6-52 ADA BN Avenger/Stinger (14P) General Knowledge Study Guide PDF

6-52 ADA BN Avenger/Stinger (14P) General Knowledge Study Guide 388 Multiple Choice Questions Created By: SFC Peralta (Battalion Avenger Master Gunner) Revised by: SGT Flores (Battery Avenger Master Gunner) TM 9-1430-1433-10 A2 (2020) 1. Wha...

6-52 ADA BN Avenger/Stinger (14P) General Knowledge Study Guide 388 Multiple Choice Questions Created By: SFC Peralta (Battalion Avenger Master Gunner) Revised by: SGT Flores (Battery Avenger Master Gunner) TM 9-1430-1433-10 A2 (2020) 1. What is the weight of the argon gas bottle? 10.5 Pounds 2. What is the maximum operating pressure in a single argon gas bottle? 6000 PSI 3. If you receive a message on the TC “SVML GAS PRESSURE LOW,” what does that mean? Argon Pressure is below 3500 PSI 4. The top argon bottle supplies gas to what missile(s)? Left Missiles 5. What does the acronym AFCC stand for? Avenger Fire Control Computer 6. When conducting the BIT, how many components/systems are checked? 7. Which component is used to test and prepare the Avenger for firing? 9 8. What is the approximate maximum effective range for the M3P.50 caliber machine gun? 1850m ( 2000yd ) 9. What does the OPERATE MODE TRACK switch indicate if the light is green? Missile auto track is selected and AZ/EL movement is computer controlled. 10. What is the optimum rate of fire for the M3P.50 caliber machine gun? 1025 RPM 11. If the MISSILE STATUS PRESENT light goes off (umbilical drops) or stays on (umbilical doesn’t drop) and the selected missile does not leave the launch tube, this would indicate __? Missile misfire has occurred 12. When will manual range estimating procedures be necessary? When fire permit symbol is not present 13. What parts of the machine gun will you not lubricate? Anywhere the round touches 14. If the fire permit symbol is not present after ___, use manual range estimation and continue engagement. 2 Seconds 15. Which of the following is the proper sequence the Gunner should follow if they experience a missile misfire and have done all the steps up to putting the arm switch to safe? Continue to track target and attempt to fire, release trigger switches press left thumb switch, set arm to safe, elevate +20 away from personnel, power down system, exit system. 16. Which of the following deficiencies would cause the FU to become NMC (dead-lined) when it comes to the system batteries? Missing Damaged Mounting hardware is damaged or missing 17. During a hangfire, misfire, or dud missile, personnel (other than the Gunner) should be evacuated how far away from the missile? 670 Ft ( 204m ) 18. The Avenger can conduct side slope operations (traverse a side slope) up to ___%, and ___ degrees from either side of the vehicle. 40% 22 Degrees 19. The Avenger can conduct grade operations (ascending) at ___%, and ___ degrees at ___ mph. 60% 31 Degrees 4MPH 20. What is the maximum range for the M3P.50 caliber machine gun? 6500m ( 7000yd ) 21. The Stinger missile exhaust contains amounts of ___ gas, which may cause eye and throat irritation. Hydrogen Chloride ( HCI ) 22. What list are a compass and binoculars a part of?  Manpads 23. How longer after powering down the FU must the Gunner wait before exiting the turret in the event of a hangfire/misfire? 10 Minutes 24. What is the function of the FLIR’s RAIN mode? Used in deteriorated weather conditions and decreases FOV in WFOV by 50% 25. What information is used to input AIR DENSITY for MG firing? Temperature and Altitude 26. What type of toxic material is located withing the IR dome of the Basic Stinger (seeker head dome) and CFT? Mercury Thallium 27. A cookoff may be avoided by immediately firing ammunition loaded in a hot MG, or by safing the weapon ___ after the last round has been fired. 40 Seconds 28. What is the maximum range for the MG fire permit? 1500 m 29. Target range must be greater than ___ to receive a missile fire permit. 1500 m 30. The LNS provides vehicle headings, altitudes, and position either while stationary or on the move up to ___. 35 MPH 31. What is a missile hangfire? is a delay in functioning of the explosive components caused by electronic malfunction 32. What is a missile misfire? A complete failure to fire 33. What is a dud missile? flight motor does not fire after the missile has ejected from the launch tube. 34. Position linked ammunition into ammunition box so a ___ is in the corner and the rough side of links are facing up on first row rounds. Single Link 35. What is the Technical Manual that covers PMCS for the STC Avenger for FY 2020 and beyond? T M- 9-1430-1433-10 36. When does RCU and turret integration occur? Remote on/ok Switch light is pressed and white light illuminates 37. Each missile pod holds four missiles and contains what else? 2 Argon bottles and LEA 38. What is used to change missile selection? Missile Sequence button 39. The acceptable level of drift is no more than ___ degree every ___ seconds in both azimuth and elevation. 1 Degree 4 Seconds 40. Which switch on the hand station is used to enable missile auto-track if AUTO mode is selected on the Gunner’s console and FLIR auto-track is disabled? Left trigger Switch 41. Set OFF/STBY/ON/RAIN selector on the FLIR monitor to STBY, wait approximately ___ minutes for READY light to illuminate and before setting selector to ON. 5 minutes 42. The OPERATE MODE HLCPTR switch light function is ___ on the STC system. White 43. M3P MG will not fire when pointed in what directions? A-1: Over the Cab A-2: 270-20 44. How many waypoints may be entered on the CDT? 64 45. What does an unknown response sound like on the Avenger? Beep,Beep,Beep,Beep,Beep 46. What does a Mode 3 Possible Friend response sound like on an Avenger? Beeeeeeeeeep 47. What does a Mode 4 Friend response sound like on an Avenger? Beep- Quite- Beep 48. Gunner console Lamp Test will illuminate all switch lights except for. IFF and Missile Sequence 49. If a hangfire or misfire occurs during training , personnel other than the Gunner should be evacuated at a distance of ___ feet. The missile must remain loaded for ___ minutes before unloading for disposal. 