Pharmacology Practice Questions PDF

1. Acetaminophen is not an opiod analgesic. It belongs to Non-steroidal Anti Inflammatory drug (NSAID) a. First statement is correct, second statement is incorrect b. First statement is incorrect, second statement is correct c. Both statement are incor...

1. Acetaminophen is not an opiod analgesic. It belongs to Non-steroidal Anti Inflammatory drug (NSAID) a. First statement is correct, second statement is incorrect b. First statement is incorrect, second statement is correct c. Both statement are incorrect d. Both statement are correct 2. COX 1 enzyme SATA a. Protect stomach lining b. Decrease fever c. Promotes blood clotting d. Triggers pain 3. Aspirin has the following actions except it a. Suppresses pain impulses b. Inhibits biosynthesis of prostaglandins c. Inhibits COX-2 decreases inflammation and pain d. Inhibits COX-1 decreases protection of the stomach lining 4. Clonidine and Methyldopa are selective alpha2-adrenergic drugs used primarily to treat hypertension. They regulate the release of norepinephrine. a. First statement is correct, second statement is incorrect b. First statement is incorrect, second statement is correct c. Both statement are incorrect d. Both statement are correct 5. Which of the following nursing interventions is not appropriate when administering vasodilators a. Implement seizure precaution b. Withhold the drug if BP is 90\60 c. Encourage patient to change position slowly d. Tell patient that headache and dizziness may occur 6. Nurse Q understand that beta-blockers should be used cautiously to patient with A. UT B. asthma C. Urolithiasis D. Normoactive bowel sound 7. Nurse G is monitoring Mr. Bc. Which of the following assessment data would indicate a potential serious complication associated with propranolol? a. Complaints of insomnia b. The presence of audible expiratory wheezes upon auscultation c. The baseline blood pressure of 150/80 mmHg followed by a blood pressure of 138/72 mmHg after two doses of medication d. A baseline resting heart rate of 88 beats per minute followed by resting heart rate of 72 beats per minute after two doses of medication 8. Mr. Bc is for discharge. In developing a medication teaching plan, nurse Q should include which of the following instructions a. Exercise will prevent orthostatic hypotension b. Hot baths and showers are advised, to increase vasodilation c. Medication should be withheld if the pulse rate drops below 60 bpm d. Medication should be taken on an empty stomach to enhance absorption 9. A common beta blockers used in the treatment of hypertension is a. Atenolol b. Captopril c. Betanechol d. Endrophonium 10. Which of the following medications is classified as beta adrenergic blocking agent? a. Metaraminal b. Phenylephirine c. Propanolol d. Levarterenol 11. The nures must be aware of the action, indication and side effects of the adrenergic blocking drugs which are also known as a. Anticholinergics b. Sympathomimetics c. Sympatholytics d. Parasympatholysis 12. Mr. Bc should be cautioned to which of the following? a. Avoid exposure to sun b. Avoid exposure to infection c. Stop the drug if he experiences flu like symptom d. Never stop the drug abruptly because it needs to be tapered slowly 13. Sympathomimetics are classified into direct and indirect acting drugs. A drug that indirectly stimulates adrenergic receptor is a. Epinephrine b. Ephedrine c. Amphetamine d. Albuterol 14. Which of the following analgesic is preferred during pregnancy? a. Morphine b. Naloxone c. Meperidine d. Hydromorhone 15. Which of the following drugs elevates the blood pressure by constricting the peripheral blood vessel through alpha adrenergic stimulation? a. Diuretics b. Vasopressors 16. The admitting physician included in the doctor’s order sheet to “Continue to administer the maintenance medication” Which of the following is the most appropriate action for the nurse to take? a. Administer the medications as ordered by the physician b. Call the physician and request clarification of his written order c. Refuse to give any medications and wait until the pgysician makes rounds to clarify the order d. Sand the clients