Question Banks 1 Through 5 PDF

Question Bank 1: OSI Model 1. At which OSI layer can a source MAC address be found in the Ethernet header? a. Network layer b. Transport layer c. Physical layer d. Data link layer Answer: d. Data link layer 2. The option of sending a group of segments at one time, instead of just one segm...

Question Bank 1: OSI Model 1. At which OSI layer can a source MAC address be found in the Ethernet header? a. Network layer b. Transport layer c. Physical layer d. Data link layer Answer: d. Data link layer 2. The option of sending a group of segments at one time, instead of just one segment at a time, is provided at what layer of the OSI reference model? a. Data link layer—using link aggregation b. Network layer — using multiprotocol routing c. Transport layer— using Windowing d. Physical layer—using interface bonding Answer: c. Transport layer—using Windowing Explanation: The key word was segments, a datagram term found at the Transport layer 3. The source IP address can be found in the header of a packet at this layer of the OSI reference model a. Network layer b. Session layer c. Data link layer d. Transport layer Answer: a. Network layers 4. Which of the following is a connectionless network layer protocol? a. IP b. TCP c. UDP d. SFTP Answer: a. IP Explanation: UDP and TCP are Transport Layer. IP is Network layer and can only be made connection oriented if coupled with TCP. When IP is coupled with UDP it is considered connectionless. 5. What is the protocol of the address used by a router (at Layer 3) to identify specific devices? a. MAC b. IP c. LLC d. ARP Answer: b. IP 1 Explanation: The Internet Protocol (IP) address is used by routers (at Layer 3) to identify specific devices on a network. This type of address, as opposed to a MAC address, is used across routed devices (routers) (that is, the IP address typically does not change when traffic flows through a router). 6. Which of the following can sequence a received set of segments correctly to reassemble a data stream? a. UDP b. FTP c. ICMP d. TCP Answer: d. TCP 7. Which of the following correctly describes encapsulation as opposed to decapsulation? a. The data moves from the physical layer to application layer b. A header is added at the beginning of a packet. c. The frame header and trailer are stripped off d. The packets are sent to the transport to be reassembled. e. A port number is identified and the data associated with an application. Answer: b. A header is added at the beginning of a packet. Explanation: As data moves down through the OSI model layers (on a host) it is encapsulated with a header at each OSI Layer whether it be a segment, packet, or frame. 8. Which layer of the OSI reference model enforces the Maximum Transmission Unit (MTU) size allowed for transmitted frames? a. Network layer b. Transport layer c. Physical layer d. Data Link Layer Answer: d. Data link layer 9. A Protocol Data Unit (PDU) refers to payload data with metadata fields that describe how the data needs to be handled by the different OSI layers. What is the name of the PDU in the physical layer of the OSI reference model? a. Segment b. Frames c. Bits d. Packet Answer: c. Bits 10. Which of the following is not a characteristic of the Media Access Control (MAC) sublayer of the data link layer (Layer 2) of the OSI reference layered model? a. The MAC sublayer uses a physical address called a MAC address, which is a 48-bit (6-byte) address assigned to a device network interface card. b. Layer 2 devices transmit to logical network addresses. c. Method of transmitting on the media. 2 d. The use of flow control on a network to prevent a receiver from being overwhelmed. Answer: d. The use of flow control on a network to prevent a receiver from being overwhelmed. 11. Which of the following layers of the OSI reference model is primarily concerned with forwarding data based on logical addresses? a. Physical layer b. Data link layer c. Network layer d. Presentation layer Answer: c. Network layer 12. Which of the following transport layer protocol of the OSI reference model is a connection-oriented protocol that provides reliable transport between two communicating hosts? a. Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) b. Transport Control Protocol (TCP) c. User datagram Protocol (UDP) d. Internetwork Packet Exchange (IPX) Answer: a. Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) 13. Which OSI reference model layer is responsible for the following? Setting up a session Maintaining a session Tearing down a session a. Presentation layer (Layer 6) b. Data link layer (Layer 2) c. Session layer (Layer 5) d. Transport layer (layer 4) Answer: c. Session layer (Layer 5) 14. ABC Corporation is changing the format of text from American Standard Code for Information Interchange (ASCII) to Extended Binary Code Decimal Interchange Code (EBCDIC). They also requested that confidential files on servers be protected by applying an appropriate encryption. What OSI reference model layer is responsible for formatting the data encryption? a. Presentation layer (Layer 6) b. Data-link layer (Layer 2) c. Session layer (Layer 5) d. Transport layer (Layer 4) Answer: a. Presentation layer (Layer 6) 15. Which of the following layers is not identified with the TCP/IP protocol stack? a. Transport b. Application c. Presentation d. Internet 3 Answer: c. Presentation Explanation: TCP/IP includes ‘Presentation’ within its application layer. 16. What layer of the OSI corresponds to label A and B? a. A is the host-to-host layer, and B is the Internet access layer. b. A is the session layer, and B is the application layer. c. A is the session layer, and B is the data link layer. d. A is the session layer, and B is the physical layer. Answer: c. A is the session layer, and B is the data link layer. 18. What is the name of the mechanism used by TCP to increase and decrease the number of segments that are sent between each other before an acknowledgment is required? a. Buffering b. Synchronizing c. Scaling d. Windowing Answer: d. Windowing Explanation: TCP uses a mechanism called windowing to control the number of segments that are sent between one device and another before an acknowledgment is required. This "window" slides (or adjusts) as the available bandwidth between devices increases and decreases based on a negotiation between devices. 