Pisay Volume 1 PDF Past Paper

 TABLE OF CONTENTS PART I Abstract Reasoning Ability Test............... 3 Answer Key...........................20 PART II Verbal Aptitude Test...............2I Answer Key........... 32  Foreword The PSHS National Competitive Examinati...

 TABLE OF CONTENTS PART I Abstract Reasoning Ability Test............... 3 Answer Key...........................20 PART II Verbal Aptitude Test...............2I Answer Key........... 32  Foreword The PSHS National Competitive Examination is the ultimate high school qualifying examination. Only the top 1070 students of elementary schools nationwide are qualified to take the NCE. At stake is a four yeal high school scholarship, with ftee books and allowances, and more impofiantly, an education that puts the studeot at par with among the best in the world. This education prepares the students for careers in Mathematics,.the sciences.and Engineering, most lik€ly as a scholar again in college, either locally or intemationally. The PSHS Foundation Inc., with this Reviewer, hopes to level the playing field among interested students, those students already privileged by an excellent elementary education and the students, naturally privileged intellectually but hampered by limited elementary education, by helping them prepare for the NCE. This reviewer orients the students to the PSHS NCE. It gives an idea of what the examination is all about, the coverage, lhe type of tests. It also gives the students a chance to practice for the PSHS NCE. Also, it pinpoints areas for further study and improvement. The Foundation wishes you all the best.  ABSTRACT REASONING Abstract Reasoning is the ability to recognize logical pattems fromnon-verbal cues orimages and thet relatiotrships, and to make predictior,s on these pattern;. The abshact rcasoning tests measure such lateral thinkiflg skills which is called fluid intelligence, a form ofgeneral mental ability that is not dependent on cultural background or educational experience. d Encircle the letter that corresponds to the correct answer. 1. Which figure completes the series? HtrHH H HHHH AB,b..D 2. Which figure completes the series? HtrtrtrH trtrtrtr AB'CD 3. Which figure completes the series? NNtrtr trWEM A 'B C D 4. Which figure completes the sequence? @@@@@c @@@@ A B C ID; 5. Which figure completes the series? mmffitmn ffiffi ffiffi AB C.D 6. Which hgure completes the series? t-l HEM L] HEM mABC D 7. Which figure completes the series? @ffi@ffi0 ffiffi @ffi A,B] VD 8. Which figure completes the series? ffiffiffiffi ? ffiffiffiffi ABi]W 9. Which figure completes the series? sooeso d\fA6h ai\ [,A'[,\-' AB"ED 10. Which figure completes the series? EEreEEreEEH H3mreffio' 11. Which figure completes the series? ililff rlljtl ilruilil KBc)D 12. Which figure completes the series? mmrururuH rumrc[3 AB,b,D 13. Which figure is next in the series? ffiHHHH n? HHHH LoBeD 14. Which figure is next in the series? n rrt I.{ f*l *, HHHHH ffi{ i*it l-;l t-t i:I HM[TM AIBCD 15. Which figure completes the series? mffir:r-{mffi l-T_lnf:-:l FFq ru'{l A B C..D.J 16. Which figure completes the series? T*lrfi ['-r:T [r1-'{ FT;] F:r'] mF:TIX AB.C,,D rurfiruq 17. Which figure completes the series? l*'Tt:lFrffi f'T;l ffi:llil Fflml ru:fi ffiilnll fFrd ffit{; ABCD.8 18. Which figure completes the series? Fffi:T t-J: tlFl f'l*{ mlffi f-T*l A r'r';l B ffiru C-' f rT-il lrlrl D 19. Which figure completes the series? ffiffiffimffi fi-rh:-l rrl lrtl ' r*,H-3 lI-Jm F{hT] :A' B C D 20. Which figure is next in the series? g3ffiH3ffig3n t6-ol F-61 [--rol t6-o h-J b-l b@l la--i A B C... ,D 2I. Which figure is next in the series? ruffiro mffiH ffi ffi A B Hru CD 22. Which figure is next in the series? oe@ooo f,\ f\ rr\ a6-\ trgw9tr7q9 d: B C D 23. Which figure is next in the series? tr +J1 'c-, tr ? rr r %% 9€ 9^9 A B ----N C. ----.r,O D t0 24. Which figure is next in the series? ffiffi ffi ffi ffiHH ffi ffi AB C D 25. Which figure completes the series? M€l tffil ffil l>l^l l*l >l lql\rl ffi FIaq Mfd @--cl t5TGl lvl € I l> lrul l> l€ kqq I I ABC D 26. Which figure completes the series? ffi ffi ffiil ? ffi tffi ffiil ffiil A ,B'. C D 11 27. Which figure completes the series? nffiffiffi ffi ffiffiffi ffi ABC D 28. Which figure completes the series? ffiffiffi ffi ffiffiffi ABC lvlxl D 29. Which figure completes the series? nrutffi ffiffiffiffi A t2 30. Which figure completes the series? nilm nNN milffiffi AB*D ililE 31. Which figure completes the grid? ffiffi ruB CDffiffi 32..Which figure completes the grid? s@@s fs'fsl mm a0sa l-ej " tgj B s @ s s@ ffi [8j. ls.td M; 13 33. Which figure completes the grid? [E H B ffi D 34. Which figure completes the grid? tutututu D 35. Which figure completes the grid? #### I4 36. Which figure completes the grid? ffi ffiffiffiffi C 37. Which figure completes the statement? ffi ru is cs to ruffiruru ru i3 to n AG_) cD.-.: 38. Which figure completes the statement? S::ffi os$s O,'*O \o-l \-,/ €r 15 39. Which figure completes the statement? ,/=\ /X\ ,ra@) AB9D @ \r/ as 66/@rn /$\ w isto / /\ \i \-./ ) U['UW 40. Which figure completes the statement? 4T. Which completes the statement? \vRr A s,o \ $1z$/\rz\p /+A/v\Y\xx as /\ 4N A\ 4A \{:s' Xisto?ABcD I ,/^i,\ 16 42. Which figure is missing? ffimmHm NtrEH A(6UCD 43. Which figure is missing? s ? ffiffiffiffi s ffi IA B C D 44. Which figure is the odd one out? il-l ffiA L_sJ B ruffi p,D t'/ 45. Which figrne is the odd one out? il m FI tll lffi I \/ l"l I I F.] tt LY-] lvl lrt A B e D E 46. Which figure is the odd one out? ffiffiffiffiffi ',ABCDE 47. Which figure is the odd one out? ffiffiffiruffi AB,CDE 48. Which figure is the odd one out? ffiffiffiffiffi IABCDE 18 49, Which of the answer figures belongs in neither group? mtmt f( cll@d lNrTllcrl l^oll^cl krolml lm]16^l FAJIOUJ tg:Jt$el crilrFa Grspn mr7 l6m Nql lesj t4N lesj AB ClD 50. Which of the answer figures belongs in neither group? mtl^ot KTlm-t tarjt!