Maintenace Testing Pre-Hire_Proposal.docx

Questions for Ramsey Test via Scout Potential Proposal **[Robotics ]** 1. Move tool center point in a straight line from start to destination programmed at destination position? a. MoveL b. MoveC c. MoveJ d. MoveAbsJ 2. Which way is Z negative? e. Up f. D...

Questions for Ramsey Test via Scout Potential Proposal **[Robotics ]** 1. Move tool center point in a straight line from start to destination programmed at destination position? a. MoveL b. MoveC c. MoveJ d. MoveAbsJ 2. Which way is Z negative? e. Up f. Down g. Left h. Right 3. How to convert external signals into numeric for use by controller? i. Analog I/O j. Robot I/O k. Digital I/O l. Positional Data 4. J3, Up, Down is? m. Elbow Configuration n. Robot Configuration o. Joint Speed p. Position type 5. Sequence of digital I/O group of 16 ones and zeros is? q. Group I/O r. Data Types s. Analog I/O t. External I/O 6. Assuming standard setup, if you jog the robot in World -Y which direction will the TCP move? u. Left v. Up, w. Right x. Down 7. In reference to robots, a common coordinate system that uses the workpiece as its point of reference is referred to as? y. Work object coordinate system z. It differs by robot manufacturer a. Base coordinate system b. Axis 1 coordinate system 8. 19\) The maximum amount of weight a robot can safely handle is referred to as the robot? c. Accuracy d. Repeatability e. Safe Capacity f. Payload 9. When recovering from a robot crash or impact with an object, the most appropriate first step to take while using the robot teach pendant is? g. Continue playing through the program to reach the next desired position h. Reduce the robot speed to 10% and continue playing through the program to reach the next desired position i. Jog the robot away from the object into a known safe position j. Press the emergency stop on the pendant and call for recovery support 10. Current, pressure, and time are the 3 main variables in resistance spot welding? k. True l. False 11. While the motors are on, what holds the robot in position when it is not in motion? m. The brakes located inside the motors n. Electromagnetic force from the windings in the motors o. The gearboxes p. The End effector **[PLC (Programming Logic Controller) ]** 1. In a PLC program, arranging two XIC instruction in a series provides an \_\_\_\_\_ logic? a. NAND b. AND c. OR d. NOR 2. What is an EPROM (pronounced E-PROM)? a. A type of volatile memory that loses its data when power is turned off. b. A programmable memory chip that can be erased and reprogrammed using ultraviolet light. c. A storage device used for permanent data storage that cannot be erased. d. A microcontroller used for controlling electronic devices. 3. Is ROM volatile or non-volatile? a. Volatile b. Non-volatile c. It depends on the type of ROM d. Neither 4. A flashing red I/O module status (OK) indicator indicates that the module has a \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ fault. a. Communication b. Power c. Hardware d. Configuration 5. A single output device has failed while the remainder of the PLC system is functioning normally. The indicator light on the output module indicates that a signal is sent to the output point where the device is connected. You would now: a. Replace the PLC output module, assuming it\'s defective b. Check the wiring and connections between the output module and the device c. Reboot the entire PLC system to reset the output device d. Ignore the issue since the rest of the system is functioning normally. 6. A conveyor system controlled by a PLC needs to stop when an item reaches the end. The sensor detecting the item has intermittent faults. Which of the following would best improve the system\'s reliability? a. Increase the sensor sensitivity b. Implement a debounce timer in the PLC program c. Replace the sensor with a new one d. Add a second sensor in series 7. In a PLC network, which of the following protocols would be most suitable for real-time control data transmission? a. Modbus RTU b. Ethernet/IP c. Profibus DP d. DeviceNet 8. An Example of volatile memory is? a. RAM b. ROM c. CPU d. EPROM 9. 1 Doubleword of information = a. 2 bytes b. 4 byte c. 16 bits d. 64 bits 10. What is the part of the PLC called where inputs and outputs are connected? a. Memory Input/output b. Interface c. Processor d. Power supply 11. Where does PLC stores its program? a. Input device b. Power supply c. Programming device d. Memory 12. 