670 Ft 60 minutes 50. Make-up air filter on ECU/PPU will automatically shut off for approximately ___ when a missile is fired to prevent exhaust fumes from entering turret. 30 Seconds 51. Releasing the palm switch within ___ after missile activation may result the missile failing to deactivate..5 Seconds 52. What manual provides information for crew operations and maintenance for the Avenger A1, which houses the ACE, for FY 2020 and beyond? T M- 9-1425-433-10 53. Which switch light would be pressed to initialize the RCU? Remote On/Ok 54. If ammunition is in the chamber and ___ or more rounds have been fired in 10 minutes, wait ___ minutes for MG to cool down before proceeding. 52 rounds, 10 Minutes 55. The bottom Argon bottle supplies gas to what missile(s)? Right Missiles 56. What are the seven ammo/cartridge types that can be used on the M3P.50 caliber machine gun? Ball Tracer Incendiary Armor-Piercing Armor-Piercing-Incendiary Armor-Piercing-Incendiary-Tracer Armor-Piercing-Explosive-Incendiary 57. There will be approximately a ___ delay to find true heading. When GYRO is working to acquire heading you will hear it compassing. 3 Minute 58. This item on the RCU is used to auto slew turret to a visually acquired target; this function is used as a secondary method to the Slew-To-Cue system. RCU Pointer Assembly 59. To integrate the RCU and turret, both RCU, pointer assembly, and FLIR reticle must be  centered on a prominent terrain feature at least ___ away. 1000 Meters 60. The limit switched on the turret are between ___ azimuth (towards cab), and ___ degrees elevation. 270-20 Degrees -10- +10 61. The Avenger weapon system may be remoted up to ___ meters away using the RCU. 50 Meters 62. What is the fording capability of the Avenger? 30 In. 63. ___ is present near the antenna during transmission. RF Energy 64. The Avenger turret will move from ___ to ___ degrees in elevation, and ___ degrees in azimuth. -10 to +68 360 Degrees 65. Turret motion is controlled by computer for about ___ after fire switch is pressed. 3 Seconds 66. Press and hold trigger switch on hand station and hold for ___ when firing the missile from the turret. 5 Seconds 67. When target is in range, ___ appears on FLIR display and optical sight. Fire Permit Symbol 68. If electrolyte gets in eyes, flush with cold water immediately for ___ and get medical attention. 15 Minutes 69. ¼ turn of plug on backplate assembly is approximately ___. 20 RPM 70. The message “LNS FAILURE” on your TC means what? the LNS is not communicating. 71. If MG firing rate is too high turn plug on backplate assembly ___. Clockwise 72. If MG firing rate is too low turn plug on backplate assembly ___. Counter Clockwise 73. Electrolyte solution in the vehicle and FU batteries contain ___ which can cause severe burns. sulfuric acid 74. ___ reference alignment is required if the vehicle is moved without turning on the LNS. North Pg. 0039-1 75. Who has control of the turret if the REMOTE ON/OK switch light is illuminating white? The TC 76. What does the left foot switch control? Switch between WFOV and NFOV 77. What does the right foot switch control? Radio transmission can be initiated Pg. 0003-5 78. The anti-reflective coating on the external surfaces of the FLIR and LRF lenses contain what substance that is slightly radioactive? Thorium Fluoride Pg. C 79. When firing the missile from the Avenger, the first missile that launches comes from what position? Left pod Missile 1 Pg.0005-2 80. What is the nomenclature of the Argon bottle? Coolant Reservoir Pg. 0001-2 81. Which component gives the Avenger the capability to operate at night or inclement weather conditions that limit visibility? FLIR ( Forward Looking Infrared Receiver ) Pg.0003-3 82. The LRF provides ranging information to a maximum range of approximately how many meters? 9999m 83. If you do not have an RSO symbol display on your FLIR monitor when the FU is in ENGAGE mode, what does that mean? Weapon firing has not been approved. Pg.0017-2 84. What is the first step in corrective actions if the turret fails to rotate? Verify DRIVE INTLK switch on RCU is set to ENABLED Pg.0059-15 85. What function key is used to check your rate of fire? F7 Pg.0091-8 86. Where is the Battery Current Monitor located? 87. What is the fuel capacity of the PPU, and how long does it last? 5 Gallons, 8 Hours Pg.0002-5 88. You are engaging an enemy aircraft. You have completed all the firing steps and have pulled the trigger, but the missile does not launch. What must you do? Continue to track for 3 to 5 seconds 89. What is the FLIR’s FOV when in WFOV? 21.1 degrees AZ x 13.1 degrees EL Pg.0002-5 90. What is the FLIR’s FOV when in NFOV? - 5.3 degrees AZ x 3.27 degrees EL Pg.0002-5 91. What is the FLIR’s FOV when in RAIN? 12.0 degrees AZ x 7.4 degrees EL Pg.0002-5 92. Before performing a BIT, what are the FU’s selector/switches set at? 93. Name four types of messages that the CDT will display on the first edit page. 94. Upon mission completion, but not less than ___ after the misfire event, the missile may be removed from the launcher by the operation crew. 60 Minutes. Pg.0056-6 95. What is the rotation rate of the turret when a missile is activated? 