#j l^ollr ol FT]ff_fl tnKtmn Ir^llnfl bsjtsd 6{ffrpA Gflilr$ $ r-.l r-m r,1,ln r,}_rAr t*sj Lbd tlsj trej iA B CD I9  ANSWER KEY 1.C 26. B 2.8 27. A 3.C 28. B 4.D 29. A 5.8 30. D 6.D 31. C 1. C 32. B 8.D 33. B 9.C 34. D 10. D 3s. c 11. A 36. C 12. C 31. B 13. C 38. B T4. A 39. B 15. D 40. B 16. C 4t. c 17. A 42. B 18. C 43. A 19. A 44. C 20, c 45. C 21. B 46. A 22. A 47. C 23. C 48. A 24. B 49. C 25. D 50. A 20  VERBAL APTITUDE I. The items below consist of a sentence with an underlined word and four (4) lettered words. Select the lettered word that is closest in meaning to the underlined word in the sentence. Indicate your answer by shading the appropriate circle on your answer sheet. 1. The sun is at its zenith at noon. A. highest C. hottest f$ Utignt-rt D. farthest 2. Trees line the periphery of the small village, embracing it in shade. A. center C. far right B. far left D. edges 3. The students find the stringent rules difficult to follow. A. complicated C. challenging B. rigorous D. confusing 4. The queue for the low-priced rice went around the corner and stretched down the block. A. circle C. line B. march D. crowd 5. Because it is he who knows best, the doctor must apprise his patient of the course of treatment. A. charge C. provide B. assure D. inform 6. Unusual weather conditions may mean that climate change is imminent. A. improving C. approaching B. diminishing D. developing 21  7. Parents usually tell their young children to be wary ol' strangers. A. suspicious C. conscious B. distrustful D. careful 8. Ascionofthewealthiestfamilyintheprovince,Rafaelpr a simple lifestyle. A. descendant C. relative B. supporter D. heir 9. Having authored more than 50 plays, Shakespeare was indeed a prslifis writer. A. respected C. talented B. productive D. creative 10. The speaker extolled the virtues of the Philippines nationa hero Jose Rizal. A. criticized C. admired B. described D. praised II. The items below consist of a pair of words followed by four lettered pairs of words. Select the lettered pair of words that reflects the same relationship between the original pair of words. Indicate your answer by shading the appropriate circle on your answer sheet. 11. TELEPHONE: SOUND:: A. telephoto : camera C. telegraph : word B. telescope : planet D. television : channel 12. SUMMER : SEASON :: A. Africa: continent C. kilometer: distance B. animal : reptile D. winter : spring 22  13. CONGREGATION : CHURCH :: refers 14. PROTEIN:MEAT:: B. calcium:milk D. cow: beef d 15. HAPPY : ECSTATIC :: A. sad : lonely C. unkind : ruthless B. pretty : pleasant D. filthy : dirty al 16. PROSPERITY : ADVERSITY :: A. beast: beauty C. wealth : business B. honesty : deceitfulness D. universal : unique 17. PIE : SLICE:: A. cake : icing C. week: day B. drop : rain D. shoe : foot 18. GRAIN : SACK :: A. leaves : pile C. pack: gum B. oil : barrel D. shop : dresses 19. WATER: WET:: A. mud: sticky C. cold: snow B. sun : heat D. wind: dry A. skydiving: plane C. mountain: climbing B. collecting : stamp D. racing : track 23 --l i III. Frcm the lettercd choices given, select the word or phrase thir BEST completes fhe meaning of the sentence. Indicate your answer by shadiqg the appropriate circle on the answer sheet. 2l.Everyone in the class to attend the assembly tomorrow. A. plan C. have plans B. plans - D. will plan 22.If I _yott,l would volunteer for the medical mission A. were C. would be B. was D. will be 23. Neither the teacher _ the students know the identity of the visitor. A. nor C. and B. or D. with 24.The new auditorium can 5,000 students. A. acommodate C. accommodate B. accomodate D. accomoddate 25.The boy's perseverance resulted his achieving first honors. A. to C. in B. for D. from 26.It raining heavily since this morning. A. Is C. was B. has been D. will be 27.Thefishingboat-offthecoastofPalawanyesterday. A. sank C. was sinking B. sunk D. had been sinking 24 rl 28. "- I see the evidence?" thejudge requested the lawyer. r A. Can C. Must. B. May D. Should 29.The information was immediately through all print media. A. disseminated C. dessiminated B. disceminated D. disemminated n. 30. The letter on the table unopened for several days. A.lie C. lay B.laid D. was lying IV. Some parts of -t}le sentences below arc underlined and marked A, B, C, and D. These parts may or may not be an elror. If the sentence has an error, choose the lettered pafi that contains it. If the sentence has NO ERROR, choose E. Indicate your answer by shading the appropriate circle on your answer sheet. 31. Wha did yau parents vote for in the last presidential elections? AB CD NO ERROR E 32. My youxg€r brother Alfred. who is a sophomore. is taller A BC than him. NO ERROR DE 33. I think five pcsos is too much to pay for a single sheet of bond AB CD DaDer. NO ERROR E 34. BJ the end of this school year, Ron will have completed his A BCI) ore-medical studies. NO ERROR E 25  35. Traffic is unusuallv heavy today, and we may be late for our A B C D appointment. NO ERROR E 36. Alice feels her parents are too strict, and have little trust in A BCD her abilities. NO ERROR E 37. The official which is in charge of granting permits is not at AB CD his post today. NO ERROR E 38. Me and my friends are paI]L of a volunteer organization that ABC works with out-of-school youth. NO ERROR DE 39. My sister, along with her closest friends, ig travelling abroad ABCD for the first time. NO ERROR E 40. Had I been nronerlv informed. I would have had more time ABC to prepare for the competition. NO ERROR DE V. Read each of the following passages, then do the task required. Indicate your BEST answer by shading the appropriate circle on your answer sheet. 