1 LPJ Qatar Question Bank.pdf

Latest Pilot Jobs - List MultipleQuestionBankQuiz latestpilotjobs.com/multipleQuestionBankQuiz/list/category/4.html Q.1 Which aeroplane behaviour will be corrected by a yaw damper? Spiral dive. Buffeting. Dutch roll. Tuck under. Correct Answer: C Q.2 One disadvantage of the swept back wing is it's stalling characteristics. At the stall: wing root stall will occur first, which produces a rolling moment tip stall will occur first, which produces a nose-down moment leading edge stall will occur first, which produces a nose-down moment tip stall will occur first, which produces a pitch-up moment Correct Answer: D Q.3 lf an aeroplane flies in the ground effect the lift is increased and the drag is decreased the effective angle of attack is decreased. the induced angle of attack is increased. drag and lift are reduced. Correct Answer: A Q.4 Compared with stalling airspeed (VS) in a given configuration, the airspeed at which stick shaker will be. 1.30 VS. 1.12 VS. greater than VS. 1.20 VS. Correct Answer: C 1/149 Q.5 Which one of the following systems suppresses the tendency to "Dutch roll"? Rudder limiter. Yaw damper. Roll spoilers. Spoiler mixer. Correct Answer: B Q.6 The high speed buffet is induced by boundary layer separation due to shock waves. boundary layer control. expansion waves on the wing upper side. a shift of the center of gravity. Correct Answer: A Q.7 When “spoilers” are used as speed brakes: CLmax of the polar curve is not affected. they do not affect wheel braking action during landing at same angle of attack, CL remains unaffected. at same angle of attack, CD is increased and CL is decreased. Correct Answer: D Q.8 What factors determine the distance travelled over the ground of an aeroplane in a glide ? The wind and the aeroplane’s mass The wind and CLmax The wind and weight together with power loading, which is the ratio of power output to the weight The wind and the lift/drag ratio, which changes with angle of attack Correct Answer: D Q.9 The center of gravity moving aft will : 2/149 increase the elevator up effectiveness. decrease the elevator up effectiveness. not affect the elevator up or down effectiveness. increase or decrease the elevator up effectiveness, depending on wing location. Correct Answer: A Q.10 Which of the following statements about stall speed is correct ? Decreasing the angle of sweep of the wing will decrease the stall speed. Increasing the angle of sweep of the wing will decrease the stall speed. Use of a T-tail will decrease the stall speed. Increasing the anhedral of the wing will decrease the stall speed. Correct Answer: A Q.11 The flight Mach number is 0.8 and the TAS is 400 kts. The speed of sound is: 500 kts 320 kts 480 kts 600 kts Correct Answer: A Q.12 When the trailing edge flaps are deflected in level flight, the change in pitch moment will be: nose up. zero. dependent on c.g. location. nose down. Correct Answer: D Q.13 Which Statement with respect to the climb is correct ? 3/149 At constant Mach number the lAS increases At constant TAS the mach number decreases At constant lAS the mach number increases At constant lAS the TAS decreases Correct Answer: C Q.14 The stalling speed in lAS will change according to the following factors: Will increase during turn, increased mass and an aft c.g. location Will decrease with a forward c.g. location, lower altitude and due to the slip stream from a propeller on an engine located forward of the wing Will increase with increased load factor, icing conditions and more flaps May increase during turbulence and will always increase when banking in a turn Correct Answer: D Q.15 A jet transport aeroplane is in a straight climb at a constant IAS and constant weight. The operational limit that may be exceeded is: MD MMO VMO VA Correct Answer: B Q.16 A jet aeroplane is rolled into a turn, while maintaining airspeed and holding altitude. In such a case, the pilot has to: increase angle of attack and keep thrust unchanged. increase thrust and angle of attack. increase thrust and keep angle of attack unchanged. increase thrust and decrease angle of attack. Correct Answer: B Q.17 After take-off the slats are always retracted later than the flaps. Why ? 4/149 Because FLAPS EXTENDED gives a large decrease in stall speed with relatively less drag. Because SLATS EXTENDED gives a large decrease in stall speed with relatively less drag. Because SLATS EXTENDED provides a better view from the cockpit than FLAPS EXTENDED. Because VMCA with SLATS EXTENDED is more favourable compared to the FLAPS EXTENDED situation. Correct Answer: B Q.18 What increases the stalling angle of attack ? Use of : flaps spoilers fuselage mounted speed-brakes slats Correct Answer: D Q.19 The trailing edge flaps when extended : significantly increase the angle of attack for maximum lift significantly lower the drag worsen the best angle of glide increase the zero lift angle of attack Correct Answer: C Q.20 Ground effect has the following influence on the landing distance: decreases. does not change. increases, only if the landing flaps are fully extended. increases. Correct Answer: D Q.21 A light twin is in a turn at 20 degrees bank and 150 kt TAS. A more heavy jet aeroplane at the same bank and the same speed will: 5/149 turn at a higher turn rate turn at the same turn radius. turn at a bigger turn radius. turn at a smaller turn radius. Correct Answer: B Q.22 A commercial jet aeroplane is performing a straight descent at a constant Mach Number with constant weight. The operational limit that may be exceeded is: VNE. VD. MMO. VMO. Correct Answer: D Q.23 Why is VMCG determined with the nose wheel steering disconnected? Because nose wheel steering has no effect on the value of VMCG. Because the value of VMCG must also be applicable on wet and/or slippery runways. Because the nose wheel steering could become inoperative after an engine has failed. Because it must be possible to abort the take-off even after the nose wheel has already been lifted off the ground. Correct Answer: B Q.24 Climbing at a constant Mach Number up to FL 350 the TAS will: remain constant. decrease. first increase, then decrease. increase. Correct Answer: B Q.25 Winglets 6/149 decrease the induced drag. decrease the static lateral stability. increase the manoeuvrability. create an elliptical lift distribution. Correct Answer: A Q.26 The boundary layer of a wing is caused by: a layer on the wing in which the stream velocity is lower than the free stream velocity, due to friction. the normal shock wave at transonic speeds. a turbulent stream pattern around the wing. suction at the upper wing side. Correct Answer: A Q.27 Consider an aerofoil with a certain camber and a positive angle of attack. At which location will the highest flow velocity occur? In the stagnation point Upper side Lower side In front of the stagnation point Correct Answer: B Q.28 The buffet margin: is always greatest after a step climb has been executed. decreases during a descent with a constant Mach number. is always positive at Mach numbers below MMO. increases during a descent with a constant IAS. Correct Answer: D Q.29 Which of the following factors will lead to an increase of ground distance during a glide? 7/149 decrease of aeroplane weight tailwind headwind faster descent speed Correct Answer: B Q.30 How does VMCG change with increasing field elevation and temperature ? increases, because at a lower density a larger IAS is necessary to generate the rudder force. increases, because VMCG is related to V1 and VR and those speeds increase if the density decreases. decreases, because the engine thrust decreases. decreases, because VMCG is expressed in IAS and the IAS decreases with TAS constant and decreasing density Correct Answer: C Q.31 Rolling is the rotation of the aeroplane about the wing axis longitudinal axis vertical axis lateral axis Correct Answer: B Q.32 The difference between IAS and TAS will: increase at decreasing temperature. increase at increasing air density. decrease at increasing speed. decrease at decreasing altitude. Correct Answer: D Q.33 Floating due to ground effect during an approach to land will occur : 8/149 when a higher than normal angle attack is used at a speed approaching the stall when the height is less than halve of the length of the wing span above the surface when the height is less than twice the length of the wing span above the surface Correct Answer: C Q.34 At higher altitudes, the stall speed(IAS): increases decreases remains the same decreases until the tropopause Correct Answer: A Q.35 In a twin-engine jet powered aeroplane (engines mounted below the low wings) the thrust is suddenly increased. Which elevator deflection will be required to maintain the pitching moment zero ? No elevator movement will required because the thrust line of the engines remains unchanged. It depends on the position of the centre of gravity. Down. Up. Correct Answer: C Q.36 The life force, acting on an aerofoil : is mainly caused by overpressure at the underside of the aerofoil. is maximum at an angle of attack of 2 degrees. is mainly caused by suction on the upper side of the aerofoil. increases, proportional to the angle of attack until 40 degrees. Correct Answer: C Q.37 During initiation of a turn with speed brakes extended, the roll spoiler function induces a spoiler deflection: 9/149 downward on the up going wing and upward on the down going wing. upward on the up going wing and downward on the down going wing. on the up going wing only. on the down going wing only. Correct Answer: A Q.38 The stall speed : does not depend on weight increases with the length of the wingspan increases with increased weight decreases with an increased weight Correct Answer: C Q.39 increase of wing loading will: increase the stall speeds. decrease the minimum gliding angle. increase CLmax. decrease take off speeds. Correct Answer: A Q.40 The speed of sound is affected by the: temperature of the air. density of the air. pressure of the air. humidity of the air. Correct Answer: A Q.41 The bank angle in a rate-one turn depends on: 10/149 TAS. weight. load factor. wind. Correct Answer: A Q.42 Rotation about the lateral axis is called : yawing. slipping. pitching. rolling. Correct Answer: C Q.43 An aircraft manoeuvring in an airport's circuit receives a series of red flashes from the control tower. This signifies that the aircraft must : not land for the moment regardless of previous instructions. not land because the airport is not available for landing. give way to another aircraft. return to land and that clearance to land will be communicated in due course. Correct Answer: B Q.44 Which code shall be used on Mode "A" to provide recognition of an aircraft subjected to unlawful interference? Code 7600. Code 2000. Code7500. Code 7700. Correct Answer: C Q.45 For the transport of potentially disruptive passengers some supplementary safeguards are to be observed such as : 11/149 the boarding will be at the pilot in command discretion the boarding has tone done at the state discretion boarding prior to all passengers boarding after to all other passengers Correct Answer: C Q.46 Under Which Conditions may an aircraft on a straight - in- VOR approach continue its descend below the OCA? When seems possible to land When the aircraft is in visual contact with the ground and with the runway lights in sight When the aircraft has the control tower in sight When the aircraft is in contact with the ground but not with the runway in sight yet Correct Answer: B Q.47 An approaching aircraft may descent below the MSA if : the pilot is following the published approach procedure all mentioned answers are correct the pilot has the field and the underlying terrain in sight and will keep it in sight the aircraft gets radar vectors Correct Answer: B Q.48 An aircraft is flying under Instrument Flight Rules in an area where the visibility is unlimited and the sky is clear (free of clouds) ,when it totally loses radio communication. The procedure to be followed is: adopt a VFR flight level and continue flight onto destination continue flight onto destination, complying with last received clearances then with filed flight plan descend to En-route Minimum Safe altitude and join closest airfield open to IFR operations land on the closet appropriate aerodrome, then advise Air Traffic Service of landing Correct Answer: D Q.49 The runway edge lights shall be: 12/149 white blue green red Correct