CompTIA-A-core-1-360-questions-1.pdf

CompTIA A+ core 1 360 questions 1. Documents sent to a printer are printing with abnormally wide margins. You think the paper size is incorrectly selected. Where do you go to make this change? A) Print queue B) Run the troubleshooter C) Printing preferences D) Paper selection switch on...

CompTIA A+ core 1 360 questions 1. Documents sent to a printer are printing with abnormally wide margins. You think the paper size is incorrectly selected. Where do you go to make this change? A) Print queue B) Run the troubleshooter C) Printing preferences D) Paper selection switch on the printer E) Manage sharing Printing preferences To change the paper size setting for printing, you should go to the printing preferences. The printing preferences can be accessed through the Print dialog box or from the Devices and Printers section in the Control Panel, depending on the operating system being used. Once in the printing preferences, the paper size can be adjusted to match the size of the paper that is currently loaded in the printer. The print spooler is a service that manages print jobs and allows multiple users to share a printer. It does not provide options to change the paper size. The paper selection switch on the printer is used to physically adjust the paper guides for different paper sizes, but it does not change the printer's settings. The print queue is a list of print jobs waiting to be printed and does not provide options to change the printer's settings 2. You are a computer technician tasked with setting up a new desktop computer for a multinational company that frequently participates in international conferences and trade shows. The computer specifications require the maximum amount of RAM, typical CPU, GPU, and storage for a business workstation. As the technician, you need to choose a power supply for this computer. Which system parameter would be the most important for you to consider when selecting the power supply? A) Efficiency rating 1  B) Input voltage C) Output voltage D) Number of SATA connectors E) 12V rail amperage Input voltage In this scenario, the most important system parameter for the technician to consider when choosing a power supply is the input voltage. This is because the computer will be used at trade shows all over the world, and different countries have different input voltage standards. For example, the United States typically uses 120V AC power, while many other countries use 220-240V AC power. The power supply must be able to accept the input voltage available in the country where it is being used, otherwise it will not function properly or could be damaged. 3. A technician has been assigned to upgrade the RAM in a desktop computer. Which type of RAM is the technician most likely to use to install the additional RAM? A) DDR5 B) ECC C) VRAM D) SODIMM DDR5 DDR5 is the most likely type of RAM to be used in a desktop computer. However, it's important to note that the specific type of RAM used can vary depending on the age and specifications of the computer in question. SODIMM is a smaller form factor of memory module typically used in laptops or compact systems, ECC (Error Correcting Code) is a type of RAM that is commonly used in servers and workstations for data integrity, and VRAM (Video RAM) is a specialized type of RAM used for graphics processing units (GPUs). 4. You need to take inventory quickly and accurately to ensure that your stock levels are up to date. Which of the following peripherals would you most likely use ? A) Thermal printer B) KVM switch C) Barcode scanner D) NFC device Barcode scanners can quickly and accurately scan the barcodes on each product, which then connects to a software system that updates the inventory levels in real-time. This allows for accurate and efficient inventory management, reducing the time and effort required for manual inventory counting. 5. A technician powers on a PC and its monitor and sees the following error message: "No input signal detected" The display lights on the computer are on. Which of the following is a possible solution? A) Changing the connector setting on the monitor 2  B) Checking the power plug on the PC C) Changing the BIOS settings D) Unplug the GPU and plug it to a PCIe Gen 5 slot, if available E) Checking the power plug on the monitor Changing the connector setting on the monitor The "No input signal detected" error message typically indicates that the monitor is not receiving a signal from the computer. Therefore, a possible solution is to change the connector settings on the monitor. The technician should ensure that the cable connecting the monitor to the computer is securely plugged in on both ends. If the cable is loose, they should reconnect it properly and check if the error message disappears. Checking the power plug on the monitor and the PC is also important to ensure that both devices are receiving power. However, if the display lights on the computer are on, it's less likely that a power issue is causing the error message. Changing the BIOS settings is unlikely to resolve this issue, as this error message occurs before the BIOS is loaded. 6. A user is no longer able to browse the Internet after returning from vacation. The user is able to log in and navigate to the local intranet, but not to any outside sites. A technician pings a well-known website by name but gets no reply. The technician then pings its IP address and gets a reply. Which of the following commands will MOST likely resolve the issue? A) ipconfig /release B) ipconfig /all C) ipconfig /flushdns D) Ipconfig /showclassid E) Ipconfig /registerdns ipconfig /flushdns Based on the information provided, the issue seems to be related to DNS resolution. The fact that the technician was able to ping a website by its IP address but not by its name suggests that the DNS resolution is not working properly. Therefore, the command that is most likely to resolve the issue is ipconfig /flushdns. This command will flush the DNS resolver cache, which may contain outdated or incorrect information. By flushing the cache, the system will have to retrieve the latest DNS information from the DNS server, which should resolve the issue. 