Performances-145-175.pdf

and the longitudinal CG-position is at 3.10 m.Determine the longitudinal CG position in the following conditions :- pilot and front passenger : 150 kg- rear passengers : 150 kg- fuel : 500 kg a) 2.91 m b) 2.85 m c) 2.97 m d) 2.82 m 31.3.2.4 (1717) Length of the mean aerodynamic chord = 1 mMoment arm...

and the longitudinal CG-position is at 3.10 m.Determine the longitudinal CG position in the following conditions :- pilot and front passenger : 150 kg- rear passengers : 150 kg- fuel : 500 kg a) 2.91 m b) 2.85 m c) 2.97 m d) 2.82 m 31.3.2.4 (1717) Length of the mean aerodynamic chord = 1 mMoment arm of the forward cargo: -0,50 mMoment arm of the aft cargo: + 2,50 mThe aircraft mass is 2 200 kg and its centre of gravity is at 25% MACTo move the centre of gravity to 40%, which mass has to be transferred from the forward to the aft cargo hold? a) 110 kg b) 183 kg c) 165 kg d) 104 kg off decision speedVR= Rotation speedV2 min.= Minimum take-off safety speedThe correct formula is: a) VMCG<=VEF < V1 b) 1.05 VMCA<= VEF<= V1 c) 1.05 VMCG< VEF<= VR d) V2min<= VEF<= VMU 32.1.1.0 (1723) Given:VS= Stalling speedVMCA= Air minimum control speed VMU= Minimum unstick speed (disregarding engine failure)V1= take-off decision speedVR= Rotation speedV2 min.= Minimum take-off safety speedVLOF: Lift-off speed The correct formula is: a) VS< VMCA< V2 min b) VR< VMCA< VLOF c) VMU<= VMCA< V1 d) V2min< VMCA> VMU 31.3.3.1 (1718) Loads must be adequately secured in order to: a) avoid unplanned centre of gravity (cg) movement and aircraft damage. b) avoid any centre of gravity (cg) movement during flight. c) prevent excessive 'g'-loading during the landing flare. d) allow steep turns. 32.1.1.0 (1724) Regarding take-off, the take-off decision speed V1: a) is the airspeed on the ground at which the pilot is assumed to have made a decision to continue or discontinue the take-off. b) is always equal to VEF (Engine Failure speed). c) is an airspeed at which the aeroplane is airborne but below 35 ft and the pilot is assumed to have made a decision to continue or discontinue the take-off . d) is the airspeed of the aeroplane upon reaching 35 feet above the take-off surface. 31.3.3.2 (1719) Assume:Aeroplane gross mass: 4750 kgCentre of gravity at station: 115.8What will be the new position of the centre of gravity if 100 kg is moved from the station 30 to station 120? a) Station 117.69 b) Station 118.33 c) Station 120.22 d) Station 118.25 32.1.1.0 (1725) The point where Drag coefficient/Lift coefficient is a minimum is a) the point where a tangent from the origin touches the drag curve. b) the lowest point of the drag curve. c) at stalling speed (VS). d) on the ""back side"" of the drag curve. 32.1.1.0 (1720) Density altitude is the a) pressure altitude corrected for 'non standard' temperature b) altitude reference to the standard datum plane c) altitude read directly from the altimeter d) height above the surface 32.1.1.0 (1721) The Density Altitude a) is used to determine the aeroplane performance. b) is equal to the pressure altitude. c) is used to establish minimum clearance of 2.000 feet over mountains. d) is used to calculate the FL above the Transition Altitude. 32.1.1.0 (1722) Given that:VEF= Critical engine failure speed VMCG= Ground minimum control speedVMCA= Air minimum control speed VMU= Minimum unstick speedV1= Take- 32.1.1.0 (1726) Which of the following statements is correct? a) Induced drag decreases with increasing speed. b) Induced drag increases with increasing speed. c) Induced drag is independant of the speed. d) Induced drag decreases with increasing angle of attack. 32.1.1.0 (1727) The point at which a tangent out of the origin touches the power required curve a) is the point where the Lift to Drag ratio is a maximum. b) is the point where Drag coefficient is a minimum. c) is the point where the Lift to Drag ratio is a minimum. d) is the maximum drag speed. 32.1.1.0 (1728) On a reciprocating engined aeroplane, to maintain a given angle of attack, configuration and altitude at higher gross mass a) the airspeed and the drag will be increased. 145 b) the airspeed will be decreased and the drag increased. c) the lift/drag ratio must be increased. d) the airspeed will be increased but the drag does not change. 32.1.1.0 (1729) On a reciprocating engined aeroplane, to maintain a given angle of attack, configuration and altitude at higher gross mass a) an increase in airspeed and power is required. b) a higher coefficient of drag is required. c) an increase in airspeed is required but power setting does not change. d) requires an increase in power and decrease in the airspeed. 32.1.1.0 (1730) On a reciprocating engined aeroplane, with increasing altitude at constant gross mass, angle of attack and configuraton the drag a) remains unchanged but the TAS increases. b) remains unchanged but the the CAS increases. c) increases at constant TAS. d) decreases and the CAS decreases too because of the lower air density. 32.1.1.0 (1731) On a reciprocating engined aeroplane, with increasing altitude at constant gross mass, angle of attack and configuraton the power required a) increases and the TAS increases by the same percentage. b) increases but TAS remains constant. c) decreases slightly because of the lower air density. d) remains unchanged but the TAS increases. 32.1.1.0 (1732) A lower airspeed at constant mass and altitude requires a) a higher coefficient of lift. b) less thrust and a lower coefficient of lift. c) more thrust and a lower coefficient of lift. d) more thrust and a lower coefficient of drag. 32.1.1.0 (1733) The coefficient of lift can be increased either by flap extension or by a) increasing the angle of attack. b) increasing the TAS. c) decreasing the 'nose-up' elevator trim setting. d) increasing the CAS. 32.1.1.0 (1734) The speed VS is defined as a) stalling speed or minimum steady flight speed at which the aeroplane is controllable. b) safety speed for take-off in case of a contaminated runway. c) design stress speed. d) speed for best specific range. 32.1.1.0 (1735) The stalling speed or the minimum steady flight speed at which the aeroplane is controllable in landing configuration is abbreviated as a) VSO. b) VS1. c) VS. d) VMC. 32.1.1.0 (1736) In unaccelerated climb a) thrust equals drag plus the downhill component of the gross weight in the flight path direction. b) lift is greater than the gross weight. c) lift equals weight plus the vertical component of the drag. d) thrust equals drag plus the uphill component of the gross weight in the flight path direction. 32.1.1.0 (1737) Which of the equations below expresses approximately the unaccelerated percentage climb gradient for small climb angles? a) Climb Gradient = ((Thrust - Drag)/Weight) x 100 b) Climb Gradient = ((Thrust + Drag)/Lift) x 100 c) Climb Gradient = ((Thrust - Mass)/Lift) x 100 d) Cimb Gradient = (Lift/Weight) x 100 32.1.1.0 (1738) The rate of climb a) is approximately climb gradient times true airspeed divided by 100. b) is the downhill component of the true airspeed. c) is angle of climb times true airspeed. d) is the horizontal component of the true airspeed. 32.1.1.0 (1739) Any acceleration in climb, with a constant power setting, a) decreases the rate of climb and the angle of climb. b) improves the climb gradient if the airspeed is below VX. c) improves the rate of climb if the airspeed is below VY. d) decreases rate of climb and increses angle of climb. 