Answer: A Q.50 When a fixed - distance marking has to be provided this marking shall commence at : 450 m from threshold 600 m from threshold 300 m from threshold 150 m from threshold Correct Answer: C Q.51 In a standard holding pattern turns are made : to the left in a direction depending on the entry in a direction depending on the wind to the right Correct Answer: D Q.52 In order to meet wake turbulence criteria, for arriving aircraft and using timed approaches, what minima shall be applied to aircraft landing behind a heavy or a medium aircraft ? medium aircraft behind heavy aircraft - 2 minutes medium aircraft other medium aircraft- 2 minutes light aircraft behind medium aircraft- 4 minutes medium aircraft behind heavy aircraft- 3 minutes Correct Answer: A Q.53 The pilot of an aircraft losing two-way communication shall set the transponder to Mode A code: 13/149 7700 7600 2000 7500 Correct Answer: B Q.54 What will be your action if you can not comply with a standard holding pattern ? Follow the radio communication failure procedure inform the ATC immediately and request a revised clearance. a non-Standard holding patterns is permitted. it is permitted to deviate from the prescribed holding pattern at pilots discretion. Correct Answer: B Q.55 Runway threshold lights shall be : Fixed lights showing green or white colours. Fixed unidirectional lights showing green in the direction of approach to the runway Fixed unidirectional lights showing white in the direction of approach to the runway. Fixed lights green colours. Correct Answer: B Q.56 ASDA" (Acceleration Stop Distance Available) is : The Length of the take-off run available plus the length of stopway (if stopway provided) The Length of the runway plus the length of stopway available (if stopway provided) The Length of the take-off run available plus the length of stopway and clearway (if provided) The Length of the take-off run available plus the length of the clearway. Correct Answer: A Q.57 For a Category I precision Approach, the decision height cannot be lower than : 14/149 150 ft 100 ft 200 ft 250 ft Correct Answer: C Q.58 Which procedure do you follow if during an IFR flight in VMC you have two way communication failure? Return to the Aerodrome of departure. Continue the fight maintaining VMC and land as soon as Practicable. Continue the fight at the assigned level and route; start approach at yours ETA. Maintain Your assigned level and route and land at the nearest aerodrome that has VMC conditions. Correct Answer: B Q.59 Taxiway centre line lights other than an exit taxiway shall be : Fixed lights showing blue. Fixed lights showing yellow. Fixed lights showing white. Fixed lights showing green. Correct Answer: D Q.60 While on IFR flight, a pilot has an emergency which causes a deviation from an ATC clearance. What Action Must be taken ? Squawk 7700 The appropriate ATC until shall be notified of the action taken as soon as circumstances permit Request an amended clearance or cancel the IFR flight plan Submit a detailed report to ATC within 24 hours Correct Answer: B Q.61 "TODA" take-off distance available is : 15/149 The length of the take-off run available plus the length of clearway available (if provided). The length of the runway available plus the length of clearway available (if provided). The length of the take-off run available plus the length of the stopway and (if provided). The length of the take-off run available plus the length of the stopway. Correct Answer: A Q.62 Above flight level FL 290 in non-RVSM airspace, the vertical flight separation between aircraft on the same direction is : 3 000 feet 1 500 feet 4 000 feet 2 000 feet Correct Answer: C Q.63 A circling approach is : A flight manoeuvre to be performed only under radar vectoring. A contact flight manoeuvre A visual manoeuvre keeping the runway in sight. A visual manoeuvre to be conducted only in IMC Correct Answer: C Q.64 A precision approach runway CAT. II is an instrument runway served by ILS and visual aids intend for operations down to : a RVR of 250 meters and a DH of not less than 200 ft. a RVR of 500 meters and a DH of not less than 200 ft. a RVR of 500 meters and a DH of not less than 100 ft. a RVR of 300-450 meters and a DH of not less than 100 ft. Correct Answer: D Q.65 What is a "barrette"? 16/149 a CAT II or III holding position. a frangible structure on which approach lights are fixed. three or more ground lights closely spaced together to appear as a bar of lights. a heighted obstacle near the runway and/or taxiway. Correct Answer: C Q.66 During a circling approach, what action should be taken if contact is lost with the aerodrome on the down wind leg? Request an amended clearance Initiate a missed approach Descend to OCL/ACH and in the hope that the visibility is better at a lower altitude Maintain your circling altitude and turn towards the aerodrome Correct Answer: B Q.67 Where State has not established minimum IFR altitudes, the minimum height of an aircraft above the highest obstacle over high terrain, or in mountainous areas shall be for an IFR flight : at least 2000 feet within 8KM of the estimated position at least 1000 feet within 5KM of the estimated position at least 1000 feet within 8KM of the estimated position at least 2000 feet within 5KM of the estimated position Correct Answer: A Q.68 What is the outbound timing in a holding pattern above FL 140? 2 minute 30 seconds. 1 minute 30 seconds. 1 minute. 2 minutes. Correct Answer: B Q.69 What does the abbreviation DER mean? 17/149 Distance end of route. Departure end of route. Distance end of runway. Departure end of runway. Correct Answer: D Q.70 Taxiway edge lights shall be: Fixed showing blue. Fixed showing green. Fixed showing yellow. Flashing showing blue. Correct Answer: A Q.71 The STOPWAY is a defined rectangular area on the ground at the end of take-off run available prepared as a suitable area where: An aircraft taking-off or landing can be stopped An aircraft can be stopped in the case of an abandoned take-off. A landing aircraft can be stopped if overcoming the end of runway. A landing aircraft can be stopped only in emergency. Correct Answer: B Q.72 In a precision approach (ILS), obstacle clearance surfaces assume that the pilot does not normally deviate from the centreline, after being established on track, more than: Half a scale deflection. One scale deflection. A quarter of scale deflection. One and a half of scale deflection. Correct Answer: A Q.73 Normally all turns, which are requested by a radar controller have to be executed as: 18/149 the weather permits Standard rate turns if not otherwise instructed by ATC. Decided on pilot's discretion. Prescribed by the aircraft operations. Correct Answer: B Q.74 Normally missed approach procedures are based on a nominal missed approach climb gradient of: 0.8%. 3.3%. 5%. 2.5%. Correct Answer: D Q.75 In the event of a delay of a controlled flight, the submitted flight plan should be amended or cancelled and a new flight plan submitted when the delay is: 30 minutes in excess of the estimated time off blocks. 30 minutes in excess of the estimated time of departure. 60 minutes in excess of the estimated time off blocks. 60 minutes in excess of the estimated time of departure. Correct Answer: A Q.76 Which of the following correctly lists special purpose codes that are to be used in conjunction with Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR)? Distress 7700. Hijacking 7600.Communication failure 7500. Distress 7500. Hijacking 7700.Communication failure 7600. Distress 7600. Hijacking 7500.Communication failure 7700. Distress 7700. Hijacking 7500.Communication failure 7600. Correct Answer: D Q.77 The air traffic control unit has reported 'radar contact', what does that mean to the pilot? 19/149 The radar identity of the aircraft has been established The pilot does not have to follow up the position of the aircraft The aircraft is subject to positive control Position reports may be omitted Correct Answer: A Q.78 Which of the following flights has the greatest priority to land? VIP (Head of state) aircraft Hospital aircraft carrying a very sick person needing immediate medical attention Emergency aircraft Military aircraft Correct Answer: C Q.79 The radar separation minimum may be reduced but not below: 3.0 NM. 5.0 NM. 2.0 NM. 1.5 NM. Correct Answer: A Q.80 You have received holding instructions for a radio fix. The published procedure is: all turns to the right, 1 minute outbound, inbound MC Track 052°. You are approaching the fix on inbound Magnetic Track 232°. Select the available entry procedure. Either "off set " or "parallel". Off set. Parallel. Direct. Correct Answer: A Q.81 Cruising level IFR during cruise within controlled airspace shall be given as flight level (FL) 20/149 When QNH is higher than the standard pressure 1013 hPa only in airspace class A if the obstacle clearance is more than 2000 feet Above the transition altitude when applicable Correct Answer: D Q.82 Who is responsible for an ATC clearance to be safe in respect to terrain clearance? The ATC. The air traffic service reporting office when accepting the flight plan. The pilot in command. The aircraft operator. Correct Answer: C Q.83 An aircraft intercepted by another aircraft shall immediately attempt to establish radio communication with the intercepting aircraft on the following frequencies: 121.5 MHz - 125.5 MHz 121.5 MHz - 282.8 MHz 243 MHz – 125.5Mhz 121.5 MHz – 243 MHz Correct Answer: D Q.84 Which manoeuvre shall be executed by an intercepting aircraft if the pilot wants to communicate to the intercepted aircraft “YOU MAY PROCEED” ? Circling the intercepted aircraft in a clock-wise pattern Rocking the wings and flashing the navigational lights. Executing a climbing turn of 90 degrees or more without crossing the line of flight of the intercepted aircraft Rocking wings twice and crossing in front of the aircraft. Correct Answer: C Q.85 “Clearway” is defined rectangular area established to: 21/149 Reduce the risk of damage to aircraft running off a runway. Protect aircraft during take-off or landing operations. Permit the aircraft to stop if it fails the take-off. Permit aircraft to make a portion of its initial climb to a specific height. Correct Answer: D Q.86 Runway threshold identification lights, when provided, should be: Flashing white. Fixed green. Flashing green. Fixed white. Correct Answer: A Q.87 In an instrument approach procedure, the segment in which alignment and descent for landing are made is called: Initial approach segment. Intermediate approach segment. Arrival segment. Final approach segment. Correct Answer: D Q.88 In a holding pattern all turns are to be made at a : maximum bank angle of 25° rate of 3° per second or at a bank angle of 20°, which ever requires the lesser bank. rate of 3° per second or at a bank angle of 25°, which ever requires the lesser bank. rate of 3° per second. Correct Answer: C Q.89 if an ATC clearance is not suitable to the pilot in command of an aircraft: 22/149 The pilot should propose another clearance to the ATC concerned. He may request and, if practicable, obtain an amended clearance. He may request another clearance and the ATC concerned has to accept the pilot request. The pilot has to accept ATC clearance because it has been based on the flight plan filed with ATC. Correct Answer: B Q.90 If in an instrument departure procedure the track to be followed by the aeroplane is published, the pilot is expected: To request from ATC different heading for wind correction. To ignore the wind and proceed on an heading equal to the track. To request clearance from ATC for applying a wind correction. To correct for known wind to remain within the protected airspace. Correct Answer: D Q.91 An aircraft is considered to be maintaining its assigned level as long as the SSR mode C derived level information indicated that it is within: +/-250 ft of the assigned level. +/-500 ft of the assigned level. +/-300 ft of the assigned level. +/-200 ft of the assigned level. Correct Answer: C Q.92 ATIS broadcast messages containing departure and arrival information should include cloud cover, when the clouds are : below 900m (3.000 ft) or below the highest minimum sector altitude, whichever is the greater below 2 000m (600 ft) or below the highest minimum sector altitude, whichever is the greater cumulonimbus below 1 500m (5.000ft) below the highest minimum sector altitude, whichever is the greater Correct Answer: D Q.93 The MSA, which must be established around a navigation facility, is in general valid within a sector of : 23/149 15 NM 30 NM 25 NM 10 NM Correct Answer: C Q.94 A signalman will ask the pilot to apply parking brakes by the following signals: Arm down, palms facing inwards, moving arms from extended position inwards. Crossing arms extended above his head Horizontally moving his hands, fingers extended, palms toward ground Raise arm and hand, with fingers extended, horizontally in front of body, then the clench fist Correct Answer: D Q.95 During an IFR flight in VMC in controlled airspace you experience a two-way radio communication failure. You will Land at the nearest suitable aerodrome maintaining VMC and inform ATC Select A7600 and continue according current flight plan to destination Descend to the flight level submitted for that portion of flight Land at the nearest suitable aerodrome and inform ATC Correct Answer: A Q.96 What is the outbound timing in a holding pattern up to FL 140? 