26 Pharmacist.pdf

Test Booklet Series Written Test Paper, 2021 Test Booklet No. Paper No. A 26 PHARMACIST Name of Applicant......................

Test Booklet Series Written Test Paper, 2021 Test Booklet No. Paper No. A 26 PHARMACIST Name of Applicant............................................................ Answer Sheet No..................................... Application No. : SVSU/2020/Estt/NT/......................... Signature of Applicant :............................ Date of Examination: 25 / 12 / 2021 Signature of the Invigilator(s) 1................................................... Time of Examination :....................................... 2................................................... Duration : 2 Hours] [Maximum Marks : 100 IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS (i) The question paper is in the form of Test-Booklet containing 100 (Hundred) questions. All questions are compulsory. Each question carries four answers marked (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which only one is correct. (ii) On receipt of the Test-Booklet (Question Paper), the candidate should immediately check it and ensure that it contains all the pages, i.e., 100 questions (70 in Part-A + 30 in Part–B). Discrepancy, if any, should be reported by the candidate to the invigilator immediately after receiving the Test- Booklet. (iii) A separate Answer-Sheet is provided with the Test-Booklet/Question Paper. On this sheet there are 100 rows (70 in Part-A + 30 in Part–B) containing four circles each. One row pertains to one question. (iv) The candidate should write his/her Application number at the places provided on the cover page of the Test-Booklet/Question Paper and on the Answer-Sheet and NOWHERE ELSE. (v) No second Test-Booklet/Question Paper and Answer-Sheet will be given to a candidate. The candidates are advised to be careful in handling it and writing the answer on the Answer-Sheet. (vi) For every correct answer of the question One (1) mark will be awarded. For every unattempted question, Zero (0) mark shall be awarded. There is no Negative Marking. (vii) Marking shall be done only on the basis of answers responded on the Answer-Sheet. (viii) To mark the answer on the Answer-Sheet, candidate should darken the appropriate circle in the row of each question with Blue or Black pen. (ix) For each question only one circle should be darkened as a mark of the answer adopted by the candidate. If more than one circle for the question are found darkened or with one black circle any other circle carries any mark, the question will be treated as cancelled. (x) The candidates should not remove any paper from the Test-Booklet/Question Paper. Attempting to remove any paper shall be liable to be punished for use of unfair means. (xi) Rough work may be done on the blank space provided in the Test-Booklet/Question Paper only. (xii) Mobile phones (even in Switch-off mode) and such other communication/programmable devices are not allowed inside the examination hall. (xiii) No candidate shall be permitted to leave the examination hall before the expiry of the time. DO NOT OPEN THIS QUESTION BOOKLET UNTIL ASKED TO DO SO. 1 [P.T.O. 26 / 1 2  PART–A 1. The volume of distribution of a drug 5. Taq polymerase is used in PCR because describes: of its (A) The apparent distribution of the drug (A) Low thermal stability in the body (B) High thermal stability (B) The concentration of the drug in (C) High fidelity plasma (D) High speed (C) The volume of plasma that is cleared from the body (D) The concentration of the drug in blood 6. Raynaud's phenomenon: (A) Is characterised by vasodilation 2. The vaccines prepared through recombinant (B) Causes hot, red feet DNA technology are (C) Starts as white patches