operated in parallel to supply a. Slotted. power for a single load, their controls include an equalizer b. Hook. circuit to assure that all generators share the load equally. c. Ring. The equalizer circuit operates by 54. The major advantages of alternating current (AC) over a. increasing the output of the low generator to direct current (DC) is the fact that its current and voltage equal the output of the high generator. can easily be increased or decreased b. decreasing the output of the high generator to a. by means of an inverter. equal the output of the low generator. b. by means of a rectifier. c. increasing the output of the low generator c. by means of a transformer. and decreasing the output of the high 55. How does the magnetic brake used to stop rotation of an generator until they are equal electric motor armature operate? 47. In installations where the ammeter is in the generator or a. Centrifugal force releases a rotating brake cog alternator lead, and the regulator system does not limit the from a stationary notch when the armature maximum current that the generator or alternator can reaches a certain speed and magnetic force re- deliver, the ammeter can be redlined at what percent of the engages the cog when the electrical power is generator or alternator rating? turned off. a. 50 b. A friction brake is applied by a magnet and b. 75 released by a spring. c. 100 c. A friction brake is applied by a spring and released by a magnet. 56. What does a rectifier do? 3. Brush assembly. a. Changes direct current into alternating current. 4. Commutator. b. Changes alternating current into direct 5. Pole piece. current. 6. Rheostat. c. Reduces voltage. 7. End frame. 57. A series-wound dc electric motor will normally require a. 1, 2, 3, 7. a. more current at high RPM than at low RPM. b. 2,3,4,5. b. approximately the same current throughout its c. 3,5,6,7. operating range of speed. 66. In an ac circuit with no phase lead or lag, which is true? c. more current at low RPM than at high RPM. a. Real power is zero. 58. (Refer to Figure 18.) Which of the batteries are b. Real power is greater than apparent power. connected together incorrectly? c. Real power equals apparent power. 67. Aluminum wire must be stripped very carefully because a. high resistance will develop in stripping nicks. b. stripping nicks can cause short circuits. c. individual strands will break easily after View Figure(s) being nicked. 68. The voltage output of an alternator may be regulated by a. 1 controlling the b. 2 a. speed of the alternator. c. 3 b. voltage output of the dc exciter. 59. The navigation lights of some aircraft consist of a single c. resistance in the rotor windings. circuit controlled by a single switch which has an ON 69. Bonding connections should be tested for position and an OFF position, with no additional positions a. resistance value. possible. This switch is referred to as a b. amperage value. a. double-pole, single-throw (DPST), two-position c. reactance. switch. 70. The three kinds of circuit-protection devices used most b. single-pole, double-throw (SPDT), two-position commonly in aircraft circuits are switch. a. circuit breakers, resistors, and current limiters. c. single-pole, single-throw (S PST), two- b. circuit breakers, fuses, and current limiters. position switch. c. circuit breakers, capacitors, and current limiter 60. A circuit protection device called a current limiter is plug-ins mechanical reset types. essentially a slow blow fuse and is designed to be used in 71. CSD driven generators are usually cooled by a. 400 cycle AC circuits. a. oil spray. b. heavy power circuits. b. an integral fan. c. starter-generator circuits. c. both ram air and an integral fan. 61. Oil canning of the sides of aluminum or steel electrical 72. When approved, splices may be used to repair junction boxes is considered to be manufactured harnesses or installed wiring. The maximum a. normal operation in vibration prone areas. number of splices permitted between any two connectors is b. a shorting hazard. a. one. c. acceptable operation. b. two. 62. Some electric motors have two sets of field windings c. three. wound in opposite directions so that the 73. What is the advantage of a current limiter? a. speed of the motor can be more closely a. It breaks circuit quickly. controlled. b. It can be reset easily. b. power output of the motor can be more closely c. It will take overload for a short period. controlled. 