32.1.1.0 (1740) Which force compensates the weight in unaccelerated straight and level flight ? a) the lift b) the thrust c) the drag d) the resultant from lift and drag 32.1.1.0 (1741) In which of the flight conditions listed below is the thrust required (Tr) equal to the drag (D)? a) In level flight with constant IAS b) In accelerated level flight 146 c) In a climb with constant IAS d) In a descent with constant TAS 32.1.1.0 (1742) The load factor in a turn in level flight with constant TAS depends on a) the bank angle only. b) the radius of the turn and the bank angle. c) the true airspeed and the bank angle. d) the radius of the turn and the weight of the aeroplane. 32.1.1.0 (1743) The induced drag of an aeroplane a) decreases with increasing airspeed. b) decreases with increasing gross weight. c) is independent of the airspeed. d) increases with increasing airspeed. 32.1.1.0 (1744) The induced drag of an aeroplane at constant gross weight and altitude is highest at a) VSO (stalling speed in landing configuration) b) VS1 (stalling speed in clean configuration) c) VMO (maximum operating limit speed) d) VA (design manoeuvring speed) 32.1.1.0 (1745) What is the most important aspect of the 'backside of the power curve'? a) The speed is unstable. b) The aeroplane will not stall. c) The altitude cannot be maintained. d) The elevator must be pulled to lower the nose. 32.1.2.0 (1746) Take-off performance data, for the ambient conditions, show the following limitations with flap 10° selected:- runway limit: 5 270 kg- obstacle limit: 4 630 kgEstimated take-off mass is 5 000kg.Considering a take-off with flaps at: a) 5°, the obstacle limit is increased but the runway limit decreases b) 5°, both limitations are increased c) 20°, the obstacle limit is increased but the runway limit decreases d) 20°, both limitations are increased 32.1.2.1 (1747) An increase in atmospheric pressure has, among other things, the following consequences on landing performance: a) a reduced landing distance and improved go-around performance b) an increased landing distance and degraded go-around performance c) an increased landing distance and improved go-around performance d) a reduced landing distance and degraded go around performance 32.1.2.1 (1748) How does the thrust of fixed propeller vary during take-off run ? The thrust a) decreases slightly while the aeroplane speed builds up. b) increases slightly while the aeroplane speed builds up. c) varies with mass changes only. d) has no change during take-off and climb. 32.1.2.1 (1749) A decrease in atmospheric pressure has, among other things, the following consequences on take-off performance: a) an increased take-off distance and degraded initial climb performance b) a reduced take-off distance and improved initial climb performance c) an increased take-off distance and improved initial climb performance d) a reduced take-off distance and degraded initial climb performance 32.1.2.1 (1750) An increase in atmospheric pressure has, among other things, the following consequences on take-off performance: a) a reduced take-off distance and improved initial climb performance b) an increases take-off distance and degraded initial climb performance c) an increased take-off distance and improved initial climb performance d) a reduced take-off distance and degraded initial climb performance 32.1.2.2 (1751) (For this question use annex 032-2219A or Performance Manual SEP1 1 Figure 2.4 )With regard to the graph for landing performance, what is the minimum headwind component required in order to land at Helgoland airport?Given:Runway length: 1300 ftRunway elevation: MSLWeather: assume ISA conditionsMass: 3200 lbsObstacle height: 50 ft a) 10 kt. b) No wind. c) 5 kt. d) 15 kt. 32.1.2.2 (1752) (For this question use annex 032-6590A or Performance Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.4)Using the Landing Diagramm, for single engine aeroplane, determine the landing distance (from a screen height of 50 ft) required, in the following conditions: Given : Pressure altitude: 4000 ftO.A.T.: 5°CAeroplane mass: 3530 lbsHeadwind component: 15 ktFlaps: Approach settingRunway: tarred and dryLanding gear: down a) 1400 ft b) 880 ft c) 1550 ft d) 1020 ft 32.1.2.2 (1753) (For this question use annex 032-6569A or Performance Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.4)With regard to the landing chart for the single engine aeroplane determine the landing distance from a height of 50 ft .Given :O.A.T : 27 °CPressure Altitude: 3000 ftAeroplane Mass: 2900 lbsTailwind component: 5 ktFlaps: Landing position 147 (down) Runway: Tarred and Dry a) approximately : 1850 feet b) approximately : 1120 feet c) approximately : 1700 feet d) approximately : 1370 feet 32.1.2.2 (1754) (For this question use annex 032-6570A or Performance Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.4)With regard to the landing chart for the single engine aeroplane determine the landing distance from a height of 50 ft .Given :O.A.T : ISA +15°CPressure Altitude: 0 ftAeroplane Mass: 2940 lbsTailwind component: 10 ktFlaps: Landing position (down) Runway: Tarred and Dry a) approximately : 1300 feet b) approximately : 950 feet c) approximately : 1400 feet d) approximately : 750 feet 32.1.2.2 (1755) (For this question use annex 032-6571A or Performance Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.4)With regard to the landing chart for the single engine aeroplane determine the landing distance from a height of 50 ft .Given :O.A.T : ISAPressure Altitude: 1000 ftAeroplane Mass: 3500 lbsTailwind component: 5 ktFlaps: Landing position (down) Runway: Tarred and Dry a) approximately : 1700 feet b) approximately :1150 feet c) approximately : 1500 feet d) approximately : 920 feet 32.1.2.2 (1756) (For this question use annex 032-6572A or Performance Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.4)With regard to the landing chart for the single engine aeroplane determine the landing distance from a height of 50 ft .Given :O.A.T : 0°CPressure Altitude: 1000 ftAeroplane Mass: 3500 lbsTailwind component: 5 ktFlaps: Landing position (down) Runway: Tarred and Dry a) approximately : 1650 feet b) approximately : 1150 feet c) approximately : 1480 feet d) approximately : 940 feet 32.1.2.2 (1757) (For this question use annex 032-6573A or Performance Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.4)With regard to the landing chart for the single engine aeroplane determine the landing distance from a height of 50 ft .Given :O.A.T : ISA +15°CPressure Altitude: 0 ftAeroplane Mass: 2940 lbsHeadwind component: 10 ktFlaps: Landing position (down) Runway: short and wet grass- firm soilCorrection factor (wet grass): 1.38 a) approximately :1794 feet b) approximately : 1300 feet c) approximately : 2000 feet d) approximately : 1450 feet 32.1.2.2 (1758) (For this question use annex 032-6574A or Performance Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.1)With regard to the take off performance chart for the single engine aeroplane determine the take off distance to a height of 50 ft .Given :O.A.T : 30°CPressure Altitude: 1000 ftAeroplane Mass: 3450 lbsTailwind component: 2.5 ktFlaps: up Runway: Tarred and Dry a) approximately : 2470 feet b) approximately : 1440 feet c) approximately : 2800 feet d) approximately : 2200 feet 32.1.2.2 (1759) (For this question use annex 032-6575A or Performance Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.1)With regard to the take off performance chart for the single engine aeroplane determine the maximum allowable take off mass .Given :O.A.T : ISAPressure Altitude: 4000 ftHeadwind component: 5 ktFlaps: up Runway: Tarred and DryFactored runway length: 2000 ftObstacle height: 