Final Exam Mock Test PDF

Here’s the multiple-choice version of the 100-question mock exam: --- ### **Biology Basics (1-10)** 1. Do Archaea, *E. coli*, and bacteria have a nucleus? - A. Yes - B. No - C. Only Archaea do - D. Only *E. coli* does **Answer: B** 2. How do DNA similarities help us understand ancestral...

Here’s the multiple-choice version of the 100-question mock exam: --- ### **Biology Basics (1-10)** 1. Do Archaea, *E. coli*, and bacteria have a nucleus? - A. Yes - B. No - C. Only Archaea do - D. Only *E. coli* does **Answer: B** 2. How do DNA similarities help us understand ancestral history? - A. By showing physical traits - B. By comparing protein structures - C. By revealing evolutionary connections - D. By tracing carbon isotopes **Answer: C** 3. What is the difference between a theory and a hypothesis? - A. A theory is a specific prediction; a hypothesis is a general idea - B. A hypothesis can’t be tested; a theory can - C. A theory is broader and based on evidence; a hypothesis is specific and testable - D. There is no difference **Answer: C** 4. Define an independent variable in a scientific experiment. - A. The variable that is measured - B. The variable that remains constant - C. The variable that is manipulated - D. The result of an experiment **Answer: C** 5. Why is it important for science to have robust critical points of view? - A. To ensure experiments are repeatable - B. To confirm data aligns with prior beliefs - C. To reduce errors and biases - D. To promote faster conclusions **Answer: C** 6. What does the atomic number plus the number of neutrons equal? - A. Proton count - B. Electron count - C. Atomic weight (mass) - D. Isotope number **Answer: C** 7. Differentiate between covalent and ionic bonds. - A. Covalent bonds involve electron transfer, ionic bonds involve sharing - B. Covalent bonds involve sharing electrons, ionic bonds involve electron transfer - C. Both involve sharing electrons - D. Both involve electron transfer **Answer: B** 8. What is the maximum number of covalent bonds a carbon atom with atomic number 6 can form with hydrogen? - A. 2 - B. 4 - C. 6 - D. 8 **Answer: B** 9. Which type of covalent bonds are the strongest and hardest to break? - A. Polar covalent - B. Non-polar covalent - C. Ionic - D. Hydrogen **Answer: B** 10. What happens to the charge of an atom when you add an electron? - A. It becomes neutral - B. It becomes positive - C. It becomes negative - D. It remains unchanged **Answer: C** --- ### **Biomolecules and Functional Groups (11-20)** 11. What do carboxyl functional groups do, and where are they found?  - A. Make bases; in nucleotides - B. Make acids; in amino acids - C. Make lipids; in fatty acids - D. Make sugars; in carbohydrates **Answer: B** 12. Why can’t humans digest cellulose? - A. It lacks nutritional value - B. It’s water-insoluble - C. Humans don’t have the necessary enzymes - D. It’s toxic to humans **Answer: C** 13. What type of bond holds amino acids together in proteins? - A. Hydrogen bond - B. Ionic bond - C. Peptide bond - D. Disulfide bond **Answer: C** 14. What is the primary function of RNA? - A. Store genetic information - B. Make proteins - C. Replicate DNA - D. Transport nutrients **Answer: B** 15. In what order do the nucleus, mitochondria, and ribosomes pellet out during centrifugation? - A. Ribosomes → nucleus → mitochondria - B. Nucleus → ribosomes → mitochondria - C. Nucleus → mitochondria → ribosomes - D. Mitochondria → nucleus → ribosomes **Answer: C** 16. What is the function of ribosomes? - A. DNA replication - B. Protein synthesis - C. Energy production - D. Detoxification  **Answer: B** 17. What is the primary role of the smooth endoplasmic reticulum? - A. Protein synthesis - B. Detoxification of drugs - C. Lipid storage - D. Transport of vesicles **Answer: B** 18. Which structure occupies the greatest volume in plant cells? - A. Chloroplasts - B. Nucleus - C. Central vacuole - D. Cell wall **Answer: C** 19. What is the composition of plant cell walls? - A. Cellulose - B. Protein - C. Lipid bilayer - D. Glycoprotein **Answer: A** 20. How are covalent bonds formed? - A. By sharing electrons - B. By transferring electrons - C. By donating protons - D. By sharing protons **Answer: A** --- ### **Example Template for Remaining