Adult Psychiatry PDF

Question Answer According to the National Psychiatric Morbidity B) 15% Survey (NPMS, 1995), what percentage of Explanation: The NPMS, 1995 found that 15% of adults in the UK have broadly defined neurosis at adults in the UK have broadly defined n...

Question Answer According to the National Psychiatric Morbidity B) 15% Survey (NPMS, 1995), what percentage of Explanation: The NPMS, 1995 found that 15% of adults in the UK have broadly defined neurosis at adults in the UK have broadly defined neurosis any time, indicating a significant prevalence of anxiety disorders in the population. at any time? A) 10% B) 15% C) 20% D) 25% E) 30% What is the most common anxiety disorder in C) Mixed Anxiety-Depression the UK according to the NPMS study? Explanation: The NPMS study found that the most common anxiety disorder in the UK was mixed A) Panic Disorder anxiety-depression, highlighting its prevalence in the population as noted in the survey. B) Generalised Anxiety Disorder (GAD) C) Mixed Anxiety-Depression D) Obsessive Compulsive Disorder (OCD) E) Social Phobia What percentage of all GP consultations are D) 25% for anxiety related symptoms? Explanation: 25% of all GP consultations are for anxiety related symptoms, indicating the significant A) 10% impact of anxiety disorders on healthcare utilization and the population's well-being. B) 15% C) 20% D) 25% E) 30% At what age does Panic Disorder typically B) 22 to 25 years onset? Explanation: Panic Disorder typically onsets at 22 to 25 years of age, as indicated by the mean age A) 30 years of onset for various anxiety disorders, highlighting the typical age range for this condition. B) 22 to 25 years C) 20 years D) 15 years E) Varies with individual categories What is the recommended first-line treatment C) Psychological therapy for Generalised Anxiety Disorder, Panic Explanation: According to the NICE guidance, psychological therapy is recommended as the Disorder, and OCD according to the NICE first-line treatment for Generalised Anxiety Disorder, Panic Disorder, and OCD, highlighting its guidance? effectiveness over pharmacological therapy and other interventions. A) Pharmacological therapy B) Combination therapy C) Psychological therapy D) SSRIs E) Stepped care approach What is the point prevalence of OCD in adults B) 1-3% and children/adolescents in community Explanation: The point prevalence of OCD is reported to be as high as 1-3% of adults and 1-2% of samples? children and adolescents in community samples, indicating the significant impact of this disorder A) 5-7% within the population. B) 1-3% C) 10-15% D) 20-25% E) 30-35% Which factor model tends to be shown in C) Four-factor model recent factor analytic studies of obsessions Explanation: Recent factor analytic studies of obsessions and compulsions in OCD tend to show a and compulsions in OCD? four-factor model, including aggressive, sexual, and religious obsessions, checking compulsions, A) Two-factor model symmetry and ordering obsessions, contamination obsessions, and hoarding obsessions, providing B) Three-factor model insights into the diverse nature of this disorder. C) Four-factor model D) Five-factor model E) Six-factor model What has been reported in several B) Hypermetabolism of basal ganglia structures neuroimaging studies regarding the aetiology Explanation: Neuroimaging studies have reported hypermetabolism of basal ganglia structures, of OCD? particularly the caudate, in relation to the aetiology of OCD, indicating potential neurobiological A) Hypometabolism of basal ganglia structures underpinnings of the disorder. B) Hypermetabolism of basal ganglia structures C) Atrophy of basal ganglia structures D) Enlargement of basal ganglia structures E) No abnormalities in basal ganglia structures What is PANDAS associated with? D) Bacterial infections A) Autoimmune reactions Explanation: PANDAS (Paediatric autoimmune neuropsychiatric disorders associated with B) Allergic reactions streptococcal infection) is thought to be secondary to streptococcal infection, indicating its C) Viral infections association with bacterial infections and the subsequent neurological and psychiatric symptoms. D) Bacterial infections E) Fungal infections Question Answer According to the National Institute of Mental C) The presence of OCD or a tic disorder Health Clinical Diagnostic Criteria for PANDAS, Explanation: According to the National Institute of Mental Health Clinical Diagnostic Criteria for what is one of the criteria for the presence of PANDAS, one of the criteria for the presence of PANDAS is the presence of OCD or a tic disorder, PANDAS? underlining its association with these specific neuropsychiatric symptoms. A) The presence of depression B) The presence of anxiety C) The presence of OCD or a tic disorder D) The presence of schizophrenia E) The presence of bipolar disorder What is a key element of Cognitive