19. What is the name of the address that is used by a switch to identify specific devices? a. MAC b. IP c. LLC d. ARP Answer: a. MAC Explanation: The Media Access Control (MAC) address is used by switches (at Layer 2) to identify specific devices. This address is typically set by the hardware manufacturer. This address is used for LAN communications only and is not used across routed (routers) devices (that is, the MAC addresses change when traffic flows through a router). It is possible to figure out the manufacturer of a network interface card (NIC) on a network by performing an analysis of the MAC address it is using to communicate. 4 20. Which type of transmission synchronization technique uses start and stop bits at the beginning and end of a data frame? a. Synchronous b. Isochronous c. Asynchronous d. Biochronous Answer: c. Asynchronous Explanation: There are three methods of performing synchronization: isochronous, asynchronous, and synchronous. When using asynchronous, the data frame is encased within a start and stop bit. This lets the receiver know of its location within a traffic stream. 21. Which approach to data transmission consumes all the available signal space/frequencies on a cable to transmit data? a. Broadband b. Baseband c. Time-division multiplexing d. Simplex Answer: b. Baseband Explanation: As opposed to Broadband, which uses frequencies to share the cable, baseband occupies the entire width of the cable, i.e, a square sine wave. 22. The _____________ is the data that is being encapsulated by the various OSI layer headers that are used to direct it to a destination. a. Segment b. Byte c. Payload d. Packet Answer: c. Payload Explanation: The purpose of the headers is to create meta data that can be used to ensure proper and efficient delivery of the data payload 23. Which of the following is a function within the Data Link layer of the OSI model? a. Packaging of frames with a header b. Performing error detection c. Uniquely locating remote MAC addresses d. All of the above Answer: d. All of the above Explanation: The Data Link layer does all of these and also handles flow control and ensures that frames do not exceed the MTU size. 24. Which kind of segment header contains field information known as ‘flags’ relevant to tracking the state in which a connection exists, whether it is open or closed? 5 a. TCP b. UDP c. Port d. Frame CRC Answer: a. TCP Explanation: The TCP header has a ‘flags’ field. The UDP header does not use as field to track session states. The other Answers are not relevant to the question. 25. Which IEEE standard defines wired Ethernet as it is used on modern networks? a. 802.5 b. 802.16 c. 802.3 d. 802.1 Answer: c. 802.3 Explanation: Ethernet as it is used on modern networks is defined within the IEEE 802.3 standard. Other common IEEE standards included 802.1 (bridging), 802.2 (LLC), and 802.11 (wireless Ethernet). Question Bank 2: Network Topologies and Types 1. Which two of the following network categories are not constrained by directional or distance limitations inherent in copper cables? a. LAN b. WLAN c. CAN d. PAN Answer: b. WLAN, d. PAN 2. Examine this table. Which set of matched Answers is correct? Network Class Definition It interconnects locations scattered 1 Local-area network (LAN) A throughout a city. A network scaled smaller than a LAN. An example might be a connection between 2 Wide-area network (WAN) B a smartphone and a headset. Metropolitan-area network It interconnects network components 3 (MAN) C within a building. It interconnects network components that are geographically dispersed 4 Personal-area network (PAN) D between two or more locations. 6 a. 1C, 2D, 3A, 4B b. 1D, 2C, 3B, 4A c. 1B, 2D, 3A, 4C d. 1A, 2D, 3C, 4B Answer: a. 1C, 2D, 3A, 4B 3. Examine the diagrams and list of topology names. From the Answer:matches listed, which one of the Answer:sets is correct? a. 1B, 2C, 3A, 4D b. 1A, 2B, 3C, 4D c. 1B, 2A, 3D, 4C d. 1D, 2C, 3B, 4A Answer: a. 1B, 2C, 3A, 4D 7 4. For the following topology, and when interconnecting multiple geographically dispersed sites with WAN Links to a central site, what is this topology referred to as? a. Ring b. Hub-and-Spoke Topology c. Peer to Peer d. Client Server Answer: b. Hub-and-Spoke Topology 5. Which of the following Answers is true of the diagram shown here? (Choose two.) a. The diagram represents a full-mesh WAN topology. b. It directly connects every site to every other site. c. The directly connected sites create suboptimal paths. 8 d. It is a decentralized organization without a central headquarters. e. It is the least expensive topology. Answers: a. The diagram represents a full-mesh WAN topology. b. It directly connects every site to every other site. 6. Which one of the following is true of a client-server network? a. Client/server networks are not commonly used by businesses. b. Administration of client/server is more difficult than in a peer-to-peer network because the resources are located on one or more servers. c. Client/server networks can have better performance than a peer-to-peer network because their resources can be located on dedicated servers rather than on a PC running a variety of end-user applications. d. The following diagram represents a client/server network. Answer: b. Administration of client/server is more difficult than in a peer-to-peer network because the resources are located on one or more servers. 7. Which option is a benefit of implementing a client/server arrangement over a peer-to-peer arrangement? (Choose two) a. Easy installation b. Cheaper c. Centralized administration d. Scalability Answer: c. Centralized administration; d. Scalability Explanation: There are a number of advantages and disadvantages of implementing a client/server arrangement over a peer-to-peer arrangement. Some of the advantages include centralized administration and scalability. Disadvantages include cost and difficulty to install. 8. Which of the following applies to a client-server network? (Choose two) a. Client/server networks are not commonly used by businesses. 9 b. Administration of client/server is centralized using a dedicated administration server. c. Client/server networks allow users to share or not share resources as they wish. d. The users must login to gain access using credentials administered on the server. Answer: b. Administration of client/server is centralized using a dedicated administration server. d. The users must login to gain access using credentials administered on the server. Explanation: Client/Server networks by design utilize centralized administration to validate login credentials such as a username and password. Because of this, local sharing (peer to peer) on an individual device is not extended to the rest of the network. 