2009PHM Cardio Revision Quiz.pdf

13/10/2023, 09:31 2009PHM Cardio Revision Quiz NAME : CLASS : 2009PHM Cardio Revision Quiz 60 Questions 1. DATE : Which treatment using nephron drugs is recommended for hypertension? A high-dose thiazide B low-dose thiazide C drinking more water D low-dose loop E high-dose loop 2. S...

13/10/2023, 09:31 2009PHM Cardio Revision Quiz NAME : CLASS : 2009PHM Cardio Revision Quiz 60 Questions 1. DATE : Which treatment using nephron drugs is recommended for hypertension? A high-dose thiazide B low-dose thiazide C drinking more water D low-dose loop E high-dose loop 2. SuperQ: Which of the following would be relatively contraindicated in heart failure patients? A diltiazem B chloroquine C amlodipine D nifedipine E captopril 3. Which vasodilator drug can be used in hypertension, but only in emergencies? A nicorandil B glyceryl dinitrate C hydralazine D glyceryl trinitrate E telmisartan https://quizizz.com/print/quiz/65238ddc447f99f54b162a77 1/14 13/10/2023, 09:31 2009PHM Cardio Revision Quiz 4. Which of the following is NOT caused by thiazides? A excretion of Ca2+ B excretion of Na+ C blocking the Na+/Cl- symporter D increased uric acid in the blood 5. Which diuretic drug directly blocks the ENaCs (epithelial sodium channels) in the nephron? A eplerenone B artemisinin C amiloride D indapamide E frusemide 6. Which is NOT a role of the osmotic diuretic mannitol? A removing toxic substances in cases of poisoning B causing water to be retained in the lumen C improving renal function and reduce renal toxicity D blocking receptors/transporters in the nephron 7. Which drug WILL NOT potentiate antithrombin? A unfractionated heparin B danaparoid C enoxaparin D rivaroxiban 8. Which of the following is NOT an indication for the use of warfarin? A C Prevention of stroke Preventing a STEMI https://quizizz.com/print/quiz/65238ddc447f99f54b162a77 B Preventing thromboembolism (with prosthetic heart valves) D Prevention and treatment of VTE 2/14 13/10/2023, 09:31 2009PHM Cardio Revision Quiz 9. SuperQ: Which of the following is TRUE regarding warfarin's effects? A It binds to the ADP receptor C Genetic polymorphisms can affect the D dose required E It has a wide therapeutic index 10. Which of the following is MOST likely to cause severe thrombocytopenia? A unfractionated heparin B danaparoid C enoxaparin D dalteparin 11. Which of the following has the lowest risk of bleeding? A dalteparin B danaparoid C enoxaparin D unfractionated heparins 12. Which of the following is a univalent direct thrombin inhibitor? A fondaparinux B dabigatran C bivalirudin D rivaroxiban 13. SuperQ: Tenecteplase is an enzyme. What conversion does it carry out? A Fibrin C factor IX 14. Which drug acts as an antifibrinolytic? A C B It is metabolised by hepatic CYP3A4 It has a short half-life → fibrin products B plasminogen → factor Xa D fibrinogen heparin B ticagrelor tranexamic acid D warfarin https://quizizz.com/print/quiz/65238ddc447f99f54b162a77 → plasmin → degradation products 3/14 13/10/2023, 09:31 15. A 2009PHM Cardio Revision Quiz ADP binds to the P2Y12 receptor on platelets. What is an outcome of this? Breakdown of fibrinogen B Expression of platelet GPIIb/IIIa receptors C Blocking of platelet GPIIb/IIIa receptors 16. Which drug binds reversibly to the P2Y12 receptor? A ticagrelor B prasugrel C dipyridamole D clopidogrel 17. Which of the following is an antibody drug prep that binds to platelet GP IIb/IIIa receptors? A acetylsalicyclic acid B eptifibatide C tirofiban D abciximab 18. Which drug binds to bile acids (e.g. cholic acid) and prevents them from being absorbed? A gemfibrizol B atorvastatin C niacin D colestipol 19. Which drug must first be glucuronidated, and can then block absorption of biliary & dietary cholesterol? A cholestyramine B lovastatin C ezetimibe D fenofibrate 20. Which is a suitable first-line drug for atrial fibrillation? A verapamil B digoxin C amiodarone D urokinase https://quizizz.com/print/quiz/65238ddc447f99f54b162a77 D Anti-thrombosis 4/14 13/10/2023, 09:31 21. 