medications bottles to the pharmacy for identification and then administer the medications as ordered 17. Which of the following side effects the nurse would expect when administering Atropine SO4? a. Dry mouth b. Salivation c. Teary eyes d. Bronchospasm 18. Which of the following medications is used to decrease oropharyngeal secreations during surgery a. Cholinergic b. Anticholinergic c. Sympatholytics d. Parasympathomimetics 19. Cholinergic agonist stimulate which of the following receptors a. Beta 2 b. Alpha 1 c. Adrenergic d. Cholinergic 20. Which statement describes the action of atropine as are anesthetic agent? a. Atropine reduces hyperreflexia during surgery b. Atropine minimizes the risk postoperative ileus c. Atropine prevents respiratory depression during surgery d. Atropine reduces excess salivation and gastric secretions 21. The next day, the patient’s patient pain medication is changed from morphine sulfate to hydromorphone. Which statement regarding hydromorphone does the nurse identify is being true? a. Hypertension is a common side effect b. Hydromorphone is more potent that morphine c. Hydromorphone must be administered intravenously d. Physical dependence does not occur with hydromorphone therapy 22. Which drug hinders movement of the impulses from the thalamus to the brain cortex, thus creating depression in the CNS? a. Procaine b. Ibuprofen c. Amphetamines d. Thiopental sodium 23. When the drug prevents dissemination of electrical discharges in the motor cortex area of the brain, it is known as a. Sedatives b. Narcotics c. Anticonvulsant d. Muscle relaxant 24. A patient received morphine sulfate for severe pain. The nurse assesses the patient 20 minutes later. What is the best indication that the medication has been effective a. Patient is resting b. Patient verbalizes pain relief c. Patient has an increase in heart rate d. Patient has an increase in blood pressure 25. The nurse identifies which of the following as a common side effects/adverse effect of morphine therapy? a. Diarrhea b. Hypertension c. Urinary retention d. Tachypnea 26. All but one is a Non-Steroidal Anti-inflammatory drug a. Proxicam b. – c. Prednisone d. Indomethacin 27. Non-Steroidal Anti-inflammatory drugs should not be given together with antacids because a. It may cause GI distress b. It increases blood pressure c. It decrease the potency of the drug d. It increases higher incidence of bleeding 28. The nurse is caring a 70 yr old client with sleep disturbance problem. When treating an elderly person with a sedative, the dose may be a. Increase b. Decrease c. Unchanged d. Combined with another drug 29. When information should be included in the teaching plan for patient taking hypnotic medication for insomnia? a. Avoid eating high protein foods between supper and bedtime b. Go to bed 30minutes earlier than usual to allow the hypnotic to work c. Keep a night-light on for patient safety in case they need to get out bed d. At bedtime, put medication on bedside table with a glass of water in case a pill is needed 30. A client taking a barbiturate should be instructed to a. Decrease the drug-gradually rather than stop it abruptly b. Decrease dose when drowsiness occurs c. Operate of machinery or drive a car d. Drink alcohol only with medication 31. When administering phenobarbital a nurse should initially implement which of the following actions a. Emergency resuscitation equipment readily available b. An indwelling urinary catheter or straight catheter on hand c. A signed consent form for the drug d. Stay at the client’s bedside 32. Dexamethasone IV is prescribed for a client with cerebral edema. The nurse prepares the medication for administration for administration and plan to a. Mix the medication in 1000 ml of 5% dextrose b. Prepare an undiluted direct injection of the medication c. Mix the medication in 100 ml of lactated Ringer’s solution d. Dilute the medication in diluted lactated Ringer’s solution and administer as a direct injection 33. A patient who is known to be narcotic abuser is involved in an automobile accident and has extensive surgery. In planning for analgesia post-surgery, the nurse should be aware that