9. A Bluetooth connection between a mobile phone and a hearing aid is an example of what type of network category? a. CAN b. LAN c. MAN d. PAN Answer: d. PAN Explanation: A personal-area network (PAN) is a small network when compared to a typical local-area network (LAN). It typically involves a wired or wireless connection between devices within close proximity to each other (~10-50 ft). 10. Which of the following are true for peer-to-peer networks? (Choose two) a. Peer-to-peer networks allow interconnected devices to share their resources with one another. b. Peer-to-peer networks are commonly seen in large enterprises. c. The following diagram represents a peer-to-peer network. d. The following diagram represents a peer-to-peer network. 10 Answers: a.; c. 11. Which two of the following statements about network types is true? a. Client/server networks can easily scale, which might require the purchase of additional client licenses. b. Client/server networks can cost more than peer-to-peer networks. For example, client/server networks might require the purchase of dedicated server hardware and a network OS with an appropriate number of licenses. c. Peer-to-peer networks can be very difficult to install. d. Peer-to-peer networks typically cost more than client/server networks because there is no requirement for dedicated server resources or advanced NOS software. Answers: a. Client/server networks can easily scale, which might require the purchase of additional client licenses. b. Client/server networks can cost more than peer-to-peer networks. For example, client/server networks might require the purchase of dedicated server hardware and a network OS with an appropriate number of licenses. 12. What is the most popular topology that is used on modern LANs? a. Bus b. Star c. Ring d. Partial mesh Answer: b. Star Explanation: The star topology has been the most popular for over two decades. 13. Which option is a benefit of implementing a client/server arrangement over a peer-to-peer arrangement? (Choose two) a. Easy installation b. Cheaper c. Centralized administration d. Easy scalability Answer: c. Centralized administration; d. Easy scalability 11 Explanation: Some of the advantages include that it centralizes the administration of login authentication and can scale in size to hundreds or even thousands of users. A peer-to-peer system is typically limited to a dozen users or less. Some of the disadvantages include that it will typically cost more and is harder to install. 14. In a WAN link, which of the following leased line technologies would offer the best bandwidth options? a. DS0 b. E1 c. T1 d. T3 Answer: d. T3 Explanation: T3 offers at least 44 Mbps 15. Which of the following are true of a Satellite network connection? a. Satellite connections have less delay than earth-based ones. b. Satellite signals are faster than other wireless signals. c. Satellite signals are not as sensitive to weather disruptions as baseband signals. d. Satellite signals are not as geographically limited as 2.4 or 5ghz wifi signals. Answer: d. Satellite signals are not as geographically limited as 2.4 or 5ghz wifi signals. Explanation: Satellites can provide signals to cover many hundreds or even thousands of miles, including vast oceans, depending on their orbit pattern. However, the further from earth their orbit, the more they suffer from delay. They can also be disrupted by interference from weather and solar radiation. 16. Which of the following are examples of Network Virtualization? a. A vSwitch created within a hypervisor b. A remote desktop connection c. A locally administered router located within a cloud provider’s disk array d. A VLAN within a virtual server’s memory e. All of the above f. Only A, B, and C Answer: e. All of the above Explanation: Network Virtualization refers to the use of virtualized memory to create a network service that mimics what might have been a local only device. All of these Answers provide examples of that. 17. Which two of the following would be a specific concern when employing Network Virtualization? a. Quality of Service issues b. Security vulnerabilities c. Com port contention d. Power supply overload Answer: a. Quality of Service issues; b. Security vulnerabilities 12 Explanation: Whenever remote access to a single hardware device is being employed, the remote users are competing for the same hardware resources. This can cause Quality of Service issues as well as a need to pay attention to not allowing permissions across the devices to be generalized. Com port contention is not an issue since the hypervisor is managing that. A power supply overload should not be an issue any more than it would be without the Network Virtualization. 18. What best describes the role of a hypervisor? (Choose two) a. It isolates the guest operating systems by managing memory space. b. It runs faster than the system clock. c. It automates user permissions by default. d. It can abstract the hardware by creating multiple instances of devices in memory. Answers: a. It isolates the guest operating systems by managing memory space. d. It can abstract the hardware by creating multiple instances of devices in memory. Explanation: The hypervisor’s main ability is to parse memory such that operating systems, device drivers and micro services can be isolated and run simultaneously without resource conflicts. In doing so, it can’t run faster than the system allows, nor can it create resources that don’t exist already. It simply makes better utilization of resources already in place. 19. When creating multiple operating systems within a virtual server, the hypervisor can provide each of them with its own IP Address by the creation of a: a. vSwitch b. vNic c. VLAN d. vRouter Answer: b. vNic Explanation: A vNIC is a virtual network interface card, which is actually an additional instance of the NIC driver installed and mapped to the Virtual Machine that is using it. While the vNic can be part of a vSwitch, vRouter, or VLAN, those are not required for it to function. 