7. A technician is tasked with setting up a new workstation for a client. The client requires that the workstation has mirrored storage, using two 4TB drives that can support one failure without data loss. Which of the following BEST meets these requirements? A) RAID 10 B) RAID 5 C) RAID 1 3  D) RAID 0 E) RAID -1 RAID 1 RAID 1 provides disk mirroring by creating an exact copy of the data on one drive onto the second drive. If one drive fails, the other drive can still operate without data loss. RAID 0 does not provide any redundancy or fault tolerance and only increases performance by striping data across both drives, which would not meet the requirement for mirrored storage. RAID 5 can provide redundancy with one drive failure, but it requires at least three drives, which is not in line with the requirement of using two 4TB drives. RAID 10 provides both mirroring and striping, but it requires a minimum of four drives, which again is not in line with the requirement of using two 4TB drives. 8. A technician is troubleshooting a user's computer that is not receiving a network connection. Upon inspection, the technician finds that the connection seems to be down and needs to locate the user's port on the patch panel. However, the port and patch panel are not labeled. Which of the following network tools would be best to help the technician identify the correct port? A) Cable Certifier B) Multimeter C) Protocol Analyzer D) Toner Probe E) Crimper Toner Probe A toner probe, also known as a tone generator and probe, is a network tool used to trace network cables and identify the correct port on a patch panel. The tool generates a tone that can be detected by a receiver probe, allowing the technician to locate the correct port on the patch panel. 9. Which of the DNS database records listed below returns a 128-bit IP address? A) PTR B) A C) AAAA D) CNAME E) MX AAAA An AAAA record maps a domain name to the corresponding IPv6 address, which is a 128-bit address. For example, an AAAA record for "techconfig.com" might map to the IPv6 address "2001:0db8:85a3:0000:0000:8a2e:0370:7334". The other DNS database records listed in the question are: A (Address) record: maps a domain name to the corresponding IPv4 address, which is a 32-bit address MX (Mail Exchange) record: specifies the mail server(s) responsible for accepting email messages on behalf of a domain CNAME (Canonical Name) record: maps an alias or nickname to the canonical name (i.e. the true name) of a domain 4 PTR (Pointer) record: maps an IP address to the corresponding hostname (reverse DNS lookup) 10. Which of the following memory types is primarily used in laptops? A) SDRAM B) DIMM C) SODIMM D) ECC E) DDR3 SODIMM SODIMM is a smaller form factor of the DIMM (Dual In-line Memory Module) used in desktop computers. SODIMMs are designed for use in laptops, notebooks, and other small form factor computers. SODIMMs are available in various types, such as DDR, DDR2, DDR3, DDR4 AND DDR5. 11. Which device retains data over the long term? A) CPU B) RAM C) SSD D) GPU E) RGB SSD While CPUs (Central Processing Units), RAM (Random Access Memory), and video cards are all essential components of a computer system, they are designed to store and process data temporarily. Once power is turned off, any data stored in these devices is lost. On the other hand, SSDs use non-volatile flash memory to store data even when there is no power. This makes them suitable for long-term data storage, such as saving important documents, photos, videos, and other digital files. 12. You are a computer technician tasked with setting up a new desktop computer for a multinational company that frequently participates in international conferences and trade shows. The computer specifications require the maximum amount of RAM, typical CPU, GPU, and storage for a business workstation. As the technician, you need to choose a power supply for this computer. Which system parameter would be the most important for you to consider when selecting the power supply? A) Output voltage B) 12V rail amperage C) Efficiency rating D) Number of SATA connectors. E) Input voltage Input voltage 5 In this scenario, the most important system parameter for the technician to consider when choosing a power supply is the input voltage. This is because the computer will be used at trade shows all over the world, and different countries have different input voltage standards. For example, the United States typically uses 120V AC power, while many other countries use 220-240V AC power. The power supply must be able to accept the input voltage available in the country where it is being used, otherwise it will not function properly or could be damaged. 13. Which of the following should a technician do NEXT after reporting an incident? A) Document the incident B) Go back to work C) Delete the content D) Inform his colleagues E) Confiscate the PC Document the incident Firstly, documenting the incident helps to create a record of what happened, which can be used for future reference. This information can be used to identify patterns and trends in incidents, as well as to track the effectiveness of any actions taken in response to the incident. Secondly, documenting the incident can help to ensure that appropriate action is taken. This information can be shared with relevant parties such as management, security teams or law enforcement agencies, as appropriate, to help determine the appropriate course of action. 14. You are a technical support specialist for a large corporation, and you have been asked to set up a PC in a conference room for video presentations during training sessions. The PC will need to be connected to a large-screen TV for displaying the video content. As the technical support specialist, which of the following video connectors would be the most appropriate choice for this environment ? A) Thunderbolt B) VGI C) Option 3 D) DVI E) HDMI HDMI DMI is a digital interface that supports high-definition video and multi-channel audio, making it a popular choice for connecting devices such as PCs and laptops to TVs and projectors. HDMI can transmit both video and audio signals, and is capable of supporting resolutions up to 4K. While Video Graphics Array (VGA) and Digital Visual Interface (DVI) are also common video connectors, they are not as suitable for this environment because they are analog interfaces and do not support high-definition video or audio. Thunderbolt (Option B) is a high-speed data transfer interface, but it does not transmit video signals directly and would require an adapter to connect to a TV. 6 15. A customer claims that despite using a gigabit LAN card, their computer can never transmit data at a rate of more than 100Mbps. The technician discovers that the network cable needs to be changed while troubleshooting. What type of cable category is restricting the transmission speed? A) CAT 6 B) CAT 5E C) CAT 7 D) CAT 6A E) CAT 5 Cat 5 Cat 5 cables are capable of supporting network speeds up to 100 Mbps. Even though the customer has a Gigabit LAN card, the Cat 5 cable would not be able to support the higher transfer speed of 1 Gbps. Therefore, replacing the Cat 5 cable with a higher category of cable would be necessary to achieve the higher transfer speed. Cat 5e (Option B), Cat 6 (Option C), and Cat 6a (Option D) are all capable of supporting higher network speeds than Cat 5. Cat 5e can support up to 1 Gbps, while Cat 6 and Cat 6a can support up to 10 Gbps and 100 Gbps, respectively. 