41. Within afew years, treating eye diseases may be as simple as popping in a contact lens. Researchers at the University oJ' Florida are developing soft contact lenses containing tiny  particles of drugs that are slowly released into the eye. Today, most eye medications are in the form of drops, but often they drain into the nose and enter the bloodstream and travel throughout the body. OnIy about five per cent of the medication stays in the eye. The lenses will deliver the drug to where it's needed in a steady dose. All of the following ideas are directly stated in the passage EXCEPT A. Much of eye medications end up being wasted. B. Treatment of eye diseases will soon be more convenient. C. Special contact lenses will be used to apply medication. D. Eye drops are the most effective type of medication. 42. Brazitians use the adjective simpatic o to describe a person possessing desirable social qualities such as charisma, friendliness, and a good noture-a person who is fun to be with. US psychologist Robert Levine thinks the trait may explain why Rio de Janeiro-a densely populated city rife with violence and social problems-came top of his recent study about the kindness of strangers in 22 cities around the worldwhile New York slipped in just ahead of Kuala Lumpur as the world's leastfriendly cities. All the following statements may be inferred from the passage EXCEPT A. Most Brazilians are simpatico. B. Some areas in Rio de Janeiro can be inhospitable. C. People in New York and Kuala Lumpur lack good manners. D. The kindness of its residents makes a city a good place to visit. 43. Research in the UK has confirmed that men do not have the same stamitta as women when it comes to shopping. Tim Denison, a retail psychologist at Exeter University in Devon,  has been able to quantify the average man's breaking point. Seventy-two minutes is when men start to become impatient at the shopping centre. Whereas women can browse happily for a further 28 minutes. The study also found that women tend to be better bargain hunters, saving an average of ten per cent more than men, and the process itself is fun for them. Most women are also excited by theirfinds for an average of I5 minutes after purchasing, whereas men's satisfaction peaks once they find what they're looking for. The best title for this passage would be: A. Why People Like to Shop B. Who the Best Shoppers Are C. Why Men and Women Shop D. How Men and Women Shop 44. Recentresearch hasfound that video game players are more aware of their surcoundings, and they process more information.faster. Spending afew hours with a joystick could make a person see an improvement on the road: he or she may be more likely to spot cars, cyclists, or pedestrians entering orleaving the road. Inthe study, people tallied small objects as they flashed on a computer screen. Those who play video games several times a week spotted the correct number more often than did people who did not play. All the following may be concluded from the passage EXCEPT A. Parents should play video games with their children every once in a while. B. Playing video games helps a person become a better motorist. C. Parents should encourage their children to play more video games. D. Children learn important life skills while playing video games. 28 45. Smokers and non-smokers alike have hctd their consciowsness raised about the effects oJ'passive smoking on hwmans, bwt, wntil recently, no one had considered pets. Researchfindings in the American Journal of Epidemiology reveal that cctts Iivinq with a smoker are twice as likely to develop lymphoma, the most common cancer in cats, as are those in smoke-free homes. Cats may be particwlarly affectedby household smoke because they spend so mwch time indoors and because, when grooming, they ingest particles that have.fallen in their hair. All the following may be gleaned from the passage EXCEPT A. Passive smoking can be as harmful as active smoking. B. Little is known about the effects of passive smoking on pets. C. Pets can develop the same diseases as humans can. D. More smokers than non-smokers have cats as pets. 46. Honey contains many of the valuable antioxidants found in frwits and vegetables (generally, the darker the honey, the hi ghe r the c onc ent ration of antioxidant s ). N cttur e' s sw e et ene r also has trace amounts ofvitamins, minerals, and amino acids, making it a good choice over refined swgar, which has no real benefits. Honey is also ideal for active people; it has been shown to provide quick bursts of energy, help prevent fatigue, and enhance athletic performance. In addition, honey can alleviate symptoms of common ailments; it helps soothe an irritated throat. All the following are true based on the passage EXCEPT A. Honey is a natural sweetener. B. Honey costs less than refined sugar. C. Honey has several health benefits. D. Honey can relieve pain from a sore throat. 47. P upp ie s and kittens are g ood c omp anions for y oun g children. However, pets that are mistreated can become suspicious of humans and more likely to bite when they grow up, says Yeoh '.