9\. Which of the following is an example of discrete (digital) control? a. Turning a lamp ON or OFF b. Varying the brightness of a lamp c. Varying the volume of a music system d. Controlling the speed of a fan **[Electrical ]** 1. Which of the following conditions is most likely to cause an overcurrent trip in a VFD-controlled motor? a. Excessive motor speed b. Undervoltage at the input of the VFD c. Short circuit at the motor terminals d. Incorrect parameter settings for motor overload protection 2. A motor controlled by a start/stop push-button station fails to start. The electrical schematic indicates that a normally closed stop button (S1) and a normally open start button (S2) are connected in series with a contactor coil (M). Which of the following could NOT be a reason for the motor not starting? e. The start button (S2) is faulty and does not close when pressed. f. The stop button (S1) is stuck in the open position. g. The contactor coil (M) is open-circuited. h. The motor overload relay is tripped. 3. A resistor of 15 Ω is connected in series with a 10 Ω resistor across a 50V power supply. What is the voltage drop across the 15 Ω resistor? i. 10 V j. 15 V k. 30 V l. 40 V 4. A motor in an automated system suddenly stops working. Upon inspection, you find the circuit breaker tripped. After resetting it, the motor runs briefly and then stops again. Which of the following is the most likely cause of the problem? m. A loose wire connection n. A short circuit in the motor windings o. Insufficient voltage supply p. An open circuit in the control system 5. In an industrial automation system, you find a short circuit causing a sudden increase in current. If the power supply is 24 V and the resistance of the short circuit is effectively 0.1 Ω, what is the approximate current flowing through the short circuit? q. 24 A r. 48 A s. 240 A t. 2400 A 6. During a factory floor audit, you discover that the feedback signal from an encoder to a motion control system is inconsistent. What could be a primary cause of this issue? u. Encoder resolution mismatch v. Faulty encoder output circuitry w. Incorrectly programmed motion control parameters x. Mechanical misalignment of the encoder 7. In a motor control system using a PLC, which of the following relay types is best suited for handling high inrush currents without suffering from contact welding? y. Solid-state relay z. Electromechanical relay a. Reed relay b. Latching relay 8. In a three-phase electrical system, which of the following configurations will produce a line-to-neutral voltage of 230V if the line-to-line voltage is 400V? c. Star (Wye) connection d. Delta connection e. Open Delta connection f. Zigzag connection g. **[Hydraulics and Pneumatics ]** 1. What is the primary purpose of a pneumatic regulator in a compressed air system? a. To filter out contaminants from the compressed air b. To reduce and maintain the air pressure to a desired level c. To lubricate the compressed air d. To increase the volume of compressed air 2. In a pneumatic system, which of the following scenarios would most likely result in a decrease in actuator speed? a. Increasing the supply air pressure b. Using a larger diameter actuator c. Adding a flow restrictor to the actuator's exhaust port d. Reducing the diameter of the actuator's piston 3. In a hydraulic circuit, which component is responsible for controlling the direction of fluid flow to the actuator? e. Hydraulic pump f. Pressure relief valve g. Directional control valve h. Flow control valve 4. What effect does increasing the hydraulic fluid temperature have on the system's viscosity and performance? i. Increases viscosity, leading to slower actuator response j. Decreases viscosity, improving fluid flow but potentially leading to cavitation k. No effect on viscosity or performance l. Increases the viscosity, which improves the system's efficiency 5. Which of the following statements about pneumatic flow control valves is correct? m. Flow control valves regulate the pressure within the pneumatic system. n. Flow control valves are used to adjust the speed of the actuator by controlling the rate of airflow. o. Flow control valves are designed to prevent air from escaping the system. p. Flow control valves are only necessary for systems operating above 100 psi. 6. To measure the air consumption of a pneumatic actuator accurately, where should the flow meter be installed? q. At the inlet of the actuator, to measure the incoming flow before it is used. r. Directly after the actuator, ensuring it measures the total air consumption. s. At the exhaust port of the actuator, to measure the air released after use. t. Anywhere in the pneumatic circuit, as long as it is before the actuator. 