2009PHM Cardio Revision Quiz Which of the following medications is commonly used to treat hypertension by blocking the action of angiotensin II? A Diltiazem B Candesartan C Ramipril D Amiloride E Carvedilol 22. Which medication is typically used as first-line therapy for the acute treatment of angina pectoris to relieve chest pain? A perindopril B aspirin C nitroglycerin D metoprolol E ibuprofen 23. Which of the following procedures is least appropriate in a patient currently experiencing a STEMI? A C Administer thrombolytic therapy CABG B Administer antiplatelet therapy D Perform percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) E Morphine 24. SuperQ: Which class of medications is commonly used as a first-line therapy for the management of stable angina and can be taken prophylactically to prevent angina episodes? A Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors B C Beta blockers D E Antiplatelet agents https://quizizz.com/print/quiz/65238ddc447f99f54b162a77 HMGCoA inhibitors P2Y12 inhibitors 5/14 13/10/2023, 09:31 25. 2009PHM Cardio Revision Quiz A patient with a recent myocardial infarction is prescribed a medication to reduce the risk of further cardiovascular events. Which drug is recommended for secondary prevention in this scenario? A atenolol B furosemide C enoxaparin D amlodopine E bisoprolol 26. In heart failure, which neurohormonal system is commonly targeted to reduce the progression of the disease and improve outcomes? A Corticotropin system B Sympathetic nervous system C Parasympathetic nervous system D Renin-aldosterone system E Glucocorticoid system 27. Perindopril is utilised in the management of heart failure with reduced ejection fraction (HFrEF) to... A inhibit the RAAS to reduce cardiac remodelling B preserve kidney function C improve symptoms E slow the heart rate 28. Perindopril is utilised in the management of heart failure with preserved ejection D reduce blood pressure fraction (HFpEF) to.... A slow the heart rate C improve symptoms E reduce blood pressure https://quizizz.com/print/quiz/65238ddc447f99f54b162a77 B inhibit the RAAS to reduce cardiac remodelling D preserve kidney function 6/14 13/10/2023, 09:31 2009PHM Cardio Revision Quiz 29. Which of the following drugs is the most potent for lowering LDL levels? A Pravastatin B Atorvastatin C Simvastatin D Lovastatin E Rosuvastatin 30. A patient with heart failure is prescribed digoxin. What is the primary mechanism of action of digoxin in the management of heart failure? A Blockade of beta-adrenergic receptors C Inhibition of angiotensin-converting enzyme E Stimulation of the sympathetic nervous system B D Inhibition of the sodium-potassium ATPase pump Activation of the renin-angiotensinaldosterone system 31. Which laboratory parameter should be monitored regularly in patients receiving aldosterone antagonists as part of their heart failure therapy? A sodium levels B cholesterol levels C blood pressure D potassium levels E white blood cell count 32. SuperQ: In patients with heart failure, what is the primary goal of treatment with beta-blockers? A Improve cardiac contractility B Reduce diuresis C Decrease heart rate D Inhibit the RAAS E Reduce cardiomegaly https://quizizz.com/print/quiz/65238ddc447f99f54b162a77 7/14 13/10/2023, 09:31 33. 2009PHM Cardio Revision Quiz Which class of antihypertensive medications is commonly considered as a first-line treatment for hypertension in most patients due to its proven efficacy and tolerability? A Non-dihydropyridine calcium channel B blockers ACE inhibitors C Minerocorticoid receptor antagonists D Diuretics E Beta blockers 34. A patient with hypertension is prescribed an ACE inhibitor. What potential side effect should be monitored, especially in the initial weeks of therapy? A Dizziness B Hyperkalaemia C Muscle pain D Liver enzymes E Hypocalcaemia 35. Which dietary component is often recommended to be limited in patients with hypertension to help lower blood pressure? A Sodium B Magnesium C Iron D Potassium E Calcium 36. If a patient's blood pressure remains uncontrolled on monotherapy, what is the recommended next step in hypertension management? A C E Increase the dosage of the current antihypertensive drug. Switch to a different monotherapy drug. B D Refer the patient to a specialist for further evaluation. Add a second antihypertensive drug from a different class. Stop the current antihypertensive drug. https://quizizz.com/print/quiz/65238ddc447f99f54b162a77 8/14 13/10/2023, 09:31 2009PHM Cardio Revision Quiz 37. What is the recommended blood pressure target for most adults with hypertension, according to current guidelines? A less than 160/100 mmHg B less than 150/90 mmHg C less than 120/80 mmHg D less than 140/90 mmHg E less than 130/80 mmHg 38. In ACS, what type of chest pain is most commonly reported by patients? A Sharp and stabbing B Dull ache C Squeezing or pressure-like D Radiating pain E Burning sensation 39. Which cardiac biomarker is considered a specific marker for