this patient is likely to a. Tolerate pain than a patient who is not a drug abuser b. Refuse medication to prove addiction is not a problem c. Tolerate oral medication better than intravenous doses d. Require greater doses of medication before pain is relieved 34. What is the difference between epidural analgesia and IV analgesia? a. Epidural analgesia has fever side effects b. Epidural analgesia has more sedative effect c. Epidural analgesia has longer affect in the body d. Epidural analgesia is more effective in relieving pain 35. Which statement is appropriate for a nurse to make to a client who will undergo surgery under an inhalation anesthetic? a. Its normal for you to shiver after surgery b. I’ll monitor the area for a rash after surgery c. You may not have feeling in the surgical area when you wake up d. Your sense of touch will decrease and then you’ll lose motor function 36. An intubated mechanically ventilated patient in the intensive care unit is becoming increasingly restless and anxious. The nurse prepares which of the following intravenous anesthetic drug a. Halothane b. Nitrous Oxide c. Profopol (Diprivan) d. Isoflurate (Forane) 37. A client with generalized anxiety disorder is prescribed an anxiolytic such as Alphrazolam (Xanax), the nurse should instruct the patient to a. Take it before meals b. Avoid alcoholic beverages c. Increase potassium intake d. Discontinue use of drugs like Tylenol 38. The nurse would question the use of benzodiazepines to which of the following clients a. CVA b. Pregnant c. Anxious d. Chronic glaucoma 39. Which among these drugs stimulate the inhibitory neurotransmitter GABA? a. Barbiturates b. Benzodiazephines c. Tricyclic Antidepressants d. Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitors 40. A nurse instructs a patient receiving phenytoin (Dilantin) to visit the dentist regularly and perform frequent oral hygiene based on the knowledge that a common side effect of this drug is A. oral candidiasis B. gingival hyperplasia C. increased risk of dental abscesses D. increased incidence of dental caries 41. All but one is appropriate in preventing cluster headaches? A. Beta-blockers B. Gabapentin C. Tricyclic antidepressant (TCA) D. Meperidine 42. A client with seizures asks the nurse how phenytoin sodium (Dilantin) works. Based on the knowledge of the drug’s action, which is the nurse’s best response? A. Reduces motor cortex activity by altering the transport of ions. B. It corrects the abnormal synthesis of norepinephrine in the body. C. Transmission of abnormal impulses in the spinal cord is depressed. D. It interrupts the flow of abnormal impulses from peripheral neurons in the viscera to the brain. 43. When preparing to teach a client about Phenytoin Sodium (Dilantin) therapy, the nurse would urge not to stop the drug abruptly because A. heart block is likely to develop B. status epilepticus may develop C. a hypoglycaemic reaction develops D. physical dependency on the drug develops over time 44. Gabapentin (Neuropil) is indicated for which of the following disorders? A. Tonic seizures B. Parkinson’s disease C. Poster neuralgia D. A history of pancreatitis 45. Which of the following is a plant alkaloid derived from belladonna plant that acetylcholine and inhibits parasympathetic action? A. Atropine B. Dopamine C. Epinephrine D. Nitro-glycerine 46. A newly admitted patient with seizure disorder is being treated with anti-convulsant. Which of the following drugs is not appropriate for him? A. phenobarbital, 150 mg hs B. Amitriplyene, 10 mg QID C. Phenytoin (Dilantin), 100 mg TID D. Valproic acid (Depakote), 150 mg BID 47. A hospitalized client had a topic clonic seizure while walking in the hallway. During seizure, which of the following actions should be prioritized? A. Hold the client's arms and legs firmly B. Protects the client’s head from injury GPT C. Place the client immediately on a soft surface D. Attempt to insert a tongue depressor between the client’s teeth 48. Nurse M is caring for a client who begins to have seizure while in bed. Which action should the nurse implement to prevent aspiration? A. Elevate the head B. Loosen restrictive clothing