7. Hydraulic Lines will never consist of? u. Galvanized Steel v. Teflon Lined Hose w. Black Steel pipe x. Tubing 8. What valve allows flow in only one direction? y. Needle z. Gate a. Globe b. Check **[Mechanical ]** 1. In a gear train consisting of three gears, Gear A with 20 teeth is driving Gear B with 40 teeth, which in turn drives Gear C with 10 teeth. If Gear A rotates at 120 RPM, what is the RPM of Gear C? a. 60 RPM b. 120 RPM c. 240 RPM d. 480 RPM 2. In what kind of a properly lubricated bearing is there no metal-to-metal contact while the shaft is rotating? a. Needle bearing b. Ball bearing c. Journal bearing d. Roller bearing 3. Which of the following can transfer power between two turning shafts located at right angles? a. Spur gears b. Worm gears c. Rack and pinion gears d. Herringbone gears 4. An EP grease would be best suited for which of the flowing? a. High speed, low pressure b. High speed, low temperature c. Low speed, low pressure d. Low speed, high pressure 5. The viscosity of an oil is affected most by? a. Contamination b. resistance to corrosion c. pressure d. temperature 6. A gear pump positive displacement pump is also known as a? a. Reciprocating pump b. centrifugal pump c. Rotary pump d. Turbine pump 7. A positive displacement pump is a pump that? a. has positive, unlimited suction capabilities b. discharges an equal amount of fluid each cycle. c. permits positive control over discharge pressures. d. is suitable only for pumping hydraulic fluids. 8. What tap is best to start cutting a thread in a piece of metal? a. Centering tap b. Plug tap c. Taper tap d. Bottoming tap 9. If you are going to drill and tap a ½\" bolt hole to bolt a machine part to a heavy cast iron housing, what kind of Thread should you use? a. National fine b. Acme c. Square d. National coarse 10. Which of the following tools could be used to check shaft or coupling alignment? a. Transit b. Calipers c. Micrometers d. Straightedge and thickness gauge 11. Dynamic braking is used to? a. regulate the speed of a motor b. mechanically slow the motor down. c. electrically retard or stop a motor. d. derate a motor\'s horsepower 12. Gear Box is used to decrease the speed and increase the torque. a. True b. False (Optional for Paint Shop) Robotics Questions 1. What is the primary function of the ECOAT process in an automated paint shop? a. To apply a final color layer on the vehicle body b. To provide corrosion resistance to the metal surfaces c. To clean the vehicle body before painting d. To dry the paint layers quickly 2. In the context of an automated paint shop, what is a common cause of defects in the Top Coat layer? a. Excessive moisture in the air supply b. Improper curing temperature c. Inconsistent primer thickness d. Incorrectly programmed robotic path 3. Which sensor is most critical for detecting issues during the ECOAT process? a. Temperature sensor b. Pressure sensor c. pH sensor d. Ultrasonic sensor 4. What type of defect can result from improper maintenance of the spray nozzles in a paint robot? a. Over-spraying b. Under-spraying c. Uneven spray patterns d. All of the above 5. Why is proper airflow management critical in the paint booth during the Top Coat application? a. It prevents overspray and ensures uniform paint distribution b. It reduces power consumption of the Fanuc robots c. It improves the curing time of the primer d. It maintains consistent conveyor speed 6. Which component of the foaming equipment should be calibrated regularly to ensure proper foam density? a. The mixing chamber b. The foam dispensing nozzle c. The conveyor speed sensor d. The curing oven Welding (Optional for Body Shop) 1. An advantage of brazing over welding is that with brazing? a. dissimilar metals can be joined. b. a hotter flame may be used. c. no flux is used. d. the fusion is better. 2. When arc welding light gauge metal (less than ⅛ Thick) in the vertical position, the welding should be done? a. from the top down b. from the bottom up. c. both ways from the middle. d. alternately from top and bottom. 3. Which of the following parameters most directly affects the quality of the weld bead in a robotic spot-welding process? a. Electrode Force b. Weld Schedule c. Travel Speed d. Electrode Tip Material 4. If a robotic spot-welding system consistently fails to establish a welding arc despite correct electrode positioning and sufficient electrode force, which of the following components is most likely to be malfunctioning? a. Welding Transformer b. Contact Tips c. Pneumatic Cylinder d. Programmable Logic Controller (PLC) 5. What is the impact of improper electrode tip alignment on the spot-welding process? a. It may lead to a significant increase in welding time b. It can cause excessive spatter and weak welds c. It will improve the overall weld strength d. It will reduce the heat required for the weld 6. In a robotic spot welding system, what effect does an increase in the welding current typically have on the weld quality? a. It increases the risk of electrode wear b. It improves the weld penetration c. It reduces the overall welding time d. It decreases the risk of weld spatter 7. When troubleshooting a robotic spot-welding system, which parameter should be checked first if there is excessive weld spatter? a. The electrode tip alignment b. The welding current c. The clamping force d. The weld cycle time 8. During a laser welding operation, the weld quality is inconsistent, with some welds showing excessive spatter and others being underfilled. What is the most likely cause of this issue? a. Fluctuations in the input voltage to the laser system. b. Variations in the robot\'s speed and path accuracy. c. Inconsistent gas shielding or improper gas flow rates d. Incorrect programming of the laser\'s pulse frequency and duration. 