20. What IoT wireless technology is specifically useful with Personal Area Networks and other short distance connections? a. Microwave b. Satellite L Band c. Bluetooth d. 5G CDMA Answer: c. Bluetooth Explanation: Bluetooth has strictly local limitations. The others are more often used where distance is a primary driver for their selection. 21. An FDDI network uses which type of topology? a. Dual ring 13 b. Ring c. Star d. Bus Answer: a. Dual ring Explanation: Fiber Distributed Data Interface (FDDI) uses a dual counter-rotating ring topology. 22. Examine this table. From the Answer:sets, which one is correct? Network Class Definition It interconnects locations scattered throughout a 1 Local-area network (LAN) A metropolitan area. It is a network whose scale is even smaller than a LAN. An example of this type of network is a connection between a PC and a digital camera via 2 Wide-area network (WAN) B a universal serial bus. It interconnects network components within a 3 Metropolitan-area network (MAN) C local region. It interconnects network components that are 4 Personal-area network (PAN) D geographically dispersed between two locations. a. 1C, 2D, 3A, 4B b. 1D, 2C, 3B, 4A c. 1B, 2D, 3A, 4C d. 1A, 2D, 3C, 4B Answer: a. 1C, 2D, 3A, 4B 23. Which one of the following is a not a network category based on the geographic dispersion of network components? a. Local-area network (LAN) b. World-area network (WAN) c. Campus-area network (CAN) d. Metropolitan-area network (MAN) e. Personal-area network (PAN) Answer: b. World-area network (WAN) Explanation: WAN is a correct acronym but it stands for Wide Area Network, not World. 24. A Bluetooth connection between a mobile phone and a headset is an example of what type of network category? a. CAN 14 b. LAN c. MAN d. PAN Answer: d. PAN Explanation: A personal-area network (PAN) is a small network when compared to a typical local-area network (LAN). It typically involves a wired or wireless connection between devices within close proximity to each other (~10-500 ft). 25. The Internet service provider term ‘Cable Modem’ is best described by which one of the following? a. A DSL device that has identical upstream and downstream bandwidth. b. An ISDN device that can use a common phone line to deliver digital signals. c. A device that modulates/demodulates DOCIS specified frequencies. d. A device that delivers the same dedicated bandwidth regardless of time of day or proxmity to other subscribers. Answer: c. A device that modulates/demodulates DOCIS specified frequencies. Explanation: a, b., and d. would apply to a DSL or Leased line service. c. is the only Answer:that mentions Broadband. 26. What is the name of the technology has changed the landscape of modern networking by moving the control functionality of a networking device to a central managed location? a. Multicast routing protocols b. Virtual networks c. Network virtualization d. Software-defined networking (SDN) Answer: d. Software-defined networking (SDN) Explanation: The software-defined networking (SDN) movement is currently popular and is used inside many of today's most used networks (Amazon, Google). With SDN, the control layer functionality of a routing device (routing protocols) is removed and placed on a central policy server. The physically deployed devices will then be able to concentrate on forwarding traffic. 27. A protocol independent WAN network that employs technologies found in both the Data Link and Network layers is known as: a. Multi-Protocol Label Switching b. SDWAN c. Personal Area Network d. Multi-Point Generic Routing Encapsulation Answer: a. Multi-Protocol Label Switching Explanation: Multi-Protocol Label Switching can make use of a Data Link protocol such as Frame Relay along with a destination routing protocol through the use of special header element called a label. 15 28. What is the name of the specification that indicates the frequencies that are dedicated for data transmission over cable lines? a. DOCSIS b. EIA/TIA 568a c. SONET d. IEEE 802.6 Answer: a. DOCSIS Explanation: The Data-Over-Cable Service Interface Specification (DOCSIS) specifies which frequencies will be used for data communications over cable lines. Question Bank 3: Network Media Types 1. Which wiring standard is most commonly used on Ethernet RJ-45 jacks? a. TIA/EIA-568-B b. IEEE-802.11 c. IEEE 802.3 d. IEEE 802.2 Answer: a. TIA/EIA-568-B 2. Which two types of media are twisted-pair cable? a. STP and UTP b. MMF and SMF c. RG-59 and RG-58 d. RJ-11 and RJ-45 Answer: a. STP and UTP Explanation: A popular LAN media type is twisted-pair cable. Individually insulated copper strands are intertwined into a twisted-pair cable. Two categories of twisted-pair cable are shielded twisted-pair (STP) and unshielded twisted-pair (UTP). Plenum cable is a version of UTP that uses a flame/toxic smoke resistant insulator 3. Ideally, how much data can Category 5e transfer? a. 10 Mbps b. 100 Mbps c. 1000 Mbps d. 10 Gbps Answer: c. 1000 Mbps Explanation: UTP cable types vary in their data carrying capacity. Category 5 (Cat 5) cable is commonly used in Ethernet 100BASE-TX networks, which carry data at a rate of 100 Mbps. Category 5e (Cat 5e) cable is an updated version of Cat 5 and is commonly used for 1000BASE-T networks, which carry data at a rate of 1 Gbps. Cat 5e cable offers reduced crosstalk, as compared to Cat 5 cable. 16 4. What would be the expected maximum transfer rate for CAT6a cable? a. 1 Gbps b. 10 Gbps c. 40 Gbps d. 100 Gbps Answer: B. 10 Gbps is the theoretical maximum for CAT6a. This is achieved by using more insulation to reduce crosstalk and the use of slightly thicker cable to increase the supported frequencies. 5. What is the most common connector that is used with UTP cabling carrying Ethernet traffic? a. RJ-48 b. RJ-45 c. RJ-11 d. RJ-14 Answer: b. RJ-45 Explanation: The RJ-45 connector is used in almost all Ethernet UTP cabling environments. 6. For adherence to fire codes, what type of UTP cabling is used to reduce the amount of poisonous gas created if a fire should occur? a. XPS b. Nonplenum c. Plenum d. PVC Answer: c. Plenum Explanation: Plenum UTP cabling is typically used in open-air returns because of its characteristics when it is introduced to a fire. The fumes that are created in this situation are reduced with plenum cabling to reduce the amount of toxicity to individuals located in the building. 