Preventive Dentistry Test 2024 PDF

1. What are the main groups of factors involved in the etiology of dental caries? a) The qualities of the enamel as a host b) Microorganisms c) Fermentable carbohydrates d) Time e) Saliva 2. What does the resistance of enamel depend on? a) Tooth morphology b) Tooth age c) Fluoride intake d) Internal and external factors e) Nutrition during dental histogenesis 3. What are the main etiological factors for the development of dental caries? (Answer: 1) The enamel as the host of the process; 2) Disease-causing agent - microorganisms; 3) Material of acid production – fermentable carbohydrates; 4) Time; 5) Saliva.) 4. Factors that contribute to the high resistance of enamel structures include: a) Tooth age; b) Tooth morphology; c) Fluoride intake; d) Nutrition during histogenesis; e) Systemic and local factors; f) Genetic factors; 5. Teeth erupt with a lower degree of mineralization. The particularly critical period is: a) The first 4 years after eruption; b) The first 3 years after eruption; c) The first 2 years after eruption; 6. What is typical for the morphology of molars? (Answer: Presence of pits, grooves, and fissures – retention places for microorganisms and food residues. After eruption, these are pronounced, and the bottom of the fissure is the least mineralized area.) 7. Indicate the correct statement: Permanent teeth, immediately after eruption, have: a) Smoother surfaces; b) Larger crystals; c) Smaller intercrystalline spaces; d) Lower degree of mineralization; e) Narrower interprismatic zones; 8. What are the main qualities of cariogenic microorganisms? a) They are able to adhere to the tooth surface and remain there; b) They can survive in this environment and are resistant to the body’s mechanisms that work to remove them; c) They are present in sufficient numbers to be able to multiply; 9. Define aciduric microorganisms: (Answer: Actively divide and reproduce in an acidic environment) 10. Which are the most important microorganisms for development of caries a) Str. Mitis. b) Str. Oralis. c) Str. Salivarius. d) Str. Mutans. e) Lactobacillus. f) Str. Sobrinus. 11. According to the contemporary conception of caries pathogenesis, the development stages of the carious process are: 1. acid degradation of the inorganic component. 2.mechanism of chelation demineralization. 3. acid decomposition of the acid-soluble organic matter 4. Proteolysis of the acid-insoluble organic matter. 12. Which of the following factors in the Stephan’s curve is related to the caries incidence and sugar intake? a) Physical form of sugar b) Frequency of sugar intake c) plaque pH d) Quantity of sugar intake 13. Which streptococci play a leading role in the initial processes of dental caries development? a) Anginosus streptococci b) Mitis streptococci c) Mutans streptococci d) Salivarius streptococci 14. The high cariogenicity of Str. Mutans is due to its unique qualities. List them: (Answer: 1) Affinity for colonizing the enamel pellicle through glucan; 2) Direct and indirect breakdown of carbohydrates to acids; 3) Unique connection with sucrose; 4) Ability to live and function in an acidic environment) 15. What sugar-specific enzyme does Str. Mutans possess? …………………………………………………………………. (Answer: Glucosyltransferase) 16. Which statement about Lactobacillus acidophilus is true? a) Does not metabolize sucrose; b) Predominates around the root and produces acids more slowly; c) Develops only in defects, fissures, and pits; 17. Which are the extracellular polysaccharides with important role in caries development? a) Glucan b) Glycogen c) Levans d) Guaran 18. How many minutes on average does it take to neutralize the acids formed after consumption of glucose: a) 10-15 min; b) 15-25 min; c) 15-30 min; d) 30-45 min. 19. Which statement about levans is incorrect? a) They are not soluble; b) They are quickly broken down into acids and increase their accumulation in the plaque; c) They serve as food for microorganisms; d) They are an independent food source for microorganisms in the biofilm; 20. What are intracellular polysaccharides used for? (Answer: 1) Nutritional reserves of microorganisms in the form of accumulated granules within the microbial cell; 2) In the absence of carbohydrate intake, microorganisms use them for reserves) 21. Indicate the correct statement: a) Glucans are high molecular weight polysaccharides with a 2:6 bond, synthesized from fructose; b) Glucans are high molecular weight polysaccharides with a 1:4 bond; c) Glucans are high molecular weight polysaccharides with a 1:6 bond and a molecular weight equal to several million. 22. Carbohydrates play a role in the carious process because... a) Microorganisms synthesize extracellular and intracellular polysaccharides from them; b) Microorganisms break them down into acids; c) They serve as food for microorganisms; 23. Indicate the factors for which carbohydrates are cariogenic: (Answer: 1) Type of carbohydrates; 2) Their quantity; 3) Frequency of intake; 4) Consistency of food; 5) Degree of local accumulation; 6) Oral hygiene) 24. Which carbohydrates are considered the most cariogenic? a) Monosaccharides; b) Oligosaccharides; c) Disaccharides; d) Polysaccharides; 25. The acidity of the plaque depends on: (Answer: On the type of carbohydrates consumed, on the microbial consortium, on the degree of substrate diffusion within it and of metabolites outside of it) 26. What is the critical pH level? a) Below 7.0 b) Below 6.5 c) Below 5.5 27. Reduced salivary flow can be observed in: (Answer: Frequent infections of the upper respiratory tract; various infectious diseases; all diseases of the salivary glands; diseases related to medications.) 28. Saliva is a protective factor that influences through: (Please list) (Answer: 1) Salivary flow; 2) Dissolution; 3) Through buffering systems; 4) Remineralizing effect) 29. Which glands have the highest buffering capacity? a) Parotid gland; b) Submandibular gland; c) Sublingual gland; d) Minor salivary glands; 30. Which group of teeth is the most protected, thanks to the salivary flow and the qualities of saliva? a) Lower incisors; b) Upper incisors; c) Upper premolars and molars; 31. List the theories associated with the pathogenesis of dental caries? (Answer: 1) Acid theory; 2) Proteolytic theory; 3) Phospho-protein theory; 4) Proteolytic- chelation theory) 32. What is the current understanding of the pathogenesis of the carious process? (Answer: With each meal, the acidity around the enamel increases, and minerals begin to be extracted from it. As the environment becomes alkaline from saliva, the minerals re-enter the enamel. This represents a balance between demineralization and remineralization. When the pH drops below 5.5, the remineralization process becomes impossible, and only demineralization occurs. This is the first initial process of enamel degradation. This process is reversible. If acids persist and pH values are below the critical levels, the process deepens and leads to irreversible destruction of the enamel structures. First, demineralization of the inorganic composition occurs. The breakdown of organic matter begins only after the demineralization of the enamel has progressed. Initially, 2/3 of the acid-soluble matter in the enamel is broken down. The proteolytic enzymes of microorganisms degrade the remaining 1/3 of the resistant organic matter through proteolysis, turning the enamel into an amorphous, soft mass.) 33. Define dental caries: (AnswerA biofilm-mediated, diet modulated, multifactorial noncommunicable, dynamic disease resulting in net mineral loss of dental hard tissues. It is determined by biologic, behavioral, psychosocial and environmental factors. As a consequence of this process, a caries lesion develops.) 34. How microorganisms of the resident oral microflora contribute to the development and protection of the macro-organism? a) Aid in digestion. b) Regulation of human metabolism. c) Production of vitamins. d) Production of growth hormones. e) Synthesis of antibodies for protection against pathogenic microorganisms. 35. What are the benefits for microorganisms of living in biofilm? a) Creating conditions for the development of a diverse microflora. b) Development of resistance to antimicrobial agents and macroorganism defense mechanisms. c) Limited potential for pathogenic effects on the macro-organism. d) Easier exchange of genetic material between microorganisms. e) Biofilms create an isolated environment in which microorganisms do not interact with each other. f) Life in biofilm prevents microorganisms from accumulating metabolic products. 36. What are the functions of the tubular system in biofilm? a) Transport of nutrients and oxygen to the oral environment. b) Transport of microorganisms for direct adhesion to the pellicle. c) Providing nutrients and oxygen for microorganisms. d) Transport of metabolic products. e) Transport of enzymes, ions. f) Actively transports antimicrobial substances to destroy competing microorganisms. 37. What are the functions of the extracellular mucous layer? a) Maintains biofilm structure. b) Contains nutrients, water, and enzymes necessary for biofilm life. c) Participates in countering competing microorganisms. d) Protects against antimicrobial substances. e) Impedes communication between microorganisms. f) Suppresses the action of macroorganism defense mechanisms. g) Potentiates the action of antibiotics. 38. Which statements about the formation of the acquired pellicle are true? a) The positively charged enamel surface attracts the negatively charged amino acids aspartate and glutamate. b) The negatively charged enamel surface attracts calcium and phosphate ions in a 10:1 ratio, which in turn attracts negatively charged amino acids. c) Structuring of the pellicle begins about an hour after exposure of the clean enamel surface to the oral environment. d) The pellicle begins its formation with the binding of precursor pellicle proteins within seconds to the clean enamel surface. e) A key step in structuring the pellicle is the adhesion of pioneer microorganisms from the streptococcal group. 39. What is the importance of salivary current for the adhesion of microorganisms to tooth surfaces? a) Under physiological conditions, the high velocity of the stimulated salivary current prevents the retention of microorganisms near the enamel surface. b) The salivary current slows down on contact with the enamel surface—this allows only weakly attached microorganisms to be washed away. c) In the fissure area, the salivary current is further accelerated. d) The scavenging action of the salivary current determines the topographic characteristic of the plaque accumulation. e) The cervical area, fissures, and approximal surfaces remain protected from the scaling action of the salivary current. f) The flow stimulates the growth of microorganisms by transferring nutrients to the enamel surface. 40. Which statements are true about the conditions in the supragingival biofilm? a) They predispose to the development of microorganisms with glycolytic properties. b) They predispose to the development of microorganisms with proteolytic properties. c) The high redox potential determines the specificity of the microflora inhabiting this area, with a predominance of aerobic and facultative anaerobic species. d) The low redox potential defines the specificity of the microflora inhabiting this area, with a predominance of aerobic and facultative anaerobic species. e) Depending on individual characteristics, the supragingival biofilm may be exclusively inhabited by gram-negative, anaerobic periodontopathogen species. f) On a protein diet, Porphyromonas gingivalis constitutes nearly 80% of the supragingival microflora. 