220-1101.pdf

Exam220-110 1 (Core 1) QUESTION 1 Training wants to install a network cable to run a television signal between two buildings. Which of the following cable types should it utilize? A. B. C. D. A. Fiber B. Coaxial C. Plenum D. Shielded Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Refe...

Exam220-110 1 (Core 1) QUESTION 1 Training wants to install a network cable to run a television signal between two buildings. Which of the following cable types should it utilize? A. B. C. D. A. Fiber B. Coaxial C. Plenum D. Shielded Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation OBJ-3.1: A coaxial cable is a cable used to transmit video, communications, and audio. A coaxial or coax cable is most commonly used as a cable to connect a TV to a cable TV service. Coaxial cables are a specialized type of copper cabling that uses a copper core to carry the electrical signal while being enclosed by plastic insulation and shielding to protect the data transmission from the effects of electromagnetic interference (EMI). Plenum-rated cable has a special insulation that has low smoke and low flame U characteristics. Plenum cable is mandated to be installed in any air handling space. Shielded cables contain a braided foil shield around the inner cabling to protect the data from the effects of electromagnetic interference (EMI). An optical fiber consists of an ultra-fine core of glass to carry the light signals SG U R surrounded by glass or plastic cladding, which guides the light pulses along the core, and a protective coating. The fiber optic cable is contained in a protective jacket and terminated by a connector. Fiber optic cables use light signals to carry data across a cable at extremely high bandwidths. QUESTION 2 Which cellular technology is compromised of HSPA+ and EV-DO to provide higher data speeds than previous cellular data protocols? A. 5G B. 4G C. 3G D. LTE PA S A. B. C. D. 1 of 61 220-1101 Exam EX Explanation/Reference: Explanation AM Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation OBJ-1.4: 3G cellular technology is made up of two different technologies: HSPA+ and EV-DO. HSPA+ (Evolved High-Speed Packet Access) is a 3G standard used for GSM cellular networks and can support up to a theoretical download speed of 168 Mbps and a theoretical upload speed of 34 Mbps. In the real world, though, HSPA+ normally reaches speeds around 20 Mbps. EV-DO (Evolution-Data Optimized) is a 3G standard used for CDMA cellular networks and can support up to 3.1 Mbps downloads. 4G cellular technology is made up of LTE and LTA-A. Long Term Evolution (LTE) is a packet data communications specification providing an upgrade path for both GSM and CDMA2000 cellular networks. LTE has a theoretical speed of 150 Mbps and a real-world speed of around 20 Mbps. LTE Advanced (LTE-A) has a theoretical speed of 300 Mbps and a real-world speed of around 40 Mbps. 5G cellular technology is made up of three different types: low-band, mid-band, and high-band mmWave technology. Low-band 5G reaches an average speed of 55 Mbps with a theoretical speed of 150 Mbps. Mid-band 5G reaches an average speed of 150 Mbps with a theoretical speed of 1.5 Gbps. High-band 5G reaches an average speed of 3 Gbps with a theoretical speed of up to 70 Gbps. QUESTION 3 You are building a virtualization environment to host several secured Linux distributions as VMs. The VMs need to have access to the local corporate network and communicate with the host operating system, the other VMs, and the internal network clients. Still, they should not have access to the internet. Which of the following types of network connections should you configure for each VM? A. B. C. D. A. Private B. External C. Localhost D. Internal Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation OBJ-4.2: If you select internal, each VM can communicate between the host and the other VMs. If you select external, the VMs would have internet access. The private network connection type will create a switch that is usable only by the VMs. The VMs cannot use the switch to communicate with the host. If you select localhost, each VM could only communicate with itself. drive is using a 40-pin ribbon cable, and you suspect the cable is defective. Which cable should you buy to replace the cable? R 2 of 61 SG U 220-1101 Exam A. B. C. D. U QUESTION 4 You have been asked to fix an old computer whose CD-ROM has stopped working. The CD-ROM A. IDE B. USB C. E SATA D. SATA PA S Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation AM OBJ-3.1: An IDE (Integrated Drive Electronics) cable is an older cable interface that used to be used for the transmission of data between the motherboard and various internal devices like hard drives and CD-ROM drives. An IDE cable is a 40-pin ribbon cable that operated at relatively slow speeds (less than 50 Mbps). EX IDE cables were also known as PATA (Parallel ATA) cables, as opposed to SATA (Serial ATA) cables. You will rarely come across an IDE cable in use today, but if you are working on a very old computer in an office (legacy machine) then you may find one in use. QUESTION 5 You connected your laptop to a new wireless network and received an IP address automatically. Which of the following servers allowed this to occur? A. B. C. D. A. TACACS+ server B. DNS server C. Proxy server D. DHCP server Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation OBJ-2.4: A dynamic host configuration protocol (DHCP) serve is a server configured with a range of addresses to lease. Hosts can be allocated an IP address dynamically or be assigned a reserved IP address based on the host's MAC address. The server can also provide other configuration information, such as the location of DNS servers. A domain name system (DNS) server is a server that hosts the database of domain names and the IP addresses mapped to those names. Each DNS server is authoritative for certain domain names that their organization owns. An authentication, authorization, and accounting (AAA) server is a server use to identify (authenticate), approve (authorize), and keep track of (account for) users and their actions. AAA servers can also be classified based on the protocol they use, such as a RADIUS server or TACACS+ server. A proxy server is a server that acts as an intermediary between a client requesting a resource and the server that provides that resource. A proxy server can be used to filter content and websites from reaching an end user. 3 of 61 220-1101 Exam QUESTION 6 Consulting Group is working with a new laptop manufacturer. The manufacturer wants to create the thinnest and lightest laptops in the world. To do this, they need to choose the right technology for their displays. Which technology should Consulting recommend to allow for the thinnest laptop displays? A. B. C. D. A. OLED B. LCD C. LED D. IPS Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation SG U R OBJ-1.2: An OLED display works without a backlight because it emits visible light. Thus, it can display deep black levels and be thinner and lighter than a liquid crystal display (LCD). In low ambient light conditions (such as a darker room), an OLED screen can achieve a higher contrast ratio than an LCD, U Explanation/Reference: Explanation regardless of whether the LCD uses cold cathode fluorescent lamps or an LED backlight. An in-plane switching (IPS) LCD panel uses technology designed to