50 ft a) 3240 lbs b) 3000 lbs c) 2900 lbs d) > 3650 lbs 32.1.2.2 (1760) (For this question use annex 032-6576A or Performance Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.2)With regard to the take off performance chart for the single engine aeroplane determine the take off distance to a height of 50 ft.Given :O.A.T : -7°CPressure Altitude: 7000 ftAeroplane Mass: 2950 lbsHeadwind component: 5 ktFlaps: Approach settingRunway: Tarred and Dry a) approximately : 2050 ft b) approximately : 1150 ft c) approximately : 2450 ft d) approximately : 1260 ft 32.1.2.2 (1761) (For this question use annex 032-6577A or Performance Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.1)With regard to the take off performance chart for the single engine aeroplane determine the take off speed for (1) rotation and (2) at a height of 50 ft.Given :O.A.T : ISA+10°CPressure Altitude: 5000 ftAeroplane mass: 3400 lbsHeadwind component: 5 ktFlaps: up Runway: Tarred and Dry a) 71 and 82 KIAS b) 73 and 84 KIAS c) 68 and 78 KIAS d) 65 and 75 KIAS 32.1.2.2 (1762) (For this question use annex 032-6578A or Performance Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.2)With regard to the take off performance chart for the single engine aeroplane determine the take off distance to a height of 50 ft.Given :O.A.T : 38°CPressure Altitude: 4000 ftAeroplane Mass: 3400 lbsTailwind component: 5 ktFlaps: Approach settingRunway: Dry GrassCorrection factor: 1.2 a) approximately : 3960 ft b) approximately : 3680 ft 148 c) approximately : 4200 ft d) approximately : 5040 ft c) improves angle and rate of climb. d) decreases angle and rate of climb. 32.1.2.2 (1763) (For this question use annex 032-6580A or Performance Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.2)With regard to the take off performance chart for the single engine aeroplane determine the take off distance over a 50 ft obstacle height.Given :O.A.T : 30°CPressure Altitude: 1000 ftAeroplane Mass: 2950 lbsTailwind component: 5 ktFlaps: Approach settingRunway: Short, wet grass, firm subsoilCorrection factor: 1.25 (for runway conditions) a) 2375 ft b) 1900 ft c) 1600 ft d) 2000 ft 32.1.3.0 (1769) A constant headwind a) increases the angle of the descent flight path. b) increases the angle of descent. c) increases the rate of descent. d) increases the descent distance over ground. 32.1.3.0 (1764) Assuming that the required lift exists, which forces determine an aeroplane's angle of climb? a) Weight, drag and thrust. b) Weight and drag only. c) Thrust and drag only. d) Weight and thrust only. 32.1.3.0 (1765) How does the best angle of climb and best rate of climb vary with increasing altitude? a) Both decrease. b) Both increase. c) Best angle of climb increases while best rate of climb decreases. d) Best angle of climb decreases while best rate of climb increases. 32.1.3.0 (1766) The 'climb gradient' is defined as the ratio of a) the increase of altitude to horizontal air distance expressed as a percentage. b) the increase of altitude to distance over ground expressed as a percentage. c) true airspeed to rate of climb. d) rate of climb to true airspeed. 32.1.3.0 (1767) A higher outside air temperature a) reduces the angle and the rate of climb. b) increases the angle of climb but decreases the rate of climb. c) does not have any noticeable effect on climb performance. d) reduces the angle of climb but increases the rate of climb. 32.1.3.0 (1768) A headwind component increasing with altitude, as compared to zero wind condition, (assuming IAS is constant) a) has no effect on rate of climb. b) does not have any effect on the angle of flight path during climb. 32.1.3.0 (1770) A constant headwind component a) increases the angle of flight path during climb. b) increases the best rate of climb. c) decreases the angle of climb. d) increases the maximum endurance. 32.1.3.1 (1771) (For this question use annex 032-11661A or Performance Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.1)An extract of the flight manual of a single engine propeller aircraft is reproduced in annex.Airport characteristics: hard, dry and zero slope runwayActual conditions are:pressure altitude: 1 500 ftoutside tempereature: +18°Cwind component: 4 knots tailwindFor a take-off mass of 1 270 kg, the take-off distance will be: a) 525 m b) 415 m c) 440 m d) 615 m 32.1.3.1 (1772) (For this question use annex 032-6587A or Flight planning Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.4) Using the Range Profile Diagramm, for the single engine aeroplane, determine the range, with 45 minutes reserve, in the following conditions: Given :O.A.T.: ISA +16°CPressure altitude: 4000 ftPower: Full throttle / 25,0 in/Hg./ 2100 RPM a) 865 NM b) 739 NM c) 851 NM d) 911 NM 32.1.3.1 (1773) (For this question use annex 032-6588A or Flight planning Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.4) Using the Range Profile Diagramm, for the single engine aeroplane, determine the range, with 45 minutes reserve, in the following conditions:Given :O.A.T.: ISA -15°C Pressure altitude: 12000 ftPower: Full throttle / 23,0 in/Hg./ 2300 RPM a) 902 NM b) 875 NM c) 860 NM d) 908 NM 32.1.3.1 (1774) (For this question use annex 032-6579A or Performance Manual SEP 1 Figure 149 2.3)With regard to the climb performance chart for the single engine aeroplane determine the climb speed (ft/min).Given :O.A.T : ISA + 15°CPressure Altitude: 0 ftAeroplane Mass: 3400 lbsFlaps: upSpeed: 100 KIAS a) 1290 ft/min b) 1370 ft/min c) 1210 ft/min d) 1150 ft/min 32.1.3.1 (1775) (For this question use annex 032-6581A or Performance Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.3)Using the climb performance chart, for the single engine aeroplane, determine the ground distance to reach a height of 2000 ft above the reference zero inthe following conditions:Given :O.A.T. at take-off: 25°CAirport pressure altitude: 1000 ftAeroplane mass: 3600 lbsSpeed: 100 KIASWind component: 15 kts Headwind a) 18 347 ft b) 21 505 ft c) 24 637 ft d) 18 832 ft 32.1.3.1 (1776) (For this question use annex 032-6582A or Performance Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.3)Using the climb performance chart, for the single engine aeroplane, determine the ground distance to reach a height of 1500 ft above the reference zero inthe following conditions:Given : O.A.T at Take-off: ISAAirport pressure altitude: 5000 ftAeroplane mass: 3300 lbsSpeed: 100 KIASWind component: 5 kts Tailwind a) 16 665 ft b) 18 909 ft c) 18 073 ft d) 20 109 ft 32.1.3.1 (1777) (For this question use annex 032-6583A or Performance Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.3)Using the climb performance chart, for the single engine aeroplane, determine the rate of climb and the gradient of climb in the following conditions:Given : O.A.T at Take-off: ISAAirport pressure altitude: 3000 ftAeroplane mass: 3450 lbsSpeed: 100 KIAS a) 1120 ft/min and 9,3% b) 1030 ft/min and 8,4% c) 1170 ft/min and 9,9% d) 1310 ft/min and 11,3% 32.1.3.1 (1778) (For this question use annex 032-6584A or Flight Planning Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.2 Table 2.2.3)Using the Power Setting Table, for the single engine aeroplane, determine the manifold pressure and fuel flow (lbs/hr) with full throttle and cruise lean mixture in the following conditions:Given:OAT: 13°CPressure altitude: 8000 ftRPM: 2300 a) 22,4 in.Hg and 69,3 lbs/hr b) 23,0 in.Hg and 69,0 lbs/hr c) 22,4 in.Hg and 71,1 lbs/hr d) 22,4 in.Hg and 73,8 lbs/hr 32.1.3.1 (1779) (For this question use annex 032-6585A or Flight planning Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.2 