Behavioral B) Exposure and response prevention Therapy (CBT) for OCD treatment? Explanation: Exposure and response prevention is a key element of CBT for OCD treatment. A) Medication management Patients are trained to confront anxiety-provoking situations while abstaining from compulsive B) Exposure and response prevention behaviors in response, which can lead to a reduction in the risk of relapse and provide more durable C) Physical exercise remission than using pharmacotherapy alone. D) Nutritional therapy E) Mindfulness meditation What type of response do serotonergic D) Selective response medications such as clomipramine and SSRIs Explanation: Serotonergic medications such as clomipramine and SSRIs show a selective response show in OCD treatment? in OCD treatment, with around 60 to 70% of patients experiencing some degree of improvement A) No response after SSRI treatment, typically at a higher dose and for a longer duration than for depression. B) Partial response C) Slow response D) Selective response E) Temporary response When is antipsychotic augmentation indicated C) After 3-month trial of a maximal dose of SSRI with no response in OCD treatment? Explanation: Antipsychotic augmentation is indicated in OCD treatment if no response is seen after A) After 1 month of SSRI treatment a three-month trial of a maximal dose of SSRI, especially when tics are also present, highlighting B) After 6 months of SSRI treatment the importance of considering this approach in non-responsive cases. C) After 3-month trial of a maximal dose of SSRI with no response D) Before starting SSRI treatment E) Only when tics are present What is the recommended treatment for severe C) SSRIs+/- CBT OCD? Explanation: For severe OCD, the recommended treatment includes SSRIs+/- CBT, indicating the A) Medication management necessity of a combined approach involving medication and cognitive behavioral therapy to address B) Self-help techniques the condition effectively. C) SSRIs+/- CBT D) Physical therapy E) Nutritional therapy According to DSM-5, where has PTSD been C) Anxiety disorders to trauma and stressor-related disorders moved from in terms of classification? Explanation: The DSM-5 has reclassified PTSD from anxiety disorders to a new class of 'trauma A) Anxiety disorders to mood disorders and stressor-related disorders', reflecting a shift in its categorization and highlighting its association B) Mood disorders to personality disorders with traumatic experiences. C) Anxiety disorders to trauma and stressor-related disorders D) Trauma and stressor-related disorders to dissociative disorders E) Trauma and stressor-related disorders to psychotic disorders What are the four symptom clusters associated C) Intrusion, avoidance, negative alterations in cognitions and mood, and alterations in arousal and with PTSD? reactivity A) Depression, mania, anxiety, and paranoia Explanation: The four symptom clusters associated with PTSD include intrusion, avoidance, B) Intrusion, avoidance, cognitive negative alterations in cognitions and mood, and alterations in arousal and reactivity, outlining the enhancement, and arousal diverse range of symptoms experienced by individuals with PTSD. C) Intrusion, avoidance, negative alterations in cognitions and mood, and alterations in arousal and reactivity D) Hallucinations, delusions, disorganized thinking, and catatonic behavior E) Compulsions, obsessions, phobias, and panic attacks What is the point prevalence of PTSD? A) 1% A) 1% Explanation: The point prevalence of PTSD is 1%, indicating the percentage of individuals in a B) 3.6% population who currently have PTSD at a specific point in time, highlighting the prevalence of this C) 6.8% condition in society. D) 9.7% E) 30% What is the lifetime prevalence of PTSD B) 6.8% Question Answer among adult Americans according to the Explanation: The lifetime prevalence of PTSD among adult Americans is 6.8%, as reported by the National Comorbidity Survey Replication National Comorbidity Survey Replication (NCS-R), highlighting the significant impact of PTSD on (NCS-R)? the population. A) 3.6% B) 6.8% C) 9.7% D) 12% E) 30% What is unclear about the gender difference in B) Whether the gender difference is due to higher exposure to trauma or greater vulnerability to PTSD prevalence? develop PTSD A) Whether men or women are more likely to Explanation: It is unclear whether the gender difference in PTSD prevalence is due to higher develop PTSD exposure to trauma or greater vulnerability to develop PTSD, highlighting the complexity of factors B) Whether the gender difference is due to influencing the development of PTSD in men and women. higher exposure to trauma or greater vulnerability to develop PTSD C) Whether PTSD is more common in younger or older individuals D) Whether PTSD prevalence varies across the world E) Whether PTSD is underdiagnosed in primary care What intervention is likely