41. Which statements are true about the conditions in the subgingival biofilm? a) They predispose to the development of microorganisms with glycolytic properties. b) They predispose to the development of microorganisms with proteolytic properties. c) Anaerobic, microaerophilic, and capnophilic rod-shaped, curved, and spiral microorganisms predominate. d) The composition of the subgingival biofilm is predominantly influenced by saliva because its structuring is initiated by apical expansion of the supragingival biofilm. e) Microorganisms in the subgingival biofilm are predominantly gram-negative species possessing a wide range of enzymes and toxins with direct periodontal damaging effects. f) Microorganisms of the S. mutans group undergo a change in their phenotypic characteristics, moving into the subgingival space and becoming true periodontopathogens. 42. The cariogenic situation depends on: a) The presence of acidogenic microorganisms. b) The presence of aciduric microorganisms. c) The production of intracellular polysaccharides by microorganisms in the biofilm. d) The production of extracellular polysaccharides from microorganisms in the biofilm. e) Metabolism of carbohydrates in saliva. f) Degradation of carbohydrates in dental plaque. 43. Microorganisms in the subgingival biofilm are influenced by: a) The composition of the gingival fluid. b) Salivary flow. c) The composition of saliva. d) Desquamated epithelial cells. e) Bacterial products. f) Food residues. 44. Which statements are true about dextrans? a) Gram-negative, black-pigmented microorganisms produce them when an inflammatory reaction develops. b) Caries-causing streptococci use them as a nutrient reserve. c) They provide adhesion between individual microorganisms. d) Prevent biofilm alkalization. e) Promote biofilm growth. f) Degrade the mineral components of the enamel by direct interaction. 45. What are the components of the biofilm? a) Bacterial microcolonies. b) Pellicle. c) Channel system. d) Extracellular mucous layer. e) Reduced enamel epithelium. f) Primitive communication system. g) Mineral deposits that form the basic structure of the biofilm. 46. Plaque formation goes through the following stages: a) Formation of pellicle; b) Formation of enamel cuticle; c) Attachment of single bacterial cells - microbial colonization; d) Formation of the climax community; e) Formation of extracellular slime layer; f) Growth of attached bacteria leading to the formation of distinct microcolonies; g) Microbial translocation; h) Microbial succession (coagregation) 47. The extracellular mucous layer: a) Consists primarily of proteins. b) Consists mainly of carbohydrates. c) Maintains the three-dimensional shape of microcolonies. d) Promotes microorganism clumping and prevents biofilm alkalization. e) Protects microorganisms from antimicrobials, antibiotics, and macroorganism immune defenses. f) Accelerates the metabolism of microorganisms by increasing the production of organic acids. 48. According to the environmental plaque hypothesis: a) Caries is a consequence of changes in the balance of pathogenic plaque microflora due to distortion of local conditions; b) Caries is a consequence of changes in the balance of the resident plaque microflora due to distortion of local conditions; c) Outlines the right strategies for caries prevention; d) Explains caries with the activity of the entire plaque microflora, not with a particular species; e) Dental caries can be caused by a certain type of microorganism. 49. S. mutans is considered as the main microorganism for dental biofilm formation due to its: a) cytolytic activity; b) ability to compete and displace other microorganisms; c) ability to synthesize polysaccharides; d) ability for adhesion and colonization; e) proteolytic ability; f) acid resistance; g) glycolytic activity; 50. The acquired pellicle is formed by: a) Reduced inner and outer enamel epithelium; b) First layer of plaque MOs on the enamel surface; c) Non-cellular layer of salivary glycoproteins; d) Non-cellular layer of mucopolysaccharides; e) Aprismatic surface enamel layer; 51. List the stages of biofilm formation. Formation of the pellicle. Adhesion of planktonic cells to the surface. Growth and formation of microcolonies. Increasing species diversity. Mature biofilm. 52. Primary cuticle: a) Is deposited on the enamel surface by selective adsorption after eruption. b) Is detected on the enamel surface prior to tooth eruption. c) Is formed as a result of contact of the clean enamel surface with saliva. d) Results from the latter function of ameloblasts. e) Contains remnants of reduced enamel epithelium. f) Is a thin protein membrane. 53. Proteins are present in the composition of the acquired pellicle, which inhibit the spontaneous precipitation of calcium and phosphate ions in saliva, thus keeping them "ready" for deposition in the demineralized enamel surface. Which are they? a) Lactoferrin; b) Acidic, proline-rich proteins; c) Statherins; d) Lysozyme; e) Cystatins; f) Albumin. 54. What are the microorganisms capable of primary colonization, the so-called "pioneer microorganisms"? Answer: Streptococcus mitis, Streptococcus mutans, Streptococcus oralis, Streptococcus sanguis, Actinomyces, Neisseria. 55. Which are the areas protected from the washing forces of the salivary flow? a) Approximal surfaces. b) Incisal edges. c) Occlusal surfaces. d) The cervical region. e) Vestibular surfaces. 56. What is the mechanism of coaggregation? Answer: A key mechanism in biofilm formation in which different bacterial species bind to each other through specific intercellular interactions. 57. What are the mechanisms limiting bacterial growth in the subgingival biofilm? a) Migration of protective cells from saliva. b) Migration of PMNC from gingival tissue. c) Antibody migration from gingival tissue. d) Development of a protective inflammatory reaction. e) Activation of growth factors by microorganisms to stimulate epithelial proliferation. 58. How periodontal pathogens induce tissue damage? a) Production of proteases. b) Leukotoxin production. c) Production of extracellular polysaccharides. d) Production of antineutrophil factor. e) By metabolic products. f) By cell wall lipopolysaccharides. 59. The pellicle contains an enzyme supplied by the salivary glands, which carries out its enzymatic activity on the tooth surface. Its main role consists in maintaining the acid balance. Which is this enzyme and how is its key role in protecting enamel from the acids formed by caries-causing microorganisms carried out? Answer: Hydrocarbon anhydrase catalyzes the conversion of salivary bicarbonates and hydrogen ions released from microorganisms to carbon dioxide and water. This is how the bicarbonate buffer system occurs: HCO3− + H+ → H2CO3 ↔ CO2 + H2O. 60. Microorganisms in the dental biofilm possess complex communication systems by which they regulate their division, growth, and function. One of them only carries out interspecies communication. Which is it and how does it function? Answer: The histidine kinase system allows bacteria to sense and respond to changes in the environment. Signals are perceived by a histidine kinase receptor located in the cell membrane, resulting in the transfer of a phosphate group to a regulatory protein. The result of this cascade of reactions is repression or activation of a gene leading to a particular cellular expression. 61. Microorganisms in the dental biofilm possess complex communication systems by which they regulate their division, growth, and function. One of them carries out inter- and intraspecific communication. Which is it and how does it function? Answer: The signal system at critical microbial concentration provides coordination and synchronization of group behavior. Bacteria detect and respond to changes in cell density through signaling molecules called autoinducers. When a critical concentration of these molecules is reached, bacteria coordinate their behavior, for example by regulating virulence genes, biofilms, or other collective actions. 62. Describe the Ecological Plaque Hypothesis. Answer: This is a concept that explains the development of oral disease in the context of changes in the microbial balance of dental plaque. This hypothesis emphasizes that oral diseases are not caused by the presence of certain pathogenic microorganisms, but by changes in the oral environment that cause disruption of the microbial balance (dysbiosis). 63. Which statements about the electrostatic double layer are true? a) In physiological ionic solution, it does not allow bacterial cells to come closer to each other than 10 nm. b) It shrinks when salts are added to the solution. c) When limiting the thickness of this layer, the cells acquire the ability to adhere. d) By limiting the thickness of this layer, the repulsive forces between cells increase. e) The electrostatic double layer cannot form when salts are added to the solution. 64. What happens with repeated and prolonged carbohydrate intake? a) Acidogenic microorganisms develop. b) Aciduric microorganisms develop. c) Gram-negative, black-pigmented microorganisms develop. d) The production of proteases by microorganisms is stimulated. e) The balance between de- and remineralization processes is disturbed. f) A low pH is maintained. g) The production of extra- and intracellular polysaccharides is stimulated. 65. How is the attachment of pioneer microorganisms to the dental pellicle accomplished? a) Electrostatic forces. b) Fimbriae and pili. c) Cell wall lipopolysaccharides. d) Extracellular polysaccharides. e) Calcium bridge. f) Adhesins. 66. Describe the significance of the washing forces of the salivary flow on the adhesion of microorganisms. Answer: The high velocity of the salivary flow slows down upon contact with the tooth surfaces. Any irregularity further reduces its speed, thereby removing only those microorganisms that are weakly attached. This explains the localization of plaque in predilection areas – chewing surfaces and fissures, proximal surfaces, and the cervical area of the tooth. 67. Describe the DLVO theory. Answer: In a liquid medium, negatively charged surfaces attract positively charged ions, forming a double electrostatic layer. In a physiological ionic solution, microorganisms can approach a surface or another microorganism but fail to adhere because the overlapping of the double electrostatic layers causes mutual repulsion. Adding ions to the solution increases the ionic attractive forces, leading to the compression of the electrostatic layers. This allows the cells to approach to a distance of less than 10 nm, where Van der Waals attractive forces become stronger than the electrostatic repulsive forces. 68. Which statements are wrong about the demineralization process? a) Demineralization is the process of enamel dissolution; b) Demineralisation takes place only at very low pH; c) Demineralization and remineralization are mutually equilibrium processes; d) The rate of demineralization depends on the composition of the apatite crystal; e) At pH=5.5 , the demineralization and remineralization processes are in balance; 69. Which statements about different types of apatite are true? a) Enamel apatite has a broader A-axis than pure apatite; b) Pure apatite is more soluble than enamel apatite; c) The Ca:P ratio in enamel apatite is 1.64; d) Pure apatite is lower in Ca and higher in P04 ions; e) Enamel apatite is more soluble than pure apatite; 70. Which of the following statements are true? a) Salts are not electrolytes as they dissociate to ions; b) Sugar, starch and salts are non-electrolytes; c) The reaction between an acid and a base produces a salt; d) When the degree of dissociation (α) = 1, the dissociation is complete; e) When the ionic product (Qsp) = the solubility product (Ksp), the solution is supersaturated; f) When Qsp < Ksp, the solution is unsaturated; 71. What is the difference between caries and erosive lesion? Caries is the result of a chemical dissolution of the hard tooth structure caused by bacterial metabolic products, the erosive lesion is a chemical dissolution of the dental structures caused by all other sources. 