2 minutes 1.5 minutes 30 seconds 1 minute Correct Answer: D Q.97 During an instrument approach followed by a missed approach, the minimum obstacle clearance (MOC) in the intermediate phase of this missed approach is : 24/149 120 m (384 ft) 30 m (98 ft) 50 m (164 ft) 90 m (295 ft) Correct Answer: B Q.98 The Person who has final authority as to the disposition of an aircraft during flight time is : The aircraft owner The airliner operator The commander The ATC controller if the aircraft is flying in a controlled Correct Answer: C Q.99 IF visual reference is lost while circling to land from an instrument approach, it is expected that the pilot will make an initial climbing turn towards the : Landing runway MAP FAF Final missed approach track Correct Answer: A Q.100 Standard airway holding pattern below 14 000 ft ? Right hand turns/ 1 minute outbound Right hand turns/ 1. 5 minutes outbound Left hand turns/ 1 minute outbound Left hand turns/ 1.5 minutes outbound Correct Answer: A Q.101 The pilot of a departing aircraft flying under IFR shall change the altimeter setting from QNH to standard setting 1013.25 hPa when passing : 25/149 Transition level. The level specified by ATC. Transition altitude. Transition layer. Correct Answer: C Q.102 Transition from altitude to flight level, and vice-versa is done : at transition level during climb and transition altitude during descent. only at transition altitude. only at transition level. at transition altitude during climb and transition level during descent. Correct Answer: D Q.103 Upon intercepting the assigned radial, the controller advises you that you are on the airway and to "resume owe navigation". This Phrase means that : You are to contact the centre at the next reporting point. You are to assume responsibility for your own navigation. You are still in radar contact, but must make position reports. Radar services are terminated and you will be responsible for position reports. Correct Answer: B Q.104 During flight through the transition layer the vertical position of the aircraft should be expressed as altitude above mean sea level during climb flight level during descent either altitude above mean sea level or flight level during climb altitude above mean sea level during descent Correct Answer: D Q.105 Refer to the following TAF for Zurich. LSZH 061019 20018G30KT 9999 -RA SCT050 BKN080 TEMPO 23012 KT 6000 DZ BKN015 BKN030 BECMG l518 23020G35KT 4000 RA OVCO1O=The lowest cloud base forecast at ETA Zurich (1200 UTC) is: 26/149 1000 FT. 1500 m. 5000 FT. 1500 FT. Correct Answer: D Q.106 During the formation of rime ice in flight, water droplets freeze slowly and do not spread out slowly and spread out rapidly and spread out rapidly and do not spread out Correct Answer: D Q.107 The temperature at FL 110 is - 5°C. What will the temperature be at FL 50 if the ICAO standard lapse rate is applied ? +3°C 0°C -3°C +7°C Correct Answer: D Q.108 The QNH is equal to the QFE if the elevation = 0 T actual = T standard T actual > T standard T actual < T standard Correct Answer: A Q.109 Freezing rain occurs when 27/149 snow falls into an above-freezing layer of air rain falls into a layer of air with temperatures below 0°C ice pellets melt water vapour first turns into water droplets Correct Answer: B Q.110 An isothermal layer is a layer of air in which the temperature decreases with height at a constant rate increases with height at a constant rate remains constant with height increases with height Correct Answer: C Q.111 What is the boundary layer between troposphere and stratosphere called ? Tropopause. Ionosphere. Stratosphere. Atmosphere. Correct Answer: A Q.112 What is the approximate speed of a 40-knot wind, expressed in m/sec? 20 m/sec 15 m/sec 25 m/sec 30 m/sec Correct Answer: A Q.113 The most dangerous form of airframe icing is 28/149 clear ice. hoar frost. dry ice. rime ice. Correct Answer: A Q.114 The temperature at FL 80 is +6°C. What will the temperature be at FL 130 if the ICAO standard lapse rate is applied ? +2°C -4°C -6°C 0°C Correct Answer: B Q.115 From what type of cloud does drizzle fall? Altostratus Cumulus Cirrostratus. Stratus. Correct Answer: D Q.116 Refer to the TAF for Bordeaux airport. FCFR31 281400 LFBD 1524 26015KT 9999 SHRA BKN020 TEMPO 1620 26020G30KT 8000 +SHRA BKN015CB PROB30 TSRA = Flight Lisbon to Bordeaux, ETA 1800 UTC. At ETA Bordeaux what is the lowest quoted visibility forecast ? 10 or more km 8 km 8 NM 10 NM Correct Answer: B Q.117 How does freezing rain develop? 29/149 Rain falls through a layer where temperatures are below O°C Rain falls on cold groung and then freezes Through melting of sleet grains Through melting of ice crystals Correct Answer: A Q.118 Altostratus clouds are classified as high level clouds convective clouds medium level clouds low level clouds Correct Answer: C Q.119 Which of the following phenomena should be described as precipitation at the time they are observed? SA TS FU DZ Correct Answer: D Q.120 An aircraft lands at an airport (airport elevation 1240 FT, QNH 1008 hPa). The altimeter is set to 1013 hPa. The altimeter will indicate: 1375 FT. 1200 FT. 1105 FT. 1280 FT. Correct Answer: A Q.121 How does temperature vary with increasing altitude in the ICAO standard atmosphere below the tropopause? 30/149 Increases At first it increases and higher up it decreases Remains constant Decreases Correct Answer: D Q.122 For a given airfield the QFE is 980 hPa and the QNH is 1000 hPa, The approximate elevation of the airfield is 100 metres 160 metres 600 metres 540 metres Correct Answer: B Q.123 What type of front /occlusion usually moves the fastest? Warm occlusion. Cold front. Warm front. Cold occlusion. Correct Answer: B Q.124 Which of the following statements is true of the dew point of an air mass? It can only be equal to, or lower, than the temperature of the air mass It can be higher than the temperature of the air mass It can be used together with the air pressure to estimate the air mass's relative humidity It can be used to estimate the air mass's relative humidity even if the air temperature is unknown Correct Answer: A Q.125 The tropopause is a level at which 31/149 water vapour content is greatest pressure remains constant vertical currents are strongest temperature ceases to fall with increasing height Correct Answer: D Q.126 Dew point is defined as the temperature below which the change of state in a given volume of air will result in the absorption of latent heat the temperature to which moist air must be cooled to become saturated at a given pressure the lowest temperature at which evaporation will occur for a given pressure the lowest temperature to which air must be cooled in order to reduce the relative humidity Correct Answer: B Q.127 What surface weather is associated with a stationary high pressure region over land in the winter? NS with continuous rain. The possibility of snow showers. A tendency for fog and low ST. Thunderstorms. Correct Answer: C Q.128 Which of the following cloud types can project up into the stratosphere? Cumulonimbus Cirrostratus Altocumulus Altostratus Correct Answer: A Q.129 In Which environment is aircraft structural ice most likely to have the highest rate of accretion? 32/149 Stratus clouds. Snow. Freezing rain. Cirrus clouds. Correct Answer: C Q.130 What is the relationship, if any, between QFE and QNH at an airport situated 50 FT below sea level? QFE equals QNH. No clear relationship exists. QFE is greater than QNH. QFE is smaller than QNH. Correct Answer: C Q.131 Which of the following conditions is most likely to cause airframe icing? SHSN PE +FZRA GR Correct Answer: C Q.132 Under what condition does pressure altitude have the same value as density altitude ? At sea level when the temperature is 0°C. When the altimeter has no position error. When the altimeter setting is 1013.2 hPa. At standard temperature. Correct Answer: D Q.133 Which of the following weather reports is a warning of conditions that could be potentially hazerdous to aircraft in flight ? 33/149 SIGMET. ATIS. SPECI TAF. Correct Answer: A Q.134 The lowest assumed temperature in the International Standard Atmosphere (ISA) is : -273°C -44.7°C -100°C -56.5°C Correct Answer: D Q.135 Which of the following weather reports could be, in accordance with the regulations, abbreviated to "CAVOK"? 26012KT 8000 SHRA BKN025 16/12 Q1018 NOSIG = 27019G37KT 9999 BKN050 18/14 Q1016 NOSIG = 34004KT 7000 MIFG SCT260 09/08 Q1029 BECMG 1600 = 00000KT 0100 FG VV001 11/11 Q1025 BECMG 0500 = Correct Answer: B Q.136 How do air masses move at a warm front? Cold air overrides a warm air mass Cold air undercuts a warm air mass Warm air undercuts a cold air mass Warm air overrides a cold air mass Correct Answer: D Q.137 At FL 180, the air temperature is -35°C. The air density at this level is: 34/149 Equal to the density of the ISA atmosphere at FL 180. Unable to be determined without knowing the QNH. Greater than the density of the ISA atmosphere at FL 180. Less than the density of the ISA atmosphere at FL 180. Correct Answer: C Q.138 Refer to the following TAF extract; BECMG 1821 2000 BKN004 PROB30 BECMG 2124 0500 FG VV001 what does the abbreviation 'PROB30" mean? Change expected in less than 30 minutes. Probability of 30%. Conditions will last for at least 30 minutes. The cloud ceiling should lift to 3000 FT. Correct Answer: B Q.139 EHAM 281601 14010KT 6000 -RA SCT025 BECMG 1618 12015G25KT SCT008 BKN013 TEMPO 1823 3000 RA BKN005 OVC010 BECMG 2301 25020KT 8000 NSW BKN020 = ETA 2100 UTC at EHAM. What surface wind is forecast? 120° / 15 kt gusts 25 kt 140° / 10 kt 300° / 15 kt maximum wind 25 kt 250° / 20 kt Correct Answer: A Q.140 How does moderate turbulence affect an aircraft? Large, abrupt changes in altitude or attitude occur but the aircraft may only be out of control momentarily. Continued flight in this environment will result in structural damage. Changes in altitude or altitude or altitude occur but the aircraft remains in positive control at all times. Rapid and somewhat rhythmic bumpiness is experienced without appreciable changes in altitude or altitude Correct Answer: C Q.141 In which of these cloud types can icing be virtually ruled out? 35/149 NS CU CI SC Correct Answer: C Q.142 An aircraft is flying at FL 80. The local QNH is 1000 hPa. After the second altimeter has been adjusted to the local QNH, the reading will be approximately 8350 FT 8000 FT 7650 FT 8600 FT Correct Answer: C Q.143 With what type of cloud is "DZ" precipitation most commonly associated? CU ST CB CC Correct Answer: B Q.144 In Which zone of a jet stream is the strongest CAT to be expected ? The warm air side of the core. Exactly in the centre of the core. About 12000 FT above the core. The cold air side of the core. Correct Answer: D Q.145 Which of the following statements is an interpretation of the SIGMET? SIGMET VALID 121420/121820 embed ts obs and fcst in w part of athinai fir / mov e / intst nc = 36/149 Athens Airport is closed due to thunderstorms. The thunderstorm zone should be east of Athens by 1820 UTC The thunderstorms in the Athens FIR are increasing in intensity, but are stationary above the western part of the Athens FIR Thunderstorms must be expected in the western part of the Athens FIR. The thunderstorm zone is moving east. Intensity in constant Thunderstorms have formed in the eastern part of the Athens FIR and are slowly moving west Correct Answer: C Q.146 Refer to the following TAF for Zurich. LSZH 261019 20018G30KT 9999 –RA SCT050 BKN080 TEMPO 23012KT 6000 –DZ BKN015 BKN030 BECMG 1518 23020G35KT 4000 RA OVC010= The lowest visibility forecast at ETA Zurich 1430 UTC is: 6 km. 6 NM. 4 km. 10 km. Correct Answer: A Q.147 Refer to the following TAF. EGBB 261812 28015G25KT 9999 SCT025 TEMPO 1822 29018G35KT 5000 SHRASN BKN010CB PROB30 TEMPO 1821 1500 TSGR BKN008CB BECMG 2124 26010KT From the TAF above you can assume that visibility at 2055Z at (EGBB) will be: more than 10 km not less than 1.5 km but could be in excess of 10 km a maximum 5 km a minimum of 1.5 km and a maximum of 5 km. Correct Answer: B Q.148 Fair weather cumulus often is an indication of a high risk of thunderstorms turbulence at and below the cloud level poor visibility at surface smooth flying conditions below the cloud level Correct Answer: B Q.149 37/149 What does the abbreviation “nosig” mean? Not signed by the meteorologist No significant changes No report received No weather related problems Correct Answer: B Q.150 What is the meaning of the abbreviation “SCT”? 