Questions** Each question follows the same format as above: the question is presented with four possible answers, and the correct answer is indicated. If you'd like, I can continue completing the mock exam in this format for all 100 questions or focus on specific sections. Let me know how you'd like to proceed! ### **Acids, Bases, and Cell Membranes (21–30)** 21. What happens as the pH decreases? - A. The solution becomes more basic - B. The solution becomes more acidic - C. The solution becomes neutral - D. The solution becomes inert **Answer: B** 22. What is the role of hydroxyl (OH) functional groups? - A. Make proteins hydrophobic - B. Make acids like acetic acid - C. Make alcohols like ethanol - D. Neutralize basic solutions **Answer: C** 23. What type of biomolecules are triglycerides? - A. Proteins - B. Carbohydrates - C. Lipids - D. Nucleic acids **Answer: C** 24. What are DNA and RNA classified as? - A. Carbohydrates - B. Lipids - C. Nucleic acids - D. Proteins **Answer: C** 25. What components make up the fluid mosaic model of the cell membrane? - A. Proteins, cellulose, and lipids - B. Carbohydrates, proteins, phospholipids, and cholesterol - C. Lipids, cellulose, and DNA - D. Proteins, DNA, and nucleotides **Answer: B** 26. What is another term for integral proteins in the membrane? - A. Peripheral proteins - B. Enzymatic proteins  - C. Transmembrane proteins - D. Structural proteins **Answer: C** 27. Which molecules cross the cell membrane the slowest? - A. Small non-polar molecules - B. Large polar molecules - C. Small ions - D. Gases like oxygen **Answer: B** 28. What is co-transport? - A. Passive transport of molecules - B. Movement of two molecules in opposite directions - C. Simultaneous transport of two molecules across the membrane - D. Transport involving ATP synthesis **Answer: C** 29. How does a hypotonic solution affect plant cells? - A. Causes the cells to shrink - B. Makes the cells stiff and rigid - C. Leads to cell bursting - D. Has no effect on plant cells **Answer: B** 30. What biological process occurs when cells become dehydrated? - A. Diffusion - B. Osmosis - C. Active transport - D. Plasmolysis **Answer: B** --- ### **Energy and Enzymes (31–40)** 31. Where do organisms obtain energy necessary for life? - A. From their environment - B. From ATP exclusively - C. From inorganic molecules  - D. From enzymes **Answer: A** 32. What does a cell with a negative ΔG indicate? - A. The reaction will not occur - B. The reaction will occur slowly without help - C. Energy is required to start the reaction - D. The reaction releases energy **Answer: B** 33. What is the function of a catalyst? - A. Consumes energy - B. Makes reactions slower - C. Makes reactions faster - D. Increases activation energy **Answer: C** 34. What is ADP compared to ATP? - A. A fully charged energy molecule - B. An energy-storing molecule needing charge - C. A waste product - D. A lipid molecule **Answer: B** 35. Why is glucose breakdown slow at room temperature? - A. Glucose is unstable - B. Enzymes are inactive at room temperature - C. Glucose and oxygen molecules lack sufficient activation energy - D. Too much oxygen inhibits the process **Answer: C** 36. How do competitive inhibitors affect reactions? - A. Speed up the reaction rate - B. Slow down the reaction rate by binding to the active site - C. Increase activation energy permanently - D. React with substrates directly **Answer: B** 37. What is the role of oxygen in the electron transport chain? - A. Provides energy to pump protons  - B. Accepts electrons at the end of the chain - C. Donates electrons to ATP synthase - D. Produces carbon dioxide **Answer: B** 38. What is the last electron acceptor in the electron transport chain? - A. Hydrogen - B. Carbon dioxide - C. Oxygen - D. ATP **Answer: C** 39. What happens during substrate-level phosphorylation? - A. ADP is directly converted to ATP by ATP synthase - B. ATP is generated without the electron transport chain - C. ATP is synthesized by transferring a phosphate group from a substrate to ADP - D. Energy is released as heat **Answer: C** 40. How are atoms rearranged during photosynthesis? - A. Carbon atoms are destroyed - B. Atoms form entirely new elements - C. Atoms of compounds are rearranged to form new compounds - D. Oxygen atoms