16. On a laptop, the screen is constantly flickering. Which of the following is most likely to be the root of this issue? (Choose two.) A) A failing VGA cable B) A failing inverter C) Interference from a nearby fan D) A failing display E) A failing PSU F) A failing backlight A failing backlight A failing inverter A failing backlight can cause flickering on a laptop display because the backlight provides the light that illuminates the display. If the backlight is failing or malfunctioning, it can cause the display to flicker or go dark. Similarly, a failing inverter can also cause the display to flicker because the inverter converts the direct current (DC) power from the laptop's battery or power supply into the alternating current (AC) power that is needed to power the backlight. If the inverter is failing, it may not be providing a stable supply of power to the backlight, which can cause the display to flicker. 17. Choose whether the statement is true or false: When a computer hibernates, the computer shuts down after saving everything in memory on your hard disk. A) FALSE B) TRUE 7 TRUE When a computer hibernates, the operating system saves the contents of the system's memory (RAM) to the hard disk, and then shuts down the computer. When the computer is turned back on, it reads the saved information from the hard disk and restores the system to its previous state, allowing the user to resume working from where they left off. This is different from sleep mode, which is a power-saving state where the computer goes into a low- power mode while still keeping everything in RAM, and wakes up much faster than hibernation. 18. A technician is replacing a laptop's HDD with an SSD. Which of the following should the technician do FIRST? A) Upgrade the RAM on the laptop. B) Install SSD drivers inside the OS. C) Enable SSD support at BIOS. D) Create a backup of the HDD. Create a backup of the HDD. Before replacing the HDD with an SSD, it is important to create a backup of the data on the HDD to avoid losing any important data. This can be done by using a backup software or by manually copying the data to an external hard drive or cloud storage. 19. A network engineer is looking for a provider that will allow him to move his organization’s servers, routers, firewalls, and switches to the cloud. This provider would essentially act as his organization’s virtual data center. What type of cloud provider does this network engineer need to find? A) SAAS B) PAAS C) IAAS D) NAAS IAAS IaaS providers offer virtualized computing resources such as servers, storage, networking, and security services that can be used to replace or augment traditional on-premises data center infrastructure. This allows organizations to move their servers, routers, firewalls, and switches to the cloud and have them managed by the IaaS provider, acting as a virtual data center. SaaS (Software as a Service) providers offer web-based applications that are accessed through a browser or API, and are not suitable for this scenario. PaaS (Platform as a Service) providers offer a platform for building, deploying, and managing applications, which is not relevant for the network engineer's requirement. NaaS (Network as a Service) providers offer network services over the internet, such as VPN, bandwidth, and security services, but do not offer the complete infrastructure required for this scenario. 20. You are working from home and have an important video conference call scheduled for later in the day. You check your video conferencing software and select your webcam, but the software is unable to 8 open it. You remember that the webcam was working perfectly fine the previous day. Which of the following should be done FIRST to address this issue? A) Check the driver B) Close other video software and retrying C) Reseat or replace the webcam D) Unplug the webcam and re plug it E) Switch the video from the webcam to conference mode Close other video software and retrying This is a good first step, as having other video software open could be interfering with the webcam's functionality. Close any other video software that may be running and retry using the webcam. 21. You need to replace the motherboard on a desktop PC with an Intel Core i7-11700K processor. Which CPU socket should the replacement motherboard have? A) LGA 1150 B) LGA 1200 C) LGA 1366 LGA 1200 LGA 1200 - This socket type is used for the 10th and 11th generation Intel Core processors, including the Intel Core i7-11700K. LGA 1150 - This socket type is used for older Intel processors, such as the 4th generation Intel Core processors. LGA 1366 - This socket type is used for older Intel processors, such as the Intel Core i7-9xx processors. LGA 1700 - This socket type is not currently in use. It is expected to be used by Intel's upcoming 12th generation Alder Lake processors 22. A user is looking to build a computer for casual gaming and wants to know if they need to purchase a separate graphics card. They are considering a CPU with an Intel UHD Graphics 630 built-in. Which built-in functionality allows the Intel UHD Graphics 630 to take over tasks normally executed by a dedicated graphics controller? A) Hyper-threading B) Integrated GPU C) VGA mode D) Multicore architecture Integrated GPU An Integrated GPU (Graphics Processing Unit) is a graphics processing unit that is built into the CPU itself, rather than being a separate, dedicated graphics card. In this case, the Intel UHD Graphics 630 is an Integrated GPU that is built into the CPU. Integrated GPUs are capable of taking over certain graphics processing tasks that are normally executed by a dedicated graphics controller. While they may not have the same level of performance as a dedicated graphics card, they are often sufficient for casual gaming and other graphics-intensive tasks. 