74. The pole pieces or shoes used in a dc generator are a c. motor can be operated in either direction. part of the 63. When using an ohmmeter to check the continuity of a a. armature assembly. generator field coil, the coil should b. field assembly. a. be removed from the generator housing. c. brush assembly b. show high resistance when the meter prods are 75. When adding a rheostat to a light circuit to control the connected to the terminals of the coil. light intensity, it should be connected in c. show very low resistance if it is a series field coil. a. parallel with the light. 64. For general electrical use in aircraft, the acceptable b. series with the light. method of attaching a terminal to a wire is by c. series parallel with the light switch. a. crimping. 76. What is the advantage of a circuit breaker when b. soldering. compared to a fuse? c. crimping and soldering. a. Never needs replacing. 65. Which of the following are the major parts of a dc b. Always eliminates the need of a switch. motor? c. Resettable and reusable. 1. Armature assembly. 2. Field assembly. 77. To help minimize radio interference a capacitor will c. Electromagnets using one permanent magnet. largely eliminate and provide a steady direct current if the 88. When considering an alteration, the criteria upon which capacitor is connected to the generator in the selection of electric cable size should be based are a. parallel. a. applied voltage and allowable voltage drop. b. serie b. current-carrying capacity and allowable c. series/parallel. voltage drop. 78. How is a shunt-wound dc generator connected? c. current-carrying capacity and applied voltage. a. One field is shunted across the other. 89. If the (+) terminal of a voltmeter is connected to the (-) b. Both fields are shunted across the armature. terminal of the source voltage and the (-) terminal of the c. The field and armature are shunted with a meter is connected to the (+) terminal of the source voltage, capacitor. the voltmeter will read 79. Circuits that must be operated only in an emergency or a. correctly. whose inadvertent activation could endanger a system b. low voltage. frequently employ c. backwards. a. guarded switches. 90. The strength of the core of an electromagnet depends b. push-pull-type circuit breakers only (no switches). upon the material from which it is constructed and which of c. spring-loaded to off toggle or rocker switches. the following? 80. If it is necessary to use an electrical connector where it a. The number of turns of wire in the coil and the may be exposed to moisture, the mechanic should applied voltage. a. coat the connector with grease. b. The number of turns of wire in the coil and the b. use a special moisture-proof type. amount of current (amperes) passing through c. spray the connector with varnish or zinc-chromate. the coil. 81. A voltage regulator controls generator output by c. The size (cross section) and the number of turns of a. introducing a resistance in generator-to-battery lead wire in the coil and the applied voltage. in the event of overload. 91. What type of instrument is used for measuring very high b. shorting out field coil in the event of overload. values of resistance? c. varying current flow to generator field coil. a. Megohmmeter. 82. To test generator or motor armature windings for opens, b. Shunt-type ohmmeter. a. place armature in a growler and connect a 110V c. Multimeter test light on adjacent segments; light should 92. (Refer to Figure 19.) Upon completion of the landing light. gear extension cycle, the green light illuminated and the red b. check adjacent segments on commutator with an light remained lit. What is the probable cause? ohmmeter on the high resistance scale. View Figure(s) c. use a 12/24V test light between the armature core segments and the shaft. 83. The primary considerations when selecting electric cable size are a. current-carrying capacity and allowable voltage drop. a. Short in the down limit switch. b. the voltage and amperage of the load it must b. Short in the gear safety switch. carry. c. Short in the up limit switch. c. the system voltage and cable length. 93. What is the voltage drop for a No. 18 copper wire 50 84. Static inverters are electronic devices that change DC to feet long to carry 12.5 amperes, continuous operation? AC with the Use the formula VD = RLA a. use of an oscillator. VD = Voltage drop b. properties of an exclusive OR gate. R = Resistance per ft =.00644 c. input from an amplifier control by integrated L = Length of wire circuits. A = Amperes 85. An aircraft electrical circuit control relay is a. 1/2V. a. an electronically operated switch. b. 1V b. a device which converts electrical energy to c. 4V. kinetic energy. 94. How should a voltmeter be connected? c. any conductor which receives electrical energy a. In series with the source. and passes it on with little or no resistance. b. In parallel with the load. 86. How are generators rated? c. In series with the load. a. Watts at rated voltage. 