30 Degrees per sec Pg.0002-5 96. What is the rotation rate of the turret when a missile is not activated? 60 Degrees per sec Pg.0002-5 97. What does the term “IFF” stand for? Identification Friend or Foe Pg.0001-4 98. What does SVML stand for? Standard Vehicle Mounted Launcher Pg.0001-4 99. What is the Argon bottle expiration date/time for the proof test interval? 5 years Pg.0062-7 100. The optical sight includes a transparent combining glass attached to the ___ through which the operator looks to acquire, track, and perform target engagement. ODU ( Optical Display Unit ) Pg.0003-4 101. Release left and right trigger switches after ___ or after a ___ rounds burst has fired. 5 Seconds or after 52 rounds 102. To acquire a target from the RCU using the pointer assembly. Ensure pointer assembly on azimuth is aimed for leading target movement, palm grips and auto slew activated. Additionally, the Gunner must ___ until target is observed on FLIR display screen. Search in elevation. Pg.0037-35 103. The ___ provides for the STC system integration and processing of all incoming data from the RHTU and passing this information to the gunner via the TC and executing operator commands. AFCC Pg. 0003-6 104. A machinegun ___ is a failure of a chambered round to ignite when firing mechanism is actuated. Misfire Pg.0057-1/Blank 105. A machinegun ___ is a delay in igniting of propellant charge after primer has been struck by firing pin. It is not easily distinguished from a misfire. Hangfire Pg.0057-1/Blank 106. A machinegun ___ is igniting of a round caused by heat of a very hot barrel and not caused by actuating firing mechanism. Cookoff Pg.0057-1/Blank 107. A machinegun ___ is any interruption in cycle of operation caused by faulty action of machinegun or ammunition. Stoppage Pg.0057-1/Blank 108. Name three additional characteristics of the Avenger weapon system. *Remote control operation *Built-In-Test *Turret mounted radio communications *Portable radio communications *Crew intercommunications *Shoot on-the-move *High single-shot kill probability *Line-of-sight operation *Forward looking infrared *Laser range finder (eye safe) *Automatic tracking of target *Automaic Slew-To-Cue *High rate of fire.50 caliber machinegun *Missile load: 8 rounds *Ammunition (basic) load: 200 rounds of.50 caliber *Positive target identification as friendly or unknown (IFF) *Transportable by airplane, helicopter, rail, or truck *Environmentally controlled turret *Diesel-fueled prime power and alternator for turret systems unit Pg.0002-2 109. What does an Avenger Team consist of? TC, Gunner, Fire Unit 110. Before closing the feed cover, what position does the bolt and remote charger need to be at in order to prevent damage? Armed ( forward position ) Pg.0047-1 111. What are the most common machine gun stoppages? failure to feed, failure to chamber, or failure to fire. Pg.0060-1 112. When exposed to smoke or gases, what switch needs to be set to off to ensure no contaminants are vented into the turret? MAKE-UP AIR/OFF/DHMY switch Pg. 0001-6 113. What is the no fire zone for the A1 Avenger and A2 Avenger? A1- over the cab ( AZ ) -10 - +10 EL A2- 270-20 AZ -10 - +10 EL 114. What is the weight of the M3P machine-gun? 76 LB Pg.0002-5 115. Why should you rotate the turret so that the ECU/PPU diesel fuel tank is to the rear of the HMMWV when refueling? In event of a fuel spill, diesel fuel will not get into HMMWV bed, on electrical cables or field equipment. Pg.B 116. What items should be worn when servicing the vehicle or system batteries? Gloves, eye protection, and apron. PG.A 117. What do the LEAs provide? Electronic Power 118. What is the basic load for the Avenger? 8 missiles and 200 M3P rounds 119. The ___ is the boresight reference point for all sensors and armament components. 1000 meter 120. If rounds are not hitting target as determined by observing tracers on FLIR display, Gunner should perform the following. Manually correct lead and super eleavtion 121. Which switch on the hand station is used to enable FLIR auto-track and disable STC for Target engagement? Right thumb switch 122. The ECU/PPU engine start glow plug delay for cold (32-0 degrees F) ambient conditions is? 50 Seconds 123. What deficiencies of the launch tube make the Stinger missile non mission capable? Bent or Cracked 124. What is the nomenclature for the ammunition that is used for maintenance purposes and weapons familiarity training purposes? XM 293 Pg.0001-2 125. ECU/PPU Noise Levels are ___ dba and above. Proper hearing protection must be worn when within ___ ft. of an operating ECU/PPU. 85 14 Ft 126. What button must you press with the handstation in the neutral position prior to handstation operation, in order to prevent personnel injury or death?  Drift switch 127. What is the first step you must do when a “CHARGE BATTERY” fault message appears on CDT window of TC? Check NATO cable and connections. Pg.0059-17 128. When your LNS has failed, what function key must you press in order to input information to obtain North Reference? F2 Pg.0051-2 129. What must you do with the DAGR and CDT before turning on the LNS (CB)? Use the following Diagram to answer questions 124 through 131 130. In accordance with TM 9-1430-1433-10, what does the STC FLIR Display symbology 4 mean? Missile Uncaged 131. In accordance with TM 9-1430-1433-10, what does the STC FLIR Display symbology 3 mean? Fire Permit symbol 132. Using the diagram above, what is the range of the target from the fire unit? 9990 133. In accordance with TM 9-1430-1433-10, what does the STC FLIR Display symbology 5 mean? Missile activated 134. In accordance with TM 9-1430-1433-10, what does the STC FLIR Display symbology 1 mean? STC Target Symbology 135. In accordance with TM 9-1430-1433-10, what does the STC FLIR Display symbology 7 mean? Driven Reticle 136. In accordance with TM 9-1430-1433-10, what does the STC FLIR Display symbology 6 mean? RSO 137. In accordance with TM 9-1430-1433-10, what does the STC FLIR Display symbology 2 mean? Track Box Use the following Diagram to answer questions 132 through 140 138. 