to be beneficial in A) Multiple-session CBT to prevent PTSD in people with acute stress disorder (reduced PTSD preventing PTSD in people with acute stress compared with supportive counselling) disorder? Explanation: According to the given information, multiple-session CBT is likely to be beneficial in preventing PTSD in people with acute stress disorder, as it has shown to reduce PTSD compared with supportive counselling. According to NICE, what is recommended for A) Watchful waiting where symptoms are mild and have been present for less than 4 weeks after initial management in primary care when the trauma symptoms are mild and have been present for Explanation: NICE recommends watchful waiting for mild symptoms present for less than 4 weeks less than 4 weeks after the trauma? after the trauma as part of the initial management in primary care, indicating a cautious approach in such cases. What intervention should be offered to those A) Trauma-focused cognitive behavioural therapy which includes a combination of exposure with severe post-traumatic symptoms or with therapy, cognitive therapy and stress management severe PTSD in the first month after the Explanation: Severe post-traumatic symptoms or severe PTSD in the first month after the traumatic traumatic event? event warrants trauma-focused cognitive behavioural therapy, which involves a combination of exposure therapy, cognitive therapy, and stress management, as suggested by the information provided. What is recommended for further specialist A) Psychological treatments should be done in a regular and continuous (usually at least once a management in terms of psychological week) manner and should be delivered by the same person treatments? Explanation: Further specialist management recommends that psychological treatments should be conducted in a regular and continuous manner, usually at least once a week, and should be delivered by the same person, highlighting the importance of consistency in psychological treatment. What intervention should be used when A) Trauma-focused cognitive behavioural therapy which includes a combination of exposure symptoms are present within 3 months of a therapy, cognitive therapy and stress management trauma? Explanation: When symptoms are present within 3 months of a trauma, trauma-focused cognitive behavioural therapy, including a combination of exposure therapy, cognitive therapy, and stress management, should be used as per the information provided. What type of medication is recommended for C) Nonbenzodiazepine medication short-term use after four consecutive nights of Explanation: The prescription of nonbenzodiazepine medication is recommended for short-term use sleep disturbance? after four consecutive nights of sleep disturbance, providing a targeted intervention for immediate A) Antipsychotic medication relief without the risk of long-term dependence. B) Antidepressant medication C) Nonbenzodiazepine medication D) Steroid medication E) Antibiotic medication What is the recommended intervention when C) Pharmacological treatment symptoms of trauma are present for more than Explanation: In cases where symptoms of trauma persist for more than 3 months, and there is 3 months? limited improvement with trauma-focused psychological treatments, the recommendation is to A) Cognitive Behavioral Therapy (CBT) consider pharmacological treatment as an alternative, emphasizing the need for a different B) Eye Movement Desensitisation and approach to address the prolonged symptoms. Reprocessing (EMDR) C) Pharmacological treatment D) Stress management E) Psychological debriefing Which medication is considered NICE second A) Paroxetine line and licensed for PTSD in the UK? Explanation: Paroxetine is considered NICE second line and is licensed for PTSD in the UK, Question Answer A) Paroxetine indicating its recognized efficacy and regulatory approval for addressing PTSD symptoms. B) Sertraline C) Fluoxetine D) Venlafaxine E) Olanzapine What did the meta-analysis by Bisson et al. C) There is no evidence of a difference in efficacy between TFCBT and EMDR (2007) reveal about the efficacy of Explanation: The meta-analysis by Bisson et al. (2007) revealed that there is no evidence of a Trauma-Focused CBT (TFCBT) and Eye difference in efficacy between Trauma-Focused CBT (TFCBT) and Eye Movement Desensitisation Movement Desensitisation and Reprocessing and Reprocessing (EMDR), highlighting the comparable effectiveness of these two approaches in (EMDR)? addressing trauma-related symptoms. A) TFCBT is superior to EMDR B) EMDR is superior to TFCBT C) There is no evidence of a difference in efficacy between TFCBT and EMDR D) Both TFCBT and EMDR are ineffective E) Both TFCBT and EMDR are equally effective as stress management What did the Cochrane review show about the C) It is worse than control or educational interventions efficacy of psychological debriefing