7. Which type of fiber-optic cabling only allows an individual light path through it? a. Unicast mode b. Stream mode c. Multimode d. Single-mode Answer: d. Single-mode Explanation: There are two main types of fiber optic cabling: single-mode and multimode. Single-mode cabling has a very small interfiber core that only allows a single mode (path) of light between the transmitter and the 17 receiver. Multimode cabling has a larger core and allows for multiple modes (paths) of light; this type of cabling is typically used for shorter distances. 8. What is the name that is used to reference the central primary cable distribution point where IDFs are connected together in a building? a. MDF b. IDF c. LDF d. PDF Answer: a. MDF Explanation: The main distribution frame (MDF) is the primary distribution point for the cabling in a building. Multiple intermediate distribution frames (IDFs) may exist throughout the building as smaller distribution points (that is, per floor). 9. What fiber type would you use if the requirements to be met included a SMF media type, 1Gbps bandwidth capacity, and a distance limitation of 5 km? a. 1000BASE-LX b. 1000BASE-SX c. 1000BASE-TX d. Thicknet Answer: a. 1000BASE-LX Explanation: 1000BASE-LX uses single-mode fiber (SMF), has a bandwidth capacity of 1Gbps, and a distance limitation of 5 km. Please refer to Table 3-2 Types of Ethernet. 10. Which two standards are both used as color code guides to swap the transmit and receive wires to make a twisted pair crossover cable? a. TIA/EIA-606A b. TIA/EIA-568A c. EIATIA-606B d. TIA/EIA-568B Answer: b.TIA/EIA-568A; d.TIA/EIA-568B Explanation: Using either the TIA/EIA-568a or b standard at both ends make a straight cable. Using one at one end and another at the other end, makes is a crossover cable, commonly used for connecting like devices. 11. Which category of fiber optic media can carry a signal for the longest distance? a. Straight-through b. Single-mode c. Unshielded d. Multimode Answer: b. Single-mode Explanation: Single mode has a longer distance specification. 18 12. What is a common cable management component for terminating fiber connections? a. A fiber distribution panel b. A 66 block c. A 110 block d. A passive patch panel Answer: a. A fiber distribution panel Explanation: A fiber distribution panel is often used in the fiber media environment for terminating media. 13. What type of connector is often used for cable TV (including cable modem) connections? a. USB-C b. Serial c. F-type d. UPnP Answer: c. F-type Explanation: An F-connector or F-type connector is often used for cable TV (including cable modem) connections. 14. Fiber optical patch panels (often termed “fiber distribution panels”) are used for what purpose? a. Organize and distribute optical cables b. Reduce crosstalk c. Demarcation for CSU/DSU d. Terminate UTP cables Answer: a. Organize and distribute optical cables Explanation: You would use a fiber optic patch panel to organize and distribute optical cables. It also allows you to terminate cable elements and provides a secure, organized chamber for housing connectors and splice units. 15. Which type of cable might be required for installation on a factory floor with a large amount of EMI from electronic robotics and cell signal amplifiers? a. Wireless 5g b. Cat6 Plenum c. Multimode fiber d. HFC Answer: c. Multimode fiber Explanation: Fiber is not affected by either EMI or RF interference. 16. What kind of performance should be expected from an SMF cable labeled as 10GBase-LR? a. 100 Gbps over a distance of 10 kilometers b. 10 Gbps over a distance up to 25 kilometers c. 1 Gbps over a distance of 2 kilometers d. 10 Gbps over a distance of 1000 meters. 19 Answer: b. 10 Gbps over a distance up to 25 kilometers Explanation: This Single Mode Fiber (SMF) label designates 10G or 10 Gbps bandwidth, and the LR indicates a longer range, in this case 25 KM. 17. The fiber optic technology that creates multiple data sessions on a single cable is called: a. Spanning Tree b. MIMO c. Multiplexing d. Intermediate Distribution Facility e. 802.x Answer: c. Multiplexing Explanation: Multiplexing can separate the various light frequencies such that each one is a channel that can carry the payload of a data session simultaneously with the others. 18. Which one of these is the 75 ohm coaxial physical copper media used by cable companies to create broadband networks? a. SMF b. MMF c. RJ-45 d. RG-6 Answer: d. RG-6 Explanation: RG-6 has the distance needed to carry signals far enough to be qualified as a usable coax choice for cable companies. The other choices were not coax cable. Question Bank 3: Topically Related but not directly referenced in textbook 19. What is the name of the cable termination tool pictured here? a. Multimeter b. Crimper c. Pliers d. Bit-error rate tester Answer: b. Crimper Explanation: For copper cable termination, a crimper can be used to attach a connector (for example, an RJ-45 connector) to the end of a UTP cable using one of the EIA/TIA termination standards. 20 Question Bank 4: IP Addressing 1. How many bits are in an IPv4 address? a. 32 b. 64 c. 128 d. 256 Answer: a. 32 2. How many octets are in an IPv4 address? a. 2 b. 4 c. 6 d. 32 Answer: b. 4 Explanation: There are 4 octets and 32 bits. (4 bytes x 8 bits/byte= 32 bits). 3. How many bits are in a byte in an IPv4 address? a. 2 b. 4 c. 6 d. 8 Answer: d. 8 4. What is the result of the binary conversion in the example shown here? 128 64 32 16 8 4 2 1 1 0 0 1 0 1 1 0 a. 105 b. 256 c. 128 d. 150 Answer: d. 150 Explanation: 128 + 0 + 0 + 16 + 0 + 4 + 2 + 0 = 150 21 5. What is the result of the binary conversion in the example shown here? 128 64 32 16 8 4 2 1 1 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 a. 128 b. 256 c. 32 d. 127 Answer: a. 128 Explanation: 128 + 0 + 0 + 0 + 0 + 0 + 0 + 0 = 128 6. What is the binary equivalent of the decimal number 49? a. 10110001 b. 00110001 c. 00110010 d. 00111010 Answer: b. 00110001 Explanation: 128 64 32 16 8 4 2 1 0 0 1 1 0 0 0 1 The binary equivalent of 49 is 00110001 ( 0 + 0 + 32 + 16 + 0 + 0 + 0 + 1 = 49) 7. What do sections A and B refer to in this IP address? a. Section A is the host portion. Section B are network bits. b. Section A is the network portion, and Section B is the host portion. c. Section A is a Class B network, and Section B are unused bits. 22 d. Section A is a broadcast network, and Section B is a unicast. Answer: b. Section A is the network portion, and Section B is the host portion. Explanation: Subnet masks are used to separate the network and host portions of an IPv4 address. In a subnet mask, 1s are used to indicate the network portion of the address, and 0s are used to indicate the host portion of the address. In the preceding example, Section A is the network portion of the IPv4 address, and Section B is the host portion of the IPv4 address, due to the mask that is in use. 8. The IP address range of 172.16.0.0 - 172.31.255.255 is what address class? a. Public Class A b. Private Class B c. Private Class C d. Public Class D Answer: b. Private Class B Explanation: 172.16.0.0 - 172.31.255.255 represents the entire range of Class B private IP addresses. 