Table 2.2.3)Using the Power Setting Table, for the single engine aeroplane, determine the cruise TAS and fuel flow (lbs/hr) with full throttle and cruise lean mixture in the following conditions:Given:OAT: 13°CPressure altitude: 8000 ftRPM: 2300 a) 160 kt and 69,3 lbs/hr b) 158 kt and 74,4 lbs/hr c) 160 kt and 71,1 lbs/hr d) 159 kt and 71,7 lbs/hr 32.1.3.1 (1780) (For this question use annex 032-6586A or Flight planning Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.3 Table 2.3.1)Using the Power Setting Table, for the single engine aeroplane, determine the cruise TAS and fuel flow (lbs/hr) with full throttle and cruise lean mixture in the following conditions:Given :OAT: 3°CPressure altitude: 6000 ftPower: Full throttle / 21,0 in/Hg./ 2100 RPM a) 134 kt and 55,7 lbs/hr b) 136 kt and 56,9 lbs/hr c) 131 kt and 56,9 lbs/hr d) 125 kt and 55,7 lbs/hr 32.1.3.2 (1781) With regard to a unaccelerated horizontal flight, which of the following statement is correct? a) The minimum drag is proportional to the aircraft mass. b) The minimum drag is a function of the pressure altitude. c) The minimum drag is is a function of the density altitude. d) The minimum drag is independant of the aircraft mass. 32.1.3.2 (1782) Which of the following statements is correct?If the aircraft mass, in a horizontal unaccelerated flight, decreases a) the minimum drag decreases and the IAS for minimum drag decreases. b) the minimum drag increases and the IAS for minimum drag decreases. c) the minimum drag increases and the IAS for minimum drag increases. d) the minimum drag decreases and the IAS for minimum drag increases. 32.1.3.2 (1783) (For this question use annex 032-2211A)Which of the following diagrams correctly shows the movement of the power required curve with increasing altitude .(H1 < H2) a) Figure d b) Figure b c) Figure c d) Figure a 32.1.3.2 (1784) The maximum indicated air speed of a piston engined aeroplane, in level flight, is reached: a) at the lowest possible altitude. 150 b) at the optimum cruise altitude. c) at the service ceiling. d) at the practical ceiling. 32.1.3.2 (1785) The pilot of a single engine aircraft has established the climb performance. The carriage of an additional passenger will cause the climb performance to be: a) Degraded b) Improved c) Unchanged d) Unchanged, if a short field take-off is adopted 32.1.3.3 (1786) What affect has a tailwind on the maximum endurance speed? a) No affect b) Tailwind only effects holding speed. c) The IAS will be increased. d) The IAS will be decreased. 32.2.1.0 (1787) At a given mass, the stalling speed of a twin engine aircraft is 100 kt in the landing configuration. The minimum speed a pilot must maintain in short final is: a) 130 kt b) 115 kt c) 125 kt d) 120 kt 32.2.1.1 (1788) The critical engine inoperative a) increases the power required because of the greater drag caused by the windmilling engine and the compensation for the yaw effect. b) does not affect the aeroplane performance since it is independent of the power plant. c) decreases the power required because of the lower drag caused by the windmilling engine. d) increases the power required and decreases the total drag due to the windmilling engine. 32.2.1.1 (1789) A multi engine aeroplane is flying at the minimum control speed (VMCA). Which parameter(s) must be maintainable after engine failure? a) Straight flight b) Straight flight and altitude c) Heading, altitude and a positive rate of climb of 100 ft/min d) Altitude 32.2.1.1 (1790) The speed V1 is defined as a) take-off decision speed. b) take-off climb speed. c) speed for best angle of climb. d) engine failure speed. 32.2.1.1 (1791) The speed VLO is defined as a) landing gear operating speed. b) design low operating speed. c) long distance operating speed. d) lift off speed. 32.2.1.1 (1792) VX is a) the speed for best angle of climb. b) the speed for best rate of climb. c) the speed for best specific range. d) the speed for best angle of flight path. 32.2.1.1 (1793) The speed for best rate of climb is called a) VY. b) VX. c) V2. d) VO. 32.2.2.1 (1794) Which of the following speeds can be limited by the 'maximum tyre speed'? a) Lift-off groundspeed. b) Lift-off IAS. c) Lift-off TAS. d) Lift-off EAS. 32.2.2.1 (1795) Changing the take-off flap setting from flap 15° to flap 5° will normally result in : a) a longer take-off distance and a better climb. b) a shorter take-off distance and an equal climb. c) a better climb and an equal take-off distance. d) a shorter take-off distance and a better climb. 32.2.2.1 (1796) If other factors are unchanged, the fuel mileage (nautical miles per kg) is a) lower with a forward centre of gravity position. b) independent from the centre of gravity position. c) lower with an aft centre of gravity position. d) higher with a forward centre of gravity position. 32.2.2.1 (1797) The result of a higher flap setting up to the optimum at take-off is a) a shorter ground roll. b) an increased acceleration. c) a higher V1. d) a longer take-off run. 151 32.2.2.2 (1798) Which of the following combinations adversely affects take-off and initial climb performance ? a) High temperature and high relative humidity b) Low temperature and high relative humidity c) High temperature and low relative humidity d) Low temperature and low relative humidity 32.2.2.2 (1799) What effect has a downhill slope on the take-off speeds? The slope a) decreases the take-off speed V1. b) decreases the TAS for take-off. c) increases the IAS for take-off. d) has no effect on the take-off speed V1. 32.2.2.2 (1800) The effect of a higher take-off flap setting up to the optimum is: a) an increase of the field length limited take-off mass but a decrease of the climb limited take-off mass. b) a decrease of the field length limited take-off mass but an increase of the climb limited take-off mass. c) a decrease of both the field length limited take-off mass and the climb limited take-off mass. d) an increase of both the field length limited take-off mass and the climb limited take-off mass. 32.2.2.2 (1801) When the outside air temperature increases, then a) the field length limited take-off mass and the climb limited take-off mass decreases. b) the field length limited take-off mass and the climb limited take-off mass increases. c) the field length limited take-off mass decreases but the climb limited take-off mass increases. d) the field length limited take-off mass increases but the climb limited take-off mass decreases. 32.2.2.2 (1802) Due to standing water on the runway the field length limited take-off mass will be a) lower. b) higher. c) unaffected. d) only higher for three and four engine aeroplanes. 32.2.2.2 (1803) On a dry runway the accelerate stop distance is increased a) by uphill slope. b) by headwind. c) by low outside air temperature. d) by a lower take-off mass because the aeroplane accelerates faster to V1. 32.2.2.2 (1804) Which of the following are to be taken into account for the runway in use for takeoff ? a) Airport elevation, runway slope, outside air temperature, pressure altitude and wind components. b) Airport elevation, runway slope, standard temperature, standard pressure and wind components. c) Airport elevation, runway slope, standard temperature, pressure altitude and wind components. d) Airport elevation, runway slope, outside air temperature, standard pressure and wind components. 32.2.2.2 (1805) What is the effect of increased mass on the performance of a gliding aeroplane? a) The speed for best angle of descent increases. b) There is no effect. c) The gliding angle decreases. d) The lift/drag ratio decreases. 