after Explanation: The Cochrane review demonstrated that psychological debriefing after trauma is either trauma? equivalent to, or worse than, control or educational interventions, indicating its limited efficacy in A) It is more effective than control or preventing or reducing the severity of PTSD, depression, and anxiety. educational interventions B) It is equivalent to stress management C) It is worse than control or educational interventions D) It is effective in preventing PTSD, depression, and anxiety E) It is superior to other therapies What is the estimated lifetime prevalence of B) 5% DSM-IV GAD? Explanation: The estimated lifetime prevalence of DSM-IV GAD is about 5%, indicating the A) 10% significant impact of this disorder on a portion of the population. B) 5% C) 20% D) 2% E) 15% What is a notable feature of the Hamilton C) It emphasizes somatic symptoms Anxiety Scale? Explanation: The Hamilton Anxiety Scale is a 14-item instrument that specifically emphasizes A) It emphasizes cognitive symptoms somatic symptoms, providing a valuable tool for assessing anxiety-related physical manifestations. B) It includes only psychological symptoms C) It emphasizes somatic symptoms D) It is a 20-item instrument E) It is used for diagnosing depression Which type of treatment response is generally A) Partial response defined as a 50% reduction in baseline score Explanation: Treatment response is generally defined as a 50% reduction in baseline score on the on the Hamilton Anxiety Scale? Hamilton Anxiety Scale, indicating a substantial improvement in symptoms but not a complete A) Partial response recovery. B) Full recovery C) Clinical recovery D) Initial response E) Non-response What does the NICE recommend as the C) SSRIs first-line treatment for GAD? Explanation: The NICE recommends that an SSRI should be used as the first-line treatment for A) Antipsychotics Generalised Anxiety Disorder, highlighting its importance in the management of this condition. B) TCAs C) SSRIs D) Benzodiazepines E) SNRIs What percentage of patients recovered from C) 42% generalised anxiety disorder at a 12-year Explanation: At a 12-year follow-up, 42% of patients had recovered from generalised anxiety follow-up? disorder, providing insight into the long-term prognosis of this condition. A) 30% B) 50% C) 42% D) 60% E) 25% Which herbal remedy has been proven to be C) Kava effective in reducing anxiety according to Explanation: According to Cochrane review, kava is the only herbal remedy that has been proven to Cochrane review? be effective in reducing anxiety. However, its clinical use is not recommended due to the Question Answer A) Lavender association with hepatotoxicity, leading to its withdrawal from the UK market. B) Valerian C) Kava D) Chamomile E) Ginkgo What are the effects of kavapyrones in animal B) Muscle relaxants and anticonvulsants models? Explanation: The effects of kavapyrones in animal models include acting as muscle relaxants and A) Increase in heart rate anticonvulsants, protecting against strychnine poisoning, and reducing limbic system excitability, B) Muscle relaxants and anticonvulsants highlighting its potential as an anxiolytic compound. C) Stimulate limbic system excitability D) Decrease in GABAA receptor densities E) Enhance norepinephrine reuptake What is the main concern associated with the B) Fatal hepatotoxicity use of kava? Explanation: The main concern associated with the use of kava is its association with allergic, A) Allergic reactions sometimes fatal hepatotoxicity, which has led to its withdrawal from the UK market, making it B) Fatal hepatotoxicity unsuitable for general use. C) Interaction with other medications D) Development of extrapyramidal symptoms E) Lethargy What is the point prevalence of social phobia? B) 2.8% A) 3.8% Explanation: The point prevalence of social phobia is 2.8%, with two recognized subtypes, including B) 2.8% the generalized subtype and situational or non-generalized subtype, each presenting distinct C) 1.8% characteristics and levels of impairment. D) 4.8% E) 5.8% What are the best-established treatments for C) Cognitive Behavioral Therapy (CBT) and Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitors (SSRIs) social phobia? Explanation: The best-established treatments for social phobia are Cognitive Behavioral Therapy A) Herbal remedies (CBT) and Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitors (SSRIs), while benzodiazepines should not be B) Antipsychotic medications used as they are not recommended for this condition. C) Cognitive Behavioral Therapy (CBT) and Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitors (SSRIs) D) Benzodiazepines E) Anticonvulsant medications What is the point prevalence of panic disorder? C) 0.9% Explanation: The point prevalence of panic disorder is 0.9%, indicating the percentage of individuals in a population who have the disorder at a specific