9 23. A CEO has requested that his IT department find a new accounting software. He would prefer that the accounting software doesn’t need to be installed locally on his machine, since he often switches between multiple devices. He would like the program to simply be accessible via a Web browser on any device while he has an Internet connection. What type of software should this IT department be looking at? A) NAAS B) PAAS C) PAAS D) SAAS E) IAAS SAAS SaaS is a cloud computing model where software applications are hosted on a cloud provider's servers and accessed through the internet using a web browser. With SaaS, users can access the software from any device with an internet connection, without the need for local installation. Examples of SAAS: Microsoft 365, Google Workspace... 24. One feature of virtualization is the ability to quickly add and remove resources to servers depending on your needs at the time. What is the term used to describe this? A) metered service B) rapid availability C) resource pooling D) rapid elasticity rapid elasticity Elasticity in virtualization refers to the ability to dynamically adjust the computing resources, such as CPU, memory, storage, and network bandwidth, allocated to virtual machines (VMs) or containers based on the workload demands. This means that resources can be easily scaled up or down, depending on the current demand, without the need for physical hardware changes. Rapid Elasticity is an important feature of virtualization because it allows organizations to optimize their resources usage and reduce costs, as they only need to pay for the resources they actually use. Additionally, it enables IT departments to respond quickly to changes in demand and to avoid underutilized resources, which can be wasteful and expensive. 25. A technician troubleshoot a projector that occasionally powers off. The technician recreates the issue and notices the projector will not power back on until approximately 10 minutes have passed. After 10 minutes of being powered on, the projector shuts off again. Which of the following should the technician perform NEXT to resolve the issue? A) Adjust the standby timeout. B) Check the power cable connection. C) Replace the bulb. D) Clean the filter. 10 Clean the filter. The symptoms described in the scenario suggest that the projector may be overheating and automatically shutting off as a safety measure to prevent damage to the device. The fact that the projector will not power back on until approximately 15 minutes have passed, and then shuts off again after 15 minutes of being powered on, also supports this theory. Therefore, the next step the technician should perform to resolve the issue is to clean the filter. The filter in a projector is designed to prevent dust and debris from entering the device and blocking the airflow that cools the internal components. Over time, the filter can become clogged with dust and dirt, which can impede the airflow and cause the device to overheat. Cleaning the filter is a simple and effective way to address this issue. The technician should consult the projector's manual for instructions on how to access and remove the filter, and then clean it according to the manufacturer's recommendations. After cleaning the filter, the technician should test the projector to see if the issue has been resolved. 26. You are a technician who has just replaced a faulty processor in a customer's computer. Before you can complete the repair, you need to add a cooling mechanism to the new processor to prevent overheating. What should you use to attach the cooling system to the processor? A) Thermal paste B) Expansion slot C) Superglue D) Fan E) Heat sink Thermal paste To attach a cooling system to a processor, it is recommended to use thermal paste or thermal compound. Thermal paste is a substance that improves heat transfer between the processor and the cooling system. It fills microscopic gaps and imperfections between the processor and the cooling system, allowing for better thermal conductivity and more efficient heat dissipation. It is important to apply the thermal paste properly to ensure good contact and effective heat transfer. A small amount of thermal paste should be placed on the center of the processor, and then spread evenly across the surface using a plastic card or other similar tool. It is important to use the appropriate amount of thermal paste, as too much or too little can affect the cooling performance. 27. Kate, an accountant, reports that after turning on her new laptop, she received a message stating her IP address is already in use on the system.She tried going back to her old desktop, which she now only uses for email, but received the same message.The technician checks the account and sees a comment that Ann requires a special network setup to connect to the banking software.Which of the following should the technician do to resolve the issue? A) Bridge the LAN connection between the laptop and the desktop. B) Replace the network card in the laptop C) Remove the static IP configuration from the desktop. D) Set the laptop configuration to DHCP to prevent conflicts. 11 Set the laptop configuration to DHCP to prevent conflicts. The error message "IP address already in use on the system" indicates that there is an IP address conflict on the network. This means that another device on the network is using the same IP address as Kate's laptop and desktop. Since Kate's old desktop is only used for email, it is likely that it is still configured with a static IP address, which is causing the conflict. The technician should remove the static IP configuration from the desktop by setting it to obtain an IP address automatically via DHCP. For the new laptop, the technician should configure the network adapter to use DHCP, which will allow it to obtain a unique IP address automatically from the network. This will prevent conflicts with other devices on the network and resolve the issue. 