95. The poles of a generator are laminated to b. Amperes at rated voltage. a. reduce flux losses. c. The impedance at rated voltage. b. increase flux concentration. 87. What is the most accurate type of frequency-measuring c. reduce eddy current losses instrument? 96. When selecting hardware for attaching bonding a. Integrated circuit chip having a clock circuit. connections to an aircraft structure, which of the following b. Electrodynamometers using electromagnetic fields. should be considered? 1. Mechanical strength. a. Coaxial cables are routed parallel with stringers or 2. Allowable power loss. ribs. 3. Ease of installation. b. Coaxial cables are routed at right angles to 4. Permissible voltage drop. stringers or ribs. 5. Amount of current to be carried. c. Coaxial cables are routed as directly as possible. 6. Type of load (continuous or intermittent). 106 What protection to wires and cables does conduit a. 1, 3 , 5 provide when used in aircraft installations? b. 4, 5, 6 a. Electromagnetic. c. 1, 3, 3 b. Mechanical. 97. An ammeter in a battery charging system is for the c. Structural. purpose of indicating the 107. In troubleshooting an electrical circuit, if an ohmmeter a. amperage available for use. is properly connected across a circuit component and some b. total amperes being used in the airplane. value of resistance is read, c. rate of current used to charge the battery a. the component has continuity and is open. 98. The overvoltage control automatically protects the b. either the component or the circuit is shorted. generator system when excessive voltage is present by c. the component has continuity and is not open. a. opening the shunt field circuit. 108. During inspection of the terminal strips of an aircraft b. opening and resetting the field control relay. electrical system, it should be determined that c. breaking a circuit to the trip coil of the field control a. only locknuts have been used for terminal relay. attachment to the studs. 99. To what depth is the mica insulation between the b. the terminal studs are anchored against commutator bars of a dc generator undercut? rotation. a. One-half the width of the mica. c. only plain nuts and lockwashers have been used b. Equal to twice the width of the mica. for terminal attachment to the studs. c. Equal to the width of the mica. 109. The type of electric wire terminals used for most 100. If anyone generator in a 24-volt dc system shows low aircraft applications, in addition to providing good current voltage, the most likely cause is carrying capabilities, are designed primarily a. an out-of-adjustment voltage regulator. a. To prevent circuit failure due to terminal b. shorted or grounded wiring. disconnection. c. a defective reverse current cutout relay. b. for uncomplicated and rapid circuit connection 101. During inspection of an anti-collision light installation and disconnection. for condition and proper operation, it should be determined c. for permanent connection to the circuit. that 110. If a wire is installed so that it comes in contact with a. electrical or mechanical interconnections are some moving parts, what protection should be given the provided so that the anti-collision light will operate wire? at a. Wrap with soft wire solder into a shield. b. all times that the position light switch is in the ON b. Wrap with friction tape. position. c. Pass through conduit. an appropriately rated fuse is in position at the light 111. Which of the following is not one of the purposes of to protect the connecting wiring against electrical interpoles in a generator? faults. a. Reduce field strength. c. the anti-collision light can be operated b. Overcome armature reaction. independently of the position lights. c. Reduce arcing at the brushes. 102. Aircraft electrical junction boxes located in a fire zone 112. In aircraft electrical systems, automatic reset circuit are usually constructed of breakers a. asbestos. a. Should not be used as circuit protective b. cadmium-plated steel. devices. c. stainless steel. b. Are useful where only temporary overloads are 103. What is a method used for restoring generator field normally encountered. residual magnetism? c. Must be used in all circuits essential to safe a. Flash the fields. operation of the aircraft. b. Reseat the brushes. 113. If the Integrated Drive Generator (IDG) scavenge oil c. Energize the armature. filter is contaminated with metal, you should 104. Integrated drive generators (IDG) employ a type of a. do an oil analysis to diagnose the problem. high output ac generator that utilizes b. remove and replace the IDG. a. brushes and slip rings to carry generated dc c. replace the oil and filter at 25 hour intervals. exciter current to the rotating field. 