-l I Eng Cheong, a veterinarian in Petaling Jaya, Malaysia. "Children showld be tawght that they are dealing with something that is alive and has feelings. They should treat their parts like part of thefamily, not like atoy." Kids needto understand an animal's body language. Growling, baring of teeth, andhair standing up should all be taken as threatening signs. The main idea of the passage is stated in the A. first sentence B. second sentence C. fourth sentence D. fifth sentence. 48. Ancient yoga exercises may help soothe aching joints. Research suggests yoga may reduce pains and stiffness, and improve range of motion for some of the millions of people suffering from rheumatoid or osteoarthritis. One study from the University of Pennsylvania.found that people with osteoarthritis of the hnnds who practiced 60-minute yoga sessions once aweekfelt significantly less pain. According to Cheryl Lctmbing, professor of family medicine at the University of Califurnia in Los Angeles, yoga strengthens mu.scles with.out putting pressu.re on joints. Yoga's deep brectthing and mediation techniques can also lessen stress and depression cawsed by the chronic pains of arthritis. All the following contain supporting details of the main idea of the passage EXCEPT A. the first sentence B. the second sentence C. the third sentence D. the last sentence 49. The Philippine government knows that smoking is deadly, bwt it also knows that more than 60,000 farmers rely on tobacco crops for a living. "We are trying to find alternative uses for  tobacco," says Perlita Baula of the National Tobacco Administration. Traditional healers use tobacco leaves to treat wounds and insect bites, so researchers want to assess the plants potential as a topical painkiller and antibacterial medicine. The plant also has a high protein content, which can be extracted and added to food supplements. The most promising by-products are paper cmd particle board. All the following ideas are implied in the passage EXCEPT A. Banning smoking would result in 60,000 farmers losing their livelihood. B. Tobacco leaves have greater healing properties than Western medicine. C. The versatility of tobacco has only recently been appreciated. D. Tobacco farmers could earn more if tobacco were used in varied ways. 50. To geuge how cars, remote controls, computers, and other technological developments hcre changed people's activity levels, health andfitness expert Dr. Garry Egger set up a group of actors to live for a week as soldiers and settlers in Old Sydney Town, a historical theme park outside Sydney, Awstralia. They had to chop wood and find food like in the old days. A special device recorded every movement. The "pioneers" proved to be two-and-a-half times more active than a group of modern-day workers-accountants, taxi drivers, computer operators-monitored similarly. That's 4200 kilometers a dcty in energy expenditure-the equivalent of walking 16 kilometers. All the fbllowing statements can be drawn from the passage ) EXCEPT A. Life was more physically challenging in the past than it is ) today. B. Modern-day jobs require more mental than physical energy. C. Technological gadgets have made users less physically active. D. Pioneers were healthier than modern-day workers are. "1 ANSWBRS 1. A; the zenith is the highest point. 2. B; the periphery is the outer limits or edges. 3. B; stringent means rigorous or very strict. 4. C; a queue is a line. 5. D; to apprise is to inform. 6. C; something imminent is approaching. 1. D; to be wary means to be careful. 8. A; a scion is a child or descendant. 9. B: to be prolific is to be very productive, 10. D: to extol is to praise. 11. C; the relationship is transmitter : transmitted. 12. A; the relationship is item : classification. 13. D; the relationship is mass of people : venue. 14.B: the relationship is substance : source. 15. B; the relationship is simple degree : superlative degree. 16. B; the relationship is positive noun: antonym. 11. C; the relationship is whole : part. 18. C; the relationship is substance : container. 19. A; the relationship is substance : tactile effect 20.D; the relationship is activity : venue. 2l.B; the noun everyone is singular. 22. A; the sentence is in the subjunctive mood, denoting an unreal situation. 23. A; Neither goes with the connective nor. 24. C; ACCOMMODATE is the correct spelling. 25. C: the correct collocation is reswlted in. 26. B; the sentence is in the present perfect progressive tense. 27. A, the sentence is in the simple past tense. 28. B; the sentence expresses a request. 29. A; DISSEMINATE is the conect spelling. 30. B ; the sentence is in the simple past tense (laid, past tense of lay). 31. A; vote is a transitive verb requiring a direct object, therefore obiective pronoun whom. 32.D; the sentence identifies the person whose height is being compared with that of another, therefore he (nominative pronoun). 33. E;the sentence contains no effor. 34.E; the sentence contains no elror 35. B; the sentence expresses cause and effect. 36. B; compound predicate does not need a comma. 37. A; who or that is the correct relative pronoun. 38. A; My friends and I is the correct expression. 39.8; the sentence contains no error. 40. E; the sentence contains no effor. 4l.D; directly stated doesnot mean verbatim, paraphrasing acceptable 42. C; nothing in the passage suggests this. 43.D; the passage describes behavior. 44. C; nothing in the passage implies this. 45.D; such cannot be concluded from the passage. 