resolve the quality issues inherent in TN panel technology, including strong viewing angle dependence and low-quality color reproduction. A liquid PA S crystal display (LCD) panel is a type of display technology where the image is made up of liquid crystal cells controlled using electrical charges. The LCD panel is backlight by a cold cathode fluorescent (CCFL) bulb. LCD panels are used on laptops and have replaced CRT monitors as the main type of computer display screen for desktops, as well. A light-emitting diode (LED) display is an LCD panel that uses a LED backlight instead of a CCFL backlight to provide its light source. AM QUESTION 7 You have decided that you wanted to install a second operating system on your computer. After installing the OS and rebooting the computer, you see the "Operating System Not Found" error on A. B. C. D. EX your display. You verify that the boot.ini file is configured properly, but the error still appears. What is MOST likely causing this error? A. The MBR bootloader was installed accidentally B. Windows Startup services are not properly running C. An unsupported version of Linux is installed D. An incompatible partition is marked as active Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: 4 of 61 220-1101 Exam Explanation OBJ-5.3: This issue may occur if one or more of the following conditions are true: (1) the basic input/output system (BIOS) does not detect the hard disk, (2) the hard disk is damaged, (3) sector 0 of the physical hard disk drive has an or malformed master boot record (MBR), (4) an incompatible partition is marked as Active, or (5) a partition that contains the MBR is no longer active. The only option provided in this list is that an incompatible partition is marked as active. QUESTION 8 You just heard of a new ransomware attack that has been rapidly spreading across the internet that takes advantage of a vulnerability in the Windows SMB protocol. To protect your network until Microsoft releases a security update, you want to block the port for SMB at your firewall to prevent becoming a victim of this attack. Which of the following ports should you add to your blocklist? A. B. C. D. A. 445 B. 514 C. 123 D. 143 Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation OBJ-2.1: Server Message Block (SMB) uses ports 139 and 445, and is a network file sharing protocol that runs on top of the NetBIOS architecture in Windows environments. When the WannaCry ransomware was spreading rapidly across the internet, you could help protect your organization's network by blocking ports 139 and 445 at your firewall to prevent your machines from getting infected over the internet. Network Time Protocol (NTP) uses port 123 and is a networking protocol for clock synchronization between computer systems over packet-switched, variable-latency data networks. Internet Message Access Protocol (IMAP) uses port 143 and is an Internet standard protocol used by email clients to retrieve email messages from a mail server over a TCP/IP connection. System Logging Protocol (Syslog) uses port 514 and is a way network devices can use a standard message format to communicate with a logging server. It was designed specifically to make it easy to monitor network devices. Devices can use a Syslog agent to send out R QUESTION 9 Your friend just gave you his old laptop. Whenever you turn on the laptop, though, a blank screen U notification messages under a wide range of specific conditions. SG U appears and asks you to enter an administrative password before the computer attempts to boot up. 5 of 61 220-1101 Exam PA S Unfortunately, your friend never gave you the password for this laptop. Which of the following actions should you take to resolve this issue and get past this password screen? A. A. Disconnect the hard drive from the motherboard for a few minutes, reconnect it, and then AM power on the laptop B. B. Remove the CMOS battery, wait a few minutes, reinsert the battery, then power on the laptop C. C. Remove the laptop's battery, wait a few minutes, reinsert the battery, and then power on the Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation EX laptop D. D. Press and hold the power button down for a few minutes, then attempt to power on the laptop OBJ-5.2: This blank screen asking for the administrative password appears to be a BIOS password required to be entered before the laptop is allowed to boot from the hard disk. Your best option is to clear the CMOS forcibly to remove the BIOS password from a workstation or laptop. To clear the CMOS, you must remove the CMOS battery from your computer, wait a few minutes, reinsert the CMOS battery, and then attempt to power on the computer again. This will cause the information stored in the CMOS (for example, BIOS settings and passwords) to be erased and restored to its default configuration. Removing and reinserting the laptop's battery will not reset the BIOS password. Disconnecting and reconnecting the hard drive will not reset the BIOS password. QUESTION 10 Which of the following types of networking hardware is used to deliver broadband internet access using a hybrid fiber-coaxial (HFC) infrastructure? A. B. C. D. A. Cable modem B. Optical network terminal C. Digital subscriber line D. Software-defined networking Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation OBJ-2.2: A cable modem is a type of network bridge that provides bi-directional data communication via radio frequency channels on a hybrid fiber-coaxial (HFC), radio frequency over glass (RFoG), and coaxial 6 of 61 220-1101 Exam cable infrastructure. Cable modems are primarily used to deliver broadband internet access as cable internet, taking advantage of an HFC and RFoG network's high bandwidth. DSL is a technology used to transmit multimedia traffic at high-bit rates over twisted-pair copper wire (over ordinary telephone lines). This allows the telecommunications company to connect a user's home to the local switching center using normal telephone lines, then connect that local switching center (using a DSLAM to multiplex the connections) to the central office over a single high-speed cable (such as a fiber connection). An optical network terminal (ONT) is a device that connects fiber optics cables to other types of wiring such as U Ethernet and phone lines by converting the signal from optical to electrical and vice versa. An ONT is commonly used with fiber to the house (FTTH) installations. Software-defined networking (SDN) is an approach to network management that enables dynamic, programmatically efficient network configuration SG U and compatible hardware that allows for the programming of network appliances and systems. R to improve network performance and monitoring, making it more like cloud computing than traditional network management. Software-defined networking (SDN) uses Application Programming Interfaces (API) QUESTION 11 On Tuesday evening, the company just pushed a new Windows 10 security update to all of its workstations. On Wednesday morning, the help desk receives numerous complaints about the PA S network being slower than normal. Previously, the network was baselined at 1 Gbps as each workstation uses a wired CAT 6 connection. Today, a technician ran a speed test and saw the network was only reaching speeds of 100 Mbps. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of the network slowdown? Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation AM The DHCP server configuration is being used The network card drivers were updated last night The DNS server configuration is being used The network was reconfigured from DHCP to static EX A. B. C. D. OBJ-5.7: Often, security updates, patches, and upgrades will reconfigure a network card's drivers during a Windows security update. If this happens, the system may revert to a more generic version of the driver, decreasing speeds from 1 Gbps to 100 Mbps. The network card's drivers should be rolled back to the previous driver to restore functionality and correct it. If there were configuration changes to the DNS or DHCP server, it would limit connectivity completely instead of simply slowing down the connection. If the network changed from DHCP to static assignments, the workstations would not get an APIPA address and would not have connected to the network at a slower speed. 8 of 61 220-1101 Exam QUESTION 12 You work as a computer technician for a production company that travels worldwide while filming and editing music videos. Due to the nature of video editing, you will be building a video production workstation for the company that will have the maximum amount of RAM, an 8-core CPU, a dedicated GPU, and a redundant array of solid-state devices for storage. You are now determining which power supply to install in the system. What is the MOST important characteristic to consider when choosing a power supply? A. B. C. D. Efficiency rating Input voltage Amperage of 12V rail Number of SATA connectors Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation OBJ-3.5: This question provides you with many details, but the key phrase in finding the answer is in the first sentence. This computer will be traveling worldwide, and the most important consideration will be the input voltage. If you choose a 120-volt power supply, it would be destroyed if plugged into a 240-volt outlet (commonly used outside the United States). Conversely, if you use a 240-volt power supply and plug it into a 120-volt outlet, it will not function due to the lower voltage. Therefore, you need to pick a power supply with dual voltage selection capability for maximum compatibility worldwide. QUESTION 13 Which of the following locations are you likely to find the antenna wires located within a laptop or mobile device? R U A. Laying on top of the battery B. Connected externally via USB C. Positioned around the display panel D. Located under the keyboard SG U A. B. C. D. Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation PA S Explanation/Reference: Explanation 9 of 61 AM 220-1101 Exam OBJ-1.2: The antenna wires for the wireless cards and cellular radios are usually routed around the screen within the casing of the laptop or mobile device. The antenna connections can be tricky to install/remove and are delicate. When updating or replacing a wireless or cellular card, the technician must be careful to reconnect the EX antenna wires and reinstall them in the proper location. External antennas are available only when connected to an external wireless card. QUESTION 14 Your computer keeps losing track of time and the date in the system. Which of the following is MOST likely causing this issue? A. B. C. D. A. The memory is corrupted B. The power supply is faulty C. The CMOS battery is dead and needs to be replaced D. The motherboard's device drivers need to be updated Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation OBJ-5.2: Most motherboards (especially older ones) have a small coin-sized battery installed on them to power the CMOS RAM when the computer is powered down. This is where the BIOS settings and date/time are saved when power is removed from a workstation. If a computer continually loses track of the day/time, this is a classic sign that the CMOS battery is dead and needs to be replaced. Please note that some newer motherboards have replaced the need for a CMOS battery by replacing it with an area of nonvolatile memory used instead to store the BIOS settings and the date/time. QUESTION 15 Which of the following devices have most of the same functionality as a personal computer but can be operated with a single hand? A. B. C. D. A. Smartphone B. Tablet C. Smartwatch D. Laptop Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: 10 of 61 220-1101 Exam Explanation OBJ-1.4: A smartphone is a device with roughly the same functionality as a personal computer operated with a single hand. Most smartphones have a screen size between 4.5" and 5.7". Leading smartphones provide high-resolution screens. Smartphones have fast multicore CPUs, anywhere between 2 and 6 GB system memory, and 16 GB+ flash memory storage. They come with premium front and back digital U cameras, input sensors like accelerometers, and Global Positioning System (GPS) chips. They can establish network links using Wi-Fi and a cellular data plan. A high-end smartwatch (for example, an Apple Watch) will allow the user to see their notifications, chat activity, and even make phone calls. A mid-range or low- SG U R end smartwatch can still have the ability to read your chat and notifications, but you may be unable to make phone calls from it. A smartwatch is not a replacement for a laptop or desktop, but a high-end smartphone can be. QUESTION 16 Johnny is trying to download a file from a remote FTP server but keeps receiving an error that a A. B. C. D. A. Ensure that port 161 is open B. Flush the DNS cache on the local workstation C. Validate the security certificate from the host D. Ensure that port 20 is open Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation AM Explanation/Reference: Explanation PA S connection cannot be opened. Which of the following should you do FIRST to resolve the problem? EX OBJ-5.7: Executing an FTP connection from a client is a two-stage process requiring the use of two different ports. Once the user enters the name of the server and the login credentials in the FTP client's authorization fields, the FTP connection is attempted over port 21. Once the connection is established, FTP sends the data over port 20 back to the client from the server. For FTP to function properly, you should have both ports 20 and 21 open. QUESTION 17 Training has recently purchased a new wireless printer and has asked you to configure it in their office. You have installed the necessary printer drivers on your workstation and have plugged the printer into the power outlet. You just configured the printer to connect to the guest wireless network. Next, you try to print a test page, but nothing prints out. Which of the following is the most likely cause for the printer not printing the test page? 11 of 61 220-1101 Exam A. B. C. D. You forgot to configure your workstation as a print server You didn't configure the printer to use the Internet Printing Protocol (IPP) You connected the printer to the guest wireless network instead of the corporate wireless network You didn't enable DHCP on your workstation Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation OBJ-5.6: Most corporate wireless networks are configured as two separate networks: one for the corporate wireless network traffic and another for any guests that might connect to the wireless network while visiting your offices. These two wireless networks are isolated from each other, so if you connect the printer to the guest