9. Which IP addresses assignment method leads to less administrative efforts for Information Technology professionals? a. Statically b. Manually c. BOOTP d. DHCP Answer: d. DHCP Explanation: IP addresses can be assigned by DHCP, which allows for automatic assignment of IP addresses to devices. Assigning IP addresses automatically decreases administrative overhead, reduces errors associated with manual IP address assignment and provides scalability to a network. 10. What is the network address for APIPA? a. 169.254.0.0/16 b. 172.16.0.0/16 c. 192.168.0.0/24 d. 10.0.0.0/8 Answer: a. 169.254.0.0/16 Explanation: The APIPA feature allows a networked device to self-assign an IP address from the 169.254.0.0/16 network. However, since it is not ‘routable’, it is a just a number to represent that private network. 11. You have an IP address with a prefix notation of /27. What is the dotted-decimal form of the subnet mask? a. 255.255.255.0 23 b. 255.255.255.128 c. 255.255.255.192 d. 255.255.255.224 Answer: d. 255.255.255.224 Explanation: The binary representation of /27 means 27 bits are on (11111111.11111111.11111111.11100000) or (27 1s and 5 0s), which is 255.255.255.224 in dotted-decimal format. 12. You have a subnet mask of 255.255.255.248. What is the prefix notation? a. /29 b. /28 c. /27 d. /26 Answer: a. /29 Explanation: The binary representation of 255.255.255.248 is 11111111.11111111.11111111.11111000 (29 1s and 3 0s); therefore, the prefix notation is 29. 13. How many subnets do you get with a subnet of 192.168.1.0/28? a. 12 b. 13 c. 16 d. 20 Answer: c. 16 Explanation: The binary representation of /28 prefix is 11111111.11111111.11111111.11110000. The formula to determine the number of subnets is 2 ^ X, where X equals to the number of borrowed bits beyond the default mask of 24, for this Class C address. In this case, there are 4 borrowed bits ( 2 ^ 4 = 16); therefore, there are 16 possible subnets. 14. How many hosts can you have with a subnet of 192.168.1.0/28? a. 30 b. 14 c. 16 d. 6 Answer: b. 14 Explanation: The binary representation of /28 prefix means that 28 are network bits. That leaves four bits for hosts in last octet (11110000). The formula to determine the number of hosts is 2 ^ X - 2, where X is equal to the number host bits. Substituting 4 for x= (2 ^ 4 - 2 = 14). therefore, there are 14 possible hosts. Remember that we subtract the network number and the broadcast address. 24 15. How many bits are used for the host portion of an IPv6 address? a. 256 b. 128 c. 64 d. 32 Answer: c. 64 Explanation: There are 128 bits that are used for the IPv6 address, but the last 64 are generally reserved for the host for an Internet routable address. 16. What symbol can be used to represent a group of consecutive 0s in an IPv6 address? a. Semicolon b. Double semicolon c. Double colon d. Period Answer: c. Double colon Explanation: The double colon can be used to represent a group of consecutive 0s; however, it can only be used once within any single IPv6 notation. 17. What format can be used to represent the low order 64 bits of an IPv6 address by reformatting a devices MAC address? a. EUI-48 b. IEEE 802.3ar c. IEEE 802.3ab d. EUI-64 Answer: d. EUI-64 Explanation: The Extended Unique Identifier (EUI-64) can be used by an IPv6 device to reformat its MAC address into the low-order 64 bits of an address; the high-order 64 bits are either locally configured or retrieved from a local advertising router. 18. Which data flow is not supported by IPv6? a. Broadcast b. Anycast c. Unicast d. Multicast Answer: a. Broadcast 25 Explanation: IPv6 supports three different data flow types: unicast, multicast and anycast. Broadcast is only supported with IPv4. 19. Which of the following representations of the 2001:0000:35d0:0000:5600:abed:e930:0001 address is invalid? a. 2001:0000:35d0::5600:abed:e930:0001 b. 2001::35d0:0:56:abed:e930:0001 c. 2001:0:35d0:0:5600:abed:e930:1 d. 2001::35d0:0:5600:abed:e930:1 Answer: b. 2001::35d0:0:56:abed:e930:0001 Explanation: The 2001:0000:35d0:0000:5600:abed:e930:0001 address can be represented in a number of ways; however, 2001::35d0:0:56:abed:e930:0001 is not one of them. Remember that only leading 0s can be removed from the address. Thus, 5600 cannot be written as 56. 20. What practice allows you to use different subnet masks in a network schema to maximize the efficiency of the number of devices to be accommodated in each network? a. Classful addressing b. DDN c. Native VLAN d. VLSM Answer: d. VLSM Explanation: From a major network address space, you can further subnet an unused subnet! This practice is known as Variable-Length Subnet Masking (VLSM) and allows you to design the network to conform to the expected number of hosts needed in each subnet. 21. What are two IPv6 transition technologies that can coexist with IPv4 to help ensure a smooth transition from IPv4 to IPv6? a. Dual stack b. Anycast c. EUI-64 d. Tunneling Answer: a. Dual stack; d. Tunneling Explanation: IPv6/IPv4 tunneling is often referred to as 6to4 or 4to6 tunneling, depending on which protocol is being tunneled (IPv4 or IPv6). These are just some of the many tunneling mechanisms devised in order to ensure a smooth transition from IPv4 to IPv6. In fact, thanks to dual stack and tunneling features, it is very unlikely that you will see IPv4 ever completely go away in your lifetime. 