114. Aircraft which operate only ac generators (alternators) b. battery current to excite the field. as a primary source of electrical power normally provide c. a brushless system to produce current. current suitable for battery charging through the use of 105. How does the routing of coaxial cables differ from the a. a stepdown transformer and a rectifier. routing of electrical wiring? b. an inverter and a voltage-dropping resistor. c. a dyna motor with a half-wave dc output. 115. A circuit breaker is installed in an aircraft electrical c. places at which the operating device (toggle, system primarily to protect the plunger, etc.) will come to rest and at the same a. circuit and should be located as close to the time open or close a circuit. source as possible. 125. A voltage regulator controls generator voltage by b. circuit and should be located as close to the unit changing the as possible. a. resistance in the generator output circuit. c. electrical unit in the circuit and should be located b. current in the generator output circuit. as close to the source as possible. c. resistance of the generator field circuit. 116. What is the maximum amount of time a circuit can be 126. The starting current of a series-wound dc motor, in in operation and still be an intermittent duty circuit? passing through both the field and armature windings, a. Three minutes. produces a b. Two minutes. a. low starting torque. c. One minute. b. speed slightly higher when unloaded. 117. The only practical method of maintaining a constant c. high starting torque. voltage output from an aircraft generator under varying 127. Electric wiring installed in aircraft without special conditions of speed and load is to vary the enclosing means (open wiring) offers the advantages of ease a. strength of the magnetic field. of installation, simple maintenance, and reduced weight. b. number of conductors in the armature. When bundling open wiring, the bundles should c. speed at which the armature rotates. a. be limited as to the number of cables to 118. The pin section of an AN/MS connector is normally minimize damage from a single electrical installed on fault. a. the power supply side of a circuit. b. include at least one shielded cable to provide b. the ground side of a circuit. good bonding of the bundle to the airframe. c. either side of a circuit (makes no difference). c. be limited to a minimum bend radius of five 119. Which of the following is most likely to cause thermal times the bundle diameter to avoid excessive runaway in a nickel- cadmium battery? stresses on the cable insulation. a. A high internal resistance condition. 128. A CSD unit that is disconnected in flight, due to a b. Excessive current draw from the battery. malfunction such as over temperature, may be reconnected c. Constant current charging of the battery to more a. automatically if the temperature falls back into than 100 percent of its capacity. the normal operating range. 120. How can the direction of rotation of a dc electric motor b. manually by the flight crew. be changed? c. only on the ground by maintenance personnel. a. Interchange the wires which connect the motor 129. AN/MS electrical connectors are specifically designed to the external power source. to meet b. Reverse the electrical connections to either a. Technical Standard Order (TSO) specifications. the field or armature windings. b. military specifications. c. Rotate the positive brush one commutator c. International Civil Aviation Organization segment. (ICAO) standards. 121. The most common method of attaching a pin or socket 130. The voltage in an ac transformer secondary that to an individual wire in an MS electrical connector is by contains twice as many loops as the primary will be a. crimping. a. greater and the amperage less than in the b. soldering. primary. c. crimping and soldering. b. greater and the amperage greater than in the 122. What is the frequency of an alternator dependent upon? primary. a. Voltage. c. less and the amperage greater than in the b. RPM. primary. c. Current. 131. How should the splices be arranged if several are to be 123. In a generator, what eliminates any possible sparking to located in an electrical wire bundle? the brush guides caused by the movement of the brushes a. Staggered along the length of the bundle. within the holder? b. Grouped together to facilitate inspection. a. The brush pigtail. c. Enclosed in a conduit. b. Brush spring tension. 132. A CSD unit drives a generator through the use of c. Undercutting the mica on the commutator. a. a synchronous electric motor. 