72. Which factors affect solubility? a) Common ion effect; b) Temperature.; c) Salt effect; d) Time effect; e) Transformation effect; f) Particle size effect; 73. Which statements are true about the presence of low concentration F-ions? a) Alkalization of the environment leads to the direct formation of fluorohydroxyapatite (FHA) or fluorapatite (FA); b) The formation of dicalcium phosphate dihydrate (DCPD) and octacalcium phosphate is inhibited; c) Even with environment acidification, ions can precipitate to FHA or FA; d) CaF₂ is formed first, which then hydrolyzes secondarily into FHA; e) The low concentration of F-ions prevents their incorporation into the crystal lattice; f) Under acidification of the environment, the ions precipitate only as CaF₂; 74. Which conditions are valid for natural remineralisation? a) To form carbonic acid; b) Have a sufficient amount of F-ions; c) To have a sufficient amount of mineral available; d) The demineralised enamel surface must be clean; e) Carbonic acid should dissociate slowly into CO2 and H2O in the saliva; f) Carbon dioxide to evaporate quickly; 75. (Ca,w)10(PO4,x)6(OH,y)2 is the formula of hydroxyapatite, where…? a) w can be Na, Mg, K, Sr; b) x can be CO3 or HPO4; c) у can be Cl, F or J; d) w can be Na, Mg, K, Cu, Sr; e) у can be F or CO3; f) x can be CO3 or F; 76. Which statements are true about different types of enamel apatite? a) Fluorapatite (FA) is found in small amounts in enamel, but is the least soluble; b) Carbonapatite is more soluble than hydroxyapatite; c) Hydroxyapatite is the most abundant apatite in enamel; d) Carbonapatite has the highest solubility product; e) Hydroxyapatite has a higher solubility product than fluorapatite; f) Brushite is highly soluble; 77. Which statements are true about the solubility of enamel apatite? a) Fluorapatite (FA) begins to dissolve at pH=4.5; b) Critical pH = 4.5; c) When 1 unit of hydroxyapatite dissolves in the solution, 10 calcium, 4 phosphate, and 6 hydroxide ions are released; d) Phosphate ions are released upon dissolution, which buffer the acids; e) At pH=5.5 the movement of ions is only in the direction from the enamel to the solution; f) Under physiological conditions, saliva and oral fluids are supersaturated in HA and FA; 78. Which statements about remineralisation are true? a) Upon alkalinization of the medium and high concentrations of F, FA and FHA are formed first; b) When the environment is alkalized and at high concentrations of F, CaF2 is formed first; c) Remineralised enamel is less resistant than primary mineralised enamel; d) Newly formed apatite has smaller amounts of carbonate ions and Mg ions; e) Carbonic acid is part of the natural remineralisation mechanism; f) Remineralisation occurs when the solution is unsaturated with ions intrinsic to the crystal; 79. Which of the following statements are wrong? a) If an excess of only one type of intrinsic ion is added to the solution, this is not sufficient for remineralisation; b) Under normal conditions, the concentration of Ca- and PO4 ions is about 1,5 mmol/l; c) The acids enter the enamel, where they dissociate and exert their effect; d) The dental biofilm is located between the enamel and the saliva; e) Remineralisation takes place when the ionic product is larger than the solubility product. f) Remineralization leads to the formation of new crystals in the enamel; 80. Which of the claims about the remineralisation of demineralised enamel are true? a) Small crystals grow; b) Existing crystals are transformed; c) The defects of the affected crystals are filled; d) New crystals are formed; e) Recovered crystals contain less carbonate and more fluoride ions; f) Enamel resistance improves only if the F ion is incorporated inside the crystal lattice; 81. The following are valid for stopping the progression of the carious lesion: a) Maintaining a slightly acidic environment around the enamel and limiting periods of further acidification; b) Clean enamel surface with free access to saliva; c) Most important is the presence of F-ions; d) Can be accomplished using ACP-CPP materials; e) Maintaining a slightly alkaline environment around the enamel; f) Most important is the presence of Ca-ions; 82. Dental caries: a) Is a self-limiting disease; b) Is a chronic process; c) Is a long process, the result of complex interacting factors; d) Imposes need for histological examination before treatment. e) Is with an acute onset; f) It starts with irreversible enamel demineralization; 83. The carious lesion: a) Is a clinical manifestation of dental caries; b) Is reversible for a long time; c) Most often develops at predilection sites covered with dental biofilm; d) Starts in the subsurface layer of the enamel; e) Initially manifests as histological loss of Ca, P and other ions from the enamel; 84. During the first stage of carious lesion development: a) Mild, clinically visible changes in the surface layer are observed; b) The enamel structure is lost, with indistinct borders; c) The first visible signs are in the subsurface layer; d) Initial demineralisation takes place in crystals from prismatic boundaries and interprismatic zones; e) The carious spot now has a conical shape; f) At this stage 4 layers of the carious lesion are distinguishable; 85. The zones according to Silverstone in the carious lesion, from the surface to the interior of the tooth, are arranged as follows: a) Translucent zone; - 4 b) Body of the lesion; - 2 c) Dark zone; - 3 d) Surface zone; - 1 86. Which of the statements are true for the surface zone of the carious lesion? a) The mineral content is about 95% by volume; b) In an initial carious lesion, the pores are about 1%; c) The pores are around 10%; d) This zone is less affected than the dark zone; e) This zone is subject to continuous remineralisation; f) The apatite in this zone contains larger amounts of Mg; 87. The body of the carious lesion: a) Is located below the dark zone; b) In it, changes are observed as the process progresses; c) Has pores around 10%; d) Clinically, it can be identified as a white or brown lesion; e) Is less affected due to the presence of demineralization inhibitors; f) In its interior, the pores can reach up to 25%; 88. The dark area of the carious lesion: a) Is located below the body of the lesion and above the translucent zone; b) Is found in 15% of lesions; c) Its presence depends on the speed of the developing process; d) The pores are around 10%; e) Is the advancing front of the lesion; f) Is the most affected area, which determines its dark color; 89. The following statements are true for the translucent zone: a) It can be found in 50% of the lesions; b) It is located just below the body of the lesion; c) The pores are located in the areas of prismatic boundaries, Retzius lines or transverse striae; d) Carbonate and magnesium content is increased; e) It is not found along the entire advancing front; f) Changes in this zone are minimal; 90. The carious lesion that develops in fissures is characterized by: a) Carious cone with the base towards the DEJ and the tip towards the surface; b) Carious cone with base towards the surface and tip towards DEJ; c) Two mirror triangular carious lesions are formed; d) Lack of dark and translucent area; e) Clinically visible changes after 1 week of plaque retention; 91. Dentin carious lesion is characterized by: a) Carious cone with tip towards the DEJ and base towards the surface; b) Earliest changes are observed in intertubular dentin; c) Highlighted structure after partial demineralization; d) Microorganisms enter dentin tubules; e) In acute caries maximum dentin sclerosis is observed; f) 4 clearly distinguishable layers; 92. Arrange the zones of dentinal caries from the most superficial to the deepest: a) Zone of demineralisation; - 3 b) Zone of bacterial invasion; - 2 c) Zone of fatty degeneration of odontoblastic processes; - 5 d) Surface area of completely destroyed dentin; -1 e) Zone of sclerotic dentin; - 4 93. The surface area of completely destroyed dentin in a dentin lesion: a) Is located below the dark zone; b) It is a homogeneous mass with a soft consistency; c) Is with less demineralized dentin than the area of bacterial invasion; d) There is a relatively preserved dentin structure; e) It is the most widely spread; f) There are single microorganisms; 94. In the earliest stages of the carious lesion, there is loss of: a) Rod sheath b) Interprismatic substance c) Enamel rod d) Enamel lamellae 95. The following are true for the bacterial invasion zone in a dentinal lesion: a) It is located above the demineralisation zone; b) It is a homogeneous mass with a soft consistency; c) The pores are around 25%; d) Collagen is irreversibly damaged; e) Caverns can be observed after the fusion of several tubules; f) The area has a completely destroyed dentin structure; 96. The enamel lesion in fissures is: a) Cone-shaped with the tip of the cone towards the enamel-dentin junction and base towards the surface; b) With slower development than carious lesion on the surfaces; c) With small opening of the occlusal caries and therefore a smaller cavity in the dentin; d) Affecting all the surfaces of the fissure аt the same time. 97. In the demineralization zone of a dentinal lesion: a) No microorganisms are observed; b) The collagen structure is preserved; c) Intercrystalline spaces are increased; d) Peri- and intertubular dentin are partially demineralized; e) The lines of Owen and Ebner are not clearly visible, they are almost erased; f) Caverns may be observed; 98. Which are the signs for an active carious lesion? a) Location on high caries risk surfaces; b) Located far from the gingival margin; c) Clear boundaries with the adjacent sound enamel; d) Loss of gloss and smoothness; e) Small size; f) Lack of clear boundaries; g) Covered in plaque. 