1 ___ a. Houses items 6,8, and 9, and rotates turret. 139. 2 ___ b. Nulls turret drift 140. 3 ___ c. Selects FLIR auto-track mode. 141. 4 ___ d. Operates same as right palm switch. 142. 5 ___ e. Fire machinegun or missile 143. 6 ___ f. House items 1,2, and 3, and rotates turret. 144. 7 ___ g. Uncages missile and continuously fire LRF. 145. 8 ___ h. Enable azimuth/elevation drive motors. 146. 9 ___ i. Activate missile and gyro spin up. TM 9-1425-429-12 147. What manual is required to perform PMCS on the live Stinger Weapon Round? T M- 1425-429-12 148. When checking for compatibility, what gripstocks are compatible with the BCU that has Part Number (PN): 13317316? Basic Modified – “tranzorb”, RMP and Block 1 Pg,1-15 149. During a MANPADS hangfire the first step is to continue to track the target for ___ seconds, keeping both the firing trigger and uncage switch depressed. 3 to 5 seconds 150. When shoulder firing, the rear of the launch tube should be no closer than ___ to the ground. 30 In 151. If the burst disk diaphragm is ruptured on a BCU, the BCU ___. Has been used/ NMC 152. To safely shoulder fire in any direction, the area must be clear of any obstruction or personnel for a distance of ___ feet or ___ meters. 150 Ft 45 meters 153. What transmits sound in the form of vibration to the operator through cheekbones. Cheek to bone vibrator 154. The front window of a Block 1 and RMP Stinger is _____. Clear 155. To prevent damage to the grip stock the BCU must be removed within ___ but must be removed within ___ after activation. 45 seconds 3 minutes 156. During PMCS of the weapon round at the ASP, the BCU’s needle is bent. What are your actions? Return to ASP 157. What are the identifying markings on the Stinger weapon round container? Two 2 ½ squares 158. When conducting a PMCS on the containers on either the Stinger missile round or Stinger weapon round, the rounds are considered Not Fully Mission Capable if the humidity indictor is showing less than ___. 50% Blue 159. The BCU provides power and coolant for at least ___ after being activated. 45 seconds 160. The color of the humidity desiccant cartridge on the Stinger weapon round should be what color? Green 161. When engaging in a MANPAD configuration, rotary targets should be put in what position? 2 162. The fuse timer detonates the Stinger warhead in approximately ___ if the missile does not hit a target. 17 seconds 163. The Stinger BCU contains what type of gas? Argon 164. What two major parts make up the missile round? Missile and launch tube 165. What is the second-best way to destroy the Stinger weapon? Burn it 166. The fuse timer starts after the missile accelerates, and at what speed? 20 Gs 167. How far does the missile coast (from the Gunner or equipment) after ejecting from the launch tube? 28 ft 168. The weapon round (complete) consists of what? A missile round, gripstock, IFF interrogator with interconnecting cable, and one or more BCU’s. 169. The Ready round consists of what? 170. We talk a lot about the IFF in terms of mode and programming, but what is it used for? Identity friend or foe 171. What arms the warhead? Fuze timer 172. During shipment, what two components must be split until arrival at the ASP? The weapon round partial (missile round with battery coolant unit (BCU)) and the gripstock. 173. What is the maximum and minimum shoulder firing angle for the Stinger weapon? 65 to 10 degrees 174. After arrival at an ASP, the gripstock is attached to the missile round and placed in the shipping and storage container. The gripstock NSN must be written ___. Above existing NSN 175. What improvements does the RMP Stinger have? the missile has additional improvements to the guidance system. 176. During PMCS of the weapon round at the ASP, there is a BCU in the receptacle. What are your actions? Stop at step 8 and you will continue your checks during your fire sequence 177. During PMCS of the weapon round at the ASP, all BCU’s heat sensitive indicators should be what color? Pink or White 178. What is the length of the Stinger Guided Missile System? 59.5 In 179. What component ejects the missile from the launch tube? Launch motor 180. When subject to capture or abandonment in the combat zone, what is the best destruction method? Firing it 181. What does the MANPADS gunner use to determine if the aircraft is in range? Range ring 182. In the event of loss or theft of a weapon round, weapon round partial, missile round, gripstock with RMP installed, or IFF interrogator, who must be notified? Local commander 183. Where are the identifying markings on the FHT, what are the size, and what is the color? the front and rear of the launch tube 2 one-inch bronze squares 184. How long will it take argon gas to flow to the missile seeker and cool it to operating temperature? Within 5 Seconds 185. During PMCS of the weapon round at the ASP, the desiccant cartridge/humidity indicator is tan. What are your actions? Replace desiccant cartridge and wait 24 hours 186. Enamel paint and wash primer will damage plastic material such as the sight and gripstock assembly. Which of the following cannot be painted? The front window of the launch tube, front cover, safety and actuator device, BCU receptacle, IFF interrogator connector, identification plates, IFF antenna or any of the rubber boots. 