46.8; nothing in the passage suggests this. 47.8; the second sentence states the main idea. 48. A; the first sentence states the main idea. 49.8; nothing in the passage implies this. 50. D; this cannot be concluded from the passage. JJ I MATHEMATICS REVIEW DIRECTION: This is a test on how well you understand the number system and the terms and operations used in Mathematics. Put an X on the ( ) corresponding to the correct answer. If the answer is not among the choices, put an X on the ( ) under letter e. t. Gymnastics Club has I7,625 members and Tae-Kwon-do Club has 17,000.If 3,625 members are members of both clubs, how many are members of Gymnastics Club only? A. 14,000 c. L'/,625 B. 17,000 D.21.250 2. How would you read 9.002? A. 9 point 2 C.9and2hundredths B. 9 and 2 tenths D. 9 and 2 thousanths 3. Which of the following is a factor of 2 x 2 x 3 x 5? A.8 c. 10 8.9 D. 16 4. What is the perimeter of the figure below? E.9 cms 2,3 cms. A. 22.4 cms C.20.47 cms. B. 11.2 cms. D.30.5 cms. 34 5. What should replace the in the equation 9 3 9-3 l0 l0 - A.3 c.6 B. 10 D. 100 6. Which of the numerals represents the greatest number? A..8 c..80001 B..8001 D..81 7. What is 283 + 10,000 =? A. 2,830,000 c..0283 B..00283 D..0000283 8. If 8.52 is rounded to the nearest whole number, what is the result? A.8 c.9 B. 8.5 D. 10 9. 4.9 x.81 =? A..3969 c..03969 B. 3.969 D.39.69 10. What numeral should replace n in the number sentence 3 -xn=1? 5 A.3/5 c. I 8.513 D.2t5 11. Which of the following is greater in value than.961? A. 1.0 c.0.95 B. 0.9 D.0.916 35 "1 I 12. What part of the picture is shaded? A..25 c..4 B..33 D..6 13. Which fractional number is less than 311? A. 2/3 c. 6/14 B. 3/6 D. 3/8 14. IfY is a whole number, which equation below is not always true? A. ( 18 +20)+y= 18 + ( 20+Y) B.6gx{=yx6g C. Yx( 10+ 18 ) = (Yx 10) + (Yx 18 ) D.35-Y-Y-35 15. Which numeral below is equivalenttoJ6To. 4.2/3 c.7/t0 8.3/4 D. 19/25 16. What is 57o 0f 70? A..35 c. 35 B. 3.5 D.350 17. Which expression below is not equivalent to 618? 6+2 6x2 A.-8+2 C. 8Jr3 6 x3 6+2 B.-8J3 D. 8+ 36 18.12.561+ 3.891 + 10 = ? A. 26.452 C. 16.462 8.16.552 D. r1.452 19. In the figure, the area of the shaded region is: 7 cms H A. 25 sq. cms. B. 24 sq. cms 7 cms C.74 sq. cms. D. 35 sq cms. 20. How would you read 5.02? A.5and2tenths C.5and2thousandths B. 5 and 2 hundredths D. 5 point 2 21. Which is the next multiple of 4 after 16? A.5 c.12 B.8 D.20 22.The figure below shows that l/3 is equal to what number? A. 2/4 c.2/3 B. 2/6 D.4/6 23. What percent of 20 is 130? A.6.5 c.260 8.65 D.650 3l *r I 24. At a book store, Gary picked up a book marked Php 180.00, when he went to the cashier to pay for it, he was informed that the store was giving a207o discount. How much did Gary pay for the book? A.36 C.144 B. 160 D.200 L? 53 2t 36 A. 3t4 C. 2/15 B. 3/7 D. 2/21 25x64x27 26. 5x9x64 -,'! A.5 c. t/$ 432 B. 15 D.; 38 27.-x-=? 49 4.3/2 c.2/3 8.32/27 D.9/4 28. 12+(23+4)x6=? 4.24 c.84 8.6 D.12 Z9.Evaluate2a+ b2 when a= 4 and b = 3. A. t7 c.22 B.14 D.46 30. Solve this equation.3I = A. n = 1.55 ^ C.n= 620 B.n=51 D.n=.645 38  ) 31. Approximately, as a decimal is equal to 3 A.0.66 c.7.66 8.0.13 D.4.66 32. What number is 100 greater than 3400? A.34 c. 3,300 8.340,000 D.3,500 33. Adam Junior High School is trying to raise money for student activities. Students will sell oranges at Php.50 each. The cost to the school is Php I.20 for a box of 24. What profit is made on each box? A. php 25 C.PhP240 B. Php 40 D. PhP 4.80 For nos. 34 and 35 refer to no.33 34. How many boxes must be sold to raise Php 120.00? 4.25 c.240 B.40 D.24 35. If another company offers to sell the school oranges for Php.55 each, what is the difference in the profit for each box? A. Php 6.00 C. Php 2.80 B. Php 1.20 D. Php 1.80 36. Travel expenses are Php.15 per milt.. Mr. Adkins travels 42 miles on Wednesday and l5l miles on Friday ? How much are his total travel expenses for Wednesday and Friday? A. Php 29.85 C. Php 39.85 B. Php 19.85 D. Php 22.85 37. What is an expression for a number r plus six? A. 4-6 C.6r B. r+6 D.6 lr 39 38. What is an expression for the sum of five times a number x and two? A. 2x+ 5 C.5x+2 B.2+x+5 D. 2:5x 39. Which of the following is the smallest? A..l c..0104 B..01 D..0t4 40. If Offie is x years old now, she will be _?_ in ten years. A. 10 C. x+10 B. x -10 D. 10-x 41.If "dom" is the additive inverse of the square root of the number, what is the dom of 36? 1 A. -6 C.-- b B.* D.6 42. Acar originally cost $8400. It now costs $7980. What is the percent of decrease? A.3Vo C.8Vo 8.57a D.l07o For items 43 & 44, study the graph showing the number of refrigerator sold by AKO Appliance Center from August to December 40 43.|n what month was there a decrease in sales? A. August C. October B. September D. November 44.How much lesser is the sales in September than in November? A. 150 c.300 8.250 D. 500 45. Kathy went on a trip of 500 fms, I of the way by jeep and the rest by bus. How many kms did she travel by bus? 4. T25 c.234 B.220 D.375 46.In an election for secretary, the winner received 85 more votes than the other candidate. If six hundred fifteen voted, how many voted for the winner? A.265 c.315 B. 350 D.530 47. A circle with a diameter of 10 cm is inscribed in a square as shown below. What is the perimeter of the square? A. 20 cm C.40 cm 8.25 cm D. 100 cm 48.What is the area of the shaded figure of number 47? A.25 cmz C. (100 - 25 P ) cm2 B. 100 cm2 D.75 cmz 4g.If 4x= 5y,theni =t 4 l A.: 5 c.n 5 4 fr- D.4 D.:9 41 50. What is the cost of tiling a floor 5 mefers wide and 6 meters long at php 200 per square meter? L. php 2200 C. php 6000 B. php 5000 D. php 6500 42  Answer Key 1.A 26.8 2,D 27.C 3.C 28.8 4.A 29. A 5.B 30. c 6.D 31. C 7. C 32. D 8.C 33. D 9.8 34. A 10. B 35. B 11. A 36. A 72. A 37.8 13. D 38. C 14. D 39. B 15. D 40. c 16. B 41. A t7.D 42.8 18. A 43. B 19. B 44. B 20.8 45.A 2I.D 46.8 22.8 47. C 23.D 48. C 24. C 49. B 25. C 50. c 43  SCIENCE This is a test of your thinking performance and your natural ability in science. This also tests how well you apply science concepts to different situations in everyday life. 1 Beaker A and beaker B are of the same size. Both are filled with balls. Beaker A contains plastic balls while beaker B contains metal balls of the same size as that in A. But a metal ball has twice the mass of a plastic ball. Compare the density and the volume occupied by the plastic and metal balls. A. A has a greater volume than B but has lesser density. B. B has a greater volume than A and a greater density. C. Both occupy the same volume and have the same density. D. Both occupy the same volume but B has a greater density. 