99. Mark the correct statements about the dentin lesion: a) An area of sclerotic dentin is not always found there; b) Sclerotic dentin leads to the filling of the tubules with HA and non-apatitic crystals; c) There is no peritubular dentin in the area of bacterial invasion; d) In the zone of demineralization, collagen is still intact; e) The dentin structure is obliterated in the surface area; f) Single microorganisms can be found in the demineralisation zone; 100. Which of the statements are true about the protection of dentin structures? a) It is due to reactive and reparative dentin; b) It is carried out through transparent protective dentin; c) It is a result of a layer of super-mineralized dentin with obliterated structures; d) It is activated when the odontoblastic process dies; e) The pathways for the movement of acids are interrupted; f) Above the sclerotic zone, the so-called dead tracks are observed; 101. Which of the statements are true about the protection of the pulp? a) It is carried out by the odontoblasts, at the level of the pulp-dentin border; b) The aim is to preserve the vitality of the pulp; c) Dead tracks are an effective mechanism for protecting the pulp; d) Tertiary dentin forms directly beneath the body of the lesion; e) After the death of the odontoblastic process, the protective mechanisms are exhausted; f) It is carried out at the expense of space from the pulp; Oral hygiene 102. The goals of plaque control are: a) Limiting the number of S. mutans in dental plaque b) Maintaining a low pH in dental plaque c) Mainly maintaining Gram-positive flora d) Remineralization of enamel e) Mechanical stimulation of the gingiva 103. What are the directions of oral hygiene? a) Mechanical removal of dental plaque b) Stimulating saliva production c) Pharmacological suppression of plaque formation and accumulation d) Influencing inflammation in the gingiva e) Stimulating natural self-cleaning 104. Oral hygiene habits are evaluated through: ………………………………………………………………………………….. Anamnestic data collected from the patient/parent and through demonstration by the child 105. Oral hygiene status is evaluated through: ……………………………………………………………………………………. Evaluation of oral hygiene indices in clinical conditions 106. What is the purpose of disclosing dental plaque? a) To detect the plaque by making it visible b) To suppress plaque accumulation c) To determine the degree of plaque accumulation d) To motivate the child and parents to maintain oral hygiene e) To control acquired habits after training 107. Which statements about disclosing dental plaque are true? a. In children over three years old, it is done with a solution applied using a cotton swab; b. In children under three years old, it is done using a disclosing tablet; c. The disclosing tablet is kept in the mouth for about 15 to 30 seconds, after which it is spat out; d. The disclosing agent stays only on the areas of enamel covered with plaque; e. The disclosing agents color old dental plaque blue, and new plaque red. 108. Write in the boxes which teeth and surfaces are examined when evaluating the oral hygiene index according to Green-Vermillion (OHI-S) for deciduous and permanent dentition: Permanent teeth Deciduous teeth 16V 11V 26V 55V 51V 65V 46L 31V 36L 85L 71V 75L 109. Describe the findings when evaluating the oral hygiene index according to Green- Vermillion (OHI-S): Code 0 - no staining and no plaque present; Code 1 - stained plaque covers up to 1/3 of the tooth surface; Code 2 - stained plaque covers between 1/3 and 2/3 of the tooth surface; Code 3 - stained plaque covers more than 2/3 of the tooth surface. 110. Which statements are true about the plaque index according to Silness and Löe? a) It measures the thickness of the plaque b) Methylene blue is used for staining c) The gingival areas of the four surfaces of each tooth are examined d) The tip of the probe is passed along the surface of the tooth to the gingival sulcus and records the presence/absence of plaque e) The evaluation codes range from 0 to 5 111. Tooth cleaning depends on: a) Type of toothbrush b) Duration of brushing c) Type of dentition (deciduous or permanent teeth) d) Frequency of brushing e) Type of abrasive in the toothpaste 112. Which statements about the profile of the toothbrush head are true? a) It is determined by the diameter of the bristles in the tufts b) With a concave shape adapted for cleaning interproximal spaces c) With a convex shape for more effective cleaning of the lingual surfaces d) With a wavy shape for cleaning the vestibular surfaces of the teeth e) With a horizontal smooth profile 113. Which statements about the artificial bristles of toothbrushes are true? a) They are rounded to avoid damaging the gingiva and enamel; b) They are 10 times more elastic than natural bristles; c) They are not hollow and prevent the development of pathogenic microflora; d) They are easy and economical to produce; e) They are more convenient for cleaning. 114. The wear of toothbrush bristles depends on: a) It depends on the patient's gender – it wears out faster in boys; b) It wears out more slowly in left-handed individuals; c) It depends on the load on the brushing surface; d) It is inversely proportional to the diameter of the bristle; e) With stronger pressure and smaller bristle diameter, the bristles wear out more quickly. 115. The composition of toothpaste consists of: a) Abrasives b) Coloring agents c) Sweeteners d) Polymeric agents e) Binding ingredients 116. List at least five types of abrasives in the composition of toothpaste: -Calcium carbonate -Dicalcium phosphate dihydrate -Insoluble sodium metaphosphate -Silica -Silicates 117. Which statements about sodium lauryl sulfate are true? a) It is the most widely used sweetener in toothpastes; b) It is a stable detergent; c) It has some antibacterial properties; d) Its active action is at a neutral pH; e. It is activated under the influence of saliva secretion. 118. Which statements about xylitol as a sweetener in toothpastes are true? a) It sweetens like sucrose; b) It is not fermented into acids by plaque bacteria; c) It reduces the amount of Streptococcus mutans in plaque; d) It increases saliva secretion and pH; e) It increases calcium levels in plaque. 119. List the types of toothpastes: - Hygienic toothpastes - Preventive toothpastes - Cosmetic toothpastes - Therapeutic toothpastes 120. Which statements about fluoride toothpastes are true? a) They provide daily fluoride intake; b) They contribute to post-eruptive maturation; c) They are suitable for children immediately after the eruption of the first deciduous teeth; d) They enhance enamel remineralization after every meal; e) They have antibacterial effects. 121. List the main compounds that deliver fluoride (F) in toothpaste: - Sodium fluoride (NaF) - Stannous fluoride (SnF₂) - Sodium monofluorophosphate (NaMFP) - Amino fluoride 122. What can the movements of the toothbrush be like in different brushing techniques? a) Horizontal b) Vertical sweeping c) Vibratory d) Circular e) Modified 123. Describe the tooth cleaning technique using the Stillman method: The tips of the bristles are placed on the gingival margin. The direction of the bristles is at a 45º angle to the axial axis. The movement is with pressure until the gingiva whitens. The toothbrush is moved. This is repeated several times. The brush is lightly rotated occlusally. 124. Describe the tooth cleaning technique using the Fones method: The tips of the bristles are placed on the gingival margin. The direction of the bristles is horizontal. The movements are rotary for teeth in occlusion against maxillary and mandibular tooth surfaces. A "chimney smoke" pattern is drawn. 125. Which statements about antimicrobial prophylaxis are true? a) Antimicrobial prophylaxis should ensure the elimination of resident microbiota; b) b.Determining the type and duration of antimicrobial prophylaxis is particularly important in childhood; c) c.Some antimicrobial agents attack microorganisms by killing them, while others inhibit their reproduction; d) d.Antimicrobial agents that attack the cellular function of microorganisms should not affect the cells of the host organism; e) e.Antimicrobial agents are used as part of professional oral hygiene, but they are not mandatory. 126. Which are the mandatory elements of a motivational oral hygiene program? a) History of the patient's oral hygiene habits; b) Visualization of dental plaque; c) Demonstration of the link between dental plaque and diseases; d) Creating a self-assessment model; e) Determining the re-motivation interval. 127. Which statements about the benefits of chewing gum are true? a) Stimulate saliva secretion; b) Increase the buffering capacity; c) Lead to an increase in fluoride concentration; d) It is beneficial to use sugar-free sweeteners in the composition of chewing gum; e) The inclusion of casein phosphopeptides in the composition of chewing gum leads to regression of early carious lesions. 128. Describe the technique for cleaning the proximal tooth surfaces with dental floss: The flossing technique for cleaning the proximal tooth surfaces is as follows: 1. Cutting the floss: o Cut a piece of dental floss about 30-40 cm in length. 2. Placing the floss: o Using vestibulo-oral (side-to-side) movements, gently insert the floss between the teeth, reaching into the depth of the gingival sulcus. 3. Cleaning the distal surface of the medial tooth: o Press the floss against the distal surface of the medial tooth and use a scraping motion to move the floss in an occlusal (towards the chewing surface) direction. 4. Cleaning the medial surface of the distal tooth: o Repeat the same technique for the medial surface of the distal tooth, ensuring thorough cleaning of both surfaces. This method ensures effective cleaning of the interdental spaces, helping to remove plaque and food particles that cannot be reached with regular brushing. 129. What is the main characteristic of electric tooth cleaning devices? a) They are made up of a head and a handle; b) The handle contains an electric motor that drives the head; c) They are classified into electric, sonic, and ultrasonic types; d) The head is replaced every 3 months; e) They perform automatic vibrating or rotating movements. 130. What are the methods for building a motivational program? a) Motivation of the individual for the need for dental health; b) Persuasion and stimulation for a new value system; c) Pedagogical and psychological techniques for individual and group influence; d) Education in oral hygiene methods; e) Diffusion of innovations. 131. Which statements about professional oral hygiene are true? a) It is performed every 3 months; b) It is carried out by a dentist or hygienist; c) It ensures the effective removal of plaque biofilm from all tooth surfaces; d) It follows a specific methodology and sequence in cleaning; e) An advantage of the procedure is that it leads to the diagnosis of early carious lesions and periodontal diseases. Fluoride prevention 132. Which of the following is a method of endogenous fluoride prevention: a) Fluoride toothpaste b) Fluoridated drinking water c) Fluoride varnish d) Fluoride solutions 133. What is the optimal fluoride concentration in drinking water or another endogenous carrier for caries prevention? a) 0.1 – 0.3 mg/l b) 1 – 1.2 mg/l c) 1.5 – 2 mg/l d) 2.5 – 3 mg/l 134. Which of the following is not a means of endogenous fluoride prevention: a) Fluoridated salt b) Fluoridated milk c) Fluoride gel d) Mineral water with fluoride 135. What are the recommended doses of fluoride supplements for children aged 3 to 6 years? a) 0.25 mg/day b) 0.5 mg/day c) 1 mg/day d) > 1.5 mg/day 136. What are the recommended doses of fluoride supplements for children under 3 years? a) 0.25 mg/day b) 0.5 mg/day c) 1 mg/day d) > 1.5 mg/day 137. What are the recommended doses of fluoride supplements for children over 6 years? a) 0.25 mg/day b) 0.5 mg/day c) 1 mg/day d) > 1.5 mg/day 138. Which statements about the mechanism of action of endogenously taken fluoride are true? a) The presence of fluoride ions in initial mineralization accelerates crystal growth and helps form larger crystals b) During initial mineralization, fluoride ions reach the enamel through saliva c) Saliva contains a higher concentration of fluoride ions than tissue fluid and blood plasma d) After tooth eruption, endogenous fluoride intake is not essential 139. Which statements about fluoride metabolism are true? a) 86 - 97% of fluoride is rapidly absorbed in the stomach and small intestine b) About 10% of ingested fluoride is excreted in feces c) About 40% of ingested fluoride is excreted in urine d) When the stomach is full and foods rich