124. A certain switch is described as a single-pole, double- b. an infinitely variable mechanical gearing system. throw switch (SPDT). The throw of a switch indicates the c. a variable hydraulic pump and hydraulic motor. number of a. circuits each pole can complete through the switch. AIRCRAFT INSTRUMENT SYSTEM b. terminals at which current can enter or leave the switch. 1. Turbine engine exhaust gas temperatures are measured by using a. Iron/constantan thermocouples.  b. chromel/alumel thermocouples. 10. Which condition would be most likely to cause c. Ratiometer electrical resistance excessive vacuum in a vacuum system? thermometers. a. Vacuum pump overspeed. 2. Which of the following causes of aircraft magnetic b. Vacuum relief valve improperly compass inaccuracies may be compensated for by adjusted. mechanics? c. Vacuum relief valve spring weak. a. Deviation. 11. Data transmitted between components in an EFIS b. Magnetic compass current. are converted into c. Variation. a. digital signals. 3. When flags such as NAV, HDG, or GS are b. analog signals. displayed on an HSI, the indication is c. carrier wave signals. a. that function is inoperative. 12. Which statement regarding an aircraft instrument b. that function is operating. vacuum system is true? c. to call attention to deviation from the a. Dry-type vacuum pumps with carbon desired setting, or flight path, or heading, vanes are very susceptible to damage etc. from solid airborne particles and 4. Which instruments are connected to an aircraft’s must take in only filtered air. static pressure system only? b. Vacuum systems are generally more 1. Vertical speed indicator. effective at high altitudes than positive 2. Cabin altimeter. pressure systems. 3. Altimeter. c. If the air inlet to each vacuum 4. Cabin rate-of-change indicator. instrument is connected to a common 5. Airspeed indicator. atmospheric pressure manifold, the a. 1 and 3. system generally will be equipped with b. 2, 4, and 5. individual instrument filters only c. 2 and 4. 13. What marking color is used to indicate if a cover 5. Which of the following instruments will normally glass has slipped? have range markings? a. Red. a. Altimeter. b. White. b. Cylinder head temperature gauge, c. Yellow. airspeed indicator. 14. When performing the static system leakage check c. Altimeter, airspeed indicator required by Section 91.411, the technician utilizes 6. Which instrument condition is acceptable and a. Static pressure. would not require correction? b. Positive pressure. 1. Red line missing. c. Negative pressure. 2. Case leaking. 15. When an unpressurized aircraft’s static pressure 3. Glass cracked. system is leak checked to comply with the 4. Mounting screws loose. requirements of Section 91.411, what aircraft 5. Case paint chipped. instrument maybe used in lieu of a pitot-static 6. Leaking at line B nut. system tester? 7. Will not zero out. 1. Vertical speed indicator. 8. Fogged. 2. Cabin altimeter. a. 1 3. Altimeter. b. 5 4. Cabin rate-of-change indicator. c. None 5. Airspeed indicator. 7. The maximum altitude loss permitted during an a. 1 or 5. unpressurized aircraft b. 2 or 4. instrument static pressure system integrity check is c. 3 a. 50 feet in 1 minute. 16. How is a flangeless instrument case mounted in an b. 200 feet in 1 minute. instrument panel? c. 100 feet in 1 minute. a. By four machine screws which extend 8. A radar altimeter indicates through the instrument panel. a. flight level (pressure) altitude. b. By an expanding-type clamp secured b. altitude above sea level. to the back of the panel and tightened c. altitude above ground level. by a screw from the front of the 9. The operating mechanism of most hydraulic instrument panel. pressure gauges is c. By a metal shelf separate from and a. a Bourdon tube. located behind the instrument panel. b. an airtight diaphragm. 17. Which of the following instrument discrepancies c. an evacuated bellows filled with an inert could be corrected by an aviation mechanic? gas to which suitable arms, levers, and 1. Red line missing. gears are attached. 2. Case leaking.  3. Glass cracked. b. Two. 4. Mounting screws loose. c. One. 5. Case paint chipped. 26. What will be the result if the instrument static 6. Leaking at line B nut. pressure line becomes 7. Will not adjust. disconnected inside a pressurized cabin during 8. Fogged. cruising flight? a. 1, 4, 6. a. The altimeter and airspeed indicator b. 3,4,5,6. will both read low. c. 1,4,5,6. b. The altimeter and airspeed indicator 18. Who is authorized to repair an aircraft instrument? will both read high. 1. A certified mechanic with an airframe rating. c. The altimeter will read low and the 2. A certificated repairman with an airframe rating. airspeed indicator will read high. 3. A certificated repair station approved for that 27. What must be done to an instrument panel that is class instrument. supported by shock mounts? 