2. Am empty coke can C falls out of the window from the 3'd floor of a building. If another empty coke can K falls from the 10'h floor of the same building, how would the potential energy of the two coke cans compare? A. C has a greater potential energy than K because it is nearer the ground. B. K has a greater potential energy than C because it comes from a higher place. C. K is falling faster than C so it has greater potential energy D. Both have the same mass so both have equal potential energies. 3. Phase change involve either the absorption or release of energy. Which of the following changes involve the absorption or taking in of energy? A. melting of ice cream B. condensation of water vapor C. freezing of ice D. deposition of alum crystals 44 4. Acceleration is a change in speed or velocity. Which of the following situations show accelerated motion? A. A car travelling down a straight highway at constant speed. B. A cyclist moving northwards maintaining a speed of 5 m/s. C. A runner speeding up around an oval runway. D. A speedboat anchored at Manila Bay. 5. Changes maybe physical or chemical. Which of the following shows physical change? A. magnetrzatron of iron B. cooking of meat C. carbon burns in oxygen to produce carbon dioxide D. ripening of mangoes For nos. 6 - 8 Use the data in the table below. Substance Melting Point Boiling Point Density in in oC in oC Kg/m3 A 38.9 356.7 1,3545 B 7.1 58.9 3r2t C 198 876 970 6. Which substance would easily turn to vapor? A.A C.C B.B D.A&B 7. Water has a density of 1000 kg/m3. Which substance/s will float in water ? A.A C.C B.B D.B&C 45 8. At normal room temperature of 25 0C, what is the physical state of substance C? A. solid C. gas B. liquid D. plasma 9. Which of the following conditions below show convection as a means of heat transfer? A. bonfire warming up the surroundings B. a ladle warming up when dipped in hot soup C. the sun's heat reaching the earth D. warm air circulating in a room 10. A classmate suggested that goldfish grow faster in water that is 100 warmer or 100 colder than water at room temperature. To design an investigation to test this, what would your manipulated or independent variable be? A. weight of goldiish B. temperature of water C. size of the aquarium D. number of goldfish 11. What would the responding or dependent variable be in # 10? A. amount of water to be used in the aquarium B. weight of goldfish after the study C. number of goldfish to be used D. temperature of the water 12. First year students planted tomato seedlings in three pots, A, B, and C. They labeled pots A and B experimental and pot C control. They exposed the seedlings to the same amount of sunshine and watered them when the soil is dry. On the 5th day, the students measured the height of the seedlings in the 3 pots and recorded them. Then they swabbed the shoot tips and leaves of the 46  \ *ll seedlings in A and B with gibberellic acid solution. [Jul tltt'y tlrtl not do this to the seedlings in C. They recorded the hcighl ol each seedling in the three pots everyday until the 10'h day ancl watered the seedlings when the soil is dry. What is the most probable hypothesis for this investigation? A. Tomato seedlings need sunlight and water for growth. B. Sunlight is important for tomato plant growth C. Enough water is necessary for tomatoes to grow. D. Gibberellic acid increase the growth of tomato plants. 13. What is the use of pot C in the investigation in #l 1? A. To provide as many experimental data as possible. B. To test the responding or dependent variable. C. To have a basis for comparing the results of the experimental variable with the control set up D. To make a good observation and conclusion. 14. Which of the following factors would you not consider as one of your controlled variables in # 11? A. height of tomato plants on the 10'h day B. amount of potting soil for each pot C. exposure to sunlight D. height of tomato plants on the 5ft day 15. Four spoons of different materials were placed in four beakers of boiling water separately. The beakers are only half filled. Which spoon would have its handle heated most quickly? a. wooden spoon c. plastic spoon b. aluminum spoon d. glass spoon 47 16. The graph below shows the result of an experiment on bacterial cells. All three groups, A, B and C were exposed to the virus. 4 No. of Living J Bacterial Cells 2 (thousands) 1 r23456 Time (hours) From the graph, one can conclude that A. the virus was harmful to A but not to B and C B. the virus was harmful to B but not to A and C C. the virus was harmful to C but not to A and B D. all three bacterial populations were not affected by the virus 17. Among the three, which group benefited from the exposure to the virus? A.A C.C B.B D. none of them 18. One can no longer hear the sound of a ringing phone when it is placed inside a vacuum jar. What property of sound is shown? A. Sound is destroyed in a vacuum jar. B. A phone does not ring in a vacuum jar. C. A vacuum jar stops phones from ringing. D. Sound cannot travel in a vacuum. 