in calcium, magnesium, aluminum are consumed, the fluoride ion binds to them and its absorption decreases 140. Which statements are incorrect? a) The concentration of fluoride in plasma is 0.1 ppm b) The concentration of fluoride in saliva is 0.01 – 0.04 ppm c) 45% of ingested fluoride accumulates in teeth during their formation d) The concentration of fluoride in breast milk is highly influenced by fluoride intake, even in doses below 1 mg/l 141. Write the chemical formulas of hydroxyapatite and fluorapatite. Ca10(PO4)6(OH)2 – hydroxyapatite Ca10(PO4)6F2 – fluorapatite 142. List the apatite crystals according to their resistance, starting with the most resistant: Hydroxyapatite; octacalcium phosphate, fluorapatite Answer: Fluorapatite, hydroxyapatite, octacalcium phosphate 143. Which is true about the toxicology of fluoride? a) Acute fluoride intoxication occurs with a single high dose intake b) The lethal dose is 5-10 grams of fluoride taken at once c) Intake of lime milk and vomiting through digital stimulation are among the measures for acute intoxication d) Signs and symptoms of acute fluoride intoxication include thirst, increased salivation, nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, sweating, tachycardia, etc. 144. List 3 mechanisms of fluoride action: Increasing the resistance of the tooth surface by forming fluorapatite during tooth development Fluorides in saliva and dental plaque provide remineralization of the tooth surface after tooth eruption Fluoride in dental plaque inhibits the key enzyme enolase in microorganisms, leading to suppression of acid formation in plaque 145. List 4 mechanisms of fluoride action in dental plaque: Inhibits glycolysis Has a buffering action in plaque Affects pellicle and plaque formation Participates in enamel remineralization 146. At which stages of tooth development can fluoride be incorporated into tooth structures? Answer: Initial mineralization, pre-eruptive mineralization, post-eruptive maturation 147. Write the formula for calculating the dose of mineral water for endogenous fluoride prevention: Answer: Do = Cd x Cf + Cm x Cf 148. Explain how endogenously taken fluoride binds to forming enamel: Answer: By incorporating into the crystal lattice as fluorapatite By adsorbing on the enamel surface By depositing in the bone matrix 149. The main mechanism by which fluoride protects against dental caries is: a) An intraoral topical effect by which fluoride is incorporated into the enamel during remineralisation b) A systemic effect during the period of tooth development where fluoride is incorporated into the enamel during its formation c) An intra-oral effect where fluoride inhibits the activity of streptococcus mutans d) A life-long systemic effect whereby ingested fluoride is incorporated into the tooth enamel for form fluoroapatite 150. Which statements about the pre-eruptive action of fluoride are true: a) The primary dentition has a lower fluoride concentration than the permanent dentition b) Canine teeth have less fluoride content than incisors c) The displacement of hydroxyl ions by fluoride occurs from the interior of the enamel to its surface d) Endogenous intake is most effective 2 years before the eruption of each tooth 151. In the phase of post-eruptive maturation, endogenous fluoride: a) Can reach the enamel only through saliva. b) Effects the shape of the crown (occlusal surface). c) Has no essential effect. d) Displaces the hydroxy ion and transforms the hydroxyapatite in fluorapatite. 152. When a low concentration of fluoride ions (around and < 50 ppm) is added to a system where hydroxyapatite is in equilibrium with the ions in the medium: a) Fluorapatite is formed b) Calcium fluoride is formed c) Fluorohydroxyapatite is formed when the medium is acidified 153. During post-eruptive maturation: a) Endogenously taken fluoride reaches the enamel through tissue fluid b) Endogenously taken fluoride reaches the enamel through saliva c) Endogenously taken fluoride is very important d) Endogenously taken fluoride is not important 154. When a high concentration of fluoride ions (over 100 ppm) is added to a system where hydroxyapatite is in equilibrium with the ions in the environment: a) Fluorapatite is formed b) Calcium fluoride is formed c) Fluorohydroxyapatite is formed when the medium is acidified 155. What are the current recommendations for the amount of fluoride in toothpaste? a) For children under 2 years old, the toothpaste should not contain fluoride b) For children under 2 years old, the toothpaste should contain 1000 ppm fluoride, and the amount should be the size of a grain of rice c) For children aged 2 to 6 years, the toothpaste should contain 500 ppm fluoride, and the amount should be the size of a grain of rice d) For children over 6 years old, the toothpaste should contain 1000 ppm fluoride regardless of the amount e) For children over 6 years old, the toothpaste should contain 1450 ppm fluoride and be applied along the entire length of the brush 156. List at least 3 groups of patients for whom rinsing with fluoride solutions is highly recommended: Answer: Patients with hyposalivation, patients with fixed orthodontic appliances, patients with gingival recessions (prone to root caries lesion), patients with rampant caries, patients who cannot achieve adequate oral hygiene 157. Which type of endogenous fluoride prevention has the following advantages: "This method is the most effective, the cheapest ($0.50 per person per year), economically beneficial for all settlements with over 1500 inhabitants." a) Fluoridation of drinking water b) Fluoridation of salt c) Fluoridation of milk d) Intake of fluoride tablets 158. Which statements about professional local fluoride prevention are true: a) Recommended only for children with high caries risk b) Prescribed by a dentist for home use c) Performed in the dental office d) Includes endogenous intake of fluoride tablets e) Scheduled at different intervals according to the patient's caries risk 159. Which statements about individual topical fluoride prevention are true: a) Includes the use of fluoride toothpaste, solutions, gels, etc. b) Applied at home c) Applied in the dental office at certain intervals according to the level of caries risk d) Includes products with low fluoride concentrations – 200-1450 ppm 160. Identify the incorrect statements: a) Approved agents for local fluoride prevention are: sodium fluoride, stannous fluoride, and acidulated phosphate fluoride b) Professional oral hygiene is not necessary before professional application of a fluoride preparation c) The use of fluoride solutions and gels is recommended after 2 years of age d) Fluoride varnishes should not be used before 6 years of age due to the high fluoride concentration and risk of overdose Preventive Fissure Sealing: Types of Sealants, Techniques, and Remineralization as a Method of Primary Prevention of Dental Caries 161. What are the main anatomical and physiological factors that make the occlusal surfaces of permanent teeth susceptible to the development of carious lesions? Answer: Lower degree of mineralization; pronounced occlusal relief, leading to plaque retention; incomplete post-eruptive maturation; partial coverage of the tooth surface by gingiva; teeth not involved in the chewing function; unstable oral hygiene habits; lack of parental awareness regarding the eruption of these teeth; consumption of foods with higher carbohydrate/sugar content. 162. What is the purpose of preventive fissure sealing? Answer: The purpose is to create a barrier that protects the tooth from the effects of the surrounding cariogenic environment/to prevent the penetration of bacteria and fermentable carbohydrates. 163. How are fissures classified based on their anatomical shape? Answer: V-shaped, U-shaped, I-shaped, IK-type, other types. 164. What are the three specific risk factors that contribute to the development and progression of occlusal carious lesions? Answer: Morphology of the pit and fissure system; the stage of tooth eruption; the involvement of the tooth in the chewing function. 165. What characteristics should sealants have? a) Dissolve in a moist environment b) Have high resistance to shrinkage and wear c) Be highly adhesive d) Have a stable color e) Change the color of the tooth f) Cure at room temperature g) Be resistant in a moist environment h) Have low resistance to shrinkage and wear i) Hermetically fill the fissures j) Be biocompatible k) Do not change the color of the tooth 166. Indirect data that facilitate the differential diagnosis between healthy deep fissure and initial caries lesions are: a) Child’s caries activity; b) Physical or mental disability of the child; c) low socioeconomic status of the family; d) Tooth age; e) Caries activity in particular teeth group. 167. What are the key diagnostic criteria for differentiating between a deep fissure and an initial carious lesion? Answer: Direct observation, additional examinations, indirect data, identification of risk factors for carious lesions. Consider: the type of fissure, fissure color, the child’s age, average time of tooth eruption, and individual tooth age. Comparative caries rate of teeth in the same group and the child's overall caries rate. 168. List the indirect data used to differentiate between an initial carious lesion and a deep fissure. Answer: Dental age; presence of carious lesions on teeth from the same group (caries rate of teeth in the group); overall caries rate of the child; presence of risk factors such as poor oral hygiene, dietary habits and regimen, frequent carbohydrate consumption, children with ECC, poor social status, and parents with many untreated carious teeth. 169. Which of the following statements are true regarding the bonding process of sealants to enamel? a) The bonding surface area increases (via selective dissolution of hexagonal prisms). b) Surface energy increases after acid etching. c) Enamel porosity reaches up to 50 µ after acid etching. d) Acid etching removes salivary proteins and pellicle. e) Surface demineralization of enamel does not affect sealant adhesion. f) Surface energy of enamel decreases after acid etching. 170. List the main types of sealants, based on their chemistry: Answer: resin, glass ionomer, compomer, resin-modified GIC, flowable composites. 171. What are the indications for the use of sealants? Answer: Deep fissures; newly erupted distal teeth; underdeveloped or defective pits; during the first year of eruption and up to three years after; patients with high caries risk; children with physical or mental disabilities; carious primary teeth; low socioeconomic status; presence of a carious lesion on the occlusal surface of one molar – sealants are applied to other healthy molars and all second molars. 172. List at least three contraindications for the use of sealants: Answer: Non-retentive fissures; low risk of caries development; presence of occlusal caries lesion; insufficiently erupted teeth; uncooperative patients; history of sealant allergies; inability to isolate the working field. 