28. Which DVI type does not provide support for analog signal transmission? A) DVI D B) DVI A/D C) DVI I D) DVI A DVI D The DVI type that does not provide support for analog signal transmission is DVI-D. DVI-D (Digital) supports only digital video transmission, meaning that it doesn't support analog signals. It is commonly used to connect digital displays like LCD monitors, projectors, and HDTVs. DVI-A (Analog) supports only analog signal transmission, meaning that it doesn't support digital signals. It is used to connect analog displays like CRT monitors. DVI-I (Integrated) supports both analog and digital signal transmission, making it the most versatile type of DVI connector. DVI-A/D is not a separate type of connector but rather a combination of DVI-A and DVI-D in the same connector, allowing it to transmit both analog and digital signals simultaneously. 29. Examples of cabling types used for mass storage devices include: (Select all that apply) A) eSATA B) IDE/PATA C) SCSI D) SATA All answers are correct: SATA (Serial ATA): Used to connect hard drives and solid-state drives (SSDs) to a computer's motherboard. IDE/PATA (Integrated Drive Electronics/Parallel ATA): An older type of cabling used to connect hard drives and optical drives to a computer's motherboard. SCSI (Small Computer System Interface): A high-performance interface used to connect devices such as hard drives, tape drives, and scanners to a computer. eSATA (External SATA): A variant of SATA that allows for external devices to be connected to a computer via a SATA cable. 12 30. You are in the market for a new smartphone and are comparing different models. Which type of processor is generally preferred for mobile devices ? A) X32 B) LGA C) X64 D) X86 E) ARM ARM ARM processors are designed to be power-efficient, which means that they consume less power and generate less heat compared to other processors like x64 or x86. This is important for mobile devices because they have smaller batteries and need to last for a longer time between charges. In addition, ARM processors are smaller in size, which allows for more efficient use of space in a mobile device's design. 31. Which of the answers listed below refer to the characteristic features of the signal that can be carried through the VGA cable? (Select 2 answers) A) Audio and video B) Analog C) Video D) Digital and analog E) Digital F) Audio Video Analog The VGA (Video Graphics Array) cable is primarily used to transmit video signals from a computer to a monitor. The video signal carried through the VGA cable is analog, meaning that it is a continuous signal that varies in voltage over time. While it is possible to transmit audio signals through a VGA cable using a separate adapter or cable, audio is not a characteristic feature of the VGA cable itself. 32. Which of the following should not be connected to a UPS? A) Laser printers B) Monitors C) PCs D) Speakers Laser printers UPS devices are designed to provide backup power to connected devices during a power outage or brownout, helping to prevent data loss and other issues caused by sudden power loss. However, laser printers can consume a lot of power during operation and can overload a UPS, causing it to shut down or fail. 13 PCs, monitors, and speakers can typically be safely connected to a UPS, as they consume less power than laser printers and are less likely to overload the UPS. It's important to check the capacity and specifications of the UPS and the devices you want to connect to ensure that they are compatible and won't cause any issues. 33. A customer wants to purchase a new home desktop computer. The machine will mainly be used for Internet browsing and streaming video, except on weekends when the customer will use it to play games with friends. Which of the following should the technician focus on to meet these requirements? (Choose two.) A) RAID 5 B) High capacity disk drive C) High quality microphone D) 90 mm case fans E) Four core processor F) 16 GB DDR4 SODIMM memory Four core processor High capacity disk drive A four-core processor would be helpful for gaming as it can handle more demanding tasks, and a high- capacity hard drive is necessary for storing games, videos, and other media files. 34. You are a technician at a company, and an employee has recently been terminated. However, the employee had set a boot password and a BIOS password on their company-issued computer, and you need to gain access to it. Which of the following motherboard components can you most likely use to return the computer to a state that will allow you to boot the system without knowing the password? A) Cable tester B) Power reset connector C) Jumper D) Toggle switch Jumper The jumper on the motherboard can most likely be used to return the computer to a state that will allow you to boot the system without knowing the password. A jumper is a small plastic connector that is used to short a pair of pins on a motherboard. By shorting specific pins, a jumper can be used to reset the BIOS to its default settings, including removing the boot password. To use the jumper to reset the BIOS, you would need to locate the specific jumper on the motherboard and follow the instructions in the motherboard manual to short the pins. Once the jumper is removed or reset, the boot password should be removed, and you should be able to boot the system. 14 35. John is a new IT support specialist at a large company. A co-worker has asked him to install a printer on their work computer. What is the next step John should take after installing the printer to make sure it is functioning properly? A) Print a test page. B) Enable duplex settings C) Set up the printer as the default printer. D) Verify that the printer prints by using a web browser. E) Restart the computer. Print a test page. Printing a test page ensures that the printer is properly installed, the drivers are installed correctly, and the printer is able to communicate with the computer. If there are any issues, such as missing drivers or connectivity problems, the test page will help to identify them. Once the test page has been printed successfully, John can assist the co-worker with setting the printer as the default printer if needed. 36. Bob has just purchased a new cable modem and a SOHO router for his home office. He needs to connect the cable modem to the SOHO router to set up his network. Which cable type should Bob use to connect the cable modem to the SOHO router? A) Ethernet B) Coaxial C) Thunderbolt D) USB Ethernet Ethernet is the standard cable type used for local area networks (LANs) and is the most common type of cable used for connecting a modem to a router. It provides high-speed connectivity and is widely available on most routers and cable modems. Thunderbolt and USB cables are not typically used for connecting modems to routers, and coaxial cables are typically used for cable TV connections rather than for connecting modems to routers. 