187. When lack of time and personnel prevents destruction of all essential parts, priority is given to those parts most difficult to replace. What are those parts? The missile round, IFF interrogator, and gripstock with RMP module installed must receive top priority 188. For the first ___ minutes, all personnel within ___ meters must remain under cover. 10 minutes 137yd ( 125 meters ) 189. What is the official nomenclature for the Stinger, Guided Missile System Block I? FIM-92E 190. What is the official nomenclature for the FHT? M60 Pg.1-1 191. What does the Acronym AHT stand for? Aerial Handling Trainer Pg.1-1 192. What is the official nomenclature for the AHT? M148 Pg.1-1 193. What is the first function of the firing trigger? Activates missile battery and ignites launch motor. Pg.2-2 194. What does RMP stand for? Reprogrammable Microprocessor Pg.1-3 195. What are the four parts of the Stinger Missile? Warhead, Seeker head, guiding and propelling section 196. On the Stinger Missile, the fuze arms the warhead when? One second after fuze timer begins self destructive countdown. Pg. 1-18 197. Stinger Missile self-destruct cycle begins when? Same time warhead is armed Pg.1-18 198. During a MANPADS engagement, if the missile has not ejected after 5 seconds, release the firing trigger and uncaging switch, all support personnel within 125 meters (137 yards) must remain under cover for ten minutes, remove the BCU ASAP, Notify RSO and EOD, remove IFF cable and lastly remove what? Gripstock 199. Place the weapon round in a dud pit or on the ground___ feet / ___ meters from the firing position pointed down range no more than ___ degrees from horizontal 164 feet/.50 meters 20 degrees 200. When demolishing the Stinger Missile, how much safety fuze must be crimped when destroying it?  5 feet Pg.7-2 201. What TM do you use to perform PMCS on the M60 Missile? T M- 9-1425-429-12 202. The Gunner and Team Leader must hold their ___ until the exhaust cloud dissipates or move away from the exhaust cloud, if necessary, before breathing again. Breath 203. What is the difference between the Stinger Basic and RMP missiles? * Basic STINGER is IR (only) seeking and has limited countermeasure capability. *RMP/Block I version is IR/NUV seeking and has the ability to be reprogrammed to meet an ever-changing threat without hardware redesignor replacement. Pg.1-4 204. Heat generated from BCU activation can burn hands and cause permanent damage to the gripstock BCU receptacle. Grasp BCU only by the ___ when removing it. Bottom 205. After ___ minutes from a hangfire or misfire, the missile may be moved for disposal by EOD personnel. 30 minutes Pg.2-38 206. Under tactical conditions, what other document outranks the TM 9-1425-429-12 when it comes to a hangfire or misfire? Range safety SOP specific to location 207. What is the weight of a Stinger with the gripstock and BCU attached, and what is the weight without the BCU? 36.1 pounds with 34.1 without 208. To engage an aircraft with the Stinger, Lead is applied to all targets except? Rotary wing aircraft TM 9-6920-429-12 209. What TM do you use to perform PMCS on the THT and CFT Missile? 210. What are the identifying markings on the FHT/ CFT round container? 211. What is the other model number for the Captive Flight Trainer? The other one is the BASIC. 212. When conducting PMCS on the CFT, what are you checking/servicing on item number six? 213. The CFT launch tube assembly may be touched up with same paint that is used on the ___ if paint has been damaged. 214. The functionality of the CFT works the same in the ___ as in the SVML. 215. The CFT can be installed on the ___ or ___ to simulate the tactical missile round physical configuration and operation. 216. What are the differences between the BASIC CFT and the M67 CFT? 217. What is the weight of the CFT? 218. To ready the CFT for reuse after an engagement, the launcher power must be cycled by how? FM 44-18-1 219. At 1400 my section chief orders me to go to a new position to become part of a four-team defense of a supply depot. Upon arrival, he assigned me a primary search sector of 0 degree to 90 degree and a PTL of 45 degrees. The WCS is WEAPONS TIGHT. Three AC approach, one at 90 degrees (AC A), one at 45 degrees (AC B), and one at 20 degrees (AC C). All three are at the same range and appear to be moving at the same speed. I visually ID the AC at 45 degrees as friendly. I visually ID the AC at 20 degrees as hostile. I then turn my attention to the AC at 90 degrees. I also visually ID this AC as hostile. What Action should you Take?  220. You have an Aircraft approaching your position very fast and low. The Section Sergeant has announced a WCS of Weapons Tight. You have acquired the Aircraft and cannot visually identify it at this time. You interrogate and receive a “Beep - Beep - Beep - Beep” response. The Team Chief next command should be ENGAGE. 221. It is 1230 and you received a message from your Section Sergeant. He stated, “Weapons Hold” on all jet aircraft west bound between 1300 and 1330. “Weapons Tight” for all other SFC Peralta, Ivan/ SGT Flores, Joshua FY2024 Version 4 6-52 ADA BN Avenger/Stinger (14P) General Knowledge Study Guide aircraft. At 1315, three jet aircraft that you recognize as hostile approach your position and make the following maneuvers. What do you do? 222. The FQM-117A has approximately 1/6 the speed and visual size of a full-size aircraft. At 200 m with a 1 range ring profile, it resembles a MIG 21, at what range ring profile and distance? 