5 - 7 oktas 1 - 4 oktas 3 - 4 oktas 1 - 2 oktas Correct Answer: C Q.151 Relative humidity depends on moisture content of the air only temperature of the air only moisture content and temperature of the air moisture content and pressure of the air Correct Answer: C Q.152 During the climb after take-off, the altimeter setting is adjusted at the transition altitude. If the local QNH is 1023 hPa, what will happen to the altimeter reading during the resetting procedure ? It is not possible to give a definitive answer It will decrease It will increase It will remain the same Correct Answer: B Q.153 With what type of clouds are showers most likely associated? 38/149 Cumulonimbus. Stratocumulus. Nimbostratus. Stratus. Correct Answer: A Q.154 LFBD 1524 26015KT 9999 SHRA BKN020 TEMPO 1620 26020G30KT 8000 +SHRA BKN015CB PROB30 TSRA = ETA 1800 UTC. What type of precipitation is forecast on the approach to LFBD? Continuous moderate rain Light drizzle and fog Moderate snow showers Heavy rain showers Correct Answer: D Q.155 What does the term SIGMET Signify? A SIGMET is a brief landing forecast added to the actual weather report A SIGMET is an actual weather report at an aerodrome and is generally issued at half-hourly intervals A SIGMET is a warning of dengerous meteorological conditions A SIGMET is a flight forecast, issued by the meteorological station several times daily Correct Answer: C Q.156 Which statement is correct regarding the international Standard Atmosphere? At MSL temperature is 15°C and the decrease in temperature with height is 1°C per 100m At MSL temperature is 10°C and the decrease in temperature with height is 1°C per 100m At MSL pressure is 1013.25 hPa and the decrease of temperature with height is 1°C per 100m At MSL temperature is 15°C and pressure is 1013.25hPa Correct Answer: D Q.157 What type of cloud can produce hail showers? 39/149 CS AC CB NS Correct Answer: C Q.158 In which of the following METAR reports, is the probability of fog formation in the coming night the highest? 1850Z 21003KT 8000 SCT250 12/m08 Q1028 NOSIG = 1850Z 06018G30KT 5000 OVC010 04/01 Q1024 NOSIG = 1850Z 25010KT 4000 RA BKN012 OVC030 12/10 Q1006 TEMPO 1500 = 1850Z 15003KT 6000 SCT120 05/04 Q1032 BECMG 1600 = Correct Answer: D Q.159 How are high level condensation trails formed that are to be found occasionally behind jet aircraft? Through water vapour released during fuel combustion Through a decrease in pressure, and the associated adiabatic drop in temperature at the wing tips while flying through relatively warm but humid air Only through unburnt fuel in the exhaust gases In conditions of low humidity, through the particles of soot contained in the exhaust gases Correct Answer: A Q.160 TAF LSZH 250716 00000KT 0100 FG VV001 BECMG 0810 0800 VV002 BECMG 1012 23005KT 2500 BKN005 TEMPO 1316 6000 SCT007 = Which of these statements best describes the weather that can be expected at 1200 UTC Meteorological visibility 6 kilometres, cloud base 500 feet, wind speed 5 knots Meteorological visibility 2,5 kilometres, cloud base 500 feet, wind speed 5 knots Meteorological visibility 800 metres, wind from 230°, cloud base 500 feet Meteorological visibility 800 metres, vertical visibility 200 feet, calm Correct Answer: B Q.161 The maximum amount of water vapour that the air can contain depends on the 40/149 air temperature relative humidity stability of the air dewpoint Correct Answer: A Q.162 Which of the following statements is an interpretation of the SIGMET? LSAW SWITZERLAND 0307 SIGMET 2 VALID 030700/031100 LSSW mod to sev cat fcst north of alps btn fl 260 and fl 380 /stnr/intsf= Severe turbulence observed below FL 260 North of the Alps. Pilots advised to cross this area above FL 380 Moderate to strong clear air turbulence of constant intensity to be expected north of the Alps Moderate to severe clear air turbulence to be expected north of the Alps. Intensity increasing. Danger zone between FL 260 and FL 380 Zone of moderate to severe turbulence moving towards the area north of the Alps. Intensity increasing. Pilots advised to cross this area above FL 260 Correct Answer: C Q.163 Which of the following changes of state is known as sublimation? Solid direct to liquid Liquid direct to solid Liquid direct to vapour Solid direct to vapour Correct Answer: D Q.164 What does the term METAR signify? A METAR is a flight forecast, issued by the meteorological station several times daily A METAR is a landing forecast added to the actual weather report as a brief prognostic report. A METAR signify the actual weather report at an aerodrome and is generally issued in half hourly intervals. A METAR is a warning of dangerous meteorological conditions within a FIR. Correct Answer: C Q.165 41/149 Which of the following weather reports could be, in accordance with the regulations, abbreviated to “CAVOK”? (MSA above ground : LSZB 10000 FT, LSZH 8000 FT, LSGG 12000 FT, LFSB 6000 FT) LFSB 24008KT 9999 SCT050 18/11 Q1017 RERA NOSIG = LSZH VRB02KT 9000 BKN080 21/14 Q1022 NOSIG = LSGG 22006KT 9999 BKN090 17/15 Q1008 RERA NOSIG = LSZB 28012KT 9999 OVC100 16/12 Q1012 BECMG 5000 = Correct Answer: D Q.166 What is the main composition of clouds classified as “high level clouds”? Super cooled water droplets. Water droplets. Water vapour. Ice crystals. Correct Answer: D Q.167 What is the meaning of the abbreviation “BKN”? 3 – 4 oktas. 6 -8 oktas. 8 oktas. 5 -7 oktas. Correct Answer: D Q.168 Appended to a METAR you get the following runway report: 01650428 What must you consider when making performance calculations? The braking action will be medium to good. The runway will be wet Aquaplaning conditions. The friction coefficient is 0.28. Correct Answer: D Q.169 Clouds, fog or dew will always be formed when: 42/149 water vapour condenses. water vapour is present. relative humidity reaches 98% temperature and dew point are nearly equal. Correct Answer: A Q.170 If you are flying at FL 120 and the outside temperature is -2°C, at what altitude will the “freezing level” be?° FL 150 FL 90 FL 110 FL 130 Correct Answer: C Q.171 What is the approximate speed of a 90 km/h wind, expressed in knots? 55 kt 60 kt 70 kt 50 kt Correct Answer: D Q.172 The diameter and the life time of a typical microburst are in the order of 8 km and 5-15 minutes 12 km and 5-10 minutes 4 km and 1-5 minutes 4 km and 30-40 minutes Correct Answer: C Q.173 Which of these four METAR reports suggests that a thunderstorm is likely in the next few hours? 43/149 1350Z 16004KT 8000 SCT110 OVC220 02/m02 Q1008 NOSIG = 1350Z 34003KT 0800 SN VV002 m02/m04 Q1014 NOSIG = 1350Z 04012KT 3000 OVC012 04/03 Q1022 BEMCG 5000 = 1350Z 21005KT 9999 SCT040CB SCT100 26/18 Q1016 TEMPO 24018G30 TS = Correct Answer: D Q.174 convective clouds are formed in stable atmosphere in summer during the day only in mid-latitudes only in unstable atmosphere Correct Answer: D Q.175 The presence of altocumulus lenticularis is an indication of the development of thermal lows presence of valley winds presence of mountain waves risk of orographic thunderstorms Correct Answer: C Q.176 EHAM 281601 14010KT 6000-RA SCT025 BECMG 1618 12015G25KT SCT008 BKN013 TEMPO 1823 3000 RA BKN005 OVC010 BECMG 2301 25020KT 8000NSW BKN020 = ETA 2100 UTC at EHAM What is the lowest cloud base forecast for arrival? 250 FT 500 m 800 FT 500 FT Correct Answer: D Q.177 The temperature at 10000 FT in the international Standard Atmosphere is : 44/149 -20°C -35°C -5°C 0°C Correct Answer: C Q.178 Which of the following meteorological phenomena can rapidly change the braking action of a runway? HZ +FZRA MIFG FG Correct Answer: B Q.179 Fallstreaks or virga are strong katabatic winds in mountainous areas and accompanied by heavy precipitation water or ice particles falling out of a cloud that evaporates before reaching the ground strong downdraughts in the polar jet stream, associated with jet streaks gusts associated with a well developed Bora Correct Answer: B Q.180 TAF LSZH 211322 22018G35KT 9999 SCT012 BKN030 BECMG 1315 25025G45KT TEMPO 1720 4000 +SHRA BKN025TCU BECMG 2022 25015KT T1815Z T1618z = Which of these statements best describes the weather most likely to be experienced at 1500 UTC? Meteorological visibility 10 kilometres or more, main cloud base 3000 feet, wind 250°, temperature 18°C. Meteorological visibility 4000 metres,gusts up to 25 knots, temperature 18°C. Meteorological visibility 10 kilometers or more, main cloud base 1200 feet, gusts up to 45 knots. Severe rain showers, Meteorological visibility 4000 metres, Correct Answer: A Q.181 What pressure is defined as QFE ? 45/149 The pressure reduced to sea level using actual temperatures The pressure reduced to sea level using ISA temperatures The pressure at field elevation The pressure of the altimeter Correct Answer: C Q.182 Which of the following statements is an interpretation of the METAR ? 00000KT 0200 R14/0800U R16/P1500U FZFG VV001 m03/m03 Q1022 BECMG 0800 = Meteorological visibility 200 metres, RVR for runway 16 1500 metres, temperature -3'C, vertical visibility 100 metres Meteorological visibility 200 feet, RVR for runway 16 more than 1500 metres, vertical visibility 100 feet, fog with hoar frost Meteorological visibility for runway 14 800 metres, fog with hoar frost, RVR for runway 16 more than 1500 metres RVR for runway 14 800 metres, vertical visibility 100 feet, calm, Meteorological visibility improving to 800 meters in the next 2 hours Correct Answer: D Q.183 During the life cycle of a thunderstorm, which stage is characterized predominantly by downdrafts? Anvil stage Dissipating Stage Cumulus stage Mature stage Correct Answer: B Q.184 In which of the following 1850 UTC METAR reports, is the probability of fog formation, in the coming night, the highest? 00000KT 9999 SCT300 21/01 Q1032 NOSIG = VRB01KT 8000 SCT250 11/10 Q1028 BECMG 3000 = 22004KT 6000 - RA SCT012 OVC030 17/14 Q1009 NOSIG = VRB02KT 2500 SCT120 14/M08 Q1035 NOSIG = Correct Answer: B Q.185 46/149 How long from the time of observation is a TREND in a METAR valid? 1 hour. 30 minutes. 2 hours. 9 hours. Correct Answer: C Q.186 An altimeter adjusted to 1013 hPa indicates an altitude of 3600 FT.Should this altimeter be adjusted to the local QNH value 0f 991 hPa, the altitude indicated would be 4278 FT. 4194 FT. 3006 FT. 2922 FT. Correct Answer: C Q.187 What is the approximate composition of the dry air by volume in the troposphere ? 50 % oxygen, 40 % nitrogen, and the rest other gasses 21 % oxygen, 78 % nitrogen, and the rest other gasses 10 % oxygen, 89 % nitrogen, and the rest other gasses 88 % oxygen, 9 % nitrogen, and the rest other gasses Correct Answer: B Q.188 The RVR, as reported in a METAR, is always the highest value of the A-, B- and C- position lowest value of the A-, B- and C- position value representative of the touchdown zone average value of the A-, B- and C- position Correct Answer: C Q.189 In the TAF for Dehli, during the summer, for the time of your landing you note: TEMPO TS What is the maximum time this deterioration in weather can last in anyone instance ? 47/149 60 minutes. 120 minutes. 10 minutes. 