point in time. According to the ICD-10, how is panic disorder B) Recurrent, unpredictable panic attacks with sudden onset of various symptoms, often with classified? associated fear, without the requirement for symptoms to have persisted for 1 month or longer. Explanation: The ICD-10 classifies panic disorder as recurrent, unpredictable panic attacks, with sudden onset of symptoms such as palpitations, chest pain, choking sensations, and feelings of unreality, often with associated fear, without the requirement for symptoms to have persisted for 1 month or longer. What is the estimated heritability of panic A) 30% - 40% disorder? Explanation: Panic disorder is noted to have an estimated heritability of 30% - 40%, indicating the proportion of the disorder's variance in a population that is attributable to genetic factors. What is the recommended acute management C) Both pharmacological and psychological approaches for panic disorder according to BAP Explanation: The BAP recommends for acute management of panic disorder to consider both recommendations? pharmacological (SSRIs, some TCAs, some benzodiazepines, venlafaxine, reboxetine) and psychological (cognitive-behaviour therapy) approaches, as they have broadly similar efficacy in acute treatment. What is the mean age of onset of any panic E) Around 22 years attack, regardless of diagnosis? Explanation: The mean age of onset of any panic attack, irrespective of diagnosis, is around 22 years, indicating the typical age at which individuals may experience their first panic attack. What is the first-line pharmacological treatment C) SSRIs recommended for hypochondriasis? Explanation: The first-line pharmacological treatment recommended for hypochondriasis is SSRIs, which have been shown to be efficacious in treating the condition. What is the prevalence range of B) Between 0.8 and 4.5% hypochondriasis? Explanation: The prevalence of hypochondriasis has been reported to be between 0.8 and 4.5%, with most information coming from studies conducted in primary care, highlighting the prevalence of this condition within the population. What has DSM-V classified as the disorder E) Somatic Symptom Disorder or Illness Anxiety Disorder replacing hypochondriasis? Explanation: DSM-V has removed hypochondriasis as a disorder and replaced it with Somatic Symptom Disorder or Illness Anxiety Disorder, indicating the change in classification based on the Question Answer perceived pejorative nature of the former name. What is the recommended treatment for body A) CBT and SSRIs dysmorphic disorder? Explanation: The recommended treatments for body dysmorphic disorder include CBT, which has been shown to be efficacious, and SSRIs, which may also be efficacious, emphasizing the use of both psychological and pharmacological approaches in managing the condition. What does a patient with body dysmorphic D) Convinced that part of their body has a defect or is flawed in some way disorder believe about their appearance? Explanation: A patient with body dysmorphic disorder (BDD) is convinced that part of their body has a defect or is flawed in some way, illustrating the characteristic preoccupation with perceived defects or flaws associated with this disorder. What factors may predispose persons to Body E) Critical parents and significant others Dysmorphic Disorder (BDD)? Explanation: Factors that may predispose persons to BDD include low self-esteem and critical A) High self-esteem parents and significant others, highlighting the influence of social and psychological factors on the B) Supportive parents and significant others development of this disorder. C) Early adulthood trauma D) Unconscious displacement of emotional conflict E) Critical parents and significant others What are the lifetime rates of major depression B) 26% in patients with BDD? Explanation: Patients with BDD have higher lifetime rates of major depression, with 26% of patients A) 10% experiencing this comorbid condition, demonstrating the significant association between BDD and B) 26% major depression. C) 40% D) 50% E) 70% What is an effective treatment for Body C) Cognitive Behavioral Therapy (CBT) Dysmorphic Disorder (BDD)? Explanation: CBT has been shown to be effective in treating BDD, and a combination with A) Low-dose SSRIs fluoxetine may treat resistant cases, underscoring the importance of psychological interventions in B) Antipsychotics as a first-line treatment managing this disorder. C) Cognitive Behavioral Therapy (CBT) D) High-dose SSRIs for a short duration E) Combination of antipsychotics and fluoxetine What is the prevalence of somatization B) Less than 1% disorder in community surveys in the United Explanation: Community surveys in the United States and Western Europe have found prevalence States and Western Europe? rates of less than 1% for somatization disorder, indicating the relatively low occurrence of this A) 