223. You receive a message from your Section Sergeant changing the WCS to “Weapons Free”. A jet aircraft approaches your position at a low altitude and high speed. You challenge the aircraft and receive a “Beep - Beep - Beep - Beep” response. The Team Chief’s next command should be “ENGAGE”.  224. You have identified a hostile incoming jet. Using the following Range Ring Profile, what is the size estimate of the incoming aircraft? 225. You have identified a hostile outgoing jet. Using the following Range Ring Profile, what is the size estimate of the outgoing aircraft? SFC Peralta, Ivan/ SGT Flores, Joshua FY2024 Version 4 6-52 ADA BN Avenger/Stinger (14P) General Knowledge Study Guide 226. You have identified a hostile outgoing jet. Using the following Range Ring Profile, what is the size estimate of the outgoing aircraft? 227. For crossing aircraft, the launch decision is based on the time count rule. You wait until the jets nose reaches point ___ and begins counting until the jets nose reaches point ___.  228. You have identified a hostile incoming jet. Using the following Range Ring Profile, what is the size estimate of the incoming aircraft? 229. When it comes to a crossing jet aircraft, what is the proper way the gunner begins counting off in seconds? SFC Peralta, Ivan/ SGT Flores, Joshua FY2024 Version 4 6-52 ADA BN Avenger/Stinger (14P) General Knowledge Study Guide 230. What is the first priority for a MANPAD/Avenger team after occupying a site. 231. The Stinger guidance section consists of four components, they are? 232. What does the normal six Stinger basic load for a Stinger Team consist of? 233. Which method of scanning would an observer use for this type of terrain? 234. A simple way to estimate how high above the horizon to search is to use your hand. With  the little finger touching the horizon, the tip of the thumb is approximately _____ degrees above the horizon? 235. The case of the BCU gets extremely hot at around what temperature after activation? 236. How many of the 13 Critical Checks can you do with the BCU installed? 237. How many times can you reuse the Stinger post grip stock after firing. 238. What type of lead is being inserted into the super elevation and lead reticle? SFC Peralta, Ivan/ SGT Flores, Joshua FY2024 Version 4 6-52 ADA BN Avenger/Stinger (14P) General Knowledge Study Guide 239. When target IR cannot be acquired, or when trying to separate target IR tone from other tones (because of the background radiation), what two methods should be used when trying to lock on to a target? 240. How do you determine the launch decision of a crossing aircraft for stinger operations? 241. You have an aircraft approaching your position and it is very fast and low. The Section Sergeant has announced a WCS of Weapons Tight. You have acquired the aircraft and cannot visually identify it at this time. You interrogate and receive a Beep-Beep-Beep-Beep response. The Team Chief’s next command should be ENGAGE.  242. You receive a message from your Section Chief changing the WCS to Weapons Free. A jet AC approaches your position at low altitude and high speed. Your TC directs you to IFF the AC. You receive an unknown response and your TC now ID the AC as hostile. What is your TC next response? 243. The alternate position should be at least ___ from the primary position and should cover the same sector of fire as the primary position. 244. What is the safe distance for equipment from the backblast? 245. What are the 2 phases of the Flight Motor? 246. What are the 4 main features that affect the detection and estimation of an aircraft? 247. How long should you hold your breath once you squeeze the trigger on the Stinger weapon system? 248. On the Stinger Missile, the Gyro spin-up takes how many seconds after BCU is activated? 3-5 seconds 249. The ordnance release line is generally how far from the target and it’s also the same pop up technique? 250. What are the 4 ground attach techniques that most interest the Avenger/Stinger Weapon System? 251. What is the ordnance release line for an area target? 252. What are the two methods for providing Air Defense for a convoy? For the following, match each part of the Stinger missile to its name, for questions 248 - 259 253. Seeker 254. Guidance Assembly 255. Missile Battery 256. Tailfins 257. Launch Motor 258. Warhead Section 259. Guidance Section 260. Flight Motor 261. Control Surfaces 262. Propulsion Section 263. Control Assembly 264. Tail Assembly FM 3-01.44 265. What does fire control order Hold Fire mean? 266. What do fire controls orders Cease Engagement and Cease Fire mean? 267. When is fire control order Cease Fire issued? 268. What does fire control order Engage mean? 269. What is the appropriate description for WCS Weapon Free? 270. What is the appropriate description for WCS Weapon Tight? 271. What is the appropriate description for WCS Weapon Hold? 272. What is the appropriate description for ADWC Yellow? 273. What is the appropriate description for ADWC Red? 274. What is the appropriate description for ADWC White? 275. What is the appropriate description for LADW Dynamite? 276. What is the appropriate description for LADW Lookout? 277. What is the appropriate description for LADW Snowman? 278. As a general rule, a DYNAMITE status should be assumed when an air threat is within ___ of the division or brigade combat team's (BCT) area of operations (AO). 279. As a general rule, a LOOKOUT status should be assumed when an air threat is within ___ of the division or BCT AO. 280. What are the Air Defense Warnings Conditions? 281. What are the Local Air Defense Warnings? 282. What are the Weapon Control Statuses? 