wireless network then the workstations will be unable to reach the printer and print out any documents or test pages. QUESTION 18 Which of the following ports should you unblock at the firewall if your workstation cannot access http:// training.com but can access https:// training.com? A. B. C. D. A. 80 B. 53 C. 445 D. 443 Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation R U Explanation/Reference: Explanation SG U OBJ-2.1: HyperText Transfer Protocol (HTTP) is the basis for the World Wide Web. HTTP enables clients (typically web browsers) to request resources from an HTTP server. A client connects to the HTTP server using its TCP port (the default is port 80) and submits a resource request using a Uniform Resource Locator (URL). HTTPS PA S (HTTP Secure) uses port 443. In this question, it states that the user can access HTTPS but not HTTP, indicating that port 80 is blocked. The server message block (SMB)/common internet file system (CIFS) is a protocol used for requesting files from Windows servers and delivering them to clients. SMB allows machines to share files and printers, thereby making them available for other machines to use. Samba EX 220-1101 Exam AM 12 of 61 software allows UNIX and Linux servers or NAS appliances to run SMB services for Windows clients. SMB operates on port 445. The domain name system (DNS) protocol is the protocol used to provide names for an IP address based on their mappings in a database using TCP/UDP port 53. QUESTION 19 (This is a simulated PBQ. If you had this question on the real exam, you would be asked to drag-and-drop a label with the component's name onto the proper location on the motherboard.) certk SG U R U certk certk PA S Using the image of the motherboard above, which of the following correctly indicates the circled area? Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation certk 13 of 61 EX certk B. B. CPU slot C. C. Mini PCIe D. D. Memory slot AM A. A. CPU power 220-1101 Exam OBJ-3.4: The area circled indicates the CPU slot. This is where the processor is installed into the motherboard. For the exam, it is important that you can identify the different parts of the motherboard by sight. QUESTION 20 Which of the following type of hard disk drives would be installed in a low-end office desktop? A. B. C. D. A. 5400 rpm B. 7200 rpm C. 15,000 rpm D. 10,000 rpm Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation OBJ-3.3: Hard drive performance is limited based on the number of revolutions per minute (RPM) the disk can spin. If a disk can spin faster, it can retrieve or store data on the disk quicker. For low-end office desktops, using a 5,400 rpm hard disk drive to save money is acceptable. For a high-performance gaming computer, a 15,000 rpm hard disk drive or an SSD should be used instead. QUESTION 21 You and your friends are hanging out in a bar downtown and notice that the entire area around the bar has a great wireless network called "Downtown Metro." This wireless network was built by the city and currently covers about 5 square blocks of the downtown area. What type of network best classifies this wireless network? A. B. C. D. A. LAN B. PAN C. MAN D. WAN Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation OBJ-2.7: A metropolitan area network (MAN) is a computer network that interconnects users with U computer resources in a geographic region of the size of a metropolitan or city area. This usually works by providing municipal broadband via Wi-Fi to large parts or all of a municipal area by deploying a wireless SG U R 14 of 61 220-1101 Exam PA S mesh network. A wireless mesh network (WMN) is a wireless network topology where all nodes, including client stations, can provide forwarding and path discovery to improve coverage and throughput compared to using just fixed access points and extenders. The typical deployment design uses hundreds of wireless access points deployed outdoors, often on poles. A local area network (LAN) is a network where all the nodes or hosts participating in the network are directly connected with cables or short-range wireless media. A personal area network (PAN) is a close-range network that is usually based on Bluetooth or NFC for communications between personal devices, such as smartphones, laptops, printers, and other peripheral devices. A wide area network (WAN) is a network that spans multiple geographic locations such as the AM internet. Wide area networks are often established with leased telecommunication circuits. A. B. C. D. A. 53 B. 427 C. 3389 D. 389 Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation EX QUESTION 22 Which of the following ports is used by LDAP by default? Explanation/Reference: Explanation OBJ-2.1: The lightweight directory access protocol (LDAP) is a protocol used to access and update information in an X.500-style network resource directory. LDAP uses port 389. The service location protocol (SLP) is a protocol or method of organizing and locating the resources (such as printers, disk drives, databases, e-mail directories, and schedulers) in a network. This is an alternative protocol to LDAP in newer networks. SLP uses port 427. The remote desktop protocol (RDP) is a protocol used for the remote administration of a host using a graphical user interface. RDP operates over TCP port 3389. The domain name system (DNS) protocol is the protocol used to provide names for an IP address based on their mappings in a database using TCP/UDP port 53. QUESTION 23 Which of the following Wi-Fi channels in the 2.4 GHz frequency band are only supported in Europe and Japan due to government regulations? A. A. 13 B. B. 11 C. C. 6 D. D. 1 15 of 61 220-1101 Exam Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation OBJ-2.3: The Wi-Fi frequency band for 2.4 GHz is split into 14 channels of 5 MHz each. In the United States and Canada, only channels 1 through 11 may be used. In Europe, channels 1 through 13 may be used. In Japan, channels 1 through 14 may be used. Since each Wi-Fi communication requires approximately 20 MHz to operate effectively, users should set their wireless access points to channels 1, 6, and 11 to U minimize interference and avoid overlapping channels. A. RJ-45 B. Molex C. F type D. RJ-11 SG U A. B. C. D. R QUESTION 24 Which of the following types of connectors are used to terminate a CAT 5e network cable? Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation PA S Explanation/Reference: Explanation OBJ-3.1: RJ-45 refers to a cable termination specification that specifies physical male and female AM connectors and the pin assignments of data jacks that can be used for networks and VOIP telephone cables. RJ-45 is an 8-pin/8-position plug or jack commonly used to connect computers onto Ethernet-based local area networks (LAN) and consists of two wiring schemes: T568A and T568B. An RJ-11 connector is used EX to terminate cables used for phone lines. A Molex connector is used to provide power to internal components of a computer from the power supply. QUESTION 25 You are building a Desktop PC for a newly hired employee at Training. The computer's motherboard doesn't have a wireless network adapter integrated into it, so you need to purchase an expansion card to provide this functionality. Which of the following motherboard connections will most likely be used to connect the wireless network adapter card? A. A. AGP B. B. E SATA C. C. PCIe x1 16 of 61 220-1101 Exam D. D. PCIe x16 Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation OBJ-3.4: PCIe (peripheral component interconnect express) is an interface standard for connecting highspeed components. Every desktop PC motherboard has several PCIe slots you can use to add GPUs (video cards or graphics cards), RAID cards, network adapters, Wi-Fi cards, or SSD (solid-state drive) add-on cards. The types of PCIe slots available in your PC will depend on your motherboard and are designated as PCIe x1, x4, x8, and x16. Network adapters and Wi-Fi network cards almost exclusively rely on PCIe x1 expansion slots or a USB connection for their connectivity. Graphics cards usually rely on a PCIe x16 expansion slot. eSATA is an external SATA port used to connect an external storage device such as a hard drive. The accelerated graphics port (AGP) is a parallel expansion card standard that was originally designed for attaching a video card to a computer system to assist in the acceleration of 3D computer graphics. AGP has been replaced with PCIe due to its faster speeds. QUESTION 26 A network technician connects three temporary office trailers with a point-to-multipoint microwave radio solution in a wooded area. The microwave radios are up, and the network technician can ping network devices in all of the office trailers. However, users are complaining that they are experiencing sporadic connectivity. What is the MOST likely cause of this issue? U A. Latency B. Split horizon C. Interference D. Throttling R A. B. C. D. SG U Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation PA S OBJ-5.7: Microwave links require a direct line of sight (LoS) between the antennas to maintain a strong and effective link. These line-of-sight microwave link uses highly directional transmitter and receiver antennas to communicate via a narrowly focused radio beam. Since this microwave-based network is being run in a wooded area, there are likely some trees or leaves that are blocking the line of sight between the antennas. To solve this issue, they should trim the trees and branches to provide a clear light of sight or move the antennas to reestablish a clear line of sight. Latency is the time delay between when a packet is sent and received. While latency will increase with an obstructed microwave line of sight link, latency is an effect of this issue and not the cause of the issue. Throttling is the intentional slowing or speeding of an AM 17 of 61 220-1101 Exam EX internet service by an Internet service provider to regulate network traffic and minimize bandwidth congestion. This again is not a cause of intermittent connectivity, but would instead occur if the microwave link was overutilized beyond its SLA contract limitations. Split horizon is a form of route advertisement that prohibits a router from advertising back a route to the same interface from which it learned it. This does not affect the issues experienced with the microwave line. Another way to approach this question is to use the process of elimination: throttling slows down the speed, and latency slows down speed even further. Split horizon prevents loops, so it only makes sense that interference is the correct choice since interference can cause drops in connections in many situations. QUESTION 27 Molly enjoys playing an online MMORPG each day after work. To access the game, she simply enters the website address and logins in to begin playing. Today, she tried to access the game from her laptop at work, but she couldn't launch the game. What is most likely causing the issue? A. B. C. D. A. Metered services B. NIC settings C. Poor WiFi connection D. Block listed by firewall Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation OBJ-4.1: The company firewall may be blocking any gaming-related websites and applications to improve security. Adding the website or a category of websites to the firewall's blocklist would prevent all corporate users from accessing the content. When using cloud-based resources, it is important that all of the right firewall. ports and protocols are allowed through the QUESTION 28 Which of the following synchronization methods does NOT work with Android devices? A. B. C. D. A. Google Workspace B. Flickr C. Office 365 D. iTunes Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation 18 of 61 220-1101 Exam R U OBJ-1.4: Android can not use iTunes to perform synchronization functions. The iTunes application only works with Apple devices, such as iPhones and iPads. Android devices can use Google Workspace with Gmail to sync emails and contacts. Android devices can also use Office 365 to sync emails, contacts, and other files if you are a Microsoft subscriber. Android devices can use Flickr to sync photos. SG U QUESTION 29 A customer contacts the service desk because their laptop will not power on when plugged in, and the battery is dead. The service desk replaces its battery, connects it to a different power adapter, and the laptop works all day until the battery runs out. Now, the laptop won't turn on, and the battery A. B. C. D. A. Replace the power adapter B. Replace the battery C. Replace the DC jack D. Connect the laptop to a 220v outlet Explanation/Reference: Explanation AM Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation PA S won't charge. Which of the following do you recommend to solve this issue? EX OBJ-5.5: This scenario indicates that the DC jack is faulty. Since the battery was replaced and the laptop continues to work, this indicates it isn't a battery issue but is, instead, most likely a DC jack issue. The DC jack often gets broken on a laptop, and if the jack is broken, the device cannot charge or receive power from the power adapter or wall outlet. QUESTION 30 Which of the following statements about the 5.0 GHz wireless frequency used by Wi-Fi is correct? A. A. The 5.0 GHz frequency supports lower data rates than 2.4 GHz B. B. The 5.0 GHz frequency is less effective at penetrating solid surfaces than 2.4 GHz C. C. The 5.0 GHz frequency has a shorter wavelength that allows the signal to travel further than 2.4 GHz using the same power levels D. D. The 5.0 GHz frequency has fewer channels available than 2.4 GHz Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation 19 of 61 220-1101 Exam OBJ-2.3: The longer wavelength of 2.4 GHz makes it better at propagating through solid surfaces than the 5.0 GHz frequency. The 2.4 GHz frequency has a longer wavelength than the 5.0 GHz frequency. The longer wavelength gives it the ability to cover a longer range using the same power output levels as the 5.0 GHz frequency. The 5.0 GHz frequency supports higher data rates than the 2.4 GHz frequency due to lower levels of congestion and interference. The 5.0 GHz frequency has more individual channels giving it less congestion and interference than the 2.4 GHz frequency. QUESTION 31 You are configuring a new client workstation on the network. Which type of IP address should you configure it with? A. B. C. D. A. Static B. Dynamic C. APIPA D. Link-local Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation should issue the IP address, subnet mask, gateway, and DNS server's IP address to the workstation or U OBJ-2.5: A dynamic IP address should be used for client workstations and devices to ensure they are easy to configure and less prone to human error. When configuring a dynamic IP address, the DHCP