of skin (A) First-generation vaccines (D) May require vasodilator treatment (B) Second-generation vaccines (C) Third generation vaccines 7. Diabetic retinopathy: (D) Fourth generation vaccines (A) Is reversible changes in the lens shape (B) Indicates long-standing uncontrolled 3. An antibody probe is used in diabetes (C) Presents with impaired drainage of the (A) Southern blotting aqueous humour (B) Northern blotting (D) Is characterised by proteolytic enzymes (C) Western blotting affecting the lens (D) Eastern blotting 8. A significant clinical interaction may 4. The first protein synthesized by recombinant occur if St John's wort is administered DNA technology was concomitantly with: (A) Streptokinase (A) Gliclazide (B) Human growth hormone (B) Simvastatin (C) Tissue plasminogen activator (C) Sertraline (D) Human insulin (D) Amoxicillin 3 [P.T.O. 26 / 2 9. Cutaneous squamous cell carcinoma: 13. A patient requests lozenge for sore throat. (A) Forms metastases rapidly Which of the following products is the most appropriate? (B) Arises from a mole (A) Fungilin (C) May occur in scar tissue (D) Is associated with poor prognosis (B) Contac (C) Bradosol 10. Each inhalation of Symbicort contains: (D) Nystan (A) Budesonide 200 g and formoterol 6 g 14. An investigational medicinal product is: (B) Budesonide 160 g and formoterol (A) A product intended to induce a specific 4.5 g alteration in the immunological (C) Budesonide 200 mg and formoterol response 6 mg (B) A product prepared in a pharmacy in (D) Budesonide 160 mg and formoterol accordance with a prescription 4.5 mg (C) A product prepared from homeopathic stocks 11. Which of the following preparation is the (D) A pharmaceutical form of an active most appropriate as a cream for the substance being tested or used in a management of chronic symptoms of clinical trial haemorrhoids? (A) Lidocaine 15. In pharmaceutical manufacturing, the (B) Cinchocaine Qualified Person: (C) Framycetin (A) Ensures that standards of good (D) Hydrocortisone practice in manufacturing are complied with 12. A mother asks for a preparation for head (B) Establishes the period of validity of lice. Which of the following agents could the manufacturer's licence be recommended? (C) May revoke a manufacturer's licence (A) Permethrin (D) Advises the Licensing Authority on (B) Alcohol the granting of a manufacturer's (C) Chlorhexidine licence (D) Cetrimide 4 16. Tetanus vaccine is indicated when a wound 20. Micro emulsions contain globules of the size is contaminated with: about (A) Oil (A) I micro meter (B) 0.1 micro meter (B) Acid (C) 0.01 micro meter (C) Ethanol (D) 10 micro meters (D) Soil 21. Brownian movement of particles 17. The drug which was used as 'LIE (A) Prevent sedimentation DETECTOR' during the Second world (B) Enhance sedimentation war (C) Assist in sedimentation (A) Hyoscine (D) Have no effect on sedimentation (B) Nitrous Oxide (C) Chloroquine 22. Protein binding of a drug (A) Decreases distribution of the drug (D) Carbamazepine (B) Decreases its half-life (C) Enhances excretion of the drug 18. As the temperature increases, the surface (D) Increases bioavailability of the drug tension (A) Increases 23. The pH of a buffer can be calculated using (B) Decreases (A) Ilkovic equation (C) First increases and then decreases (B) Henderson Hasselbalch equation (D) No change and then decreases (C) Michaelis-Menten equation (D) Lineweaver-Burk equation 19. In plastic system, below yield value, the 24. Part of solvent required per part of solute to apparent viscosity is dissolve sparingly soluble salt is (A) Higher (A) From 1 to 10 (B) Fixed (B) From 10 to 30 (C) Normal (C) From 30 to 100 (D) Infinite (D) From 100 to 1000 5 [P.T.O. 26 / 3 25. Electro dialysis is a method for the 29. In metal ion complex, which of the purpose of following is true (A) Identification (A) Ligands act as Lewis bases and the central atom acts as a Lewis acid. (B) Preparation (B) The central atom acts as Lewis bases (C) Purification and ligands act as a Lewis acids. (D) Stabilization (C) Ligands bond by forming hydrogen bonds. 