20 minutes Correct Answer: A Q.190 Refer to the following TAF extract: BECMG 1821 2000 BKN004 PROB30 BECMG 2124 0500 FG VV001 What does the abbreviation “VV001” mean? Vertical visibility 100 m. Vertical visibility 100 FT. RVR less than 100 m. RVR greater than 100 m. Correct Answer: B Q.191 You are flying at FL 130, and your true altitude is 12000FT. What is the temperature deviation from that of the standard atmosphere at FL 130 (QNH 1013,2hPa) ? ISA -20°C ISA +/-0°C ISA +20°C ISA + 12°C Correct Answer: A Q.192 In order to calculate QFE from QNH, which of the following must be known ? Elevation and the temperature at the airfield. Elevation of the airfield. Temperature at the airfield. Elevation of the airfield and the temperature at MSL. Correct Answer: B Q.193 What is the approximate speed of a 25-knot wind, expressed in kilometres per hour? 48/149 45 km/h 35 km/h 55 km/h 60 km/h Correct Answer: A Q.194 The following weather report EDDM 241322 VRB03kt 1500 HZ OVC004 BECMG 1517 00000KT 0500 FG VV001 is a : 24 hour TAF. SPECI. METAR. 9 hour TAF. Correct Answer: D Q.195 Which one of the following magnitudes will be the first to change its value when penetrating a windshear ? Pitch angle. Vertical speed. Groundspeed. Indicated airspeed. Correct Answer: D Q.196 One of the main characteristics of windshear is that it: occurs only at a low altitude (2000 ft) and never in the horizontal plane can occur at any altitude and only in the horizontal plane can occur at any altitude in both the vertical and horizontal planes occurs only at a low altitude (2000 ft) and never in the vertical plane Correct Answer: C Q.197 The presence of dynamic hydroplaning depends primarily on the: 49/149 depth of the standing water on the runway. aircraft's weight. strength of the headwind. amount of the lift off speed. Correct Answer: A Q.198 If airworthiness documents do not shown any additional correction factor for landing performance determination on a wet runway, the landing distance shall be increased by: 10% 5% 15% 20% Correct Answer: C Q.199 Without wind, the tip vortices created by an airplane at take-off: separate to the left side. separate on each side of the runway. stagnate on the runway. separate to the right side. Correct Answer: B Q.200 Flight crew members on the flight deck shall keep their safety belt fastened: from take off to landing. while at their station. only during take off and landing. only during take off and landing and whenever necessary by the commander in the interest of safety. Correct Answer: B Q.201 For the purpose of wake turbulence separation, what is the ICAO minimum radar separation distance if a heavy aeroplane is following directly behind another heavy aeroplane on the approach to the same runway? 50/149 3.7 km (2 NM) 7.4 km (4 NM) 9.3 km (5 NM) 11.1 km (6 NM) Correct Answer: B Q.202 Tip vortices which are responsible for wake turbulence appear as soon as the following is established: spin up lift destruction lift drag Correct Answer: C Q.203 An aeroplane suffers an explosive decompression at an altitude of 31000 ft. What is the initial action by the operating crew? transmit a MAYDAY message place the seat belts sign to ON to put on oxygen masks disconnect the autopilot Correct Answer: C Q.204 When the weather conditions require an alternate aerodrome to be available on take-off, the latter shall be located, for a twin-engine aircraft, at an equivalent distance not exceeding: 1 hour of flight at cruising speed with two engines 2 hours of flight at cruising speed with single engine 2 hours of flight at cruising speed with two engines 1 hour of flight at cruising speed with a single engine Correct Answer: D Q.205 Wake turbulence risk is highest : 51/149 when a preceding aircraft has briefly applied take-off thrust just prior to take off. when a heavy aircraft has just performed a take-off at a closely situated parallel runway with a light crosswind. if, just before landing a much lighter aircraft has landed at the same runway with heavy crosswind. following a preceding aircraft at high speed. Correct Answer: B Q.206 A braking action of 0.25 and below reported on a SNOWTAM is : unreliable medium good poor Correct Answer: D Q.207 Assuming contaminated runway conditions, if an aeroplane's main wheel tyre pressure is 225 psi., the approximate speed above which dynamic hydroplaning may occur in the event of applying brakes is : 114 kt 100 kt 80kt 135 kt Correct Answer: D Q.208 A category I precision approach (CAT I) has a decision height equal to at least 100 ft. a decision height equal to at least 50 ft. no decision height. a decision height equal to at least 200 ft. Correct Answer: D Q.209 DOC 4444(ICAO) establishes,that wake turbulence separation minima shall be based on a grouping of aircraft types into three categories according to the maximum certificated take-off mass.Heavy (H) Category,are all aircraft types of : 52/149 136 000 Kg or more 126 000 Kg or more less than 136 000 Kg but more than 126 000 Kg 146 000 Kg or more Correct Answer: A Q.210 During a night flight, an observer located in the cockpit, seeing an aircraft coming from the front right, will first see the : green flashing light red steady light green steady light white steady light Correct Answer: B Q.211 The criteria taken into consideration for classification of Aeroplanes by categories is indicated airspeed at threshold (Vat). Corresponding Aeroplane Category when Vat is from 141kt to 165 kt is C E D B Correct Answer: C Q.212 The time of useful consciousness in case of an explosive decompression at an altitude of 40 000 ft is : 1 minute. 5 minutes. 12 seconds. 30 seconds. Correct Answer: C Q.213 For turbo-jet aircraft, in the flight preparation stage,landing distance at the scheduled destination aerodrome shall be less than available landing distance multiplied by a factor of : 53/149 0.5 (2 x the actual landing distance) 0.8 (1.25 x the actual landing distance) 0.6 (1.67 x the actual landing distance) 0.7 (1.42 x the actual landing distance) Correct Answer: C Q.214 An airplane creates a wake turbulence when : generating lift. flying at high speed. using a high engine R.P.M. flying with its gear and flaps extended. Correct Answer: A Q.215 If the EPR probes becomes covered with ice, EPR indications will be : Less than the actual. Equal to the actual. Dependent on the temperature. Greater than the actual. Correct Answer: D Q.216 For the purpose of wake turbulence separation, what is the minimum separation time that is permitted when a light aircraft is taking off behind a heavy aircraft from an intermediate part of the same runway? 3 minutes 4 minutes 5 minutes 2 minutes Correct Answer: A Q.217 Using an oxygen diluter demand system, the regulator controls the amount of air that is mixed with pure oxygen when the selector is at the "normal" position. At what approximate altitude will the regulator supply to the mask become pure oxygen only? 54/149 32000 ft 25000 ft 25000 ft 8000 ft Correct Answer: A Q.218 When setting up a minimum noise climb, the minimum height at which a power reduction shall be allowed is: 600 m (2000 ft) 300 m (1000 ft) 450 m (1500 ft) 150 m (500 ft) Correct Answer: B Q.219 The time needed for the dissipation of a turbulent wake created by a wide-body aircraft during take-off is about: 10 minutes. 3 minutes. 30 seconds. 1 minute. Correct Answer: B Q.220 During an ILS procedure, if the information transmitted by the appropriate services and received by the crew contains parameters below the crew's operational minimums, the point beyond which the approach must not be continued is: the middle marker. the start final descent point (glide slope intersection). the outer marker (OM). the FAF. Correct Answer: C Q.221 The term decision height (DH) is used for: 55/149 a conventional approach. a conventional approach. a conventional approach followed by a visual manoeuvre. a precision approach. Correct Answer: D Q.222 The wake turbulence is greater when the aircraft has a high weight and low speed high weight and high speed low weight and low speed low weight and high speed Correct Answer: A Q.223 The accumulation of snow or ice on an aircraft in flight induces an increase in the: roll rate stalling speed value of the stall angle of attack tuck under Correct Answer: B Q.224 The anti-icing fluid protecting film can wear off and reduce considerably the protection time: during strong winds or as a result of the other aircraft engines jet wash. when the outside temperature is close to 0°C when the temperature of the airplane skin is close to 0°C when the airplane is into the wind. Correct Answer: A Q.225 If cabin altitude increases during level flight, the differential pressure : 56/149 increases remains constant attains its maximum permitted operating limit decreases Correct Answer: D Q.226 To use passengers oxygen in case of severe cabin smoke is: useless because breathing oxygen would explode under smoke conditions. possible and recommended useless because the toxic cabin smoke is mixed with the breathing oxygen. useless because the oxygen units do not operate under smoke conditions. Correct Answer: C Q.227 During an aircraft de-icing/anti-icing procedure: the anti-icing fluid is applied without heating and the de-icing fluid is applied hot. the anti-icing and de-icing fluids are applied hot. the anti-icing and de-icing fluids are applied cold. the de-icing fluid is applied without heating and the anti-icing fluid is applied hot. Correct Answer: A Q.228 A piece of equipment on your public transport airplane fails while you are still parked. The reference document you use to decide on the procedure to follow is: the JAR OPS. the flight manual. the minimum equipment list. the operation manual's chapter "Abnormal and Emergency procedures". Correct Answer: C Q.229 A category I precision approach (CAT I) is an approach which may be carried out with a runway visual range of at least : 57/149 500 m 550 m 350 m 800 m Correct Answer: B Q.230 Wind shear is: a vertical or horizontal wind velocity and / or wind direction over a large distance a vertical or horizontal wind velocity and / or wind direction over a short distance a horizontal wind velocity variation over a short distance a vertical wind velocity variation over a short distance Correct Answer: B Q.231 On landing on an isolated field, the captain of a turbojet engine aircraft must mandatorily have a minimum quantity of fuel and lubricant sufficient for flying during : 30 minutes with normal cruising consumption 2 hours with normal cruising consumption 2 hours at holding flight speed and 1500 ft 30 minutes at holding flight speed and 1500 ft Correct Answer: B Q.232 When flying in straight and level fligt at FL 290 for some considerable time a small leak develops in the cabin which causes a slow depressurisation, this can be seen on the cabin rate of climb indicator which will indicate : a rate of descent dependent upon the cabin differential pressure a rate of climb a rate of descent of approximately 300 fpm zero Correct Answer: B Q.233 For a given ambient temperature and type of de-icing fluid used, in which one of the following types of weather condition will the holdover (protection) time be shortest ? 