37. You are working on an important project on your laptop, and suddenly you notice that the video on your laptop is not working. What should you do to troubleshoot it? A) Remove the display unit and reattach it. B) Power the system off and back on. C) Toggle the video function key. D) Replace the inverter. Toggle the video function key. A helpful thing to try is toggling the video output function key (usually something like Fn+F8). The other options are not necessary yet. 15 38. You are setting up a wireless network for a small business office. You need to choose the appropriate channel for the wireless network. Which channel should you select for the 802.11 wireless network in the small business office? A) 6 B) 24 C) 13 D) 10 6 Channel 6 is one of the three non-overlapping channels recommended for use in the 2.4GHz frequency band for 802.11 wireless networks. Channels 10 and 24 are also valid channels, but they may cause interference with other nearby networks. Channel 13 may not be available in some countries or regions. 39. Which of the following standards supports MIMO technology? A) 802.11b B) 802.11g C) 802.11a D) 802.11n 802.11n The 802.11n standard is a wireless networking standard that supports MIMO technology, which allows for multiple streams of data to be transmitted simultaneously. This enables faster wireless speeds and better signal strength in areas with interference. The 802.11a, 802.11b, and 802.11g standards do not support MIMO technology. 40. You are upgrading the graphics card in a gaming desktop computer. You need to determine the appropriate type of expansion slot to use for a high-performance graphics card. What type of expansion slot should you use for the new graphics card in the gaming desktop computer? A) ISA B) PCI C) PCIe D) AGP PCIe The appropriate type of expansion slot to use for a high-performance graphics card in a gaming desktop computer is PCIe (Peripheral Component Interconnect Express). AGP (Accelerated Graphics Port) and PCI (Peripheral Component Interconnect) are older types of expansion slots that are not commonly used for high-performance graphics cards today. ISA (Industry Standard Architecture) is an even older type of expansion slot that is no longer used in modern computers. 41. You've decided to upgrade the storage capacity of your desktop computer by installing a new hard drive. As you gather the necessary components and tools, you begin to wonder about the major 16 components of a hard disk drive system. Which of the following is not one of the three major components of a hard disk drive system? A) Disk controller B) Drive interface C) Hard disk D) Host adapter Host adapter is not one of the three major components of a hard disk drive system. The three major components of a hard disk drive system are: Hard disk - The physical storage device that stores and retrieves digital information. Drive interface - The connection between the hard disk and the rest of the computer system. Disk controller - The component that manages the reading and writing of data to and from the hard disk. A host adapter, also known as a host bus adapter, is a hardware component that connects a computer system to a storage device, such as a hard disk, but it is not considered one of the three major components of a hard disk drive system. 42. You are a technician working for a small IT services company, and a client has reported that their Windows CAD workstation is running slowly. The client reports that the same application runs faster on an identical workstation. You review the client's hardware configuration and find that the workstation uses RAID 10 and has dual GPU cards. Which of the following should you perform FIRST to troubleshoot the problem? A) Replace the RAID controller write cache module. B) Clear the RAID configuration file and restart the PC C) Check the event log for any cache issues. D) Replace the write cache battery Check the event log for any cache issues. By checking the event log, the technician can identify any potential software or system issues that may be contributing to the slow performance of the CAD workstation. The event log may reveal if there are any cache issues that may be causing the slow performance. Once the technician has identified any software or system issues that may be contributing to the slow performance, they can take further steps to address the problem, such as updating drivers, running virus scans, or performing hardware replacements or reconfigurations as necessary. 43. As an IT technician, you have been tasked with running new network cables through the drop ceilings of an office building. You need to select the appropriate type of cable that will be used in these spaces. Which of the following types of cables is the most appropriate choice for running through drop ceilings? A) PVC B) Direct burial C) Plenum D) Category 5e 17 Plenum Plenum cables are specifically designed to be used in air handling spaces, such as drop ceilings, where there is a high risk of fire. The plenum-rated cables are made from flame-resistant materials that are able to prevent the spread of fire and smoke. It is a code requirement to use plenum-rated cables when running cables through plenum spaces. PVC cables are not appropriate for drop ceilings or plenum spaces because they are not fire-resistant and could release toxic gases when burned. Category 5e cables are a type of twisted pair cable used for Ethernet networks, but the type of cable used for running through drop ceilings should be plenum- rated. Direct burial cables are used outdoors, where they are buried underground, and are not appropriate for indoor use or for use in drop ceilings. 44. The eSATA connector features a distinct L-shape (right-angled or left-angled) that prevents improper insertion of the connector plug into eSATA port. A) True B) False True The eSATA connector features a distinct L-shape that prevents improper insertion of the connector plug into the eSATA port. The L-shaped design ensures that the connector is inserted correctly, which helps to prevent damage to the connector and the port. The L-shape can be either right-angled or left-angled, depending on the manufacturer and the specific product design. 