26 22. IPv6 enables hosts to generate their own IPv6 addresses without the need for a DHCPv6 server. This is referred to as stateless address autoconfiguration (SLAAC) and utilizes the Neighbor Discovery Protocol (NDP) that is built into the IPv6 protocol. Which of these are some of the packet types associated with the NDP process? a. Router Solicitation, Router Advertisement b. DHCPDiscover, DHCPOffer c. IPCP configure-request, IPCP configure-ack d. Down, init, two-way, exstart, exchange Answer: a. Router Solicitation, Router Advertisement Explanation: Neighbor Discovery Protocol defines five ICMPv6 packet types for important jobs: With the Router Solicitation type, hosts inquire with Router Solicitation messages to locate routers on an attached link. With the Router Advertisement type, routers advertise their presence together with various link and Internet parameters in response to a router solicitation message. With the Neighbor Solicitation type, neighbor solicitations are used by nodes to determine the link layer address of a neighbor, or to verify that a neighbor is still reachable via a cached link layer address. With the Neighbor Advertisement type, neighbor advertisements are used by nodes to respond to a Neighbor Solicitation message. With the Redirect type, routers may inform hosts of a better first-hop router for a destination. 23. IPv6 can use a DHCPv6 server for the allocation of IPv6 addressing to hosts. Another IPv6 addressing option utilizes the IPv6 Neighbor Discovery Protocol (NDP) to discover the first portion of the IPv6 address (network prefix) from local routers. After discovering the network prefix, the host can create its own host ID. What standard is commonly used by an IPv6 host to generate its own 64-bit host ID? a. 6to4 b. Teredo c. EUI-64 d. DORA Answer: c. EUI-64 Explanation: Automatic generation of a unique host ID is made possible through a process known as EUI-64. This uses the 48-bit MAC address on the device to aid in the generation of the unique 64-bit host ID. This allows you to create an IPv6 network free of DHCP-type services. 24. In conjunction with an RA, what can an IPv6 network host use to self-assign its IP address? a. SLAAC b. CIDR c. Port address translation d. Classless Inter-Domain Routing notation Answer: a. SLAAC Explanation: IPv6 networks use Stateless address autoconfiguration (SLAAC) to assign IP addresses. With SLAAC a device sends the router a request for the network prefix, then the device uses the prefix along with its own MAC address to create an IP address. 27 25. Your company has been assigned the 192.168.48.0/24 network for use at one of its sites. You need to use a subnet mask that will accommodate at least 3 subnets while simultaneously accommodating the maximum number of hosts per subnet. What subnet mask should you use? a. /24 b. /25 c. /26 d. /27 Answer: c. /26 Explanation: Using a /26 mask gives you 2 bits for subnetting. This creates four potential subnets, satisfying the minimum requirement of three while maximizing the number of addresses per subnet. 26. A client with an IP address of 172.16.80.5/18 belongs to what network? a. 172.16.0.0/18 b. 172.16.64.0/18 c. 172.16.80.0/18 d. 172.16.128.0/18 Answer: b. 172.16.64.0/18 Explanation: This host address and subnet mask combination is in the 172.16.64.0 network and is part of the host range of usable addresses: 172.16.64.1 to 172.16.127.254. 27. NAT was originally designed to allow what kind of addresses to be translated into Internet-routable IP addresses? a. Broadcast IP addresses b. RFC 1918 private IP addresses c. APIPA addresses d. Multi-cast addresses Answer: b. RFC 1918 private IP addresses Explanation: Network Address Translation (NAT) allows private IP addresses (as defined in RFC 1918) to be translated into Internet-routable IP addresses (public IP addresses). 28. What capability on a router allows a single physical interface to become a default gateway for multiple networks? a. Shorthand notation b. Router advertisement c. Tunneling d. Sub-interface Answer: d. Sub-interface Explanation: A sub-interface virtualizes the physical interface to allow multiple gateway addresses to be routed through it. Most router and switch manufacturers allows creation of virtual interfaces out of a single physical interface, which is useful on VLANs using 802.1q. 29. When configuring Port Address Translation, what will changed in the header to become the packet source IP address instead of the original inside source IP Address? 28 a. The IP address on the physical outside interface b. The IP address on an active loopback interface c. The IP address on the highest numbered physical interface d. The IP address assigned to VLAN 1 on the device Answer: a. The IP address on the physical outside interface Explanation: The IP address assigned to the physical outside interface is the IP address that is often the basis for the PAT configuration. Many different internal IP addresses (inside) can be translated into this single address by using unique source port numbers. 30. What is the class of IP address 10.27.27.25/16? a. Class A b. Class B c. Class C d. Class D Answer: a. Class A Explanation: Because the decimal value 10 appears in the first octet, we know that this is a Class A address. 31. What type of IPv4 address is 224.0.0.6? a. Unicast b. Experimental c. Private use only d. Multicast Answer: d. Multicast Explanation: 224 in the first octet makes this an example of a multicast IP address. We use multicast to send a single packet to groups of systems that have “subscribed” to this address. 32. Which of the following can automatically assign routable IP addresses to networked devices? (Choose two) a. BOOTP b. APIPA c. Zeroconf d. DHCP Answer: a. BOOTP; d. DHCP Explanation: Notice that a key to this question is “routable IP addresses.” Only BOOTP and DHCP are valid options in this case. 33. How many assignable IP addresses exist in the 172.16.1.10/28 network? a. 14 b. 32 c. 14 d. 64 Answer: a. 14 29 Explanation: There are 4 bits left here for host address assignment, and 2 raised to the fourth power is 16. Subtract 2 for the network ID and broadcast address. 34. What is the prefix notation for a subnet mask of 255.255.255.248? a. /26 b. /27 c. /29 d. /30 Answer: c. /29 Explanation: c. /29 is the prefix notation for 255.255.255.248. Notice the mask consists of 8 bits + 8 bits + 8 bits + 5 bits, 5 bits (11111000) being the binary conversion of decimal 248. Question Bank 5: Common Ports and Protocols 1. What port number is used by TFTP? a. 80 b. 443 c. 69 d. 23 Answer: c. 69 2. Some of the matches below are not correct. Which Application and port numbers are correct? Protocol/App TCP Port FTP 80 SSH 22 Telnet 25 SMTP 23 DNS 53 HTTPS 20 and 21 a. SSH 22, DNS 53 b. FTP 80, SSH 22, Telnet 25, HTTP 20 c. SSH 22, Telnet 25, HTTP 80 d. FTP 20 and 23, SSH 22, Telnet 25, SMTP 23, DNS 53 Answer: a. SSH 22, DNS 53 3. Some of the matches below are not correct. Which Application and port numbers are correct? Protocol TCP port 30  A POP3 210 B LDAP 389 C HTTPS 443 D SMTP 425 a. A,B, C, b. B, C c. A, C, D, d. C, D Answer: b. B, C 4. To avoid using Telnet, what protocol allows to secure access to remote systems for management purposes? a. SNMPv1 b. SSH c. IPSec d. IMAP Answer: b. SSH Explanation: The Secure Shell (SSH) protocol allows you to make secure remote connections to network systems. This protocol is specialized for terminal connections. For GUI connections, you can use technologies like RDP and VNC. 5. What port and protocol are used by HTTPS? (Choose two) a. TCP b. UDP c. 443 d. ICMP e. 543 f. 80 Answer: a. TCP; c. 443 Explanation: HTTPS uses TCP port 443 in its operation. 