58/149 Freezing rain Steady snow Freezing fog Frost Correct Answer: A Q.234 The greatest possibility of ice build-up, while flying under icing conditions, occurs on : The aircraft front areas. The upper and lower wing surfaces. The upper and lower rudder surfaces. Only the pitot and static probes Correct Answer: A Q.235 A piece of equipment on your public transport airplane fails while taxing to the holding point.The reference document you use in the first place to decide on the procedure to follow is: the minimum equipment list. the JAR OPS. the flight record. the operation manual’s chapter “Abnormal and Emergency Procedures”. Correct Answer: D Q.236 In the JAR OPS, a runway is considered damp when: surface moisture gives it a shiny appearance. it is covered with a film of water of less than 3 mm. it is covered with a film of water of less than 1 mm. its surface is not dry, and when surface moisture does not give it a shiny appearance. Correct Answer: D Q.237 The correct statement about extinguishing agents on board aeroplanes is : 59/149 A powder extinguisher is suitable for extinguishing a cockpit fire. Burning cargo in a cargo-aeroplane is usually extinguished by using carbon dioxide. Halon is an effective extinguishing agent for use in aeroplanes. Water may only be used for minor fires. Correct Answer: C Q.238 In case of a serious threat based on the presence of a bomb on board a pressurized aircraft and disregarding any fuel considerations: you climb to the maximum flight level which does not need the use of pressurization. you go down to the level corresponding to the indicated cabin altitude and keep the airplane in a clean configuration until the final approach. you descend to the flight level corresponding to the indicated cabin altitude or the safety altitude if higher and take preventive steps by putting yourself in a landing approach configuration. you carry out an emergency descent to reach the safety altitude. Correct Answer: C Q.239 During a de-icing/anti-icing procedure carried out in two stages, the hold over time starts: at the end of the second stage (anti-icing stage). at the end of the first stage (de-icing stage). at the beginning of the second stage (anti-icing stage). at the beginning of the first stage (de-icing stage). Correct Answer: C Q.240 During an explosive decompression at flight level 370 (FL 370), your first action will be : to warn the ATC to comfort your passengers to put on the oxygen mask to set the transponder to 7700 Correct Answer: C Q.241 The greatest wake turbulence occurs when the generating aircraft is : 60/149 Large, heavy, at maximum speed in full flaps configuration Small, light, at low speed in clean configuration Small, light, at maximum speed in full flaps configuration Large, heavy, at low speed in clean configuration Correct Answer: D Q.242 In public transport, prior to take-off in icing conditions, the captain must check that: possible ice accretions do not cause to exceed weight and balance limits. external surfaces are free from any ice accretion which may impede the airplane performance and manoeuvrability, except within the limits specified by the flight manual. external surfaces are free from any ice accretion greater than 5 mm. external surfaces are still covered with anti-icing fluid. Correct Answer: B Q.243 An aircraft which experiences a headwind of 40 kt while making its way towards the centre of a microburst may expect, when crossing the microburst, to face a windshear of : 80 kt. 40 kt. 60 kt. 20 kt. Correct Answer: A Q.244 For aeroplanes having a seating capacity of more than 44 passengers, it must be shown by actual demonstration that the maximum seating capacity, including the required number of crew members, can be evacuated from the aeroplane to the ground in : 60 seconds 90 seconds 132 seconds 120 seconds Correct Answer: B Q.245 The velocity of sound at the sea level in a standard atmosphere is : 61/149 644 kt. 323 Kt. 661 Kt. 1059 Kt. Correct Answer: C Q.246 In the event of a conflict, the TCAS (Traffic collision Avoidance System) will give information such as : turn left/turn right too low terrain glide slope climb/descent Correct Answer: D Q.247 The error in altimeter reading caused by the variation of the static pressure near the source is knows as : position pressure error. barometric error. instrument error. hysteresis effect Correct Answer: A Q.248 The Decision Height (DH) warning light comes on when an aircraft: descends below a pre-set barometric altitude. passes over the ILS inner marker. descends below a pre-set radio altitude. passes over the outer marker. Correct Answer: C Q.249 The Ground Proximity Warning System (GPWS) is a system working according to a height span ranging from: 62/149 the ground to 500 ft 50 ft to 2500 ft the ground to 1000 ft 30 ft to 5000 ft Correct Answer: B Q.250 If the static source of an altimeter becomes blocked during a descent the instrument will: continue to display the reading at which the blockage occurred gradually indicate zero under-read indicate a height equivalent to the setting on the millibar subscale Correct Answer: A Q.251 Alarms are standardised and follow a code of colours. Those requiring action but not immediately, are signalled by the colour: red green flashing red amber Correct Answer: D Q.252 A stall warning system is based on a measure of : airspeed. attitude. groundspeed. aerodynamic incidence. Correct Answer: D Q.253 The vertical speed indicator of an aircraft flying at a true airspeed of 100 kt, in descent with a slope of 3 degrees, indicates: 63/149 250 ft/min 500 ft/min 300 ft/min 150 ft/min Correct Answer: B Q.254 If the static source to an airspeed indicator (ASI) becomes blocked during a descent the instrument will: continue to indicate the speed applicable to that at the time of the blockage under-read over-read read zero Correct Answer: C Q.255 A "resolution advisory" (RA) is represented on the display system of the TCAS 2 (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) by a: amber full circle. red full square. blue or white full lozenge. blue or white empty lozenge. Correct Answer: B Q.256 The mach number is the: corrected airspeed (CAS) divided by the local speed of sound indicated airspeed (IAS) divided by the local speed of sound equivalent airspeed (EAS) divided by the local speed of sound true airspeed (TAS) divided by the local speed of sound Correct Answer: D Q.257 The principle of the TCAS (Traffic Collision Avoidance Systems) is based on the use of: 64/149 air traffic control radar systems transponders fitted in the aircraft airborne weather radar system F.M.S. (Flight Management System) Correct Answer: B Q.258 When flying from a sector of warm air into one of colder air, the altimeter will: under read. be just as correct as before. show the actual height above ground. over read. Correct Answer: D Q.259 During the approach, a crew reads on the radio altimeter the value of 650 ft. This is an indication of the true: height of the aircraft with regard to the runway. altitude of the aircraft. height of the lowest wheels with regard to the ground at any time. height of the aircraft with regard to the runway. Correct Answer: C Q.260 VLO is the maximum: flight speed with slats extended. speed with flaps extended in a given position. cruising speed not to be exceeded except in still air with caution. speed at which the landing gear can be operated with full safety. Correct Answer: D Q.261 Sound propagates through the air at a speed which only depends on: 65/149 pressure. density. temperature. temperature and the pressure. Correct Answer: C Q.262 The flight data recorder must start data recording automatically: when lining up. before the airplane is able to move by under its own power. when taking-off. when the landing gear is retracted. Correct Answer: B Q.263 An "traffic advisory" (TA) is represented on the display system of the TCAS 2 (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) by displaying: a yellow full circle. a blue or white empty lozenge. a blue or white full lozenge. a red full square. Correct Answer: A Q.264 A pitot blockage of both the ram air input and the drain hole with the static port open causes the airspeed indicator to: freeze at zero. react like an altimeter. read a little high. read a little low. Correct Answer: B Q.265 TCAS uses for its operation : 66/149 the replies from the transponders of other aircraft the echoes from the ground air traffic control radar system the echoes of collision avoidance radar system especially installed on board both the replies from the transponders of other aircraft and the ground-based radar echoes Correct Answer: A Q.266 The Primary Flight Display (PFD) displays information dedicated to: systems piloting weather situation. engines and alarms Correct Answer: B Q.267 The rate-of-turn is the: aircraft speed in a turn pitch rate in a turn change-of-heading rate of the aircraft yaw rate in a turn Correct Answer: C Q.268 When the intruding aircraft is equipped with a serviceable mode C transponder, the TCAS II (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) generates a : "traffic advisory" and horizontal "resolution advisory". "traffic advisory" only. "traffic advisory", vertical and horizontal "resolution advisory". "traffic advisory" and vertical "resolution advisory". Correct Answer: D Q.269 A pitot tube covered by ice which blocks the ram air inlet will affect the following instruments (s) : 67/149 airspeed indicator only. altimeter only. vertical speed indicator only. airspeed indicator, altimeter and vertical speed indicator. Correct Answer: A Q.270 During a Category II automatic approach, the height information is supplied by the : encording altimeter altimeter radio altimeter GPS (Global Positioning System). Correct Answer: C Q.271 With a pitot probe blocked due to ice build up the aircraft airspeed indicator will indicate in descent a : decreasing speed. constant speed. increasing speed. fluctuating speed. Correct Answer: A Q.272 The static air temperature (SAT) is: a relative temperature expressed in degrees Kelvin an absolute temperature expressed in degrees Celsius a differential temperature expressed in degrees Kelvin a relative temperature expressed in degrees Celsius Correct Answer: B Q.273 VNE is the maximum speed : 68/149 with flaps extended in landing position which must never be exceeded not to be exceeded except in still air and with caution at which the flight controls can be fully deflected Correct Answer: B Q.274 If the GPWS (Ground Proximity Warning System) activates, and alerts the pilot with an aural warning "DON'T SINK" (twice times), it is because : during take-off or missed approach manoeuvre, the aircraft has started to loose altitude. the aircraft experiences an unexpected proximity to the terrain, with landing gear retracted. at too low altitude, the aircraft has an excessive rate of descent. the aircraft experiences an unexpected proximity to terrain, without landing-flap selected. Correct Answer: A Q.275 The total air temperature (TAT) is always: lower than Static Air Temperature (SAT) depending on the altitude. higher than Static Air Temperature (SAT) depending on the Calibrated Air Speed (CAS). higher or lower than Static Air Temperature (SAT) depending on the Calibrated Air Speed (CAS) higher than Static Air Temperature (SAT) depending on the altitude. Correct Answer: B Q.276 In a standard atmosphere and at the sea level, the calibrated airspeed (CAS) is: independent of the true airspeed (TAS). higher than the true airspeed (TAS). lower than the true airspeed (TAS). equal to the true airspeed (TAS). Correct Answer: D Q.277 A Stand-by-horizon or emergency attitude indicator: 69/149 Only works of there is a complete electrical failure Contains its own separate gyro Is automatically connected to the primary vertical gyro if the generator fails Is fully independent of external energy resources in an Correct Answer: B Q.278 During a climb after take-off from a contaminated runway, if the total pressure probe of the airspeed indicator is blocked, the pilot finds that indicated airspeed: increases steadily increases abruptly towards VNE decreases steadily decreases abruptly towards zero Correct Answer: A Q.279 When climbing at a constant Mach number below the tropopause, in ISA conditions, the Calibrated Airspeed (CAS) will: increase at an exponential rate decrease increase at a linear rate remain constant Correct Answer: B Q.280 A radio altimeter can be defined as a: self-contained on-board aid used to measure the true altitude of the aircraft ground radio aid used to measure the true height of the aircraft ground radio aid used to measure the true altitude of the aircraft self-contained on-board aid used to measure the true height of the aircraft Correct Answer: D Q.281 If the static source to an altimeter becomes blocked during a climb, the instrument will: 70/149 gradually return to zero continue to indicate the reading at which the blockage occurred under-read by an amount equivalent to the reading at the time that the instrument became blocked over-read Correct Answer: B Q.282 After an aircraft has passed through a volcanic cloud which has blocked the total pressure probe inlet of the airspeed indicator, the pilot begins a stabilized descent and finds that the indicated airspeed : increases abruptly towards VNE increases steadily decreases abruptly towards zero decreases steadily Correct Answer: D Q.283 The purpose of compass swinging is to determine the deviation of a magnetic compass: on only one heading at any latitude at a given latitude on any heading Correct Answer: D Q.284 Considering the maximum operational Mach number(MMO) and the maximum operational speed (VMO), for a maximum groundspeed descent from a high flight level, you will be limited : initially by the VMO, then by the MMO below a certain flight level by the MMO by the VMO in still air initially by the MMO, then by the VMO below a certain flight level Correct Answer: D Q.285 VFE is the maximum speed: 71/149 with the flaps extended in