server R device. A static IP address should be used for servers to ensure they are easy to find, access, and manage on the network. When configuring a static IP address, you need to include the IP address, subnet mask, SG U gateway, and DNS server's IP address. A static IP address is used when the DHCP server is disabled and clients are configured manually to join the network properly. Automatic Private IP Addressing (APIPA) is a feature of Windows-based operating systems that enables a computer to automatically assign itself an IP address when there is no Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) server available to perform that PA S function. When a host uses an APIPA address, it can communicate with other hosts on the same network using APIPA. Still, it cannot reach other networks or communicate with hosts who have managed to obtain a valid DHCP lease. An APIPA address is also known as a link-local address. QUESTION 32 What describes an IPv6 address of ::1? A. Public B. Broadcast C. Multicast D. Loopback AM A. B. C. D. EX 20 of 61 220-1101 Exam Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation OBJ-2.5: In IPv6, ::1 is the loopback address. In IPv4, the loopback address is 127.0.0.1. The loopback address is used to send a test signal sent to a network destination to diagnose problems. A broadcast address is an IP address that is used to target all systems on a specific subnet network instead of single hosts. A multicast address is a logical identifier for a group of hosts in a computer network that are available to process datagrams or frames intended to be multicast for a designated network service. The address shown is not a broadcast or multicast address. A public address is routable over the internet but ::1 is a loopback address and therefore not publicly routable on the internet. QUESTION 33 A computer technician is replacing a failed power supply in a customer's gaming workstation that contains multiple hard drives and a dedicated graphics card. Which of the following are the two most important things for the technician to consider when selecting a power supply replacement for this system? (Select TWO) A. A. Number and type of connectors B. B. Dual voltage C. C. Wattage rating D. D. Dual rail Correct Answer: AC Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation OBJ-3.5: The technician must ensure that they select a new power supply with a high enough wattage rating and the right number/type of connectors. Since this is a gaming workstation with several hard drives and a dedicated graphics card, it is likely to require a large wattage rating and many connectors. Wattage defines the amount of power needed to power all the hardware in the system. The number of connectors defines the number of devices that can be powered from the power supply. The number of connectors defines the types of devices that can be powered from the power supply. QUESTION 34 Jason has just returned to his office after vacation and is attempting to access training.com. He receives an error that he cannot connect to the website. He then tries he pings the IP address for training.com and gets a successful connection. Finally, he SG U R 21 of 61 U to connect to the company's local intranet server, which he can connect to without any issues. Next, 220-1101 Exam PA S tries to ping training.com by its domain name, and then he receives an error. Which of the following commands should Jason enter NEXT to try and resolve this issue A. ipconfig /all B. ipconfig /release C. ipconfig /renew D. ipconfig /flushdns AM A. B. C. D. Explanation/Reference: Explanation EX Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation OBJ-5.7: Whenever you have an issue where you can ping the server's IP, but you cannot access it by its domain name, it has something to do with DNS. Being able to troubleshoot issues with internet connections is an important part of being an IT technician or administrator. The ipconfig /flushdns command provides you with a means to flush and reset the contents of the DNS client resolver cache. During DNS troubleshooting, if necessary, you can use this procedure to discard negative cache entries from the cache, as well as, any other dynamically added entries. Resetting the cache does not eliminate entries that are preloaded from the local Hosts file. To eliminate those entries from the cache, remove them from the hosts.ini file instead. QUESTION 35 A computer technician is building a server that will run multiple virtual machines simultaneously. Which CPU technology should be selected so that the processor can utilize two logical cores? A. B. C. D. A. Multi-core processor B. Hyperthreading C. 32-bit CPU D. Dedicated GPU Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation OBJ-3.4: HyperThreading (HT) is an Intel CPU architecture implemented to expose two or more logical processors to the OS to deliver performance benefits. This allows the system to run multiple cores for each operating system in a virtualized environment. Since the question asked about logical cores and not physical cores, the answer is hyperthreading and not a multi-core processor. A 32-bit CPU is a hardware item and used by low-end notebooks or thin clients. A dedicated GPU is a graphics card and would not help with running multiple virtual machines. 22 of 61 220-1101 Exam QUESTION 36 You are installing a new projector in a customer's home theater room. After connecting the projector and powering it on, you notice some odd debris displayed on the screen. Which of the following should you do to correct this? A. B. C. D. A. Adjust color pattern B. Clean artifacts on the protective glass C. Degauss the projector D. Replace the bulb with correct lumens U Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation SG U R Explanation/Reference: Explanation OBJ-5.4: Based on the situation described, there appears to be some odd debris being displayed on the PA S screen. This sounds like some artifacts or debris on the lens or protective glass of the projector. If this is cleaned, the image should be resolved back to a clear picture. This is the first and cheapest option to attempt. If this doesn't work, then you may need to replace the bulb since a failing bulb can create artifacts, as well. QUESTION 37 During a disaster recovery, which of the following statements is true? Explanation/Reference: Explanation EX Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation AM A. A. Both a virtual machine and a physical server has the same downtime B. B. A virtual machine has more downtime than a physical server C. C. A virtual machine cannot be used for redundancy or load balancing D. D. A virtual machine has less downtime than a physical server OBJ-4.1: A virtual machine can usually be restored much faster than a physical server. Physical servers must be modified to fit the right drivers for the disk drives, NIC, and other necessary components whenever they must be rebuilt after a crash. Often, a new physical server will also be required to replace a faulty one, and then the right drivers are needed to ensure a smooth transition. Conversely, a virtual machine can be recreated using another instance, clone, or restoration from a backup in much less time. Therefore, the downtime associated with virtual machines and their restoral is much lower. 