5% disorder in these populations. B) Less than 1% C) 10% D) 2% E) 20% What percentage of primary care patients B) 20% suffered from persistent pain, according to the Explanation: The survey noted that approximately 20% of primary care patients suffered from World Health Organization multicentre primary persistent pain, highlighting the significant prevalence of this issue in primary care settings and its care survey? potential impact on patient well-being. A) 10% B) 20% C) 30% D) 40% E) 50% According to the review by Sumathipala et al C) Antidepressant medication, cognitive behavioural therapy (CBT), and other nonspecific 2007, which interventions are supported by interventions evidence for medically unexplained Explanation: The review by Sumathipala et al 2007 identified three types of interventions supported symptoms? by evidence for medically unexplained symptoms: antidepressant medication, cognitive behavioural A) Antipsychotic medication, family therapy, therapy (CBT), and other nonspecific interventions, highlighting the importance of these approaches and acupuncture in addressing such symptoms. B) Antidepressant medication, cognitive behavioural therapy (CBT), and herbal remedies C) Antidepressant medication, cognitive behavioural therapy (CBT), and other nonspecific interventions D) Antibiotic medication, hypnotherapy, and physical therapy E) Antidepressant medication, psychoanalysis, and meditation Which type of therapy is recommended for A) Cognitive behavioural therapy (CBT) patients with somatoform disorder, according Explanation: Patients with somatoform disorder may benefit from Body-Oriented Psychological Question Answer to the text? Therapy, mentalization-based CBT, and brief psychodynamic interpersonal therapy, emphasizing A) Cognitive behavioural therapy (CBT) the effectiveness of cognitive behavioural therapy (CBT) in addressing this condition. B) Group therapy C) Psychoanalysis D) Family therapy E) Acceptance and Commitment Therapy What is the prevalence of dissociative disorder B) 10% in the adult population, based on some Explanation: Some surveys estimate that 10% of the adult population has dissociative disorder, surveys? indicating the relatively significant prevalence of this condition in the general population. A) 5% B) 10% C) 15% D) 20% E) 25% What is recommended by the International B) Individual psychotherapy and skills training Society for the Study of Trauma and Explanation: The International Society for the Study of Trauma and Dissociation recommends Dissociation for the treatment of Dissociative individual psychotherapy, especially structured therapy such as Acceptance and Commitment Disorders? Therapy and DBT, and skills training for the treatment of Dissociative Disorders, underscoring the A) Group therapy and medication management importance of these approaches in addressing this condition. B) Individual psychotherapy and skills training C) Hypnotherapy and acupuncture D) Family therapy and cognitive restructuring E) Herbal remedies and meditation How many major types of eating disorders are C) 3 recognised by ICD-10? Explanation: The ICD-10 recognises three major types of eating disorders, namely anorexia A) 1 nervosa, bulimia nervosa, and EDNOS, with binge eating disorder being increasingly recognised as B) 2 a fourth type falling under EDNOS currently. C) 3 D) 4 E) 5 What is the stability of individual eating C) Unstable disorder diagnoses? Explanation: The stability of individual eating disorder diagnoses is poor, with patients often A) Very stable migrating from one type to another, and it is notable that at least 1/4th to 1/3rd of those with bulimia B) Moderately stable have a past history of anorexia. C) Unstable D) Stable only in adolescents E) Stable only in young adults What is the diagnostic criterion for E) Intact periods amenorrhoea in Anorexia Nervosa (AN) Explanation: In DSM-5, the requirement for amenorrhoea has been eliminated as most female according to DSM-5? patients who have BMI around 17.5 and body image disturbance are amenorrhoeic; those who A) BMI below 15 have intact periods have the same clinical features and outcome as those who satisfy all 3 criteria. B) BMI around 17.5 C) BMI above 20 D) Body image disturbance E) Intact periods What is the specified frequency for binge B) Once a week eating in bulimia according to DSM-V? Explanation: DSM-V specifies a once-weekly frequency for binge eating as a diagnostic criterion for A) Daily bulimia, along with inappropriate compensatory behavior. B) Once a week C) Twice a week D) Thrice a week E) Monthly What is the prevalence of anorexia in the B) 0.5-1% teenage girls age group? Explanation: Anorexia has a prevalence of 0.5-1% in the teenage girls age group, as per the data A) 0.1-0.5% adapted from Fairburn & Harrison, 2003. B) 0.5-1% C) 1-2% D) 2-3% E) 3-4% What are some risk factors for eating disorders B) Western cultural