take-off position. with the flaps extended in a given position with the flaps extended in landing position at which the flaps can be operated. Correct Answer: B Q.286 The stalling speed of an aeroplane will be highest when it is loaded with a: low gross mass and forward centre of gravity. low gross mass and aft centre of gravity. high gross mass and aft centre of gravity. high gross mass and forward centre of gravity. Correct Answer: D Q.287 The actual 'Zero Fuel Mass' is equal to the: Basic Empty Mass plus the fuel loaded. Actual Landing Mass plus trip fuel Dry Operating Mass plus the traffic load. Operating Mass plus all the traffic load. Correct Answer: C Q.288 The actual 'Take-off Mass' is equivalent to: Actual Zero Fuel Mass plus the traffic load Dry Operating Mass plus the take-off fuel Actual Landing Mass plus the take-off fuel Dry Operating Mass plus the take-off fuel and the traffic load Correct Answer: D Q.289 If an aeroplane is at a higher mass than anticipated, for a given airspeed the angle of attack will 72/149 remain constant, drag will decrease and endurance will decrease. remain constant, drag will increase and endurance will increase. be greater, drag will increase and endurance will decrease. be decreased, drag will decrease and endurance will increase. Correct Answer: C Q.290 With the centre of gravity on the forward limit which of the following is to be expected? A decrease in the landing speed. A decrease of the stalling speed. A tendency to yaw to the right on take-off. A decrease in range. Correct Answer: D Q.291 If the centre of gravity is near the forward limit the aeroplane will: require elevator trim which will result in an increase in fuel consumption. benefit from reduced drag due to the decrease in angle of attack. require less power for a given airspeed. tend to over rotate during take-off. Correct Answer: A Q.292 During take-off you notice that, for a given elevator input, the aeroplane rotates much more rapidly than expected. This is an indication that: the centre of pressure is aft of the centre of gravity. the centre of gravity may be towards the aft limit. the aeroplane is overloaded. the centre of gravity is too far forward. Correct Answer: B Q.293 Assuming gross mass, altitude and airspeed remain unchanged, movement of the centre of gravity from the forward to the aft limit will cause 73/149 higher stall speed. lower optimum cruising speed. reduced maximum cruise range. increased cruise range. Correct Answer: D Q.294 If the centre of gravity of an aeroplane moves forward during flight the elevator control will: become heavier making the aeroplane more difficult to manoeuvre in pitch become lighter making the aeroplane more difficult to manoeuvre in pitch become heavier making the aeroplane more easy to manoeuvre in pitch. become lighter making the aeroplane more easy to manoeuvre in pitch. Correct Answer: A Q.295 When considering the effect of increased mass on an aeroplane, which of the following is true? Stalling speeds will be higher. Stalling speeds will be lower. Gradient of climbs for a given power setting will be higher. Flight endurance will be increased. Correct Answer: A Q.296 A flight benefits from a strong tail wind which was not forecast.On arrival at destination a straight in approach and immediate landing clearance is given.The landing mass will be higher than planned and the landing distance will be unaffected. the approach path will be steeper. the approach path will be steeper and threshold speed higher. the landing distance required will be longer. Correct Answer: D Q.297 The Dry Operating Mass of an aeroplane includes: 74/149 Fuel and passengers baggage and cargo. passengers baggage and cargo. Crew and Crew baggage, catering, removable passengers service equipment, potable water and lavatory chemicals. Unusable fuel and reserve fuel. Correct Answer: C Q.298 The maximum certificated take-off mass is: a take-off limiting mass which is governed by the gradient of climb after reaching V2. limited by the runway take off distance available.It is tabulated in the Flight Manual. a structural limit which may not be exceeded for any take-off. a take-off limiting mass which is affected by the aerodrome altitude and temperature. Correct Answer: C Q.299 The centre of gravity location of the aeroplane is normally computed along the: horizontal axis. longitudinal axis. lateral axis. vertical axis. Correct Answer: B Q.300 The centre of gravity of a body is that point through which the sum of the forces of all masses of the body is considered to act. where the sum of the moments from the external forces acting on the body is equal to zero. where the sum of the external forces is equal to zero. which is always used as datum when computing moments. Correct Answer: A Q.301 The take-off mass of an aeroplane is 117 000 kg. comprising a traffic load of 18 000 Kg and fuelof46 000 kg.What is the dry operating mass? 75/149 71 000 Kg 99 000 Kg 53 000 Kg 64 000 Kg Correct Answer: C Q.302 Maximum and minimum values of V1 are limited by: VR and VMCG V2 and VMCA VR and VMCA V2 and VMCG Correct Answer: A Q.303 With regard to a take-off from a wet runway, which of the following statements is correct? Screen height cannot be reduced. The Screen height can be lowered to reduce the mass penalties. When the runway is wet, the V1 reduction is sufficient to maintain the same margins on the runway length. In case of reverser inoperative the wet runway performance information can still be used. Correct Answer: B Q.304 The first segments of the take-off flight path ends at completion of gear retraction. at completion of flap retraction. at reaching V2. at 35 ft above the runway. Correct Answer: A Q.305 Balanced V1 is selected 76/149 for a runway length limited take-off with a clearway to give the highest mass. if it is equal to V2. if the accelerate stop distance is equal to the one engine out take-off distance. for a runway length limited take-off with a stopway to give the highest mass. Correct Answer: C Q.306 A class B fire is a fire of: electrical source fire special fire: metal, gas, chemical product liquid or liquefiable solid solid material usually of organic nature Correct Answer: C Q.307 ETOPS flight is a twin engine jet aeroplane flight conducted over a route, where no suitable airport is within an area of 75 minutes flying time at the approved one engine out cruise speed. 60 minutes flying time in still air at the approved one engine out cruise speed. 60 minutes flying time in still air at the normal cruising speed. 30 minutes flying time at the normal cruising speed. Correct Answer: B Q.308 How is V2 affected if T/O flaps 20° is chosen instead of T/O flaps 10°? V2 increases in proportion to the angle at which the flaps are set. V2 has no connection with T/O flap setting, as it is a function of runway length only. V2 decreases if not restricted by VMCA. V2 has the same value in both cases. Correct Answer: C Q.309 The danger associated with low speed and/or high speed buffet 77/149 limits the manoeuvring load factor at high altitudes. can be reduced by increasing the load factor. exists only above MMO has to be considered at take-off and landing. Correct Answer: A Q.310 If the climb speed schedule is changed from 280/.80 to 290/.80 the new crossover altitude is unchanged. only affected by the aeroplane gross mass. lower. higher. Correct Answer: C Q.311 Reduced take-off thrust should normally not be used when: it is dark the runway is wet obstacles are present close to the end of the runway. the runway is contaminated. Correct Answer: D Q.312 The Speed V2 is defined for jet aeroplane as take-off climb speed or speed at 35 ft. lift off speed. take-off decision speed. critical engine failure speed Correct Answer: A Q.313 What effect has a downhill slope on the take-off speeds? The slope 78/149 has no effect on the take-off speed V1. decreases the take-off speed V1. decreases the TAS for take-off increases the IAS for take-off. Correct Answer: B Q.314 If the antiskid system is inoperative, which of the following statements is true? It has no effect on the accelerate stop distance. Take-off with antiskid inoperative is not permitted. The accelerate stop distance increases. The accelerate stop distance decreases Correct Answer: C Q.315 Which of the following represents the maximum value for V1 assuming max tyre speed and max brake energy speed are not limiting? VREF VR VMCA V2 Correct Answer: B Q.316 A 'Balanced Field Length' is said to exist where: The accelerate stop distance is equal to the take-off distance available. The clearway does not equal the stopway. The accelerate stop distance is equal to the all engine take-off distance. The one engine out take-off distance is equal to the all engine take-off distance. Correct Answer: A Q.317 The speed V2 is 79/149 that speed at which the PIC should decide to continue or not the take-off in the case of an engine failure. the lowest airspeed required to retract flaps without stall problems. the lowest safety airspeed at which the aeroplane is under control with aerodynamic surfaces in the case of an engine failure. the take-off safety speed. Correct Answer: D Q.318 The speed VS is defined as speed for best specific range. stalling speed or minimum steady flight speed at which the aeroplane is controllable. safety speed for take-off in case of a contaminated runway. design stress speed. Correct Answer: B Q.319 A higher outside air temperature does not have any noticeable effect on climb performance. reduces the angle of climb but increases the rate of climb. reduces the angle and the rate of climb. increases the angle of climb but decreases the rate of climb. Correct Answer: C Q.320 During the flight preparation a pilot makes a mistake by selecting a V1 greater than that required. Which problem will occur when the engine fails at a speed immediately above the correct value of V1? The stop distance required will exceed the stop distance available. The one engine out take-off distance required may exceed the take-off distance available. V2 may be too high so that climb performance decreases. It may lead to over-rotation. Correct Answer: A Q.321 what is the effect of a head wind component, compared to still air, on the maximum range speed (IAS) and the speed for maximum climb angle respectively? 80/149 Maximum range speed decreases and maximum climb angle speed decreases. Maximum range speed increases and maximum climb angle speed increases. Maximum range speed increases and maximum climb angle speed stays constant. Maximum range speed decreases and maximum climb angle speed increases. Correct Answer: C Q.322 The optimum cruise altitude increases if the aeroplane mass is decreased if the temperature (OAT) is increased. if the tailwind component is decreased. if the aeroplane mass is increased. Correct Answer: A Q.323 What will be the influence on the aeroplane performance if aerodrome pressure altitude is increased It will increase the take-off distance It will decrease the take-off distance. It will increase the take-off distance available. It will increase the accelerate stop distance available Correct Answer: A Q.324 Moving the centre of gravity from the forward to the aft limit (gross mass, altitude and airspeed remain unchanged increases the power required. affects neither drag nor power required. increases the induced drag. decreases the induced drag and reduces the power required. Correct Answer: D Q.325 Reduced take-off thrust should normally not be used when: 81/149 it is dark. the runway is dry. the runway is wet. windshear is reported on the take-off path. Correct Answer: D Q.326 Which statement regarding V1 is correct? V1 is not allowed to be greater than VMCG. When determining the V1, reverse thrust is only allowed to be taken into account on the remaining symmetric engines. The V1 correction for up-slope is negative. V1 is not allowed to be greater than VR. Correct Answer: D Q.327 In relation to the net take-off flight path, the required 35 ft vertical distance to clear all obstacles is based on pressure altitudes. The height by which acceleration and flap retraction should be completed The height at which power is reduced to maximum climb thrust. The minimum vertical distance between the lowest part of the aeroplane and all obstacles within the obstacle corridor. Correct Answer: D Q.328 The stopway is an area which allows an increase only in : The accelerate-stop distance available The take-off