48 Study the following food web to answer questions 18 * 20. Hawk snake / \ / \ Li zard maya bird \ \ \ Gras caterpillar Rice and grasses 19. Which gets the most energy in the ecosystem? A. rice plants and grasses B. grasshopper and caterpillar C. frog, hzard and maya bird D. hawk and snake 20.If hzads decrease in number, which organism/s will benefit most? A. hawk and snake B. frog C. grasshopper D. rice plants and maya bird 2l.If another organism gets into this ecosystem and feeds on maya birds, it will compete with A. grasshopper and lizard C. snake B. frog and caterpillar D. hawk 49 T Study the graph below to answer questions 22-25. The graph shows the speed - time graph of 4 cars. Speed in t5 meters \ t0 per second / \ C \ n 2468[0121416 22.Which car is moving at uniform or unchanging speed? A.A B.B C.C D.D 23. Which carls is/are speeding up? A. A only C. A and C B. B. only D. B and D 24. At what time interval do the 3 cars have the same speed? A. 2 seconds C. 10 seconds B. 6 seconds D. 16 seconds 25. Which carls are slowing down? A.A C.AandB B.C D. C andD 26. Which of the following is an example of an ecosystem? A. a large rock C. a clump of grass B. a flock of birds D. an aquarium  '- For 27 - 28 use the table below. Foods can be tested to know what nutrients they contain. The table shows some common food tests. Food Food Test Nutrients Present 1. bread Iodine solution turned Starch Blue black 2. buko juice Benedict' s solution turns Glucose Reddy brown 3. fried fries Grease spot appears fat smeared on Paper on papef 4. milk Copper sulfate solutton protein turned Violet 21.Kit took samples from an unknown dish and subjected it to the four food tests. The following were the results: I. Iodine turned blue black. II. It produced a grease spot on a paper bag. What will be Kit's conclusion? A. The food is rich in vitamins and minerals. B. The food contains starch and fats. C. The food is highly nutritious. D. The food may contains proteins and fats. 28. Pork adobo would most likely test positive for? A. Starch and glucose C. fat and protein B. glucose and fat D. starch and protein 5l 29. When the northern hemisphere is tilted towards the sun from June 21 to Sept22, which of the following statement is true? A. There is equal length of day and night on earth. B. The northern hemisphere has longer day light hours than the southern hemisphere. C. The southern hemisphere has longer day light hours than the northern hemisphere. D. Only the northern hemisphere experiences the change in the length of day light hours. 30. Which conditions are more likely to develop over a land area near the ocean on a hot summer day? A. High temperature over land with the wind blowing to the ocean B. High temperature over land with the wind blowing from the ocean C. Low temperature over land with the wind blowing to the ocean D. Low temperature over land with the wind blowing from the ocean. 31. Which of the following is an example of mutualism? A. fleas living on the fur of dogs and sipping its blood B. lions chasing a deer for food C. algae living on corals and in return supplying the corals food D. birds nesting on the branches of the acaciatree 32. Newton's first law of motion also called the law of inertia states that an object in motion will continue to be in motion in a straight line at constant speed unless acted upon by an outside force. Also, an object at rest will remain at rest unless acted upon by an outside force. 52  What will happen to an object launched in outer space? A. It will continue moving fbllowing a circular path. B. It will fall towards the earth. C. It will be attracted to the moon. D. IL will continue moving in a straight path at constant speed. 33. What relationship is exhibited by plants in the garden sharing limited space, nutrients and sunlight? A. competition C. parasitism B. mutualism D. commensalism 34. Which of the following phenomena are results of global warming? A. decrease in flooding C. increase in biodiversity B. violent typhoons D. earthquakes and volcanic eruptions 35. Which of the following are the effects of oil spills? I damage to marine biodiversity il conservation ofcoral reefs III destruction of mangroves IV increase in fish catch A. I only C. II and IV B. I and III D. II, III and IV 36. Which graph best shows the relationship between population density in Laguna Lake and the pollution in the lake'? Popula- tron densitvlI A. I I Lake Pollution B. L 53 C. L- I I D. 3l. A student was given a mixture of sand, salt and water. Which of the following is the best way of separating the components of this mixture so that he can recover the salt ? A. settling and pouring off the liquid B. sedimentation and condensation C. filtration and evaporation D. magnetization and decantation For 38 and 39 use the table below. The table shows the distance covered and time it took students A, B, C and D. Student Distance Covered (meters) Time (seconds) A 32 20 B 24 10 C 5 5 D 42 l2 38. Using the table, find the speeds of A,B, C and D using the formula speed = distance/time. Arrange the students from fastest to slowest. A. ABCD C. DBAC B. BDCA D. CABD 39. If student A maintains his speed, how much time will it take him to cover 60 meters? A. 100 seconds C. 55.8 seconds B. 96 seconds D. 37.5 seconds 54 40. The pull of gravity acts uniformly on all objects, big or