23 of 61 220-1101 Exam QUESTION 38 Your desktop computer is currently running out of internal storage space. You want to upgrade the workstation with more internal storage to store additional videos, photos, and backups. Which of the following is the BEST storage solution to avoid having to expand again next year while still meeting your need to store more data? A. B. C. D. A. 1 TB SSD B. 50 TB SAN C. 5 TB NAS D. 3 TB HDD Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation OBJ-3.3: Since you need an internal storage solution, you cannot use a NAS or SAN (since these are both network storage solutions). Instead, you have to select from the SSD or the HDD. In this question, we are primarily worried about the size of the storage being installed and not the storage speed. Therefore, we should choose the 3 TB HDD (hard disk drive) over the 1 TB SSD (solid-state drive) due to its larger size. QUESTION 39 Which of the following cloud services should an organization choose in order to deliver virtual desktops to end-users over the Internet on a per-user license basis? A. B. C. D. A. PaaS B. SaaS C. DaaS D. IaaS Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation U OBJ-4.1: Desktop as a Service (DaaS) is a cloud computing offering where a service provider delivers virtual desktops to end-users over the Internet, licensed with a per-user subscription. DaaS is often combined with Virtual Desktop Infrastructure. Platform as a Service (PaaS) is a complete development and deployment environment in the cloud, with resources that enable you to deliver everything from simple cloud-based apps to sophisticated, cloud-enabled enterprise applications. Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) is a type of cloud computing service that offers essential compute, storage, and networking resources on- R 24 of 61 220-1101 Exam SG U demand, on a pay-as-you-go basis. Software as a Service (SaaS) allows users to connect to and use cloudbased apps over the Internet. Common examples are email, calendaring, and office tools (such as Microsoft Office 365). SaaS provides a complete software solution that you purchase on a pay-as-you-go basis from a cloud service provider. QUESTION 40 You are attempting to troubleshoot a computer for a user. When you attempt to turn on the PA S computer by pressing the power button, the computer turns on, and the fan spins normally. There is no output displayed on the screen from the PCIe x16 video card. You turn off the computer, remove the processor and the memory, and attempt to power on the computer again. During the boot-up sequence, you do not hear any POST beep codes, but the fans still spin normally. Which of the The power supply's voltage switch is set to 240V but the power outlet is providing 110V The CMOS battery needs to be replaced The motherboard has failed and needs to be replaced The power supply wattage is too low for the components in the computer Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation EX A. B. C. D. AM following is the MOST likely cause of his issue? Explanation/Reference: Explanation OBJ-5.2: If your computer won't boot, but fans spin continuously, it indicates a problem with the power supply, the motherboard, or overheating could be occurring. When the power supply to your computer fails, it won't start or power up, but the fans spin (as described in this question). One of the reasons your computer won't boot but the fans spin could be a bad processor or memory chip. To isolate this as a reason, you should remove the processor and memory and then attempt to boot up the computer and listen for a POST beep code. In this case, we could eliminate the motherboard, processor, and memory as the issue's source since no POST beep codes were heard. Based on the symptoms and actions performed, it appears that the power supply is not providing enough wattage to all the components of the computer, which is why the fans are spinning (they use low wattage) while the rest of the system fails to boot. QUESTION 41 Jason's laptop display appears to be extremely dim. He set the brightness to the highest level and attempted to adjust the control, but the image still appears extremely dim. Jason notices that if he points his smartphone's flashlight at the screen, then he can see the image better. Which of the following components on the laptop should he replace to fix this issue? 25 of 61 220-1101 Exam A. B. C. D. A. LCD panel B. Inverter C. Graphics card D. Digitizer Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation OBJ-5.4: The inverter (also known as inverter board, screen inverter, or LCD inverter) is a part of the laptop's display assembly. The inverter is a small green board attached to the base of the LCD panel. In a laptop computer, the LCD screen relies on a backlight source to uniformly light up the screen, and the inverter acts as the power supply for this lighting source. If the inverter is faulty, the display will be too dim to easily see without an external light source like a flashlight. The digitizer is a touch-sensitive glass panel covering the LCD in a touchscreen assembly. The digitizer is used to convert touch events to digital signals that can be interpreted as different types of input. A liquid crystal display (LCD) panel is a type of display technology where the image is made up of liquid crystal cells controlled using electrical charges. The LCD panel is backlight by a cold cathode fluorescent (CCFL) bulb. A graphics processing unit (GPU) is a and programs on a customer's workstation with cloud-based resources? A. B. C. D. A. SaaS B. IaaS C. DaaS D. PaaS PA S Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation SG U R QUESTION 42 Which cloud computing concept is BEST described as focusing on the replacement of applications U microprocessor used on dedicated video adapter cards or within a CPU with integrated graphics capability to handle the mathematical calculations required to create immersive and 3D graphics. AM Explanation/Reference: Explanation OBJ-4.1: Software as a Service (SaaS) is ca loud computing service that enables a service provider to make applications available over the Internet to end-users. This can be a calendar, scheduling, invoicing, word processor, database, or other programs. For example, Google Docs and Office 365 are both word 26 of 61 EX processing SaaS solutions. Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) is a cloud computing service that enables a consumer to outsource computing equipment purchases and running their own data center. Platform as a 220-1101 Exam Service (PaaS) is a cloud computing service that enables consumers to rent fully configured systems that are set up for specific purposes. Desktop as a Service (DaaS) provides a full virtualized desktop environment from within a cloud-based service. This is also known as VDI (Virtualized Desktop Infrastructure) and is coming in large enterprise businesses focused on increasing their security and minimizing their operational expenses. QUESTION 43 You just rebooted your Windows 10 workstation, and the desktop's background picture looks strange. Upon closer examination, you notice that only a few hundred unique colors are being shown in the image. Which of the following settings should you reconfigure? A. B. C. D. A. Refresh rate B. App size C. Color depth D. Resolution Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation OBJ-5.4: Color depth is either the number of bits used to indicate the color of a single pixel in a bitmapped image or video frame buffer or the number of bits used for each color component in a single pixel. In Windows 10, you can display up to 32-bits of color depth if your monitor supports it. A larger color depth number allows more unique colors to be displayed. If you only have 4-bit color, for example, you can only have 16 colors. With an 8-bit color depth, you can see 256 colors. Normally, most Windows systems are set to 16-bit (65,536 colors), 24-bit (16.7 million colors), or 32-bit (4.2 billion colors). QUESTION 44 (This is a simulated PBQ. If you had this question on the real exam, you would be asked to drag-and-drop a label with the component's name on top of the appropriate cable's connector.) 