C. Use tongue depressor between teeth D. Position the client on the side with the head flexed forward 49. A child suddenly had a seizure attack, and Nurse M noticed that he exhibited uncontrollable jerking movements. Nurse M documented that the child experienced which type of seizure? A. Clonic seizure B. Tonic seizure C. Absence seizure D. Myoclonic seizure 50. Nurse M is aware that narcotic antagonist for respiratory depression is A. Diphenhydramine HCI B. Naloxone HCI (Narcan) C. Diazepam (Valium) D. Ephedrine Sulfate 51. A 35-year-old woman diagnosed with rheumatoid arthritis has been prescribed Infliximab. The nurse identifies infliximab as which type of medication? A. Immunosuppressive B. Immunomodulator C. Antimalarial D. Steroid 52. A patient has been advised to take ibuprofen. When teaching the patient about Which instruction should the nurse include for Ibuprofen? (Select all that apply) A. Avoid taking aspirin with ibuprofen B. Take with food to reduce GI upset C. Take herbs ginkgo, and garlic with ibuprofen D. Monitor for bleeding gums, nosebleeds, black tarry stools E. Take NSAIDs 2 days before menstruation to decrease discomfort 53. An older adult patient takes tolmetin for arthritis pain. Which statement made by the patient is of most concern to the nurse? A. “I feel like I am coming down with a cold” B. “my stomach aches and burns” C. “I feel dizzy when I get up fast” D. “I have a bad headache” 54. A 55 yr old man has been diagnosed w/chronic gout. The nurse anticipates that the patient will be treated with? A. allopurinol B. colchicine 55. Phenylacetic derivatives inhibit prostaglandin synthesis. It has no antipyretic effect. a. 1st statement correct, 2nd incorrect b. 1st incorrect, 2nd correct c. both statements are incorrect d. both statements are correct 56. Which nursing intervention has the highest preiority for the the patient who’s taking ceflepime? A. Wait until culture results are received before initiating antibiotics B. Monitor the patient for signs and symptoms of a superinfection C. Instruct the patient to take the drug for 5 days only D. Administer IV over 2 hours to prevent phlebitis 57. A patient is taking piperacillin-tazobactam. Which nursing interventions are most appropriate for this rule? SATA A. Give an aminoglycoside B. Send the specimen to the lab for C&S before antibiotic therapy is started C. Instruct patient to take entire prescribed drug D. Instruct patient to restrict fluid intake. E. Monitor symptoms of superinfection, including stomatitis and vaginitis 58. Which statement will the nurse include when teaching a patient about cephalosporin therapy? A. "Avoid ingesting buttermilk or yogurt when taking this medication," B. "Stop taking the medication when you feel better C. Immediately stop taking the medication if you develop nausea " D. Inform your healthcare provider if you develop mouth ulcers 59. A patient asks the nurse why she gets yeast infections after a course of antibiotics. The best response of the nurse is which of the following? A. The antibiotics lower your white blood cell count B. "People are poorly nourished and hydrated after an infection" C. Yeast infections happen if the antibiotic is not taken for the full course." D. "Yeast infections are common when the normal body flora are disrupted 60. A patient is admitted to the health care facility with methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA). The nurse anticipates the administration of which drug? A. Nafcillin B. Vancomycin C. Aztreonam D. Piperacillin-tazobactam 61. A patient has developed active tuberculosis and is prescribed isoniazid and rifampin. Which information will the nurse include in teaching the patient about taking this drug? (Select all that apply.) A. Warn patients that rifampicin may turn body fluids harmless green color B. Isoniazid should be given 1 hour before or 2 hours after meals C. Have periodic eye examinations as ordered by the physician D. Report numbness, tingling, and burning of hands and feet. E. Compliance with drug regimen is essential 62. A middle aged adult is diagnosed w/tuberculosis. Which is true of treatment for the diagnosis? A. Usually 2 to 3 