run available. The take-off distance available. The landing distance available. Correct Answer: A Q.329 the drift down requirements are based on: 82/149 the actual engine thrust output at the altitude of engine failure. the minimum flight path gradient during the descent. the landing mass limit at the alternate. the obstacle clearance during a descent to the new cruising altitude if an engine has failed. Correct Answer: D Q.330 After engine failure the aeroplane is unable to maintain its cruising altitude. What is the procedure which should be applied? Emergency Descent procedure. ETOPS, Long Range Cruise Descent. Drift Down procedure. Correct Answer: D Q.331 Which of the following statements with regard to the actual acceleration height at the beginning of the 3rd climb segment is correct? The minimum value according to regulations is 1000 ft. There is no legal minimum value, because this will be determined from case to case during the calculation of the net flight path. The minimum value according to regulations is 400 ft. A lower height than 400 ft is allowed in special circumstances e.g. noise abatement. Correct Answer: C Q.332 Which of the following statements is correct? VR is the speed at which, during rotation, the nose wheel comes off the runway. VR is the speed at which the pilot should start to rotate the aeroplane. VR should not be higher than V1. VR should not be higher than 1.05 VMCG. Correct Answer: B Q.333 The Density Altitude 83/149 is used to calculate the FL above the Transition Altitude. is used to determine the aeroplane performance. is equal to the pressure altitude is used to establish minimum clearance of 2.000 feet over mountains. Correct Answer: B Q.334 The second segment begins when landing gear is fully retracted. when flap retraction beings. when flaps are selected up. when acceleration starts from V2 to the speed for flap retraction. Correct Answer: A Q.335 The stalling speed or the minimum steady flight speed at which the aeroplane is controllable in landing configuration is abbreviated as VS1. VS. VMC. VSO. Correct Answer: D Q.336 In case of an engine failure which is recognized at or above V1 the take-off should be rejected if the speed is still below VR. the take-off must be continued. the take-off must be rejected if the speed is still below VLOF. a height of 50 ft must be reached within the take-off distance. Correct Answer: B Q.337 The approach climb requirement has been established so that the aeroplane will achieve: 84/149 manoeuvrability during approach with full flaps and gear down, all engines operating. minimum climb gradient in the event of a go-around with one engine inoperative. obstacle clearance in the approach area. manoeuvrability in the event of landing with one engine inoperative. Correct Answer: B Q.338 Density altitude is the altitude read directly from the altimeter height above the surface pressure altitude corrected for 'non standard' temperature altitude reference to the standard datum plane Correct Answer: C Q.339 An increase in atmospheric pressure has, among other things, the following consequences on landing performance: a reduced landing distance and degraded go around performance a reduced landing distance and improved go-around performance an increased landing distance and degraded go-around performance an increased landing distance improved go-around performance Correct Answer: B Q.340 A multi engine aeroplane is flying at the minimum control speed (VMCA). Which parameter(s) must be maintainable after engine failure? Heading, altitude and a positive rate of climb of 100 ft/min Altitude Straight flight Straight flight and altitude Correct Answer: C Q.341 The length of a clearway may be included in: 85/149 the accelerate-stop distance available. the take-off run available. the distance to reach V1. the take-off distance available. Correct Answer: D Q.342 How is VMCA influenced by increasing pressure altitude? VMCA decreases with increasing pressure altitude. VMCA increases with pressure altitude higher than 4000 ft. VMCA increases with increasing pressure altitude. VMCA is not affected by pressure altitude. Correct Answer: C Q.343 During take-off the third segment begins when acceleration to flap retraction speed is started. when landing gear is fully retracted. when acceleration starts from VLOF to V2. when flap retraction is completed. Correct Answer: A Q.344 The climb limited take-off mass can be increased by selecting a lower VR. a lower flap setting for take-off and selecting a higher V2. selecting a lower V1. selecting a lower V2. Correct Answer: B Q.345 The maximum mass for landing could be limited by 86/149 the climb requirements with all engines in the landing configuration but with gear up. the climb requirements with one engine inoperative in the approach configuration. the climb requirements with one engine inoperative in the landing configuration. the climb requirements with all engines in the approach configuration. Correct Answer: B Q.346 The speed range between low speed buffet and high speed buffet decreases with increasing mass and is independent of altitude. is only limiting at low altitudes. increases with increasing mass. narrow with increasing mass and increasing altitude. Correct Answer: D Q.347 The landing field length required for jet aeroplanes at the alternate (wet condition) is the demonstrated landing distance plus 92% 43% 70% 67% Correct Answer: A Q.348 A jet aeroplane descends with constant Mach number.Which of the following speed limits is most likely to be exceeded first? Maximum Operational Mach Number Maximum Operational Speed Never Exceed speed High Speed Buffet Limit Correct Answer: B Q.349 Due to standing water on the runway the field length limited take-off mass will be 87/149 Only higher for three and four engine aeroplanes. lower. higher. unaffected. Correct Answer: B Q.350 Which is the correct sequence of speeds during take-off? V1, VR, V2, VMCA. VMCG, V1, VR, V2. V1, VMCG, VR, V2. V1, VR, VMCG, V2. Correct Answer: B Q.351 Which of the following will decrease V1? Inoperative flight management system. Increased outside air temperature. Inoperative anti-skid. Increased take-off mass. Correct Answer: C Q.352 Reduced take-off thrust can be used if the headwind component during take-off is at least 10 kt. has the benefit of improving engine life. can be used if the actual take-off mass is higher than the performance limited take-off mass. is not recommended very low temperature (OAT). Correct Answer: B Q.353 Below the optimum cruise altitude 88/149 the Mach number for long range cruise decreases continuously with decreasing altitude. the IAS for long range cruise increases continuously with decreasing altitude. the TAS for long range cruise increases continuously with decreasing altitude. the Mach number for long range cruise increases continuously with decreasing altitude. Correct Answer: A Q.354 Which of the following is true with regard to VMCA (air minimum control speed)? The aeroplane is uncontrollable below VMCA The aeroplane will not gather the minimum required climbs gradient VMCA only applies to four-engine aeroplanes Straight flight can not be maintained below VMCA, when the critical engine has failed. Correct Answer: D Q.355 Minimum control speed on ground, VMCG, is based on directional control being maintained by: nosewheel steering only. primary aerodynamic control only. primary aerodynamic control and nosewheel. primary aerodynamic control, nosewheel steering and differential braking. Correct Answer: B Q.356 Which statement about reduced thrust is correct? In case of reduced thrust V1 should be decreased. Reduced thrust can be used when the actual take-off mass is less than the field length limited take-off mass. Reduced thrust is primarily a noise abatement procedure. Reduced thrust is used in order to save fuel. Correct Answer: B Q.357 Before take-off the temperature of the wheel brakes should be checked. For what reason? 89/149 To ensure that the wheels have warmed up evenly. To ensure that the thermal blow-out plugs are not melted. Because overheated brakes will not perform adequately in the event of a rejected take-off. To ensure that the brake wear is not excessive. Correct Answer: C Q.358 Which of the following set of factors could lead to a V2 value which is limited by VMCA? High take-off mass, low flap setting and high field elevation. Low take-off mass, high flap setting and low field elevation. Low take-off mass, low flap setting and low field elevation. High take-off mass, high flap setting and low field elevation. Correct Answer: B Q.359 The take-off distance required increases due to slush on the runway. due to downhill slope because of the smaller angle of attack. due to head wind because of the drag augmentation. due to lower gross mass at take-off. Correct Answer: A Q.360 Which of the following will give the most accurate calculation of aircraft ground speed? A DME station sited on the flight route An ADF sited on the flight route A VOR station sited on the flight route DME station sited across the flight route Correct Answer: A Q.361 When Mode C is selected on the aircraft SSR transponder the additional information transmitted is: 90/149 altitude based on regional QNH aircraft height based on sub-scale setting height based on QFE flight level based on 1013.25 hPa Correct Answer: D Q.362 The ATC transponder system, excluding Mode S, contains : two modes, each of 4096 codes four modes, each 1024 codes four modes, each 4096 codes two modes, each 1024 codes Correct Answer: A Q.363 Given: Course Deviation indicator(CDI) for a VOR is selected to 090°. From/To indicator indicates "TO".CDI needle is deflected halfway to the right. On what radial is the aircraft? 095 275 085 265 Correct Answer: B Q.364 The heading rose of an HSI is frozen on 200°. Lined up on the ILS of runway 25, the localizer needle will be: centred left of centre right of centre centred with the 'fail' flag showing Correct Answer: A Q.365 What approximate rate of descent is required in order to maintain a 3° glide path at a groundspeed of 120 kt? 91/149 950 FT/MIN 600 FT/MIN 550 FT/MIN 800 FT/Min Correct Answer: B Q.366 What is the minimum number of satellites required by a GPS in order to obtain a three dimensional fix? 3 5 6 4 Correct Answer: D Q.367 Every 10 kt decrease in groundspeed, on a 3° ILS glidepath, will require an approximate: increase in the aircraft's rate of descent of 50 FT/MIN decrease in the aircraft's rate of descent of 100 FT/MIN increase in the aircraft's rate of descent of 100 FT/MIN decrease in the aircraft's rate of descent of 50 FT/MIN Correct Answer: D Q.368 The two main design functions of Secondary Surveillance Radar(SSR) Mode S are: air to ground and ground to air data link communications and improved ATC aircraft surveillance capability. collision avoidance using TCAS II and improved long range (HF) communication capability. continuous automatic position reporting using Global Positioning System (GPS) satellites and collision avoidance using TCAS II the elimination of ground to air communications and the introduction of automatic separation between aircraft using TCAS II Correct Answer: A Q.369 The selection of code 2000 on an aircraft SSR transponder indicates: 92/149 entry into airspace from an area where SSR operation has not been required unlawful interference with the planned operation of the flight an emergency transponder malfunction Correct Answer: A Q.370 Of what use, if any, is a military TACAN station to civil aviation? It can provide a DME distance and magnetic bearing It can provide a magnetic bearing It can provide DME distance It is of no use to civil aviation Correct Answer: C Q.371 A DME is located at MSL. An aircraft passing vertically above the station at flight level FL 360 will obtain a DME range of approximately: 7 NM 11 NM 8 NM 6 NM Correct Answer: D Q.372 A VOR and DME are co-located. You want to identify the DME by listening to the callsign. Having heard the same callsign 4 times in 30 seconds the: VOR and DME callsigns were the same and broadcast with the same pitch DME callsign is the one with the higher pitch that was broadcast only once DME callsign was not transmitted, the distance information is sufficient proof of correct operation DME callsign is the one with the lower pitch that was broadcast several times Correct Ans

1 LPJ Qatar Question Bank.pdf

Document Details

Tags

Related

Full Transcript

Upgrade to continue