small. Il' a metal ball and a leaf are dropped at the same time inside a tube without air in it, what observation will one get? A. Both will reach the base of the tube at the same time. B. T'he metal ball is heavier so it will fall faster than the leaf. C. The observation will depend on the location of the experiment. D. The leaf tends to drift and will take longer to fall. 41. Mass is the amount of matter present in an object. It is constant and does not change wherever the object is. Which statement is true about mass? A. On the moon, the mass of the object gets lighter because the pull of gravity is less. B. On a planet with twice the gravitational pull of the earth, the mass of the object doubles. C. On earth, the mass of an object may increase or decrease depending on its location. D. On the moon, a heavy rock would still be hard to push or pull because of its mass. 42. Which of the following statement is an observation? a. Blue litmus paper turned red when dipped in calamansi juice. b. Freezing is a physical change. c. The greater the mass, the greater the volume occupied by an object. d. Dense liquids have greater buoyant force than less dense liquids. 43. Which of the following is not a function of the circulatory system? a. Carries oxygen to all cells of the body b. Removes excess salts and water from the body c. Fights harmful germs that invades the body d. Pumps blood to all parts of the body 55  For nos. 44 - 45. The table below shows the mass present in a volume of I cubic meter of each of the materials given. Use the data to answer questions 44 and 45. material Mass in kilograms 1. water 1000 2. coal 1600 3. lead 1 1300 4. aluminum 2700 44. Which has the greatest mass in a volume of 1 cubic meter? A. 1 c.3 8.2 D.4 45.If density is equal to mass/volume, arrange the materials from the least dense to the most dense. A. 4,3,2,r c. 3,1,2,4 B. 1,2,4,3 D. 2,I,4,3 46. The following processes occur in the water cycle, except: A. respiration C. condensation B. evaporation D. precipitation 47. Which of the situations below does not show chemical change? A. photosynthesis in plants B. spoilage of food C. boiling of water D. bleaching of clothes 56 r For nos. 48 - 50 use the graph below. The graph shows what happens to water when it is heated. Melting takes place from A - B while vaporization takes from C - D. 100 Temp In tlc o _10 1234567891011t2 Time ( minutes) 48. At what temperature does water melt? A. -100c c. 1000c B. 00c D. over 100 oC 49.In what state of matter is water between points B and C ? A. plasma C. solid B. gas D.liquid 50. In the process of melting and vaporization, notice that there rs no change in temperature. This is because A. heat is removed from the system B. the system does not take in heat C. the system gives off heat to the surroundings D. the heat is used for phase change 5',l  ANSWERS 1.D 26.D 2.8 2t.B 3.A 28. C 4.C 29. B 5.A 30. B 6.8 31. C 1. C 32. D 8.A 33.A 9.D 34.8 10. B 35. B 11. B 36. D 12. D 31. C 13. C 38. C 14. A 39. D 15. B 40. A 16. C 4I.D tt. A 42. A 18. D 43.8 19. A 44. C 20. c 45.8 2t. c 46. A 22. B 41. C 23. A 48. B 24. C 49. D 25. D 50. D 58  THE PHILIPPINE SCIENCE HIGH SCHOOL FOUNDATION,INC. The PSHS Foundation, Inc. has since 1978 been bridging the gap between the available government funds and the actual financial requirements needed by the school. Verily it provides the necessary extras to maintain educational excellence for the PSHS scholar. The Programs of the Foundation: Faculty Assistance and Development Program Faculty Merit Awards Teachers are given monthly honoraria at rarious levels based on their performance during the immediately preceding school year. This is to somehow lessen the gap between the salaries of the PSHS teachers and the salaries of the teachers in the private schools. Faculty Development Grants Teachers are given financial assistance to be abLe to attend workshops, conferences, seminars and even to pursue graduate studies (Masters or Doctoral programs) locally or abroad. The government has set ntaxintum lim.its.for this; the Foundation provides.for the diJference Faculty Research Grants Teachers are given grants to enable them to do research in their lield of (.yp(rtisc. Godparent Program Godchildren are underprivileged scholars. VoLunteer GODPARENT-S are matched with qualified GODCHILDREN and GIVEN additionaL support thru the Fowtdntion. The basic support is in theform ofadditional stipends/ctllowances. Soma Godparants extend this to mentoring or even into "adopting" their Godchildren into their hones for weekends and holidays. Godchildren are also given opportunities to watch cultural shows or attend basketball gnmes for fun and recreati.otl School Activity Support Program The Foundation provides support Jor school nctivities like the PSHS Foundation Day Activities; Humttnities Week: the Alternative Classroom Learning Activities; the PSHS Community Christmas Party; and the Field Biology Progran. Student Activity Support Program The Foundotion supports students' attendance at sem!nars or otherl.eaning ttctivitie.s. It also provide,t support to students participot!t,g in Local and internalionttl. competitions. Infrastructure Program The Foundation: Undertakes/funds necessary repairs of the school's physical faciLities e.g., the painting ofthe buildings ofthe school; repair and upgrading of restrooms; and the rebuilding of the Faculty Center. Assists the school in raising Junds for the upgrade/ refurbi.shing/ renoratiott ol Jacilities and other infrastructure requirements, e.g. "Ako si Ninoy" Jund raiser.for the fepair of the 3rd floor Auditorium. 59