agents are needed B. Treatment may take about 10 days to 2 weeks C. The bacteria is usually resistant to treatment therapy D. A treatment for tuberculosis is usually without side effects 63. A Patient is diagnosed w/a Candida infection in the mouth. The nurse anticipates that the patient will be treated with? A. metronidazole B. Amphotericin C. Isoniazid D. Nystatin 64. When caring for a patient receiving amphotericin B is most important for the nurse to assess the patient for the development of? A. Hypomagnesemia B. Hypercalcemia C. Hypocalcemia D. Hypermagnesemia 65. Which nursing intervention is the priority when a patient is receiving anti-viral drugs? A. Promoting hydration B. Enhancing bowel function C. Increasing tidal volume D. Promoting circulation 66. Which teaching for the patient who is taking fluconazole is a priority for the nurse? A. Take concurrent vitamin B6 to prevent peripheral neuropathy B. Take 1 hour before or 2 hours after meals C. Advise that hypoglycemia may occur with concurrent oral sulfonylureas D. Warm that gingival hyperplasia may occur with prolonged use. 67. Which is the first drug to receive FDA approval for treating AIDS or AIDS-raised complex? A. Zidovudine B. Remdesivir C. Methotrexate D. Tozilizumab 69. Erythromycin is the drug of choice for Legionnaires pneumophila, Acid-resistant like macrolides must be buffered or have enteric coating to prevent destruction by gastric acid. A. the First statement is correct. The second statement is incorrect B. The second statement is correct. The first statement is incorrect. C. Both statements are incorrect. D. Both statements are correct. 70. Azole group Inhibits cytochrome P450 in fungal cells, interfering with the formation of ergosterol. It is effective against which of the following disease condition? A. A Candidiasis B. Tuberculosis C. AIDS D. Amebiasis 71. Toxoids are inactivated toxins that can no longer produce harmful diseases but do stimulate formation of antitoxin, which produces active immunity. Health care providers are responsible for reporting vaccine-preventable diseases and adverse reactions following immunizations. a. First statement is correct. Second statement is incorrect. b. Second statement is correct. First statement is incorrect. c. Both statements are incorrect. d. Both statements are correct 72. Which is the first vaccine developed to prevent cancer? A. Rotavirus B. Preumococcal disease C. Human papillomavirus D. Meningococcal disease 73. Most antivirals are very toxic. The nurse understands that the following should be monitored in administering antiviral except A. renal function test B. WBC C. prothrombin time. D. platelet count 74. Which of the following therapies restores and preserves immunologic function? A. Antiretroviral B. Antimetabolite C. Antifungal D. Antimalarial 75. Aminoglycoside has an effect of A. Bactericidal B. Antifungal C. Bacteriostatic D. Antiviral BODY TISSUE/ORGAN SYMPATHETIC PARASYMPATHETIC RESPONSE RESPONSE Eye Dilate Constrict Lungs Dilate bronchioles Constrict bronchioles and increase secretions Heart Increase heart rate Decrease heart rate Blood Vessels Constrict blood vessel Dilate blood vessels Gastrointestinal Relaxes smooth muscles of Increase peristalsis GI tract Bladder Relaxes bladder muscle Constrict bladder muscles Uterus Relaxes Uterine muscle - Salivary gland - Increase salivation Test III (2022-2023). Compute for the following with the given drip factor. Show your computation at the back of your answer sheet with the formula. Please include the units. (15 points) 1. D5%LR iL x 10hrs using drop factor of 20gtts/ml - flow rate 2. D5% NR iL x 100cc/hr DF of 60mgtts/ml - flow rate 3. MgSO4 4.5gms IM STAT on each buttock. How many ml will you administer on each buttock if the stock on hand is 250mg/ml, 1vial contains 10ml. 4. When the nurse on duty received the IVF of D5LRiL at the level of 500 ml at 7am and the regulation is at 125ml/hr, what time will the IVF be consumed? 5. The doctor's order is to give a loading dose of 1.5gm of Cefuroxime thru IV, how many vials will the nurse purchase if the availability is 750mg/vial Cefuroxime powder to be diluted in 5ml of NSS?