26. The pH of tears is about (D) This is a simple example of the formation of a complex ion with a (A) 6.0 positive charge. (B) 8.0 (C) 7·4 30. Auxiliary emulsifying agents stabilize the (D) 9.0 emulsion by (A) Adjusting the viscosity of continuous phase 27. Which order of reaction is followed by photo (B) Changing the hydrophilic-lipophilic decomposition of the drug balance (A) First order (C) Strengthening the polar head of (B) Pseudo First order emulsifier (C) Second order (D) Strengthening the non-polar head of emulsifier (D) Zero order 31. Errors arising when the individual analyst is 28. The rate of hydrolysis is dependent on responsible for them (A) pH (A) Method error (B) Buffers (B) Instrumental error (C) pH and temperature (C) Personal error (D) Temperature (D) Random error 6 32. Which theory states that acid is a substance 36. The chemical reagent from which solution which dissociates in water to produce of required concentration can be prepared is hydrogen ions (A) Secondary standard (A) Arrhenius theory (B) Dilute solution (B) Lewis theory (C) Concentrated solution (C) Bronsted-Lowry theory (D) Primary standard (D) Lowry theory 37. The quantity of chemical in each liter of solution is known as 33. 20 gm NaOH in 500 ml = (A) Normality (A) 0.1 N (B) Strength (B) 1.0 N (C) Molecular Weight (C) 0.5 M (D) Equivalence Weight (D) 0.05 N 38. Which of the following indicators has a transition point closest to the equivalence 34. Potentiometry is which type of method? point for the titration of a weak acid by a (A) Qualitative strong base? (A) Orange IV (B) Chromatographic (B) Thymol blue (C) Classical (C) Methyl orange (D) Electro-chemical (D) Bromocresol green 35. The number of gm-equivalent of the solute 39. Which of the following indicators is yellow per liter of solution is known as at a pH of 10.0? (A) Normality (A) Methyl red (B) Molarity (B) Phenol red (C) Thymol blue (C) Molality (D) Methyl violet (D) Mole fraction 7 [P.T.O. 26 / 4 40. A buffer solution may contain equal 44. The electrolyte used for tin plating is moles of (A) Sulphide ore (A) Weak add and strong base. (B) Stannous sulphate (C) Hydrogen sulphate (B) Strong acid and strong base. (D) Sodium chloride (C) Weak acid and its conjugate base. (D) Strong acid and its conjugate base. 45. An electrochemical cell is also called (A) Battery cell (B) Galvanic cell 41. The pH at which an indicator changes colour is known as its (C) Electrolytic cell (D) Chargeable cell (A) Standard point. (B) Transition point. 46. Electrochemical cells convert which of these (C) Equivalence point. into electrical energy? (A) Mechanical energy (D) Stoichiometric point. (B) Potential energy (C) Kinetic energy 42. On an industrial scale, sodium metal is (D) Chemical energy prepared by electrolysis of fused (A) NaCl 47. Voltaic cells generate electricity by (B) NaO (A) Spontaneous redox reaction (B) Non-spontaneous redox reaction (C) NH 3 (C) Sublimation reaction (D) NaOH (D) Thermochemical reaction 43. Corrosion can be prevented by 48. In chromium plating, few drops of sulphuric acid are added to the electrolyte to prevent (A) Alloying (A) Oxidation (B) Tinning (B) Reduction (C) Galvanising (C) Hydrolysis (D) Sublimation (D) All of above 8 49. The electrodes used in the production of 53. Which cranial nerve is attached with the sodium metal are eye? (A) Iron cathode and graphite anode (A) 2nd (B) Sodium cathode and carbon anode (B) 4th (C) Aluminum cathode and fluoride anode (C) 6th (D) Aluminum cathode and sodium anode (D) 8th 50. Accumulation of carbon dioxide gas in 54. The longest skeletal muscle in the body is lungs is called (A) Biceps (A) Anoxia (B) Quadriceps femoris (B) Asphyxia (C) Supinator (C) Anorexia (D) Sartorius (D) Anosmia 55. The lymph fluid is 51. Glucose reabsorption takes place mainly in (A) Clear to white fluid (A) Distal convoluted tubules (B) Reddish fluid (B) Collecting duct (C) Light brown fluid (C) Proximal convoluted tubule (D) Pinkish fluid (D) Loop of Henley 52. The hormone concerned with the basic 56. Endocytosis, exocytosis and transcytosis are metabolic rate is examples of (A) Thyroxin (A) Osmosis (B) Parathormone (B) Diffusion (C) Adrenaline (C) Passivetransport (D) Calcitonin (D) Active transport 9 [P.T.O. 57. Which of the following system eliminates 61. The association of endotoxin in gram- excess nitrogen from the body? negative bacteria is due to the presence of (A) Digestive system (A) Steroids (B) Urinary system (B) Peptidoglycan (C) Respiratory system (C) Lipopolysaccharides (D) Lymphatic system (D) Polypeptide 58. Which system protects deeper tissues from 62. Which of the following is not a recognised injury? cause of diarrhoea? (A) Immune system (A) Vibrio cholerae (B) Musculo-skeleton system (B) Escherichia coli (C) Integumentary system (C) Clostridium perfringens (D) Lymphatic system (D) Enterococcus faecalis 59. Which of the following terms describes the 63. All of the following are the rapid and body's ability to maintain its normal state? confirmatory staining techniques for Acid (A) Anabolism fast bacteria, Except? (B) Catabolism (A) Ziehl neelsen method (C) Tolerance (B) Fluorochrome stain (D) Homeostasis (C) Dorner method (D) Kinyoun method 60. Which of the following closes and seals off the lower airway during swallowing? 64. Typhoid fever affects (A) Vocal cords (A) Respiratory system (B) Epiglottis (B) Urogenital system (C) Larynx (C) Gastrointestinal system (D) Uvula (D) Skin 10 65. Meningitis is an infection of 68. Plasma cells and memory cells are (A) The peripheral nervous system responsible for (B) The covering of the spinal cord and (A) Inflammation brain (B) Cell mediated response (C) The spinal cord and brain (C) Humoral response (D) The blood brain barrier (D) Complement cascade 66. A pandemic is 69. MMR protects against which three diseases? (A) Worldwide outbreak of a disease (A) Measles, malaria and rabies (B) Disease outbreak in a country (B) Monkey pox, mumps, rabies (C) Disease that spreads easily and rapidly (C) Measles, mumps, rubella (D) Vector of infection is unknown (D) Monkey pox, mumps, rubella 67. A Plasma membrane is made up of 70. Which of the following is not a risk factors (A) Proteins and carbohydrates of fungal respiratory infections? (B) Proteins and lipids (A) Prolonged steroid therapy (C) Lipids and carbohydrates (B) Postpartum state (D) Proteins, lipids and carbohydrates (C) Genetic predisposition (D) Post splenectomy state 11 [P.T.O.  PART–B 71. 25 : 37 : : 49 : ? 74. Rakesh ranks 13th in the class of 33 students. There are 5 students below Mahesh (A) 41 rankwise. How many students are there (B) 65 between Rakesh and Mahesh ? (C) 56 (A) 12 (B) 14 (D) 60 (C) 15 (D) 16 72. Find the missing character? 75. QAR, RAS, SAT, TAU, _____ (A) UAV (B) UAT (C) TAS (D) TAT (A) 10C 76. Choose the word which is different from (B) 12C the rest. (A) Pear (C) 13C (B) Apple (D) 7C (C) Litchi (D) Orange 73. Pointing at a photo, Dinesh said, "His father is only son of my mother." The photo 77. Before you gave answers, sir................. belongs to : them to us. (A) Dinesh (A) sent (B) Dinesh's brother (B) will send (C) Dinesh's father (C) had sent (D) was sending (D) Dinesh's son 12 78. Look, a new missile.................... 