adaptation and early menarche according to the provided content? Explanation: The provided content lists Western cultural adaptation and early menarche as risk A) High body weight and low self-esteem factors for eating disorders, highlighting the influence of cultural and developmental factors on the B) Western cultural adaptation and early development of these conditions. menarche C) Family history of obesity and high contact parenting D) Occupational pressure to be slim and low Question Answer sexual appetite E) Childhood sexual abuse and low self-esteem What is a characteristic symptom of Binge C) Recurrent episodes of binge eating and extreme weight-control behavior Eating Disorder (BED) according to the Explanation: The content describes Binge Eating Disorder (BED) as being characterized by content? recurrent episodes of binge eating in the absence of extreme weight-control behavior, providing A) Emaciation and stunted growth insight into the defining feature of this disorder. B) Sensitivity to cold and gastrointestinal symptoms C) Recurrent episodes of binge eating and extreme weight-control behavior D) Swelling of parotid and submandibular glands E) Dizziness and syncope What are some physical signs of eating D) Cold hands and feet and bradycardia disorders as per the provided information? Explanation: The content mentions cold hands and feet, as well as bradycardia, as physical signs of A) Erosion of inner surface of front teeth and eating disorders, shedding light on the physiological manifestations of these conditions. low sexual appetite B) Swelling of parotid and submandibular glands and dependent edema C) Dry skin and fine downy hair on the back D) Cold hands and feet and bradycardia E) Increased sensitivity to cold and gastrointestinal symptoms What is a notable characteristic of the E) Association with obesity is seen binge-eating population according to the Explanation: The content highlights that an association with obesity is seen in the binge-eating content? population, providing insight into the demographic and clinical profile of individuals affected by this A) Majority are females disorder. B) High degree of spontaneous remission C) Stress associated overeating is common D) Typically present in their 40s E) Association with obesity is seen What are some risk factors for eating disorders C) Critical comments about eating, shape, or weight from family and others related to family and social environment based Explanation: The content identifies critical comments about eating, shape, or weight from family and on the provided content? others as risk factors for eating disorders, emphasizing the impact of family and social dynamics on A) High expectations and occupational the development of these conditions. pressure to be slim B) Childhood sexual abuse and obesity C) Critical comments about eating, shape, or weight from family and others D) Low self-esteem and perfectionism E) Adverse parenting and low contact What are some effects of eating disorders on C) Compromised intrauterine fetal growth pregnancy? Explanation: Eating disorders can lead to compromised intrauterine fetal growth, which increases A) Decreased appetite the risk of premature delivery and is associated with various post-natal complications and low birth B) Increased fertility weight, impacting the overall health of the pregnancy. C) Compromised intrauterine fetal growth D) Higher rates of weight gain E) Reduced risk of premature delivery What is the most effective treatment for C) Cognitive behaviour therapy managing bulimia? Explanation: Cognitive behaviour therapy is identified as the most effective treatment for managing A) Antidepressant drugs bulimia, involving about 20 individual treatment sessions over 5 months, with a significant B) Family-based therapy percentage of patients making a complete and lasting recovery, making it a crucial therapeutic C) Cognitive behaviour therapy approach. D) Interpersonal psychotherapy E) Dialectical behaviour therapy What are some potential post-natal A) Low birth weight complications associated with eating Explanation: Eating disorders are associated with post-natal complications such as low birth weight, disorders? microcephaly, and low APGAR scores, highlighting the adverse impact of these disorders on the A) Low birth weight health of the newborns. B) High APGAR scores C) Increased fertility D) Rapid weight gain E) Decreased appetite Which therapy is considered effective for D) Cognitive behaviour therapy managing anorexia? Explanation: Cognitive behaviour therapy is a major therapeutic goal for managing anorexia, A) Family-based therapy emphasizing its effectiveness in addressing the complex psychological and behavioral aspects of B) Interpersonal psychotherapy this eating disorder. Question Answer C) Dialectical behaviour therapy D) Cognitive behaviour therapy E) Antidepressant drugs What is a notable