4. A certificated airframe repair station. a. Bonding straps must be installed a. 1,2,3 and 4 across the instrument mounts as a b. 3 and 4 current path. c. 3 b. The instrument mounts must be 19. A Bourdon tube instrument may be used to grounded to the aircraft structure as a indicate current path. 1. pressure. c. The instrument mounts must be 2. temperature. tightened to the specified torque 3. position. required by the maintenance manual. a. 1 and 2. 28. What does a reciprocating engine manifold b. 1 pressure gauge indicate when the engine is not c. 2 and 3 operating? 20. How would an airspeed indicator be marked to a. Zero pressure. show the best rate-of-climb speed (one engine b. The differential between the manifold inoperative)? pressure and the atmospheric pressure. a. A red radial line. c. The existing atmospheric pressure. b. A blue radial line. 29. Fuel flow transmitters are designed to transmit c. A green arc. data 21. The requirements for testing and inspection of a. mechanically. instrument static systems required by Section 91 b. electrically..411 are contained in c. utilizing fluid power. a. Type Certificate Data Sheets. 30. The function of a symbol generator (SG) in an [FIS b. AC 43.13-lA. is to c. Part 43, appendix E. a. display alphanumeric data and 22. When an aircraft altimeter is set at 29.92” Hg on representations of aircraft instruments. the ground, the altimeter will read b. allow the pilot to select the appropriate a. pressure altitude. system configuration for the current b. density altitude. flight situation. c. field elevation. c. receive and process input signals 23. Cases for electrically operated instruments are from aircraft and engine sensors and made of send the data to the appropriate a. Aluminum or composite cases. display. b. Iron or steel cases. 31. The maximum deviation (during level flight) c. Bakelite or plastic cases. permitted in a compensated 24. A certificated mechanic with airframe and magnetic direction indicator installed on an aircraft powerplant ratings may certificated under Federal Aviation Regulation Part a. perform minor repairs to aircraft 23 is instruments. a. 6 degrees b. perform minor repairs and minor b. 8 degrees alterations to aircraft instruments. c. 10 degrees c. not perform repairs to aircraft 32. The function of a CRT in an EFIS is to instruments. a. allow the pilot to select the 25. How many of the following are controlled by appropriate system configuration for gyroscopes? the current flight situation. 1. Attitude indicator. b. display alphanumeric data and 2. Heading indicator. representations of aircraft 3. Turn needle of the turn-and-slip indicator. instruments. a. Three.  c. receive and process input signals from c. Reference line. aircraft and engine sensors and send 41. Instrument static system leakage can be detected by the data to the appropriate display. observing the rate of change in indication of the 33. Which instruments are connected to an aircraft’s a. airspeed indicator after suction has been pitot-static system? applied to the static system to cause a 1. Vertical speed indicator. prescribed equivalent airspeed to be 2. Cabin altimeter. indicated. 3. Altimeter. b. altimeter after pressure has been 4. Cabin rate-of-change indicator. applied to the static system to cause a 5. Airspeed indicator. prescribed equivalent altitude to be a. 1,2,3,4, and 5. indicated. b. 1,2, and 4. c. altimeter after suction has been c. 1,3, and 5. applied to the static system to cause a 34. When installing an instrument in an aircraft, who prescribed equivalent altitude to be is responsible for making sure it is properly indicated. marked? 42. (1) Aircraft instruments are color-coded to direct a. The aircraft owner. attention to operational ranges and limitations. b. The instrument installer. (2) Aircraft instruments range markings are not c. The instrument manufacturer. specified by Title 14 of the Code of Federal 35. If a static pressure system check reveals excessive Regulations but are standardized by aircraft leakage, the leak(s) maybe located by manufacturers. a. pressurizing the system and adding leak Regarding the above statements, detection dye. a. only No. 1 is true. b. isolating portions of the line and b. only No. 2 is true. testing each portion systematically c. both No. 1 and No. 2 are true. starting at the instrument 43. The operation of an angle-of-attack indicating connections. system is based on detectionof differential pressure c. removing