173. Please list and describe the main steps in the clinical protocol for applying sealants. Answer: a) Clean the occlusal surface with a brush (without toothpaste) to remove plaque and food debris. Do not perform enameloplasty. b) Isolate and dry the tooth. A dry tooth surface guarantees successful sealant retention. c) Acid etch the tooth surface with 35–37% phosphoric acid using an applicator for 30 seconds. If saliva contamination occurs, the procedure must be repeated. d) Rinse and dry. Rinse thoroughly for 30 seconds and dry. The surface should appear chalky white and matte. If not, repeat the etching. e) Apply the sealant. Spread it over all pits and fissures, ensuring even distribution. f) Polymerize using a curing lamp (40 seconds for conventional sealants, 10–20 seconds for high-intensity ones). Remove the oxygen-inhibited layer. g) Evaluate the procedure and occlusion using articulating paper; adjust with a diamond bur if necessary. Polish the sealant. h) Follow-up and reapplication. Check sealants every six months and repair any defects. Reapplication is advised as teeth erupt. 174. What are the causes of sealant failure? Answer: The most common locations of failure are at the enamel-sealant interface, due to contamination with saliva, inadequate etching, or insufficient drying; peripheral discoloration of the sealant; application of the sealant over an existing carious lesion. 175. Which statements are true about non-operative preventive treatment? a) Fluoride is initially delivered, followed by calcium and phosphate at a later stage. b) Non-operative treatment includes the delivery of mineral ions that are intrinsic to enamel. c) Treatment of initial carious lesion includes operative treatment, followed by remineralization. d) Control of carbohydrate intake/dietary habits. e) Improvement of oral hygiene, motivation, and training for proper oral hygiene. 176. Which of the following statements are true regarding the indications for the use of remineralizing agents? a) Non caries-resistant dentition. b) Remineralizing agents are used to remove stains from enamel. c) Multiple initial carious lesions, single lesions, lesions around orthodontic appliances. d) Their application leads to the permanent removal of already developed carious lesions. e) Enamel erosions are an indication for the use of remineralizing agents. f) Remineralizing agents are effective for treatment of deep carious lesions. g) Diffuse zones of demineralization around clinically visible carious lesions. h) Children with medical conditions affecting enamel resistance. 177. Give a brief definition of remineralizing agents. Answer: Remineralizing agents deliver calcium and phosphorus in the areas of enamel demineralization to enter the crystal lattice. 178. Which mineral ions are intrinsic to enamel? Answer: Calcium ions, phosphate ions, fluoride ions. 179. List the criteria for assessing the activity of initial carious lesions: Answer: Characterized by mineral loss over a certain period. Localization- predilection sites: cervical areas, near the gingiva, occlusal surfaces (pits, fissures, grooves), proximal surfaces. Beneath plaque; loss of gloss; loss of transparency; color change- whitish/yellowish; loss of smoothness- rough texture upon probing; unclear/diffuse borders. 180. What are the criteria for a non-active carious lesion? Answer: Not characterized by mineral loss. The carious process has not progressed. Localization- away from predilection sites, on smooth surfaces, and distant from the gingival margin. Cavitated/non-cavitated; variable color; no plaque; presence of gloss; clear borders. 181. Which statements are NOT true about active carious lesions? a) The surface is smooth and glossy. b) There is no plaque above the lesion. c) It is localized in predilection sites. d) There is a change in color- whitish/yellowish. e) The lesion has clear borders. f) It is located away from caries predilection sites. g) Loss of smoothness. 182. What is the primary active ingredient in the remineralizing paste Tooth Mousse? Answer: CPP-ACP (casein phosphopeptide-amorphous calcium phosphate), which delivers calcium and phosphates for enamel remineralization. 183. Which of the following statements describe the application of transillumination in dentistry? a) Used to detect proximal carious lesions. b) Completely replaces radiographic diagnostics. c) Can be applied to detect carious lesions around restorations. d) Used to diagnose pulp inflammation. e) Used to diagnose/detect initial occlusal carious lesions. 184. Which statement is NOT true about transillumination? a) The accuracy of the method decreases in diagnosing advanced carious lesions or lesions beneath restorations. b) It requires additional radiation exposure. c) It depends on the quality of the light source or equipment. d) It is a non-invasive technique. e) It is an easy-to-use technique. 185. What is the physical property of dental tissues that underpins the use of transillumination? a) Transparency and scattering of light. b) Their ability to refract light. c) Their ability to absorb light. d) Reflection of light from the surface. 186. What are the advantages of the transillumination method? a) Non-invasive technique. b) Requires additional radiation exposure. c) Early detection of carious lesions. d) The beam can pass through restorations to detect secondary carious lesion. e) Safe method. f) Quick and easy to perform (can be done directly in the dental office). 187. What does non-operative preventive treatment of reversible carious lesions include? Answer: Assessment of caries risk or individual risk for carious lesion development; management of the carious process. 188. Describe the treatment protocol for reversible carious lesions with codes 01 and 02 (ICDAS II) using remineralization therapy. Answer: 1. Visualization of dental biofilm. 2. Motivation and training for proper oral hygiene; implementation of professional oral hygiene. 3. Prescribing fluoride-containing toothpaste, based on age. 4. Assigning fluoride applications based on individual needs. 5. Limiting carbohydrate intake between meals. 6. To stimulate salivary flow—using sugar-free gum. 7. Encouraging the habit of rinsing the mouth with water after eating. 189. Which lesions are reversible? Answer: Lesions with codes 01 and 02 (ICDAS II). 190. Which of the following methods are part of non-operative treatment? a) Mechanical removal of dental biofilm. b) Delivery of mineral ions. c) Using restorative materials that release F – ions. d) Control of dietary habits. e) This type of treatment is used only in adults. 191. A 10-year-old patient is diagnosed with initial carious lesions code 02 (ICDAS II) on the occlusal and buccal surfaces of the first permanent molars. What measures can be applied to stop the progression of these carious lesions? Answer: Remineralization through the delivery of ions intrinsic to enamel (Ca and P) and the application of fluoride; mechanical removal of dental biofilm, motivation, and training for oral hygiene; control of dietary habits/limiting the intake of sugar-rich foods, sealanization of the initial occlusal lesion. Nutritional prevention. Role of nutrients and their participation in developing complex dental structures, mucosa, and periodontium. Role of carbohydrate nutrition on the oral ecosystem and biofilm. Preventive carbohydrate nutrition regimens throughout childhood 192. What is the purpose of nutritional prevention? Answer: Nutritional prophylaxis is a proper balancing of nutrition during the different periods of development of oral structures. Its purpose is a daily balanced distribution of food products according to the changing needs during each development period. 193. What does CPI mean, and what is it used for? Answer: The acidogenic potential of food or drink, which can lead to dental caries, can be measured with the caries potential index – CPI. A CPI above 1 means a high index, and a CPI below 1 means a low index. 194. What are the nutritional recommendations for caries prevention? Answer: Balanced diet according to the food pyramid; Limit meals to three per day; Avoid snacks; Examples of combinations of foods for protection: - Dairy products with carbohydrates; - Increased chewing function; - Raw and cooked foods; - Protein and acidogenic foods. 195. Fill in the missing words: Frequent snacks maintain plaque pH value ……………. and extend the periods of................................... of tooth enamel. Answer: low; demineralization. 196. The sequence of food intake can affect the change in plaque pH: a) True b) False 197. Which of the following products is the least cariogenic? a) glucose b) sucrose c) lactose d) fructose e) xylitol 198. The most harmful carbohydrate-related habits for the development of caries is: a) the amount of sugar content; b) the frequency of sugar intake; c) the type of carbohydrate; d) the consistency of carbohydrates. 199. The Krebs cycle occurs under a) aerobic conditions; b) anaerobic conditions; c) microaerophilic conditions; d) aerobic and anaerobic conditions. 200. Which of the following is a monosaccharide? a) maltose b) sucrose c) fructose d) lactose e) starch. 201. What is the end product of glycolysis under anaerobic conditions? a) lactic acid b) pyruvate c) acetoacetic acid d) oxaloacetic acid. 202. Which of the following is not an oligosaccharide? a) galactose b) lactose c) maltose d) sucrose. 203. Which of the following is not a monosaccharide? a) glucose; b) galactose; c) maltose; d) fructose. 204. Xylitol is (more than one correct answer is possible): a. natural sweet amino acid; b. synthetic sweet amino acid; c. natural 5-carbon sugar; d. synthetic 5-carbon sugar; e. birch sugar. 205. Pre-resorptive action of food is: a) the local effect of the food, which happens after the tooth eruption and creates a cariogenic or caries-protective environment. b) the local effect of the food, which happens after the tooth eruption and creates only a cariogenic environment. c) After tooth eruption, diet affects the teeth topically rather than systemically. d) After tooth eruption, diet affects the teeth equally topically and systemically. 206. Which of the following statements about carbohydrates are correct: a) Carbohydrates are the primary energy source for human cells; b) Energy is released from their oxidation in the Krebs cycle under aerobic conditions; c) They are important for the structure of bones and cartilage; d) They participate in the human metabolism and have a plastic function; e) They are the primary building block of the synthesizing cells in the tooth germs, where they participate alone or in combination with proteins in the form of glycol- and mucoproteins. 207. Give examples of monosaccharides: Answer: glucose, galactose, fructose. 208. Which of the statements about carbohydrates is true? a) they are only 1% of the body; b) they represent about 25% of the body; c) they are the basic building blocks of the cells; d) they are stored as glycogen; e) they are the primary source of energy for the cell; f) they are made up of the semi-condensation of individual aminoacids. 209. List the groups of carbohydrates based on their chemical nature: Answer: monosaccharides; disaccharides; polysaccharides; homopolysaccharides; heteropolysaccharides 210. Which statements about monosaccharides are true? a) Glucose is blood sugar and is a primary source of energy; b) They are the basic building block of all other carbohydrates; c) They are the smallest carbohydrate molecules that cannot be hydrolyzed into smaller ones; d) They are galactose, maltose, lactose, and sucrose; e) Sucrose is blood sugar and a significant source of energy; f) Glucose is the sweetest; g) Fructose is a fruit sugar and is the sweetest (present in fruits and honey). 211. Give examples of homopolysaccharides: Answer: starch; glycogen; cellulose. 212. Give examples of heteropolysaccharides: Answer: pectin and lignin, glycoproteins, glycopeptides, mucopolysaccharides. 