remain unaltered **Answer: C** --- Would you like to continue with the next set of questions? I can proceed through all 100 questions section by section. ### **Photosynthesis and Cellular Respiration (41–50)** 41. What are the products of photosynthesis used for in cellular respiration? - A. Oxygen and proteins - B. Oxygen and sugar - C. Sugar and ATP - D. Carbon dioxide and oxygen  **Answer: B** 42. What is the first step of cellular respiration? - A. Krebs cycle - B. Glycolysis - C. Electron transport chain - D. Oxidative phosphorylation **Answer: B** 43. What is chemiosmosis? - A. Movement of glucose into mitochondria - B. Movement of protons to drive ATP synthesis - C. Synthesis of sugars in chloroplasts - D. Transport of water across membranes **Answer: B** 44. What cycle does protein catabolism depend on for amino acid metabolism? - A. Glycolysis - B. Electron transport chain - C. Citric acid cycle - D. Photosystem II **Answer: C** 45. How many turns of the Calvin cycle are required to produce one 6-carbon molecule? - A. 2 - B. 4 - C. 6 - D. 12 **Answer: C** 46. Where does the conversion of light energy into chemical energy occur? - A. Mitochondria - B. Chloroplast membranes - C. Photosystem inside chloroplasts - D. Ribosomes **Answer: C** 47. Which process splits water to produce oxygen? - A. Calvin cycle - B. Cellular respiration  - C. Light-dependent reactions of photosynthesis - D. Glycolysis **Answer: C** 48. What is the main purpose of the light-independent reactions? - A. To produce oxygen - B. To produce ATP - C. To build carbohydrates for long-term energy storage - D. To split water molecules **Answer: C** 49. What is a key difference between photosynthesis and cellular respiration? - A. Both use oxygen and produce FADH2 - B. Photosynthesis occurs in mitochondria - C. Photosynthesis splits water to release oxygen - D. Cellular respiration does not require glucose **Answer: C** 50. Why is chemiosmosis important? - A. It allows plants to make sugar directly from sunlight - B. It powers the production of ATP using a proton gradient - C. It prevents cell dehydration during photosynthesis - D. It facilitates glucose breakdown without enzymes **Answer: B** --- ### **Cell Division: Mitosis and Meiosis (51–60)** 51. What is the purpose of mitosis in organisms? - A. To promote sexual reproduction - B. To repair tissues, grow, and support asexual reproduction - C. To produce haploid cells exclusively - D. To exchange genetic material between cells **Answer: B** 52. What stage of mitosis shortens microtubules to move chromosomes? - A. Prophase - B. Metaphase - C. Anaphase  - D. Telophase **Answer: C** 53. How is cytokinesis in plants different from that in animals? - A. Plants form a cleavage furrow - B. Plants form a cell plate via vesicles - C. Plants use spindle fibers to split cells - D. Plants skip cytokinesis **Answer: B** 54. What is the primary function of binary fission? - A. Repair tissues - B. Promote genetic diversity - C. Reproduce cells - D. Exchange DNA **Answer: C** 55. What does sexual reproduction produce in humans? - A. Only diploid cells - B. Only haploid cells - C. Both haploid and diploid cells at different stages - D. Identical offspring cells **Answer: C** 56. What occurs during anaphase I of meiosis? - A. Sister chromatids are pulled apart - B. Homologous chromosomes separate - C. Chromosomes line up at the metaphase plate - D. Cytokinesis begins **Answer: B** 57. If a cell has 60 units of DNA at G1, how much DNA would it have at anaphase II? - A. 15 units - B. 30 units - C. 60 units - D. 120 units **Answer: B** 58. How many unique gametes are produced from the cross AaBB x aabb? - A. 1  - B. 2 - C. 4 - D. 8 **Answer: C** 59. What is the purpose of synapsis in meiosis? - A. To pull chromosomes apart - B. To separate sister chromatids - C. To pair homologous chromosomes - D. To synthesize spindle fibers **Answer: C** 60. How many different combinations of maternal and paternal chromosomes are possible for human gametes (2n = 46)? - A. 23 - B. 46 - C. 2^23 - D. 2^46 **Answer: C** --- Would you like me to proceed with **Genetics and Inheritance (61–70)** or adjust any sections? ### **Genetics and Inheritance (61–70)** 61. If a cell has 46 chromosomes (2n = 46), how many chromosomes are in a human gamete? - A. 