myocardial injury and is often elevated in ACS? A LDH B CK-MB C troponin D BNP E myoglobin 40. When a patient presents with suspected ACS, what initial diagnostic test is commonly performed to assess for cardiac ischemia? A Complete blood count (CBC) B Electrocardiogram (ECG) C Echocardiogram D Cardiac stress test E Chest X-ray https://quizizz.com/print/quiz/65238ddc447f99f54b162a77 9/14 13/10/2023, 09:31 2009PHM Cardio Revision Quiz 41. Which of the following best defines an arrhythmia? A A condition where the heart beats irregularly C E A condition where the heart beats in a regular pattern B D A condition where the heart beats too slowly An abnormal heart rhythm A condition where the heart beats too fast 42. Which part of the heart is responsible for initiating the normal electrical impulses that regulate heart rhythm? A pulmonary artery B atrioventricular (AV) node C aorta D ventricles E sinoatrial (SA) node 43. A patient presents with a heart rate of 35 beats per minute, dizziness, and near fainting. What type of arrhythmia is most likely responsible for these symptoms? A Ventricular fibrillation B Tachycardia C Atrial fibrillation D Bradycardia E Premature ventricular contractions 44. SuperQ: Which arrhythmia is characterized by a chaotic, irregularly irregular heart rhythm with no discernible P-waves on an ECG? A atrial flutter B ventricular fibrillation C supraventricular tachycardia D sinus bradycardia E atrial fibrillation https://quizizz.com/print/quiz/65238ddc447f99f54b162a77 10/14 13/10/2023, 09:31 2009PHM Cardio Revision Quiz 45. What is the primary goal of pharmacological therapy in the management of atrial fibrillation? A To control heart rate and rhythm B To promote ventricular fibrillation C To increase heart rate and rhythm D To prevent blood clot formation E To reduce blood pressure 46. Dyslipidemia is an abnormal ratio of which lipoproteins? A LDL vs TG B LDL vs HDL C LDL vs TG D Any of these options E TC vs TG 47. Which of the following drugs IS NOT indicated for primary prevention of cardiovascular disease? A atorvastatin B amiloride C ramipril D amlodipine E aspirin 48. Which of the following drugs is suitable for treating hypertension? A lercanidipine B diltiazem C furosemide D metoprolol E verapamil 49. Which drug class IS NOT used first-line for BP due to risk of stroke AND diabetes? A ACEi B Loop diuretics C AT2 antagonists D Thiazide diuretics E Beta blockers https://quizizz.com/print/quiz/65238ddc447f99f54b162a77 11/14 13/10/2023, 09:31 2009PHM Cardio Revision Quiz 50. Identify the structure on the right hand side of this equation. A cholesterol B mevalonic acid C squalene D lanosterol E statin 51. Stable angina is ________-led ischemia? A infarct B rupture C fibrotic D demand E supply 52. Which of the following CCBs is preferred 1st line for the prevention of angina? A nifedipine B metoprolol C lercanidipine D amlodopine E diltiazem 53. SuperQ: A patient presents with new onset chest pain. They have no adverse ECG changes and a raised troponin. Which coronary syndrome is most likely to be diagnosed? A STEMI B NSTEMI C cardiac arrest D unstable angina E angina 54. What is the INR target range for a patient taking warfarin non-valvular AF? A <1.8 B 2.0-3.0 C >2.0 D 2.5-3.5 E >4.0 https://quizizz.com/print/quiz/65238ddc447f99f54b162a77 12/14 13/10/2023, 09:31 2009PHM Cardio Revision Quiz 55. Which of the following drugs should be considered in ALL heart failure patients? A ACEi B Aldosterone antagonists C ARNi D SGLT2i E Digoxin 56. Which of the following drugs should be used with caution in heart failure patients that present with ejection fractions of greater than 50%? A Beta blockers B Digoxin C aldosterone antagonists D ACEi E Loop diuretics 57. Which of the following drugs is this molecule MOST likely to represent? A Non-dihydro CCB B Dihydro CCB C ACEi D ARB E Beta blocker 58. Which of the following drugs is this molecule MOST likely to represent? A ACEi B Beta blocker C Non-dihydro CCB D Dihydro CCB E ARB https://quizizz.com/print/quiz/65238ddc447f99f54b162a77 13/14 13/10/2023, 09:31 2009PHM Cardio Revision Quiz 59. Which of the following drugs is this molecule MOST likely to represent? A Dihydro CCB B ACEi C Beta blocker D Non-dihydro CCB E ARB 60. SuperQ: Substitution of the hetrocyclic group at position "x" is best in which of the following positions for activity in blood pressure management? A position 1 B position 2 C position 3 D position 4 E position 0 https://quizizz.com/print/quiz/65238ddc447f99f54b162a77 14/14