45. As an IT professional, you are responsible for managing email services for a company that has been experiencing an increasing number of spam messages in their email system. You have decided to implement a spam filter to reduce the number of unwanted messages. Which of the following protocol and port number combinations are commonly used by spam filters? (Select 2 answers) A) FTP B) 21 C) SMTP D) TELNET E) 443 F) 25 G) 80 H) HTTPS SMTP 25 The two answers that refer to the protocol and port number used by spam filter are: SMTP and 25. SMTP (Simple Mail Transfer Protocol) is the standard protocol used for email transmissions over the internet. Port 25 is the default port used for SMTP. HTTPS (Hypertext Transfer Protocol Secure) is the protocol used for secure web communications, typically using port 443. Telnet is a network protocol used for remote access to computer systems, typically using port 23. 18 46. As an IT consultant, you have been hired by a small business owner to provide a solution for their employees to securely use their laptops in the office environment. The business owner wants the employees to be able to charge their devices, access corporate LAN resources, and use a variety of removable hardware. Which of the following devices would BEST meet the owner's needs? A) Thunderbolt B) Port replicator C) Docking station D) POE Docking station A docking station provides a way for laptop users to connect their devices to the corporate LAN, while also providing security to the laptops. Docking stations allow for a variety of removable hardware to be connected, including additional monitors, external hard drives, and other peripherals. Docking stations also typically include a charging port for the laptop, making it easy to keep the laptop charged while it is in use. 47. As an IT technician, you have been tasked with setting up a server for a client who wants to ensure that their server does not lose power if their power supply fails. The client runs a critical application that cannot afford any downtime due to power outages. Which of the following best describes the type of power supply needed in this situation? A) A redundant power supply B) A power supply that provides twice as much wattage than what is needed C) A modular power supply D) A power supply that provides a voltage output selector A redundant power supply Redundant power supplies are designed to provide backup power in the event that the primary power supply fails. They typically consist of two power supplies that work together to power the server, with one power supply acting as a backup in case the other one fails. This ensures that the server remains operational even if one of the power supplies fails. A power supply that provides twice as much wattage as what is needed to power system components may be helpful for handling power spikes or surges, but it would not provide backup power in the event of a power supply failure. A power supply that provides a voltage output selector would allow the user to adjust the voltage output of the power supply, but it would not provide backup power in the event of a power supply failure. 48. Which of the following IP addresses can be routed across the Internet? A) 127.0.0.1 B) 192.168.1.2 C) 10.42.40.14 D) 129.52.50.15 19 129.52.50.15 The IP address that can be routed across the Internet is 129.52.50.15 The IP address A. 127.0.0.1 is a loopback address that is used to test network communication between the local machine and itself. It is not routable across the Internet. The IP address 192.168.1.2 is a private IP address that is used on local networks and is not routable across the Internet. The IP address 10.42.40.14 is also a private IP address that is used on local networks and is not routable across the Internet. Only public IP addresses can be routed across the Internet. 49. You're setting up a website for your business that involves sensitive information like user credentials and payment details. You want to ensure that the traffic to and from your website is secure and encrypted. What is the name of a network protocol that secures web traffic via SSL/TLS encryption? A) SNMP B) HTTPS C) HTTP D) FTPS HTTPS HTTPS (Hypertext Transfer Protocol Secure) is a network protocol that encrypts and secures web traffic. It uses SSL/TLS encryption to protect sensitive information such as user credentials, payment details, and other data transmitted between a website and its users. When a user accesses an HTTPS website, their browser establishes a secure connection with the website's server, which ensures that any data transmitted between the two is encrypted and protected from unauthorized access. 50. You are replacing a broken screen on a new company laptop, but you do not have repair information from the vendor. Which of the following is the best way to proceed? A) Update the firmware on the device before repairing it. B) Wait for the vendor to provide more information. C) Document and label the cable and screw locations. D) Replace the screen with a non-OEM. Document and label the cable and screw locations. Documenting and labeling the cable and screw locations, is the best way to proceed in this situation. This will help the technician keep track of which cables and screws go where, which is important for reassembly. By documenting the locations, the technician can avoid mistakes and ensure that the new screen is installed correctly. Replacing the screen with a non-OEM (Original Equipment Manufacturer) part, is not recommended. Non-OEM parts may not be compatible with the laptop, which can cause further damage or even render the laptop unusable. Additionally, using non-OEM parts may void the manufacturer's warranty. 20 51. A technician was called in to look at a user's PC. The user reported the PC was very sluggish. The HDD light on the PC was constantly on without blinking. The PC itself was slow receiving input and took a very long time to load the OS. The technician also noticed updates had failed. Which of the following is MOST likely the cause of these issues? A) A RAID disk failed. B) The HDD cables need reseating. C) The HDD has no free space. D) The hard disk drivers have been corrupted. The HDD has no free space. One of the possible reasons for the sluggish performance of the PC could be a lack of free space on the hard disk drive (HDD). When the hard disk is filled to capacity, the operating system and applications are forced to compete for limited space, slowing down performance. The constant light on the HDD and slow input/output performance are signs that the disk is running close to its maximum capacity. The failed updates may also be a result of a lack of disk space as Windows updates require a certain amount of free space to be installed. 