82. He reminds us...................... Paul Walker. (A) is launched (A) about (B) of (B) is launch (C) for (C) is being launch (D) with (D) is being launched 83. Find the minimum number of straight lines 79. The paths of glory lead.................... to the required to make the given figure. grave. (A) straight (B) but (C) in (A) 13 (D) directly (B) 15 (C) 17 80. You haven't had your lunch yet,................ (D) 19 you? (A) are 84. Select the figure that does NOT belong in the following group. (B) aren't (C) have (D) haven't 81. Which sequence makes a correct sentence? (A) B 1. tea (B) A 2. have (C) D 3. that (D) C 4. some 85. P, Q, R and S are four friends. P is shorter 5. before than Q but taller than R who is shorter (A) 43251 than S. Who is the shortest among all? (B) 24315 (A) P (B) Q (C) 24153 (C) R (D) 52431 (D) S 13 [P.T.O. 86. Select the Answer figure that fits in the blank 89. A train running at 90 km/hr crosses a space in the given problem figure. pole in 10 seconds. What is the length of Problem Figure train? (A) 250 m (B) 150 m (C) 900 m (D) None of these Answer Figure 90. Which is in ascending order? (A) 1/3, 2/5, 3/5, 6/7 (A) D (B) 2/5, 1/3, 3/5, 6/7 (B) C (C) 1/3, 2/5, 6/7, 3/5 (C) B (D) A (D) 3/5, 6/7, 1/3, 2/5 87. From the given alternatives, select the word 91. The average of four consecutive odd which CANNOT be formed using the letters numbers is 24. Find the largest number. of the given word. Demonstration (A) 25 (A) Moon (B) 27 (B) Most (C) 29 (C) Train (D) Damage (D) 31 88. If white is called black, black is called red, 92. Sum of a rational number and its reciprocal red is called yellow, yellow is called green, is 13/6. Find the number green is called blue, blue is called violet and violet is called orange, what would be (A) 2 the colour of human blood? (B) 3/2 (A) green (C) 4/2 (B) black (C) red (D) 5/2 (D) yellow 14 93. Half of 1 percent written as decimal is 97. Who has been appointed as the Chief of Staff Committee, following the demise of (A) 5 General Bipin Rawat? (B) 0.5 (A) M.M. Naravane (C) 0.05 (B) Karambir Singh (D) 0.005 (C) R.K.S. Bhadauria (D) Vijay Kumar Singh 94. A person incurs a loss of 5% be selling a watch for Rs. 1140. At what price should 98. Which state after Haryana has recently the watch be sold to earn 5% profit. announced 75% reservation in private sector (A) Rs. 1200 jobs for locals? (B) Rs. 1230 (A) Uttar Pradesh (C) Rs. 1260 (B) Rajasthan (D) Rs. 1290 (C) Uttarakhand (D) Jharkhand 95. A fungal disease named 'Mucormycosis' is reg istered in COVID-19 patients of which 99. The first-ever Haryana Sahitya Sangam has state? started in which city? (A) Kerala (A) Faridabad (B) Gujarat (B) Panchkula (C) Bihar (C) Gurgaon (D) Karnal (D) Assam 100. The Ministry of Labour recently launched 96. "Energy Conservation Week" is observed India's first national database on unorganised every year in which month? workers on which portal? (A) October (A) e-Shram portal (B) November (B) Samadhan portal (C) December (C) Atma Nirbhar Bharat portal (D) January (D) None of the above 15 [P.T.O. ROUGH WORK 16  Pharmacist Answer Key 1. A 26. B 51. C 76. D 2. C 27. D 52. A 77. C 3. C 28. C 53. A 78. D 4. D 29. A 54. D 79. B 5. B 30. D 55. A 80. C 6. D 31. C 56. D 81. C 7. B 32. A 57. B 82. B 8. C 33. B 58. C 83. A 9. C 34. D 59. D 84. A 10. B 35. A 60. B 85. C 11. D 36. C 61. C 86. D 12. A 37. B 62. D 87. D 13. C 38. B 63. C 88. D 14. D 39. A 64. C 89. A 15. A 40. C 65. B 90. A 16. D 41. B 66. A 91. B 17. A 42. A 67. B 92. B 18. B 43. D 68. C 93. D 19. D 44. B 69. C 94. C 20. C 45. B 70. B 95. B 21. A 46. D 71. B 96. C 22. A 47. A 72. A 97. A 23. B 48. C 73. D 98. D 24. C 49. A 74. B 99. B 25. C 50. B 75. A 100. A