32.2.2.2 (1806) A higher pressure altitude at ISA temperature a) decreases the field length limited take-off mass. b) decreases the take-off distance. c) increases the climb limited take-off mass. d) has no influence on the allowed take-off mass. 32.2.2.2 (1807) The take-off distance required increases a) due to slush on the runway. b) due to downhill slope because of the smaller angle of attack. c) due to head wind because of the drag augmentation. d) due to lower gross mass at take-off. 32.2.2.2 (1808) A runway is contaminated by a 0,5 cm layer of wet snow. The take-off is nevertheless authorized by a light-twin's flight manual. The take-off distance in relation to a dry runway will be: a) increased b) unchanged c) decreased d) very significantly decreased 32.2.2.2 (1809) A runway is contaminated with 0.5 cm of wet snow.The flight manual of a light twin nevertheless authorises a landing in these conditions. The landing distance will be, in relation to that for a dry runway: a) increased b) unchanged c) reduced d) substantially decreased 152 32.2.3.0 (1810) What is the effect of a head wind component, compared to still air, on the maximum range speed (IAS) and the speed for maximum climb angle respectively? a) Maximum range speed increases and maximum climb angle speed stays constant. b) Maximum range speed decreases and maximum climb angle speed increases. c) Maximum range speed decreases and maximum climb angle speed decreases. d) Maximum range speed increases and maximum climb angle speed increases. 32.2.3.1 (1811) The stopway is an area which allows an increase only in : a) the accelerate-stop distance available. b) the take-off run available. c) the take-off distance available. d) the landing distance available. 32.2.3.1 (1812) For a turboprop powered aeroplane, a 2200 m long runway at the destination aerodrome is expected to be ""wet"". The ""dry runway"" landing distance, should not exceed: a) 1339 m. b) 1771 m. c) 1540 m. d) 1147 m. 32.2.3.1 (1813) Which of the following factors favours the selection of a low flap setting for the take-off? a) High field elevation, distant obstacles in the climb-out path, long runway and a high ambient temperature. b) Low field elevation, close-in obstacles in the climb-out path, long runway and a high ambient temperature. c) High field elevation, no obstacles in the climb-out path, low ambient temperature and short runway. d) Low field elevation, no obstacles in the climb-out path, short runway and a low ambient temperature. 32.2.3.1 (1814) Field length is balanced when a) take-off distance equals accelerate-stop distance. b) calculated V2 is less than 110% VMCA and V1, VR, VMCG. c) all engine acceleration to V1 and braking distance for rejected take-off are equal. d) one engine acceleration from V1 to VLOF plus flare distance between VLOF and 35 feet are equal. 32.2.3.1 (1815) What is the advantage of a balanced field length condition ? a) A balanced field length gives the minimum required field length in the event of an engine failure. b) A balanced take-off provides the lowest elevator input force requirement for rotation. c) For a balanced field length the required take-off runway length always equals the available runway length. d) A balanced field length provides the greatest margin between ""net"" and ""gross"" take-off flight paths. 32.2.3.1 (1816) The take-off distance of an aircraft is 600m in standard atmosphere, no wind at 0 ft pressure-altitude.Using the following corrections: ""± 20 m / 1 000 ft field elevation"" ""- 5 m / kt headwind"" ""+ 10 m / kt tail wind"" ""± 15 m / % runway slope"" ""± 5 m / °C deviation from standard temperature""The take-off distance from an airport at 1 000 ft elevation, temperature 17°C, QNH 1013,25 hPa, 1% up-slope, 10 kt tail wind is: a) 755 m b) 715 m c) 555 m d) 685 m 32.2.3.1 (1817) An aircraft has two certified landing flaps positions, 25° and 35°.If a pilot chooses 35° instead of 25°, the aircraft will have: a) a reduced landing distance and degraded go-around performance b) a reduced landing distance and better go-around performance c) an increased landing distance and degraded go-around performance d) an increased landing distance and better go-around performance 32.2.3.1 (1818) Following a take-off, limited by the 50 ft screen height, a light twin climbs on a gradient of 5%.It will clear a 160 m obstacle in relation to the runway (horizontally), situated at 5 000 m from the 50 ft point with an obstacle clearance margin of: a) 105 m b) 90 m c) 75 m d) it will not clear the obstacle 32.2.3.1 (1819) If the airworthiness documents do not specify a correction for landing on a wet runway, the landing distance must be increased by: a) 15% b) 5% c) 10% d) 20% 32.2.3.1 (1820) Following a take-off determined by the 50ft (15m) screen height, a light twin climbs on a 10% over-the-ground climb gradient.It will clear a 900 m high obstacle in relation to the runway (horizontally), situated at 10 000 m from the 50 ft clearing point with an obstacle clearance of: a) 115 m b) 100 m c) 85 m d) It will not clear the obstacle 153 32.2.3.1 (1821) An aircraft has two certified landing flaps positions, 25° and 35°.If a pilot chooses 25° instead of 35°, the aircraft will have: a) an increased landing distance and better go-around performance b) a reduced landing distance and better go-around performance c) an increased landing distance and degraded go-around performance d) a reduced landing distance and degraded go-around performance 32.2.3.1 (1822) The take-off distance of an aircraft is 800m in standard atmosphere, no wind at 0 ft pressure-altitude.Using the following corrections : ""± 20 m / 1 000 ft field elevation "" ""- 5 m / kt headwind "" ""+ 10 m / kt tail wind "" ""± 15 m / % runway slope "" ""± 5 m / °C deviation from standard temperature ""The take-off distance from an airport at 2 000 ft elevation, temperature 21°C, QNH 1013.25 hPa, 2% up-slope, 5 kt tail wind is : a) 970 m b) 890 m c) 870 m d) 810 m 32.2.3.2 (1823) During climb to the cruising level, a headwind component a) decreases the ground distance flown during that climb. b) increases the amount of fuel for the climb. c) increases the climb time. d) decreases the climb time. 32.2.3.2 (1824) The angle of climb with flaps extended, compared to that with flaps retracted, will normally be: a) Smaller. b) Larger. c) Not change. d) Increase at moderate flap setting, decrease at large flap setting. 32.2.3.2 (1825) Which of the following combinations basically has an effect on the angle of descent in a glide?(Ignore compressibility effects.) a) Configuration and angle of attack. b) Mass and altitude. c) Altitude and configuration. d) Configuration and mass. 32.2.3.2 (1826) Two identical aeroplanes at different masses are descending at idle thrust. Which of the following statements correctly describes their descent characteristics ? a) At a given angle of attack, both the vertical and the forward speed are greater for the heavier aeroplane. b) There is no difference between the descent characteristics of the two aeroplanes. c) At a given angle of attack the heavier aeroplane will always glide further than the lighter aeroplane. d) At a given angle of attack the lighter aeroplane will always glide further than the heavier aeroplane. 32.2.3.2 (1827) When flying the ""Backside of Thrustcurve"" means a) a lower airspeed requires more thrust. b) the thrust required is independent of the airspeed. c) a thrust reduction results in an acceleration of the aeroplane. d) a lower airspeed requires less thrust because drag is decreased. 