effect of actively anorexic B) Low birth weight mothers on their neonates? Explanation: Actively anorexic mothers may contribute to neonates having low birth weight and A) Increased weight gain experiencing hypoglycemia, highlighting the potential adverse effects of maternal anorexia on the B) Low birth weight health of the newborns. C) High APGAR scores D) Rapid growth E) Normal blood sugar levels According to the NICE guidelines, what is B) Self-help programme recommended as the first line of treatment for Explanation: The NICE guidelines recommend evidence-based self-help programme as the first line bulimia? of treatment for bulimia, with the additional option or alternative choice of using antidepressants. A) Cognitive restructuring B) Self-help programme C) Antidepressant drugs D) Dietary counselling E) Family interventions What is specifically recommended for adults B) 12-16 sessions over 4-5 months with bulimia nervosa, in terms of therapy Explanation: Specifically adapted cognitive behavioural therapy should be offered to adults with sessions? bulimia nervosa, with 16-20 sessions over 4-5 months, as recommended by the NICE guidelines. A) 6-10 sessions over 2-3 months B) 12-16 sessions over 4-5 months C) 20-25 sessions over 6-7 months D) 8-12 sessions over 3-4 months E) 30-35 sessions over 8-9 months According to the NICE guidelines, what is NOT A) Antidepressant drugs recommended as the sole or primary treatment Explanation: The NICE guidelines specifically state that drugs should not be used as sole or primary for anorexia nervosa? treatment for anorexia nervosa, highlighting the importance of other forms of therapy and A) Antidepressant drugs interventions. B) Cognitive analytic therapy C) Interpersonal psychotherapy D) Dietary counselling E) Family interventions What is especially useful for children and C) Family interventions adolescents with anorexia nervosa, according Explanation: Family interventions that directly address the eating disorder are especially useful for to the NICE guidelines? children and adolescents with anorexia nervosa, as recommended by the NICE guidelines. A) Antidepressant drugs B) Interpersonal psychotherapy C) Family interventions D) Cognitive behavioural therapy E) Dietary counselling What is the effective dose of fluoxetine C) 60 mg daily recommended for bulimia nervosa? Explanation: The NICE guidelines recommend the effective dose of fluoxetine for bulimia nervosa to A) 20 mg daily be 60 mg daily, which is higher than for depression, providing specific dosage information for this B) 40 mg daily condition. C) 60 mg daily D) 80 mg daily E) 100 mg daily What percentage of the population is B) 5% - 13% suggested to have at least one personality Explanation: Epidemiological studies suggest that between 5% and 13% of the population has at disorder based on epidemiological studies? least one personality disorder, indicating the relatively high prevalence of these disorders within the A) 1% - 3% general population. B) 5% - 13% C) 15% - 20% D) 25% - 30% E) 35% - 40% What is the most prevalent personality disorder B) Borderline PD in psychiatric settings? Explanation: Borderline PD is generally the most prevalent in psychiatric settings, as indicated by A) Antisocial PD numerous studies reporting a prevalence of greater than 50% of samples, underscoring its B) Borderline PD significance within psychiatric populations. C) Histrionic PD D) Narcissistic PD E) Avoidant PD In which setting is dissocial personality B) Prison settings reported to be the most prevalent category of Explanation: Dissocial personality is reported to be the most prevalent category of personality personality disorder? disorder in prison settings, as evidenced by a survey in England and Wales which found that the Question Answer A) Psychiatric settings prevalence of any personality disorder was 78% for male remand, 64% for male sentenced, and B) Prison settings 50% for female prisoners, highlighting its prevalence in this specific setting. C) Community settings D) Educational settings E) Workplace settings What is the estimated prevalence of antisocial B) 1% PD in the general population of Great Britain? Explanation: The prevalence of antisocial PD in the general population of Great Britain is estimated A) 0.2% at 1%, with the rate in men being five times that in women, indicating a notable gender difference in B) 1% prevalence. C) 2% D) 3% E) 4% Where are higher prevalence rates for B) Urban populations personality disorders commonly found? Explanation: Higher prevalence rates for personality disorders appear to be found in urban A) Rural populations populations, which may account for some of the range in reported prevalence, suggesting a B) Urban populations potential association between urban environments and the prevalence of personality disorders. C) Suburban populations D) Coastal populations E) Mountainous populations