27 of 61 EX AM PA S SG U R U 220-1101 Exam Using the image above, which of the following correctly identifies the fiber optic connector shown as Connector C? A. B. C. D. A. F B. ST C. SC D. LC Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation OBJ-3.1: This is an LC connector. A ST, SC, LC, or MTRJ connector is used to terminate a fiber optic cable. An LC, or Lucent connector, is a small form factor connector that combines the transmit and receive cables into a single square, snap-in connector. The F-type connector is used with coaxial cables, not fiber optic cables. An SC, or subscriber connector, is a general-purpose push/pull style connector that has a square, snap-in connector that latches with a simple push-pull motion. SC connectors are widely used in single-mode fiber optic systems. An ST, or straight tip, connector is a quick-release bayonet-style connector that has a long cylindrical connector. QUESTION 45 28 of 61 220-1101 Exam Which of the following is an open-source wireless communication protocol operating in the 2.4 GHz frequency band and is primarily used for home automation? A. B. C. D. A. Z-Wave B. Bluetooth C. Zigbee D. NFC Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation SG U R U OBJ-2.4: Zigbee is an open-source wireless communication protocol used for home automation. Zigbee is open-source, unlike Z-Wave, which is proprietary. Zigbee uses the 2.4 GHz frequency band. This higher frequency allows more data bandwidth at the expense of range than Z-Wave and the greater risk of interference from other 2.4 GHz radio communications. Zigbee supports more overall devices within a single network (65,000 compared to 232 for Z-wave), and there is no hop limit for communication between devices. Z-wave is a low-power wireless communications protocol used primarily for home automation. Z- wave uses radio frequencies in the 800 MHz and 900 MHz frequency ranges. Bluetooth is a wireless technology standard used for exchanging data between fixed and mobile devices over short distances using UHF radio waves in the industrial, scientific, and medical radio bands from 2.402 GHz to 2.480 GHz and building a personal area network (PAN). Bluetooth is commonly used when connecting wireless devices like mice, trackpads, headphones, and other devices. Near-field communication (NFC) is a set of communication protocols that enable two electronic devices, one of which is usually a portable device such as a smartphone, to establish communication by bringing them within 4 cm of each other. This is commonly used for contactless payment systems, transferring contacts, or transferring a file from one device to another. Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation 29 of 61 AM A. Resolution B. Aspect ratio C. Refresh rate D. Frame rate EX A. B. C. D. PA S QUESTION 46 What describes how many times the image on the monitor changes per second? 220-1101 Exam OBJ-1.2: Refresh rate is defined by the vertical scan frequency of a monitor and how many times in one second an image can be redrawn on the screen. LCD monitors have a fixed refresh rate based on the specifications of their panel. Generally, a monitor is rated with a refresh rate of 60 Hz, 72 Hz, or 120 Hz, with the higher refresh rate being considered better quality and easier on the user's eyes. For highperformance gaming systems, a 120 Hz monitor is desired for smoother motion and graphics. The aspect ratio is defined as the ratio of width to height in a display. The frame rate is defined as the number of times the image in a video stream changes per second as expressed in Hertz (Hz) or Frames per Second (fps). The yaw rate is a made-up term for the exam and is used as a distractor in this question. The resolution is the measure of the number of picture elements (pixels) that an imaging device can use to sample or display the image as measured in pixels per inch (PPI). QUESTION 47 Which of the following is a connection-oriented protocol that utilizes TCP? A. B. C. D. A. TFTP B. DHCP C. HTTPS D. SNMP Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation OBJ-2.1: The transmission control protocol (TCP) is a protocol in the TCP/IP suite that operates at the transport layer to provide connection-oriented, guaranteed delivery of packets. Hosts must first establish a session to exchange data and then confirm the delivery of packets using acknowledgments when using TCP. TCP is relatively slow in comparison to UDP. The hypertext transfer protocol secure (HTTPS) is a secure protocol used to provide web content to browsers using SSL/TLS encryption over TCP port 443. The simple network management protocol (SNMP) is a protocol for monitoring and managing network devices over UDP ports 161 and 162. A management system collates data sent by agents running on each device. The agents maintain a Management Information Base of configuration and usage data. An agent can also generate a trap, alerting the management system of some notable event (such as a printer that is out of paper). The trivial file transfer protocol (TFTP) is a protocol used to get a file from a remote host or put a file onto a remote host. TFTP is commonly used with embedded devices or systems that retrieve firmware, configuration information, or a system image during the boot process. TFTP operates over UDP port 69. The dynamic host control protocol (DHCP) is a protocol used to allocate IP addresses to a host when it joins a network. DHCP utilizes UDP ports 67 and 68. QUESTION 48 30 of 61 A. 443 B. 389 C. 427 D. 445 SG U A. B. C. D. R Which of the following ports is used by the Service Location Protocol when organizing and locating printers, databases, and other resources in a network? U 220-1101 Exam Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation PA S Explanation/Reference: Explanation AM OBJ-2.1: The Service Location Protocol (SLP) is a protocol or method of organizing and locating the resources (such as printers, disk drives, databases, e-mail directories, and schedulers) in a network. This is an alternative protocol to LDAP in newer networks. SLP uses port 427. The hypertext transfer protocol secure (HTTPS) is a secure protocol used to provide web content to browsers using SSL/TLS encryption over port 443. The lightweight directory access protocol (LDAP) is a protocol used to access and update information in an X.500-style network resource directory. LDAP uses port 389. The server message block (SMB)/common internet file system (CIFS) is a protocol used for requesting files from Windows servers and delivering them to clients. SMB allows machines to share files and printers, thereby making them avai