32.2.3.2 (1828) In a steady descending flight (descent angle GAMMA) equilibrium of forces acting on the aeroplane is given by:(T = Thrust, D = Drag, W = Weight) a) T + W sin GAMMA = D b) T - W sin GAMMA = D c) T - D = W sin GAMMA d) T + D = - W sin GAMMA 32.2.3.2 (1829) An aeroplane executes a steady glide at the speed for minimum glide angle. If the forward speed is kept constant, what is the effect of a lower mass? Rate of descent / Glide angle / CL/CD ratio a) increases / increases / decreases b) decreases / constant / decreases c) increases / increases / constant d) increases / constant / increases 32.2.3.2 (1830) An aeroplane is in a power off glide at best gliding speed. If the pilot increases pitch attitude the glide distance: a) decreases. b) increases. c) remains the same. d) may increase or decrease depending on the aeroplane. 32.2.3.2 (1831) Which of the following provides maximum obstacle clearance during climb? a) The speed for maximum climb angle Vx. b) 1.2Vs. c) The speed for maximum rate of climb. d) The speed, at which the flaps may be selected one position further UP. 32.2.3.2 (1832) Which of the following factors will lead to an increase of ground distance during a glide, while maintaining the appropriate minimum glide angle speed? a) Tailwind. b) Increase of aircraft mass. c) Decrease of aircraft mass. d) Headwind. 154 32.2.3.2 (1833) Which of the following factors leads to the maximum flight time of a glide? a) Low mass. b) High mass. c) Headwind. d) Tailwind. 32.2.3.2 (1834) What is the influence of the mass on maximum rate of climb (ROC) speed if all other parameters remain constant ? a) The ROC speed increases with increasing mass. b) The ROC speed decreases with increasing mass. c) The ROC is affected by the mass, but not the ROC speed. d) The ROC and the ROC speed are independant of the mass. 32.2.3.2 (1835) (For this question use annex 032-4744A)Considering a rate of climb diagram (ROC versus TAS) for an aeroplane. Which of the diagrams shows the correct curves for ""flaps down"" compared to ""clean"" configuration? a) a b) b c) c d) d 32.2.3.2 (1836) With an true airspeed of 194 kt and a vertical speed of 1 000 ft/min, the climb gradient is about : a) 3° b) 3% c) 5° d) 8% 32.2.3.2 (1837) On a twin engined piston aircraft with variable pitch propellers, for a given mass and altitude, the minimum drag speed is 125 kt and the holding speed (minimum fuel burn per hour) is 95 kt.The best rate of climb speed will be obtained for a speed: a) equal to 95 kt b) inferior to 95 kts c) is between 95 and 125 kt d) equal to 125 kt 32.2.3.2 (1838) A climb gradient required is 3,3%. For an aircraft maintaining 100 kt true airspeed , no wind, this climb gradient corresponds to a rate of climb of approximately: a) 330 ft/min b) 3 300 ft/min c) 3,30 m/s d) 33,0 m/s 32.2.3.2 (1839) The climb gradient of an aircraft after take-off is 6% in standard atmosphere, no wind, at 0 ft pressure altitude.Using the following corrections: ""± 0,2 % / 1 000 ft field elevation"" ""± 0,1 % / °C from standard temperature"" "" - 1 % with wing anti-ice"" "" - 0,5% with engine anti-ice""The climb gradient after take-off from an airport situated at 1 000 ft, 17° C, QNH 1013,25 hPa, with wing and engine anti-ice operating for a functional check is : a) 3,90% b) 4,30% c) 4,70% d) 4,90% 32.2.3.3 (1840) During climb with all engines, the altitude where the rate of climb reduces to 100 ft/min is called: a) Service ceiling b) Absolute ceiling c) Thrust ceiling d) Maximum transfer ceiling 32.2.3.3 (1841) The maximum rate of climb that can be maintained at the absolute ceiling is: a) 0 ft/min b) 125 ft/min c) 500 ft/min d) 100 ft/min 32.2.3.3 (1842) Considering TAS for maximum range and maximum endurance, other factors remaining constant, a) both will increase with increasing altitude. b) both will decrease with increasing altitude. c) both will stay constant regardless of altitude. d) TAS for maximum range will increase with increased altitude while TAS for maximum endurance will decrease with increased altitude. 32.2.3.3 (1843) A twin engined aeroplane in cruise flight with one engine inoperative has to fly over high ground. In order to maintain the highest possible altitude the pilot should choose: a) the speed corresponding to the maximum value of the lift / drag ratio. b) the long range speed. c) the speed corresponding to the minimum value of (lift / drag)^3/2. d) the speed at the maximum lift. 32.2.3.3 (1844) The maximum horizontal speed occurs when: a) The maximum thrust is equal to the total drag. b) The thrust is equal to the maximum drag. c) The thrust is equal to minimum drag. d) The thrust does not increase further with increasing speed. 155 32.2.3.3 (1845) With respect to the optimum altitude, which of the following statements is correct ? a) An aeroplane sometimes flies above or below the optimum altitude because optimum altitude increases continuously during flight. b) An aeroplane always flies below the optimum altitude, because Mach buffet might occur. c) An aeroplane always flies at the optimum altitude because this is economically seen as the most attractive altitude. d) An aeroplane flies most of the time above the optimum altitude because this yields the most economic result. 32.2.3.3 (1846) How does the lift coefficient for maximum range vary with altitude?(No compressibility effects.) a) The lift coefficient is independant of altitude. b) The lift coefficient decreases with increasing altitude. c) The lift coefficient increases with increasing altitude. d) Only at low speeds the lift coefficient decreases with increasing altitude. 32.2.3.3 (1847) The optimum altitude a) increases as mass decreases and is the altitude at which the specific range reaches its maximum. b) decreases as mass decreases. c) is the altitude at which the specific range reaches its minimum. d) is the altitude up to which cabin pressure of 8 000 ft can be maintained. 32.2.3.3 (1848) To achieve the maximum range over ground with headwind the airspeed should be a) higher compared to the speed for maximum range cruise with no wind. b) equal to the speed for maximum range cruise with no wind. c) lower compared to the speed for maximum range cruise with no wind. d) reduced to the gust penetration speed. 32.2.3.3 (1849) The absolute ceiling a) is the altitude at which the rate of climb theoretically is zero. b) can be reached only with minimim steady flight speed c) is the altitude at which the best climb gradient attainable is 5% d) is the altitude at which the aeroplane reaches a maximum rate of climb of 100 ft/min. 32.2.3.3 (1850) The pilot of a light twin engine aircraft has calculated a 4 000 m service ceiling, based on the forecast general conditions for the flight and a take-off mass of 3 250 kg.If the take-off mass is 3 000 kg, the service ceiling will be: a) higher than 4 000 m. b) less than 4 000 m. c) unchanged, equal to 4 000 m. d) only a new performance analysis will determine if the service ceiling is higher or lower than 4 000 m. 32.2.3.4 (1851) Which statement regarding the relationship between traffic load and range is correct? a) The traffic load can be limited by the desired range. b) The maximum zero fuel mass limits the maximum quantity of fuel. c) The maximum landing mass is basically equal to the maximum zero fuel mass. d) The maximum traffic load is not limited by the reserve fuel quantity. 32.2.3.5 (1852) The speed for maximum lift/drag ratio will result in : a) The maximum range for a propeller driven aeroplane. b) The maximum range for a jet aeroplane. c) The maximum endurance for a propeller driven aeroplane. d) The maximum angle of climb for a propeller driven aeroplane. 