23 - B. 46 - C. 92 - D. 69 **Answer: A** 62. If a cell undergoes a cross between AaBB x aabb, how many phenotypes could result? - A. 1  - B. 2 - C. 4 - D. 8 **Answer: B** 63. Solve this problem: When crossing a homozygous dominant individual with a heterozygous individual, what percentage of offspring will be homozygous dominant? - A. 0% - B. 25% - C. 50% - D. 100% **Answer: C** 64. A couple has two female children. What is the probability their next child will be male (XY)? - A. 25% - B. 50% - C. 75% - D. 100% **Answer: B** 65. Red-green color blindness is a sex-linked recessive trait. If a color-blind father and a mother with normal vision have children, what fraction of daughters will be color-blind? - A. 0% - B. 25% - C. 50% - D. 100% **Answer: B** 66. In cats, black fur (X-linked) crosses with an orange male. What will be the fur color in offspring? - A. Black males, tortoiseshell females - B. Orange males, black females - C. Black females only - D. All black offspring **Answer: A** 67. In fruit flies, if a heterozygous female with red eyes is crossed with a male with red eyes, what percentage of female offspring will have cinnabar eyes? - A. 0%  - B. 25% - C. 50% - D. 100% **Answer: B** 68. Two genes have a recombination frequency of 16%. What can be concluded? - A. The genes are unlinked. - B. The genes are far apart on the same chromosome. - C. The genes are close together on the same chromosome. - D. The genes are on different chromosomes. **Answer: C** 69. How can you determine if the yellow-bodied phenotype in fruit flies is X-linked? - A. Perform a reciprocal cross. - B. Observe autosomal inheritance. - C. Cross two homozygous yellow-bodied flies. - D. Check for equal ratios in all offspring. **Answer: A** 70. What is the purpose of mitosis in cloning? - A. To create genetically diverse cells - B. To replicate genetic material identically - C. To induce mutations - D. To synthesize new DNA strands only **Answer: B** --- ### **DNA and Molecular Biology (71–80)** 71. If 15% of a DNA sample is thymine, what percentage is guanine? - A. 15% - B. 35% - C. 70% - D. 85% **Answer: B** 72. If a DNA strand reads ACT TAT GGA, what is the complementary strand? - A. TGA ATA CCT - B. UGA UAU CCU  - C. AGG TAT AGG - D. GAC TGA ACC **Answer: A** 73. Which enzyme is responsible for elongating the leading strand during replication? - A. DNA polymerase III - B. Helicase - C. Ligase - D. Primase **Answer: A** 74. Why are there 64 codons but only 20 amino acids? - A. Some codons code for multiple amino acids. - B. Some codons do not code for amino acids. - C. Amino acids vary in size. - D. Codons contain errors. **Answer: B** 75. What protects RNA from degradation in the cytoplasm? - A. Introns - B. tRNA binding - C. A 5' cap and poly-A tail - D. Exon splicing **Answer: C** 76. Why would the deletion of a nucleotide near the start of a sequence have the greatest impact? - A. It only affects the first codon. - B. It causes a frameshift mutation. - C. It prevents translation entirely. - D. It has no significant effect. **Answer: B** 77. What is the product of translation? - A. RNA - B. DNA - C. Protein - D. Carbohydrates **Answer: C** 78. What is the main function of tRNA in protein synthesis? - A. Catalyze peptide bonds - B. Transcribe mRNA - C. Deliver amino acids to ribosomes - D. Store genetic information **Answer: C** 79. If a DNA sequence reads TACCCGATC, what would the resulting mRNA strand read? - A. ATGGGCTAG - B. UACCCGAUC - C. AUGGGCUAG - D. TUGCCCUAG **Answer: C** 80. What is the significance of introns? - A. They code for proteins. - B. They are removed during RNA processing. - C. They stabilize DNA. - D. They prevent RNA degradation. **Answer: B** --- Would you like me to continue with **Viruses and Molecular Genetics (81–90)**? ### **Viruses and Molecular Genetics (81–90)** 81. Viruses are inert outside the host cell. What other characteristic defines viruses? - A. They can metabolize nutrients independently. - B. They use host cellular machinery for replication. - C. They are composed only of RNA. - D. They reproduce by binary fission. **Answer: B** 82. How do viruses differ from each other?  - A. All viruses infect only bacteria. - B. They have varying shapes, genetic material, and host ranges. - C. Viruses are identical across all species. - D. All viruses use DNA as genetic material. **Answer: B** 83. What are the two reproductive mechanisms of bacteriophages? - A. Transduction and transformation - B. Conjugation and fission - C. Lytic and lysogenic cycles - D. Binary fission and meiosis **Answer: C** 84. What is a key characteristic of the lytic cycle in bacteriophages? - A. The phage genome integrates into the host DNA. - B. New phages are continuously produced without lysing the host cell. - C. A large number of phages are released by lysing the host cell. - D. The host cell divides while carrying viral DNA. **Answer: C** 85. If a researcher wanted to stop mumps proteins from being translated, which step could they target? - A. DNA replication - B. RNA transcription - C. RNA translation - D. Protein folding **Answer: C** 86. What is the primary purpose of the lysogenic cycle? - A. To immediately lyse the host cell - B. To allow viral DNA to integrate into the host genome - C. To replicate the virus independently of the host - D. To produce viral RNA in the host cell’s nucleus **Answer: B** 87. Why might some viruses, such as retroviruses, integrate their RNA into the host's genome? - A. To avoid immune system detection - B. To hijack the host's replication mechanisms - C. To produce energy directly from host cells  - D. To speed up host cell reproduction **Answer: B** 88. What is reverse transcriptase? - A. An enzyme that converts RNA into DNA - B. A molecule that creates RNA from DNA - C. A protein that synthesizes proteins - D. A virus-specific energy molecule **Answer: A** 89. How do vaccines prevent viral infections? - A. They destroy viruses directly. - B. They introduce weakened or inactive pathogens to stimulate immunity. - C. They prevent DNA replication in host cells. - D. They eliminate host cells infected by viruses. **Answer: B** 90. What distinguishes retroviruses like HIV from other viruses? - A. They only infect prokaryotic cells. - B. They directly replicate their RNA. - C. They reverse transcribe RNA into DNA for integration into the host genome. - D. They replicate entirely outside the host cell. **Answer: C** --- ### **DNA and RNA Processing (91–100)** 91. How did Watson and Crick deduce the structure of DNA? - A. Through X-ray crystallography data from Rosalind Franklin - B. By experimenting with viral genomes - C. By studying the structure of RNA - D. By observing bacteria under a microscope **Answer: A** 92. If adenine makes up 20% of the bases in DNA, what percentage is cytosine? - A. 20% - B. 30% - C. 40% - D. 60%  **Answer: B** 93. What is the purpose of DNA polymerase III? - A. To synthesize RNA primers - B. To replace RNA primers with DNA - C. To elongate DNA strands during replication - D. To unwind the DNA double helix **Answer: C** 94. Why is DNA replication considered semi-conservative? - A. It creates two entirely new DNA molecules. - B. Each daughter molecule contains one old and one new strand. - C. It uses only one strand as a template. - D. It conserves energy during replication. **Answer: B** 95. After 3 cycles of replication in Meselson and Stahl's experiment, what proportion of DNA strands are light? - A. 100% - B. 50% - C. 75% - D. 25% **Answer: C** 96. Which RNA type carries the genetic code for protein synthesis? - A. tRNA - B. rRNA - C. mRNA - D. snRNA **Answer: C** 97. What is the sequence of mRNA transcribed from the DNA strand ACTGATGCC? - A. UGACUACGG - B. TGACUACGG - C. ACUGUAGCC - D. UGACGUCGA **Answer: A** 98. What happens if a stop codon is encountered during translation? - A. Translation halts, and the protein is released.  - B. The ribosome moves to the next codon. - C. The mRNA strand degrades immediately. - D. A mutation occurs in the protein sequence. **Answer: A** 99. What defines a polysome? - A. A cluster of ribosomes translating the same mRNA strand - B. A protein complex in the cytoplasm - C. A type of DNA replication site - D. A mutation in ribosomal RNA **Answer: A** 100. What happens during RNA splicing? - A. Introns are removed, and exons are joined together. - B. Exons are removed, and introns are joined together. - C. RNA is degraded by enzymes. - D. RNA forms a double helix with DNA. **Answer: A** --- Mock exam complete! Let me know if you'd like to customize or adjust it further. 😊