283. How many States of Readiness (SOR) are there, and what is the highest and lowest SOR? 284. What are the 7 AMD employment tenets (guidelines)? 285. What are the 6 AMD employment principles? 286. What is Passive Air and Missile Defense? 287. What are the three types of reconnaissance? 288. What is Weighted Coverage? 289. What is Mutual Support? 290. What is Early Engagement? 291. What is Overlapping Fires? 292. What is Defense in Depth? 293. What is Balanced Fires? 294. What is Resiliency? 295. What is Mass? 296. What is Mobility? 297. What is Agility? 298. What is Mix? 299. What is Flexibility? 300. What is Integration? 301. What is Direct support? 302. What is General support? 303. What is Reinforcing support? 304. What is General support-reinforcing? 305. What are the five paragraphs of an Operation Order (OPORD)? *Situation *Mission *Execution *Sustainment *Command and signal 306. What are the eight steps for Troop Leading Procedures (TLP)? *Receive Mission *Issue Warning order *Make a Tentative plan *Initiate movement *Conduct Recon *Complete Plan *Issue Order *Supervise and refine 307. The role of ___ is to defeat low-altitude air threats and provide directed early warning to supported maneuver forces and other designated critical assets in support of Army and joint operations. SHOARD 308. SHORAD forces operate primarily at the ___ and operational levels. Tactical 309. An ___ is that system whose components include the necessary equipment, network, and personnel to control an unmanned AC. Unmanned Aircraft System 310. How many groups of Unmanned Aircraft Systems are there? 5 FM 3-01.64 (Superseded by ATP 3-01.64(Use Both)) 311. What is an example of Readiness Conditions (REDCON) 1? A Fire Unit is capable of beginning it’s target engagement drill within drill standered 312. What is an example of Readiness Conditions (REDCON) 2? A Fire Unit is capable of beginning it’s target engagement drill within 5 minutes 313. What is an example of Readiness Conditions (REDCON) 3? A Fire Unit is capable of beginning it’s target engagement drill within 30 minutes 314. What is an example of Readiness Conditions (REDCON) 4? A Fire Unit is moving or released from it’s mission 315. What is an example of Readiness Conditions (REDCON) 5? A FU is NMC 316. What does ADAFCO mean? Air Defence Artillery Fire Control Officers 317. ___. Commands the Avenger platoon and in this capacity and is responsible for its tactical employment and logistics. Platoon Leader 318. ___. Second, in command of the platoon, must be proficient in all of the tasks normally accomplished by the platoon leader and be prepared to assume the platoon leader’s responsibilities. PSG 319. ___. May assume duties and responsibilities similar to the platoon leader when a section is task-organized separately from the Avenger platoon. Squad leader 320. ___. Observes the battlefield to detect and identify targets. The _____ is the primary operator of the weapon system and is responsible for assisting the section or squad leader in the operation and maintenance of the Avenger weapon system. Team Chief, Gunner TM 11-7010-304-10 321. What is the track symbol on the RHTU representing a hostile UAV? 322. What is the symbol on the RHTU representing a Hook Engaged Rotary-wing Aircraft? 323. What is the symbol on the RHTU that represents a test track? 324. What is the symbol on the RHTU that represents an unknown missile? 325. What is the track symbol for a cued FW? 326. What is the track symbol for a suspect RW? 327. ___ are used to receive, process and display messages and track data that support engagement operations functions. 328. On the RHTU, COM1 J4 port is for the ___. Interface with a PLGR/DAGR 329. EPLRS link parameters need to equal ___ when connecting to the RHTU. PCDII22.0 330. RHTU account password expires every ___ Days. 60 Days 331. What is the definition of Cue? The Highest priority track 332. If using SINCGARS for data, the data rate must be set to? 2400 333. If an inbound message classified as secret is received the software automatically upgrades to the classification level to ___. Secret 334. If a DAGR is attached during the RHTU restarts, what happens? Also, what happens if it is not attached during restart? 335. If the PWR light illuminates yellow when the Handheld is ON, what does it mean? It is using battery power 336. The maximum number of tracks displayed on the BSD is? 16 Use the following Diagram to answer questions 313 through 319 337. Which of the above item numbers represents your fire units Primary Target Line? 338. Which of the above item numbers represents your turret azimuth? 339. Which of the above items represents your fire units Scale indicator? 340. Which of the above items represents a weapon test? 341. Which of the following items represents an alert that indicates a track is beyond the range of your current BSD scale and not visible on the screen? 342. Which of the following items represents your fire unit’s turret azimuth indicator? 343. Which of the following items represents your fire unit’s BSD range ring? Use the following diagram to answer questions 320 through 322 344. Which function key would be used to check your adjacent units PTL and position? F10 345. Which function key would be used to check link status? F4 346. Which function key would be used to acknowledge a change in your Weapon Control Status? F5 TM 11-5895-2082-13&P 347. The KIV-77 accepts from ___ days of encrypted, or black, TEKs for both Mode 4 and Mode 5 operations. 2 to 93 348. The KIV-77 also accepts exactly ___ of unencrypted, or red, TEKs to support a contingency for stray fill operations. 