32.2.3.5 (1853) Maximum endurance for a piston engined aeroplane is achieved at: a) The speed that approximately corresponds to the maximum rate of climb speed. b) The speed for maximum lift coefficient. c) The speed for minimum drag. d) The speed that corresponds to the speed for maximum climb angle. 32.2.3.5 (1854) (For this question use annex 032-2929A)Consider the graphic representation of the power required versus true air speed (TAS), for a piston engined aeroplane with a given mass. When drawing the tangent from the origin, the point of contact (A) determines the speed of: a) maximum specific range. b) maximum endurance. c) maximum thrust. d) critical angle of attack. 32.2.3.5 (1855) For a piston engined aeroplane, the speed for maximum range is : a) that which gives the maximum lift to drag ratio. b) that which givesthe minimum value of drag. c) that which givesthe maximun value of lift d) 1.4 times the stall speed in clean configuration. 32.2.3.5 (1856) The flight manual of a light twin engine recommends two cruise power settings, 65 and 75 %. The 75% power setting in relation to the 65 % results in: a) an increase in speed, fuel consumption and fuel-burn/distance. b) same speed and an increase of the fuel-burn per hour and fuel-burn/distance. c) an increase in speed and fuel-burn/distance, but an unchanged fuel-burn per hour. d) same speed and fuel-burn/distance, but an increase in the fuel-burn per hour. 32.2.4.1 (1857) (For this question use annex 032-4743A or Performance Manual MEP1 Figure 3.2)With regard to the graph for the light twin aeroplane, will the accelerate and stop distance be achieved in a take-off where the brakes are released before take- 156 off power is set? a) No, the performance will be worse than in the chart. b) Performance will be better than in the chart. c) Yes, the chart has been made for this situation. d) It does not matter which take-off technique is being used. 32.3.1.0 (1858) Provided all other parameters stay constant. Which of the following alternatives will decrease the take-off ground run? a) Decreased take-off mass, increased density, increased flap setting. b) Increased pressure altitude, increased outside air temperature, increased take-off mass. c) Increased outside air temperature, decreased pressure altitude, decreased flap setting. d) Decreased take-off mass, increased pressure altitude, increased temperature. 32.3.1.1 (1859) An airport has a 3000 metres long runway, and a 2000 metres clearway at each end of that runway. For the calculation of the maximum allowed take-off mass, the take-off distance available cannot be greater than: a) 4500 metres. b) 6000 metres. c) 4000 metres. d) 5000 metres. 32.3.1.1 (1860) During the certification flight testing of a twin engine turbojet aeroplane, the real take-off distances are equal to:- 1547 m with all engines running- 1720 m with failure of critical engine at V1, with all other things remaining unchanged.The take-off distance adopted for the certification file is: a) 1779 m. b) 1978 m. c) 1547 m. d) 1720 m. 32.3.1.1 (1861) The take-off decision speed V1 is: a) a chosen limit. If an engine failure is recognized before reaching V1 the take-off must be aborted. b) not less than V2min, the minimum take-off safety speed. c) a chosen limit. If an engine failure is recognized after reaching V1 the take-off must be aborted. d) sometimes greater than the rotation speed VR. 32.3.1.1 (1862) Minimum control speed on ground, VMCG, is based on directional control being maintained by: a) primary aerodynamic control only. b) primary aerodynamic control and nosewheel. c) primary aerodynamic control, nosewheel steering and differential braking. d) nosewheel steering only. 32.3.1.1 (1863) The take-off performance requirements for transport category aeroplanes are based upon: a) failure of critical engine or all engines operating which ever gives the largest take off distance. b) all engines operating. c) only one engine operating. d) failure of critical engine. 32.3.1.1 (1864) Which of the following distances will increase if you increase V1? a) Accelerate Stop Distance b) Take-off distance c) All Engine Take-off distance d) Take-off run 32.3.1.1 (1865) The length of a clearway may be included in: a) the take-off distance available. b) the accelerate-stop distance available. c) the take-off run available. d) the distance to reach V1. 32.3.1.1 (1866) The one engine out take-off run is the distance between the brake release point and: a) the middle of the segment between VLOF point and 35 ft point. b) the lift-off point. c) the point where V2 is reached. d) the point half way between V1 and V2. 32.3.1.1 (1867) What is the advantage of balancing V1, even in the event of a climb limited takeoff? a) The safety margin with respect to the runway length is greatest. b) The take-off distance required with one engine out at V1 is the shortest. c) The accelerate stop distance required is the shortest. d) The climb limited take-off mass is the highest. 32.3.1.1 (1868) Which statement is correct? a) The climb limited take-off mass depends on pressure altitude and outer air temperature b) The performance limited take-off mass is the highest of:field length limited take-off massclimb limited take-off massobstacle limited take-off mass. c) The climb limited take-off mass will increase if the headwind component increases. d) The climb limited take-off mass increases when a larger take-off flap setting is used. 32.3.1.1 (1869) Maximum and minimum values of V1 are limited by : a) VR and VMCG 157 b) V2 and VMCA c) VR and VMCA d) V2 and VMCG 32.3.1.1 (1870) Take-off run is defined as the a) horizontal distance along the take-off path from the start of the take-off to a point equidistant between the point at which VLOF is reached and the point at which the aeroplane is 35 ft above the take-off surface. b) distance to V1 and stop, assuming an engine failure at V1. c) distance to 35 feet with an engine failure at V1 or 115% all engine distance to 35 feet. d) Distance from brake release to V2. 32.3.1.1 (1871) The minimum value of V2 must exceed ""air minimum control speed"" by: a) 10% b) 15% c) 20% d) 30% 32.3.1.1 (1872) Which of the following statements is correct ? a) A stopway means an area beyond the take-off runway, able to support the aeroplane during an aborted take-off. b) An underrun is an area beyond the runway end which can be used for an aborted take-off. c) A clearway is an area beyond the runway which can be used for an aborted take-off. d) If a clearway or a stopway is used, the liftoff point must be attainable at least at the end of the permanent runway surface. 32.3.1.1 (1873) The decision speed at take-off (V1) is the calibrated airspeed: a) below which take-off must be rejected if an engine failure is recognized, above which take-off must be continued. b) at which the take-off must be rejected. c) below which the take-off must be continued. d) at which the failure of the critical engine is expected to occur. 32.3.1.1 (1874) Which of the following set of factors could lead to a V2 value which is limited by VMCA? a) Low take-off mass, high flap setting and low field elevation. b) Low take-off mass, low flap setting and low field elevation. c) High take-off mass, high flap setting and low field elevation. d) High take-off mass, low flap setting and high field elevation. 