213. Fill the levels of the food pyramid Answer: level 6: wholemeal cereals and breads, potatos, pasta and rice level 5: vegetables, salad and fruits level 4: milk, yogurt and cheese level 3: meat, poultry, fish, eggs, beans and nuts level 2: fats and oils level 1: foods and drinks high in fat, sugar and salt. 214. Which statements about fructose are true? a) A natural substance in fruits; b) Sweeter than sucrose; c) Less sweet than sucrose; d) Metabolized by cariogenic microorganisms to acids; e) Cannot be metabolized to acids by microorganisms; f) Microorganisms cannot synthesize extracellular polysaccharides from it; g) Microorganisms can synthesize extracellular polysaccharides from it; h) It is less cariogenic than sucrose; i) It is as cariogenic as sucrose. 215. Give examples of sugar alcohols: Answer: sorbitol, mannitol, xylitol. 216. What is true about sorbitol? a) It replaces sugar in various sweets, chewing gums, and toothpastes; b) Cariogenic microorganisms cannot metabolize it; c) Cariogenic microorganisms can metabolize it; d) It can be extracted from corn, oats, and strawberries; e) It can be obtained from glucose by hydrogenation; f) The energy value of sorbitol is lower than that of sugar; g) The energy value of sorbitol is higher than that of sugar, but it is not cariogenic; h) It occurs naturally in various fruits - pears, plums and apples. 217. List three examples of healthy ways to consume carbohydrates: Answer: 1. By consuming whole grains, fruits, and vegetables; 2. Natural carbohydrates which have a lower cariogenic potential; 3. By consuming them in main meals. 218. Which foods stimulate saliva flow (more than one correct answer)? a) whole grains; b) fruits and vegetables; c) nuts; d) chewing gum; e) candy; f) hard cheese; g) apples and carrots; h) carbonated and fruit drinks; 219. Which statements about polyphenols are true? a) They have the ability to reduce the cariogenic potential of food; b) They have cariogenic potential and are found in cocoa and chocolate; c) They are found in coffee, tea, cocoa, and fruit juices; d) They are found in coffee, tea, and cocoa; e) They interact with the glycosyltransferase of Streptococcus mutans, which reduces the formation of dental plaque; f) They interact with the glycosyltransferase of Streptococcus mutans, increasing the formation of dental plaque; g) They act as antioxidants; h) Examples of polyphenols are: flavonoids, phenolic acids, curcumin, berberine. 220. List the rules for creating a nutritional program to control carbohydrate intake: Answer: 1. Assess the presence of carbohydrate intake. 2. Limit the number of main meals. 3. Control the type of sweet foods by limiting carbohydrate consumption. 4. Control eating habits - frequency of meals, snacks between main meals. 5. Use sugar substitutes. 221. List the periods requiring nutritional prophylaxis: 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. Answer: 1. Pregnancy; 2. Infancy; 3. Early childhood; 4. Preschool age: 5. Early school age; 6. Adolescence. 222. What are the functions of proteins? a) They participate in the metabolic processes of the cell (in hormones); b) Participate in the structure of DNA; c) They are carriers of various vitamins – A, D, E; d) A building block for the synthesis and function of all tissues and structures; e) Catalyze the action of enzymes; f) Participate in fluid and metabolic balance; g) a fundamental building block of the tooth germ cell; h) Protein starvation increases the risk of periodontal diseases; i) Protein starvation reduces collagen production by 60%. 223. Through the consumption of dairy products (yellow and white cheese), the following nutrients are supplied to the body: a) Ca; b) essential amino acids; c) casein; d) vitamin E; e) flourine. 224. List the microelements in the human body: Answer: chromium, cobalt, molybdenum, selenium, iodine, fluorine, zinc, copper 225. List the macroelements in the human body: Answer: calcium, magnesium, phosphorus, sodium, potassium 226. Describe the formation of vitamin D in the human body: Answer: Vitamin D3 is made in the skin from 7-dehydrocholesterol under the influence of UV light. Further metabolism of vitamin D to its major circulating form (25(OH)D) and hormonal form (1,25(OH)2D) takes place in the liver and kidney, respectively. The major enzyme that catabolizes 25(OH)D and 1,25(OH)2D is the 24-hydroxylase. 227. Which statements about calcium in the human body are true? a) it participates in the construction of tooth structures; b) oxalates convert calcium into an absorbable form; c) proteins and amino acids increase calcium absorption up to five times; d) it activates protein kinases; e) it reduces glycogen synthesis; f) serves as an important intercellular mediator; g) phytic acid increases the absorption of Ca – forms insoluble salts with it. 228. List the true statements about iron: a) It is mainly found in the bones; b) it makes the crystal more resistant; c) Found in hemoglobin, myoglobin and cytochromes; d) Found in nuts, liver and cereals; e) Important for water balance; f) Its amount depends on intake. 229. Which are medium cariostatic elements? Answer: Mo, Cu, Li, B, V 230. What is the action of vitamin A? a) Stabilizes the cell membrane; b) Helps glycogen synthesis; c) Helps bone growth; d) Activates alkaline phosphatase; e) Affects epithelial tissues Caries risk assessment 231. What does ‘carious lesion activity‘ mean? a) This is the number of newly appearing carious lesions in a certain period. b) This is the difference in the number of newly appearing carious lesions. c) This is the speed at which the carious lesion progresses. d) These are all factors that lead to the development of a carious lesion. 232. List the main etiological factors according to Faierskov in the etiology of dental caries? Answer: Local, individual and population factors 233. What is the main strategy for dealing with the carious process? Answer: Maintaining a balance between risk and protective factors. 234. Which of the listed factors are risky for the development of a carious process? a) Dental morphology. b) Use of various forms of fluoride prevention. c) Carbohydrate nutrition. d) Silanization of fissures. e) Salivary secretion. f) Frequency of intermediate carbohydrate intakes. g) Parental caries. 235. Which of the selection factors can be protective or risky, according to their quantitative characteristics? a) Salivary secretion. b) Deep poorly mineralized fissures. c) Plaque- retentive sites. d) Quantitative characterization of S. mutans and Lactobacillus spp. e) Buffer capacity of saliva. f) Activity of carious lesions. g) Saliva pH. 236. List the levels at which risk profiling can be done? ………………………………. ………………………………. ………………………………. Answer: public or group for a given population; individually; topical for certain teeth 237. Which tooth surfaces are most at risk for the development of carious lesions? a) All tooth surfaces have the same risk. b) The occlusal surfaces of the molars immediately after the eruption. c) The proximal surfaces. d) The smooth surfaces. 238. Define a prognostic risk factor Answer: A risk factor that can be used to predict an extremely high probability of developing a disease 239. Which of the following factors are pathological in Featherstone's ‘balanced caries’ concept? a) Acid-forming microorganisms. b) Saliva flow and composition. c) Antibacterial agents. d) Dysfunction of salivary secretion. e) Easily fermentable carbohydrates. f) Fluorides from external sources. g) Calcium and phosphates from saliva. 240. What is Featherstone's "balanced caries" concept ? Answer: It consists of simplified key factors responsible for the progression of carious lesions, which are compared to protective factors and a correction of the balance between them is sought. 241. Which of the following indicators fall into the high risk category according to the American Academy of Pediatric Dentistry caries risk scoring system? a) Appearance of carious teeth in the last 12 months. b) Visible plaque on the front teeth. c) Presence of single fields of enamel demineralization. d) More than 3 times the consumption of simple carbohydrates between 2 meals. e) Partially carried out endogenous fluoride prophylaxis with optimal local fluoride prophylaxis. f) Sporadic topical fluoride prevention. 242. How is caries risk determined whether it is low, medium or high? Answer: The risk is determined according to the indicator column in which there is at least one positive answer. 243. What are the risk ages according to the caries risk assessment in Bulgaria? Answer: 1-2 years; 5-7 years; 11-14 years 244. What is included in the assessment of the risk of periodontal disease on „patient - level “? Answer: systemic risk factors, genetic predisposition or genetic diseases, behavioral riskfactors 245. The factors used in the caries risk assessment systems are devided into three groups. Which are these groups? 1. ………………………..................................................... 2. …………………………................................................. 3. …………………………………………………………. 1.risk factors, 2. protective factors; 3. factors that, according to their quantitative characteristics, could be protective or risk. 246. Which of the listed levels are involved in the assessment of the risk of periodontal disease? a) Patient level. b) Population level. c) Level oral environment. d) Level tooth or group of teeth. e) Microenvironment level. 247. Which of the following factors are systemic risk factors for the development of periodontal disease? a) Genetic risk factors. b) Subgingival plaque. c) Supra - and subgingival calculus. d) Certain drug therapy. e) Metabolic risk factors. f) High attachment of frenulum. g) Local trauma. h) Risky medical problems – endocarditis, cardiovascular diseases 248. What determines the occurrence of secondary risk factors when assessing the risk of periodontal diseases? Answer: They are the result of initial damage to the gingiva sulcus and attachment. These are false gingival pocket, compromised integrity of the attachment, gingival bleeding, etc. They are a prerequisite for the transition from gingivitis to periodontitis and their assessment is part of secondary prevention. 249. List the three types of periodontal disease risk assessment systems based on their application: 1. ……………………………….. 2. ……………………………….. 3. ……………………………….. Answer: for public or group application; for individual application in oral health assessment; risk assessment as part of the diagnosis and treatment of a child with periodontal disease 250. Risk assessment of periodontal disease is estimated at four levels. List the levels. Answer: patient level; II- oral environment level; III- tooth or group of teeth level; IV - microenvironment level 251. List the three main oral risk factors: 1. ……………………………… 2. ……………………………… 3. ……………………………… Answer: caries-specific factors; factors specific to periodontal diseases; common factors for oral pathology – biofilm and saliva 252. List the elements of a preventive program according to WHO: 1. ……………………………… 2. ……………………………… 3. ……………………………… 4. ……………………………… 5. ……………………………… 6. ……………………………… Answer: defining the problems; formulation of goals; selection of preventive methods; creation and implementation of the program; evaluation of the performed activity - monitoring; new planning based on the results achieved 253. Which of the following statements about the situational analysis of a prevention program are true? a) The situational analysis is a preliminary study necessary for the creation of the preventive program. b) The situational analysis with the evaluation of the performed activity. c) The situational analysis helps to re-plan the preventive program based on the achieved results. d) Thanks to the situation analysis, the purpose of the preventive program is determined. 