6. What is the port and protocol used by syslog? (Choose two) a. TCP b. UDP c. 543 d. 514 e. IGMP Answer: b. UDP; d. 514 31 Explanation: Syslog produces machine data that you can use to monitor and understand the state of services on the device. Syslog runs on UDP port 514. 7. What is the range of well-known TCP and UDP ports? a. Below 2048 b. Below 1024 c. 16,384[nd]32,768 d. Above 8192 Answer: b. Below 1024 Explanation: The well-known port numbers are all below 1024. An example would be HTTP (WWW) at port 80. 8. What protocol do ping and traceroute use in their operation? a. IPSec b. DNS c. ICMP d. DHCP Answer: c. ICMP Explanation: The ICMP protocol is used by many troubleshooting and monitoring tools. Ping and traceroute are examples of two of these utilities that are ICMP-based. 9. Which incoming email protocols are encrypted and secure because they use an SSL/TLS session? (Choose two) a. POP3S b. IMAPS c. SNMP d. FTPS Answer: a. POP3S; b. IMAPS Explanation: Using POP3S (port 995) or IMAPS (port 993) allows the incoming data from the client to be encrypted because they use an SSL/TLS session. 10. You need to establish an authenticated and encrypted connection between a client and a host system over the Internet. What should you use? a. VPN b. STTL c. LDAP d. PAP Answer: a. VPN Explanation: VPNs are designed for hiding and encrypting Internet traffic. 11. Which program uses port 445 to read/write to files in Windows? a. SFTP b. HTTPS 32 c. SMB d. FTP e. TFTP Answer: c. SMB Explanation: Server Message Block is a network file sharing protocol for Windows file sharing. 12. Which of the following service and protocol combinations would allow a user to access a remote computer for purposes of maintenance or file access? a. SMB, 445 b. FTP, 448 c. SNMP, 161 d. RDP, 3389 Answer: d. RDP, 3389 13. A digital phone call is being attempted using Session Initiation Protocol. A technician is trying to troubleshoot the process using a packet analyzer. Which port number should be selected in the settings? a. 67/68 b. 1210/1211 c. 5060/5061 d. 3389 e. 3306 Answer: c. 5060/5061 14. A packet analysis seems to consistently show an excessive number of port 67/68 broadcasts in the mornings. What would explain this? a. Users starting up their systems and requiring a DHCP derived Address. b. Users accessing the file servers c. Users requiring NTP to register/update the timestamp d. Users logging into the domain and receiving Active Directory authorization credentials Answer: a. Users starting up their systems and requiring a DHCP derived Address. Explanation: Ports 67/68 are used by DHCP clients to locate the DHCP server using a broadcast packet. 15. Which one of the following could be used to protect multi-cast traffic that is not normally protected by IPSec? a. ACL b. GRE c. SNMP d. FTP Answer: b. GRE Explanation: Generic Routing Encapsulation is capable of hiding multi-cast payloads. 33 16. A technician is showing a packet capture from data gleaned from some Internet traffic. It indicates that a remote user was trying to connect to port 3389. What is this user attempting to do? a. Connect virtually to a specific OS desktop b. Reset the TCP connection c. Exploit the DNS server d. Reset a UDP connection Answer: a. Connect virtually to a specific OS desktop Explanation: Requests through port 3389 are for Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP), which allows an authorized user remote access to their desktop screen. 17. What port and protocol is used by NTP? (Choose two.) a. TCP b. UDP c. 69 d. 443 e. 123 Answer: b. UDP; e. 123 Explanation: NTP relies on UDP port 123 in its operation. 18. A packet capture has been copied into data analysis. It shows numerous attempts to authenticate to the network domain controller on port 389. What does this indicate? a. An attempt to authenticate to the LDAP service b. A user attempting to login into a backdoor banking application c. An administrator attempting to login to RAS d. A secure FTP login Answer: a. An attempt to authenticate to the LDAP service 22. What is the purpose of the remote desktop protocol? a. Gives users access to view and control a non local Microsoft based machine b. Gives Linux users a way to control remote IOT devices c. To access user information in a database d. To remotely bypass locally encrypted file systems Answer: a. Gives users access to view and control a non local Microsoft based machine Explanation: Example, a user might be at an airport using her Windows tablet, and she needs access to a document she created on her office computer. Using RDP’s port 3389 and by providing authentication credentials, a secure connection can be established between the table and the remote machine to display the desktop and allow access to use it. 23. What is the purpose of SIP in VoIP? a. It carries voice and data. 34 b. It connects the VoIP phone to an analog phone. c. It sets up the VoIP phone calls. d. It works with a PBX. Answer: c. It sets up the VOIP phone calls. Explanation: Session Initiation Protocol (SIP) is a VoIP signaling protocol used to set up, maintain, and tear down VoIP phone calls. SIP is spoken between the IP phone and the call agent to establish a call. The call agent then uses SIP to signal a local gateway to route the call, and that gateway uses SIP (across an IP WAN) to signal the remote gateway (on the right) about the incoming call. 24. An email server is passing a request to another server. What protocol and port combination will it need to use? a. TCP, 23 b. SMTP, 25 c. SNMP, 23 d. SSL, 22 e. POP3, 111 Answer: b. SMTP, 25 Explanation: SMTP Port 25 is the port email servers use to communicate with other email servers. 35