and visually inspecting the at a point where the airstream flows in a direction line segments. a. not parallel to the true angle of 36. A turn coordinator instrument indicates attack of the aircraft. a. the longitudinal attitude of the aircraft b. parallel to the angle of attack of the during climb and descent. aircraft. b. the need for corrections in pitch and c. parallel to the longitudinal axis of the bank. aircraft. c. both roll and yaw. 44. Resistance-type temperature indicators using 37. A radar altimeter determines altitude by Wheatstone bridge or ratiometer circuits may be a. transmitting a signal and receiving used to indicate the temperatures of which of the back a reflected signal. fo1lowing? b. receiving signals transmitted from 1. Free air. ground radar stations. 2. Exhaust gas temperature. c. means of transponder interrogation. 3. Carburetor air. 38. Where may a person look for the information 4. Coolant (engine). necessary to determine the 5. Oil temperature. required markings on an engine instrument? 6. Cylinder head temperature. 1. Engine manufacturer’s specifications. a. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, and 6. 2. Aircraft flight manual. b. 1,3, 4,and 5. 3. Instrument manufacturer’s specifications. c. 1,2,3 and 6. 4. Aircraft maintenance manual. 45. Instrument panel shock mounts absorb a. 2 or 4. a. high energy impact shocks caused by b. 1 or 4. hard landings. c. 2 or 3. b. low frequency, high-amplitude 39. Aircraft temperature thermocouple leads may shocks. a. not be altered and are designed for a c. high G shock loads imposed by specific installation. turbulent air. b. be installed with either lead to either 46. Magnetic compass bowls are filled with a liquid to post of the indicator. a. retard precession of the float. c. be repaired using solderless connectors. b. reduce deviation errors. 40. What is the fixed line mark attached to the compass c. dampen the oscillation of the float. bowl of a magnetic 47. The green arc on an aircraft temperature gauge compass called? indicates a. Reeder line. a. the instrument is not calibrated. b. Lubber line. b. the desirable temperature range.  c. a low, unsafe temperature range. 57. The method of mounting aircraft instruments in 48. Which of the following instrument discrepancies their respective panels would require replacement of the instrument? depends on the 1. Red line missing. a. instrument manufacturer. 2. Case leaking. b. design of the instrument case. 3. Glass cracked. c. design of the instrument panel. 4. Mounting screws loose. 58. An aircraft magnetic compass is swung to up-date 5. Case paint chipped. the compass correction card when 6. Leaking at line B nut. a. an annual inspection is accomplished 7. Will not zero out. on the aircraft. 8. Fogged. b. the compass is serviced. a. 2,3,7,8. c. equipment is added that could effect b. 1,4,6,7. compass deviation. c. 1, 3,5,8. 59. The function of a display controller in an EFIS is to 49. Aircraft instrument value should be marked and a. display alphanumeric data and graduated in accordance with representations of aircraft instruments. a. the instrument manufacturer’s b. allow the pilot to select the specifications. appropriate system configuration b. both the aircraft and engine for the current flight situation. manufacturers’ specifications. c. receive and process input signals from c. the specific aircraft maintenance or aircraft and engine sensors and send flight manual. the data to the appropriate display. 50. When swinging a magnetic compass, the 60. The lubber line on a directional gyro is used to compensators are adjusted to correct for a. represent the nose of the aircraft. a. magnetic influence deviation. b. align the instrument glass in the case. b. compass card oscillations. c. represent the wings of the aircraft. c. magnetic variations. 61. Aircraft instrument panels are generally shock- 51. Which procedure should you use if you find a mounted to absorb vacuum-operated instrument glass loose? a. all vibration. a. Mark the case and glass with a slippage b. low-frequency, high-amplitude mark. shocks. b. Replace the glass. c. high-frequency, high-ampl itude c. Install another instrument. shocks. 52. An aircraft instrument panel is electrically bonded to the aircraft structure to ENGINE INSTRUMENT SYSTEM a. Act as a restraint strap. b. provide current return paths 1. On a twin engine aircraft with fuel-injected c. Aid in the panel installation. reciprocating engines, one fuel-flow indicator reads 53. A certificated mechanic may perform a. minor repairs to instruments. considerably higher than the other in all engine b. 100-hour inspections of operating configurations. What is the probable i