2 Days 349. What does the Acronym LAAD stand for? Low Altitude Air Defence 350. For Mode 5 operation only, the KIV-77 requires accurate ___. TOD ( Time Of Day ) 351. The Interrogator Set batteries BT-70838-2/3CV are rechargeable utilizing the (A) Multi Port Universal Battery Charger PP-8498/U and ___. Advance battery charger 352. Replace the KIV-77 holdup battery periodically every ___ from the battery installation date (or every ___ for KIV-77 items in storage). 6 months ( 36 months ) 353. What kind of tone patterns (sounds) does the AN/PPX-4(V)1 create for Mode 5 or Mode 4 Friend? 6 tone Bursts 354. What kind of tone patterns (sounds) does the AN/PPX-4(V)1 create for Mode 3 Possible Friend? 1 tone for 3 seconds 355. What kind of tone patterns (sounds) does the AN/PPX-4(V)1 create for No Reply or Unknown? 16 tone burst 356. What kind of tone patterns (sounds) does the AN/PPX-4(V)1 create if no speaker tone is heard, and the interrogator is faulty? Muted Use the following diagram to answer questions 344 through 353 questions. 357. In accordance with TM 11-5895-2082-13&P, what are some of the functions of the following control/ indicators: 1. I/O Switch? 358. In accordance with TM 11-5895-2082-13&P, what are some of the functions of the  following control/ indicators: 2. J2 Connector? 359. In accordance with TM 11-5895-2082-13&P, what are some of the functions of the following control/ indicators: 3 BATTERY LED? 360. In accordance with TM 11-5895-2082-13&P, what are some of the functions of the following control/ indicators: 4 ANTENNA LED? 361. In accordance with TM 11-5895-2082-13&P, what are some of the functions of the following control/ indicators: 5 ZERO BUTTON? 362. In accordance with TM 11-5895-2082-13&P, what are some of the functions of the following control/ indicators: 6 TEST BUTTON? 363. In accordance with TM 11-5895-2082-13&P, what are some of the functions of the following control/ indicators: 7 PASS LED? 364. In accordance with TM 11-5895-2082-13&P, what are some of the functions of the following control/ indicators: 8 GO/NO-GO LED? 365. In accordance with TM 11-5895-2082-13&P, what are some of the functions of the following control/ indicators: 9- 1 2 3 4 LED? 366. In accordance with TM 11-5895-2082-13&P, what are some of the functions of the following control/ indicators: 10 J1 Connector? Not used in operation TM 11-5825-283-10 367. The EPLRS Transmission/Reception Range (Line of Sight) Ground-to-Ground is ___ (terrain dependent). 6 Miles ( 10KM ) 368. The ___ keep-alive battery is used to store keys in the RS, without prime power being applied, for up to ___. 9V, 30 Days TC 3-01.63 369. Avenger gunnery skill test must be completed with all soldiers present within ___ to Table VI. 30 Days 370. Battle-rostered crewmembers will certify as individuals within ___ of being assigned to an Avenger team. 30 Day 371. Avenger teams will certify within ___ days of being assigned as an Avenger team and every ___ days thereafter. 60 Days, 90 Days 372. What are all the tasks for the Avenger Gunnery Skills Test (AGST)? *React to missile Malfunction *Perform gunner duties during missile load *driver duties during missile load *Checks & adjustments on M3P *Gunner emergency procedures for Hangfire/Misfire/Cookoff *Operators maintenance on M3P *Drivers duties during M3P Loading & Unloading *Mount M3P On avenger *Remove M3P from Avenger 373. Name all the Avenger Certification Tables. *Avenger Components/ Functions/ Operations *VACR/IFF/FAAD/DAGR/SKL *Eval of 1&2 *Conduct Avenger Crew Drills *Conduct Avenger Battle Drills *PTL Operations Eval 374. What certification tables are critical gates? 3&6 375. What are the Avenger crew drills? *M3P Reload Procedures *Avenger missile reload procedures *Convert to MANPADS 376. How many Avenger Gunnery Tables are there? 10 377. Name all the Gunnery Tables. *STPT *ATTT *Eval of table 1&2 *Practice tracking on the avenger *Avenger crew/team dry run  *Rate of Fire *Pre-Qual *Qual *Rehearsal of annual service practice *Annual service practice 378. What are three training devices used for gunnery? * M67 captive flight trainer * M60 field handling trainer * M160 tracking head trainer * Stinger troop proficiency trainer * Avenger automated table top trainer * Institutional conduct of fire trainer * Identification friend or foe (IFF) * Remotely piloted vehicle targeting system 379. What are the individual gunnery tables? Tables 1&2 380. What type of training is conducted during the collective gunnery phase? Cross-Training 381. What gunnery tables are critical gates? 3,6,7,8 382. What is a UTA? Unit Training Area 383. What are the crew/team gunnery tables? Table 3-8 384. What is a critical gate? All Previous tables must be passed 385. What DA form is the Avenger gunnery score sheet? DA form 7773 386. Active duty Battle rostered crew members will be Table VI certified how often? 180 Days of being assigned and semi-annually therefore after 387. What are the three categories of teams? *New *Turbulent * Sustainment 388. What type of training is conducted during the team gunnery phase? Live Training Reference Page 1) FM 44-18-1 Stinger Team Operations 2) ATP 3-01.18 Stinger Team Techniques 3) TM 9-1430-1433-10 A2 JULY 2020 4) TM 9-1425-1433-10 AVENGER (use last) 5) TM 9-1430-433-10 A1 6) TM 9-1425-433-10 c-4 A1 AVENGER (use last) 7) TM 9-1425-429-12 C-1 STINGER GUIDED MISSILE SYSTEM 8) TM 9-6920-429-12 Training 9) FM 3-01.44 Short Range Air Defense 10) FM 3-01.64 Avenger Operations 11) ATP 3-01.64 12) TM 11-7010-304-10 Handheld 13) TM 11-5895-2082-13&P IFF Upgrade 14) TM 11-5825-283-10 (EPLRS OPERATOR) 15) TC 3-01.63 Avenger Gunnery Program SFC Peralta, Ivan/ SGT Flores, Joshua FY2024 Version 4