9. What is the primary purpose of performing a periodic optical alignment check on the laser optics in a robotic remote laser welding system? a. To prevent overheating of the laser components by adjusting their cooling settings. b. To ensure that the laser beam remains focused and aligned for precise welding, avoiding deflection and distortion. c. To calibrate the robot\'s movement accuracy and welding speed. d. To clean and replace the gas nozzles and filters to maintain proper gas flow. 10. In a robotic stud welding setup, if the robotic arm's positional accuracy is off by 0.5mm, which of the following adjustments would be most effective in ensuring proper stud placement? a. Adjusting the welding gun\'s calibration b. Increasing the welding time c. Modifying the feed rate of the studs d. Re-calibrating the robotic arm's coordinate system 11. Which parameter is most likely to affect the appearance of the weld flash in a robotic stud welding process? a. The feed rate of the studs b. The welding current c. The welding gun angle d. The ambient temperature Adhesive (Optional for Body Shop) 1. Which of the following adhesive types is best suited for high-temperature applications where the adhesive needs to maintain its properties over a wide temperature range? a. Cyanoacrylate b. Epoxy c. Hot Melt d. Acrylic 2. In a robotic adhesive dispensing system, the nozzle is experiencing inconsistent flow rates. Which of the following is the most likely cause and the best initial troubleshooting step? a. A\) The adhesive type is incorrect for the application b. The robotic arm calibration needs adjustment. c. The adhesive supply line may be clogged or obstructed. d. The ambient temperature in the workspace is too high. 3. In a robotic adhesive application system, what is the primary purpose of a pressure sensor integrated into the dispensing system? a. To measure the temperature of the adhesive during application. b. To ensure the adhesive is applied at the correct rate and pressure. c. To monitor the electrical current in the adhesive dispensing unit. d. To detect the type of adhesive being used based on viscosity. 4. Which parameter adjustment is most critical for optimizing the performance of a hot melt adhesive system? a. Adhesive nozzle temperature b. Adhesive color c. Adhesive shelf-life d. Adhesive density 5. How can the bonding strength of an adhesive be affected by the surface preparation before application? a. Surface roughness increases bonding strength by providing more contact area. b. Surface cleanliness decreases bonding strength by introducing contaminants. c. Surface temperature has no effect on bonding strength. d. Surface hardness enhances bonding strength by making the adhesive more flexible Flow Drills and Self Piercing Rivets(Optional for Body Shop) 1. What is the primary purpose of a self-piercing rivet in an automated robotic assembly process? a. To weld two metal sheets together without additional heat b. To create a permanent connection between two materials without pre-drilling holes c. To provide a temporary fastening solution that can be easily removed d. To apply adhesive to the surface of two components 2. Which troubleshooting step should be performed first when a robotic self-piercing rivet gun fails to cycle and there is no error code displayed on the HMI? a. Check the PLC input/output status for the gun. b. Inspect the pneumatic air supply to the gun. c. Test the integrity of the electrical wiring harness. d. Manually cycle the gun using the teach pendant. 3. When diagnosing a misfire in a self-piercing rivet gun, which of the following sensor readings is most critical to verify for determining whether the gun's rivet delivery system is functioning correctly? a. Hydraulic pressure sensor b. Rivet magazine proximity sensor c. Gun alignment laser sensor d. Temperature sensor of the gun's motor 4. What is a potential failure point when using the Tucker® Self-Piercing Rivet Gun on high-tensile steel if the incorrect joining element is selected? a. Rivet deformation due to improper alignment. b. Excessive joint flexibility compromising structural integrity. c. Cracking or deformation of the steel at the joint. d. Incomplete penetration of the rivet through the material.