254. List the types of prevention programs 1. ……………………………….. 2. ………………………………. 3. ………………………………. Answer: national; public (group); individual 255. Which activities can be included in a preventive program? ………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………… Answer: oral hygiene; diet control; endogenous and exogenous fluoride prevention; preventive sealing of fissures; health education and promotion 256. What is preventive program monitoring? a) Process of controlling certain parameters characterizing oral health. b) Process of planning and organizing groups of children, objects of preventive activities. c) A process by which changes and trends are monitored, the planned goal of the prevention program is compared with the observed results. d) Process by which target groups are defined. e) Monitoring determines the preventive methods that will be applied. 257. At which groups are the group prevention programs aimed? ………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………… Answer: pregnant; infants; early childhood group; group of 6-year-old children; group of 12-year-olds children; group of 18-year-olds children 258. List risk groups for preventive programs: ………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………… Answer: minority children; children with common diseases; children consuming high amounts of carbohydrates 259. What is the risk of the disease? ………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………… Answer: Probability that the individual will develop a given disease 260. Which of the following statements about a ‚risk factor’ is true? a) It is a factor that is used to predict the likelihood of developing a disease. b) A non-etiological factor that can modify the onset and progression of the disease. c) Individual biochemical or physicochemical indicators related to the disease, without being a direct cause of it. d) A factor that has been shown to be causally related to a given disease. 261. What is risk assessment for the development of a given disease? ………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………… Answer: This is a fundamental step in the process of making a certain clinical decision for the prevention, diagnosis and treatment of a given oral disease. It includes an assessment of all factors that could have a positive or negative impact on oral health. 262. List the directions of oral health promotion: a) Development of public health; b) Development of individual health; c) Development of community activities in support of oral health; d) Reorientation of health services; e) Strengthening of existing health services 263. The subjects in the process of oral health promotion are: a) the individual person; b) various population groups by age; c) various population groups by ethnicity; d) various population groups by residence; e) the entire society 264. The strategies of impact in health promotion are: a) political, scientific; b) Educational, motivational; c) economic, organizational; d) legal, technological; 265. Definition of health promotion: ………………………………………………… Answer: Health promotion is any planned combination of educational, political, regulatory, and organizational support for action that contributes to the health of individuals, groups, or communities. 266. Change in individual behavior is achieved through the following methods: a) self-suggestion; b) self-monitoring; c) behavior self-control; d) positive thinking 267. The health beliefs model includes the following components: a) Self-help; b) Perception of barriers; c) Perception of severity; d) Perception of susceptibility; e) Perception of benefits 268. Individual health promotion includes: a) Patient education; b) Familiarization with all options and solutions for the specific case; c) A comprehensive healthcare system – creating an individual health program; d) Familiarization with the healthcare system and access to it 269. Group methods for promoting oral health include: a) Health education; b) Practicing healthcare; c) Creating a healthy environment; d) Influencing through interaction; e) Diffusion of innovations 270. According to WHO, the most significant determinants of health are: ……………………………………………………… Correct answer: poverty, economic inequality, social status, stress, education and early childhood care, social exclusion, employment and workplace security, social support, and food security. 271. The main directions in programs for promoting oral health in childhood are: a) Reducing social inequality; b) Reducing tobacco use; c) Fluoride intake; d) Prevention of chronic diseases; e) Carbohydrate intake; f) Visiting a dentist; g) Oral hygiene – means and methods 272. The implementers of health promotion are: a) Teachers and school staff; b) Parents; c) Dentists; d) General practitioners; e) Physicians from various specialties; f) Media; 273. Main groups of behavior change models are: a) Health belief model; b) Motivational models; c) Theory of planned behavior; d) Behaviorally established models; e) Multi-stage models 274. List the methods used in health education and training: …………………………………………….. Answer: Knowledge transmission methods, attitude influence methods, skill development methods. 275. Types of games used for the promotion of oral health: a) Hierarchical games; b) Scenario-role games; c) Self-directed games; d) Scenario-application games 276. Elements of the games used for the promotion of oral health: a) Motives for play; b) Goal; c) Gameplay task; d) Game plot; e) Game role; f) Game actions with objects; g) Game operations; h) Imaginary situation; i) Game rules 277. Which statements about children with disabilities are true? a) They cannot be treated on an outpatient basis in a dental office. b) Avoiding them for treatment is considered a form of discrimination. c) They require prolonged feeding. d) They systematically receive fluoride. e) Excessive parental involvement with the child’s disability. f) General motor dysfunctions leading to poor oral hygiene. 278. What is characteristic of the oral health of children with special needs? a) Higher levels of untreated caries. b) More missing teeth. c) Class II and III according to Angle. d) No signs of abrasion. e) Class I according to Angle. f) Higher frequency of periodontal diseases. 279. Which statement is true regarding the treatment of children with special needs? a) It does not take much time. b) Difficult. c) Requires special conditions. d) Does not induce strong anxiety. e) Visits are frequent, not emergency-based. f) Conducted in specialized clinics/practices. 280. What is important when taking the medical history of children with special needs? a) What the disability is and its degree. b) What the disability is; the degree is irrelevant. c) The patient’s willingness to cooperate is irrelevant. d) Intellectual capacity. e) Level of communication. f) Muscle coordination and mobility. 281. What is characteristic of desensitization? a) Complex procedures are included from the very beginning. b) It includes conducting oral hygiene. c) It involves several prerequisites. d) If successful, sedation/protective stabilization is applied. e) Observation by a family member. f) Reduces anxiety and fear of dental treatment. 282. Which behavioral problems can hinder safe treatment? a) High threshold for irritation. b) Impulsivity. c) Low threshold for irritation. d) Talking at inappropriate times. e) Aggressiveness. f) Cooperativeness. 283. What strategy is applied for safe treatment? a) The patient is monitored at the beginning and end of the visit. b) The patient is monitored throughout the entire visit. c) Verbal encouragement is given all the time. d) Silence is maintained throughout the visit. e) Treatment is concluded regardless of the patient's cooperation. f) Treatment is suspended and completed at a later stage if the patient stops cooperating. 284. What is the impact of visual impairment on oral health? a) There is no direct impact. b) There is a direct impact. c) Injury to the oral mucosa. d) Silence is maintained throughout the visit. e) Hyperpigmentation with congenital vision loss. f) Enamel hypoplasia with congenital vision loss. 285. What are the psychological characteristics and behavioral problems of children with partial vision? a) Unstable attention. b) Stable attention. c) Fully comprehend memorized information. d) Perceive space through air movement. e) Impaired coordination of movements. f) Compensatory overdevelopment of other sensory modalities. 286. What is important in communication with children with visual impairment? a) Speak quickly and loudly. b) Speak slowly with a normal voice strength. c) Sudden touch should be avoided, as it startles the child. d) They perceive space through air movement. e) Encourage the child with verbal affirmations. f) The child is stroked and hugged to calm them down. 287. What is important when presenting the dental procedure to children with visual impairment? a) Medical terms are used. b) Understandable terms are used. c) The child sees through touch. d) Their hands are directed towards the object. e) The patient is warned about specific smells and tastes. f) Strong smells and tastes are easily accepted. 288. Which of the following is true regarding communication with children with hearing impairment? a) The dentist cannot communicate independently. b) Incorrect interpretation of information. c) Difficulty in acquiring new knowledge and skills. d) Speaking loudly. e) Difficulties in social adaptation. f) Incorrectly following instructions during treatment. 289. Which statements are true regarding dental procedures for children with hearing impairment? a) They should be short. b) They start to gesture with a slow treatment process. c) They have poor tolerance for a slow treatment process. d) They should be lengthy. e) It is unnecessary for parents to be present during the procedure. f) They demonstrate a desire to refuse treatment when the process is slow. 290. What strategies are used to improve the behavior of children with hearing impairment? a) The “say, show, do” technique. b) The “show, do” technique. c) Modeling technique – the child observes another family member while in the chair. d) Absence of the parent during treatment. e) Movies and photographic material. f) Posters and drawings. 291. Which statements regarding the treatment of children with intellectual disabilities are true? a) Preliminary information on the degree of intellectual disability. b) Communication capabilities. c) Reducing sources of distraction in the office. d) Appointment times – afternoon visits. e) Different staff should work. f) The same staff should work. 292. Which behavioral problems for children with intellectual disabilities are true? a) Calm and inactive. b) Restless and hyperactive. c) Continuously repeat words, phrases, and movements. d) Not fussy. e) Attention deficit. f) Focus their attention on obsessive behavior. 293. Which statements about the influence of children with intellectual disabilities on oral health are true? a) High or low values of DMFT (Decayed, Missing, Filled Teeth). b) A greater number of fillings. c) No signs of abrasion. d) Abrasion of the teeth. e) Hypertrophic gingivitis. f) Severe periodontal diseases. 294. Which statements about the oral status of children with autism are true? a) More missing teeth. b) Delayed eruption due to Phenytoin-induced gingival hyperplasia. c) Dental trauma. d) Early eruption due to P

Preventive Dentistry Test 2024 PDF

Document Details

Tags

Related

Summary

Full Transcript

Upgrade to continue