32.3.1.1 (1875) During the flight preparation a pilot makes a mistake by selecting a V1 greater than that required. Which problem will occur when the engine fails at a speed immediatly above the correct value of V1? a) The stop distance required will exceed the stop distance available. b) The one engine out take-off distance required may exceed the take-off distance available. c) V2 may be too high so that climb performance decreases. d) It may lead to over-rotation. 32.3.1.1 (1876) Which of the following statements is correct? a) The climb limited take-off mass is independant of the wind component. b) The performance limited take-off mass is independant of the wind component. c) The accelerate stop distance required is independant of the runway condition. d) The take-off distance with one engine out is independant of the wind component. 32.3.1.1 (1877) Which of the following statements is correct? a) VR is the speed at which the pilot should start to rotate the aeroplane. b) VR should not be higher than V1. c) VR should not be higher than 1.05 VMCG. d) VR is the speed at which, during rotation, the nose wheel comes off the runway. 32.3.1.1 (1878) Complete the following statement regarding the take-off performance of an aeroplane in performance class A. Following an engine failure at (i) ........... and allowing for a reaction time of (ii) ........... a correctly loaded aircraft must be capable of decelerating to a halt within the (iii) ......... a) (i) V1 (ii) 2 seconds (iii) Accelerate - stop distance available. b) (i) V2 (ii) 3 seconds (iii) Take-off distance available. c) (i) V1 (ii) 1 second (iii) Accelerate - stop distance available. d) (i) V1 (ii) 2 seconds (iii) Take-off distance available. 32.3.1.1 (1879) With regard to a take-off from a wet runway, which of the following statements is correct? a) The screen height can be lowered to reduce the mass penalties. b) When the runway is wet, the V1 reduction is sufficient to maintain the same margins on the runway length. c) In case of a reverser inoperative the wet runway performance information can still be used. d) Screen height cannot be reduced. 32.3.1.1 (1880) The take-off run is a) the horizontal distance along the take-off path from the start of the take-off to a point equidistant between the point at which VLOF is reached and the point at which the aeroplane is 35 ft above the take-off surface. b) 1.5 times the distance from the point of brake release to a point equidistant between the point at which VLOF is reached and the point at which the aeroplane attains a height of 35 ft above the runway with all engines operative. c) 1.15 times the distance from the point of brake release to the point at which VLOF is reached assuming a failure of the critical engine at V1. d) the distance of the point of brake release to a point equidistant between the point at which VLOF is reached and the point at which the aeroplane attains a height of 50 ft above the runway assuming a failure of the critical engine at V1. 158 32.3.1.1 (1881) Can the length of a stopway be added to the runway length to determine the takeoff distance available ? a) No. b) No, unless its centerline is on the extended centerline of the runway. c) Yes, but the stopway must be able to carry the weight of the aeroplane. d) Yes, but the stopway must have the same width as the runway. 32.3.1.1 (1882) Which is the correct sequence of speeds during take-off? a) VMCG, V1, VR, V2. b) V1, VMCG, VR, V2. c) V1, VR, VMCG, V2. d) V1, VR, V2, VMCA. 32.3.1.1 (1883) Which statement regarding V1 is correct? a) V1 is not allowed to be greater than VR. b) V1 is not allowed to be greater than VMCG. c) When determining the V1, reverse thrust is only allowed to be taken into account on the remaining symmetric engines. d) The V1 correction for up-slope is negative. 32.3.1.1 (1884) When an aircraft takes off with the mass limited by the TODA: a) the actual take-off mass equals the field length limited take-off mass. b) the distance from brake release to V1 will be equal to the distance from V1 to the 35 feet point. c) the ""balanced take-off distance"" equals 115% of the ""all engine take-off distance"". d) the end of the runway will be cleared by 35 feet following an engine failure at V1. 32.3.1.1 (1885) VR cannot be lower than: a) V1 and 105% of VMCA. b) 105% of V1 and VMCA. c) 1.2 Vs for twin and three engine jet aeroplane. d) 1.15 Vs for turbo-prop with three or more engines. 32.3.1.1 (1886) V2 has to be equal to or higher than a) 1.1 VMCA. b) 1.15 VMCG. c) 1.1 VSO. d) 1.15 VR. 32.3.1.1 (1887) V1 has to be a) equal to or higher than VMCG. b) equal to or higher than VMCA. c) higher than than VR. d) equal to or higher than V2. 32.3.1.1 (1888) The speed VR a) is the speed at which rotation to the lift-off angle of attack is initiated. b) must be higher than V2. c) must be higher than VLOF. d) must be equal to or lower than V1. 32.3.1.1 (1889) The speed V2 is a) the take-off safety speed. b) that speed at which the PIC should decide to continue or not the take-off in the case of an engine failure. c) the lowest airspeed required to retract flaps without stall problems. d) the lowest safety airspeed at which the aeroplane is under control with aerodynamic surfaces in the case of an engine failure. 32.3.1.1 (1890) Which take-off speed is affected by the presence or absence of stopway and/or clearway ? a) V1 b) V2 c) VMCG d) VMCA 32.3.1.1 (1891) The speed V2 is defined for jet aeroplane as a) take-off climb speed or speed at 35 ft. b) lift off speed. c) take-off decision speed. d) critical engine failure speed. 32.3.1.1 (1892) The take-off mass could be limited by a) the take-off distance available (TODA), the maximum brake energy and the climb gradient with one engine inoperative. b) the maximum brake energy only. c) the climb gradient with one engine inoperative only. d) the take-off distance available (TODA) only. 32.3.1.1 (1893) Which of the following is true with regard to VMCA (air minimum control speed)? a) Straight flight can not be maintained below VMCA, when the critical engine has failed. b) The aeroplane is uncontrollable below VMCA c) The aeroplane will not gather the minimum required climb gradient d) VMCA only applies to four-engine aeroplanes 32.3.1.1 (1894) Which of the following will decrease V1? a) Inoperative anti-skid. b) Increased take-off mass. 159 c) Inoperative flight management system. d) Increased outside air temperature. 32.3.1.1 (1895) In case of an engine failure recognized below V1 a) the take-off must be rejected. b) the take-off may be continued if a clearway is available. c) the take-off should only be rejected if a stopway is available. d) the take-off is to be continued unless V1 is less than the balanced V1. 32.3.1.1 (1896) In case of an engine failure which is recognized at or above V1 a) the take-off must be continued. b) the take-off must be rejected if the speed is still below VLOF. c) a height of 50 ft must be reached within the take-off distance. d) the take-off should be rejected if the speed is still below VR. 32.3.1.1 (1897) The take-off distance available is a) the length of the take-off run available plus the length of the clearway available. b) the runway length minus stopway. c) the runway length plus half of the clearway. d) the total runway length, without clearway even if this one exists. 32.3.1.1 (1898) The take-off safety speed V2min for turbo-propeller powered aeroplanes with more than three engines may not be less than: a) 1.15 Vs b) 1.3 Vs c) 1.2 Vs d) 1.2 Vs1 32.3.1.1 (1899) The take-off safety speed V2 for two-engined or three-engined turbo propeller powered aeroplanes may not be less than: a) 1.2 Vs b) 1.3 Vs c) 1.