52. You are configuring two email servers on your company’s network. Which network protocol do the servers use to transfer mail to each other? A) POP3 B) SMTP C) IMAP4 D) SNMP SMTP Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) is used to transfer email between servers. POP3 and IMAP4 are used to download email. SNMP is Simple Network Management Protocol and not related to email. 53. Your client has asked you to add a second 4K display to a PC. The PC currently connects to the first 4K display with DisplayPort (DP). The new 4K display has DP-in, DP-out, and HDMI ports. The PC has a single DisplayPort and two HDMI ports. The cable run between the PC and the existing display is 50 feet, and the new display will be located directly beside the existing display. The second display is already paid for, but you need to select the connection type. The budget for the connection is £40. Which of the following is the BEST recommendation for making this work? A) Buy a 60-foot 4K HDMI cable to allow sufficient slack B) Daisy-chain the second 4K display to the first 4K display with HDMI. C) Inform the client that you need to purchase a second graphics card and cable. D) Daisy-chain the second 4K display to the first 4K display with DP or mDP cables Daisy-chain the second 4K display to the first 4K display with DP or mDP cables 21 54. Your company has had a cable failure on an existing 100BaseT (Fast Ethernet) network segment. Plans are to upgrade this segment to Gigabit Ethernet in the next 12 months. Keeping both current and future needs in mind, which of the following is the BEST solution? A) Replace the current cable with a CAT5 cable now and run CAT5e alongside it for future use. B) Replace the current cable with a CAT6 cable. C) Replace the current cable with an RG6QS cable. D) Replace the current cable with a CAT5e cable. Replace the current cable with a CAT6 cable. 55. Which of the following answers refers to a proprietary line of low-power consumption small form factor motherboard types for industrial and embedded PC applications? A) LPX B) NLX C) ITX D) ATX ITX 56. A common connector type providing power to graphics cards, CPUs, older type of storage media, or cooling fans on the PC motherboard is generally referred to as: A) ATX12V connector B) P4 connector C) Molex connector D) PS/2 connector Molex connector Description text 57. Which of the following dedicated expansion slots/ports on the PC motherboard enable(s) connecting an M.2 device? (Select all that apply) A) USB slot B) B key slot C) B+M key slot D) PCIe slot E) M key slot F) SATA port 22 B key slot M key slot B+M key slot 58. A user entered a help desk ticket stating the latest calendar updates have not appeared on the user's corporate mobile device for several days, even though updates do appear on the user's laptop. Which of the following actions will MOST likely enable calendar alerts? A) Remotely wiping the mobile device and reinstalling all applications B) Ensuring the corporate password is saved correctly in the calendar application C) Installing a third-party calendar application and synchronizing it with the corporate calendar D) Checking that the ringer volume on the device is high enough to be audible Ensuring the corporate password is saved correctly in the calendar application For the most part when one does not get corporate email alerts on their CRU phones or company appointed phones, there is something wrong with a password for said applications they are trying to utilize. Can also happen if they updated the password on the corporate server via VPN but it does not translate on to the CRU or corporate device and tends to need to be updated or reinput with the new password on that end. Most corporate policies tend to like their information hidden from public eye so installing and synchronizing with a third party application wouldn't be the smartest thing to do. 59. A technical lead wants to migrate all common business applications, including email and fileshares, to the cloud. Which of the following cloud concepts should be used? A) SaaS B) IaaS C) PaaS D) MaaS SaaS (Software as a Service) would be the appropriate cloud concept for migrating common business applications, including email and fileshares, to the cloud. SaaS provides a complete software application that is deployed over the internet and accessed through a web browser, allowing users to easily access and use the application without needing to install or manage any hardware or software on their own devices. 60. A new version of Windows was released and a piece of software vital to the engineering department will not run on the new version. Which of the following is the BEST option to enable this department to be able to continue using this software? A) Do not upgrade any workstations within the organization. B) Purchase new workstations for the engineering department. C) Upgrade all workstations except those used by the engineering department. D) Upgrade all workstations and provide a virtual environment for the legacy software. Upgrade all workstations and provide a virtual environment for the legacy software. 23 61. A technician has built a custom workstation for an end user. The end user reports that the workstation ran for a few minutes and then crashed. When the user subsequently boots the workstation, it crashes much more quickly. Which of the following did the technician forget to do when building the workstation? A) Overclock the CPU. B) Connect the case fans. C) Configure integrated GPU. D) Apply thermal paste. Connect the case fans. Based on the symptoms described, it seems likely that the issue is related to the system overheating, which can cause instability and crashes. 62. A technician sets up a new printer on the network, allowing it to obtain an IP address. The technician records the IP address and sets up users to print using the information. The following Monday after powering on the printer, users report they can no longer print. After verifying users can access other network shares, the technician prints a configuration page and sees the IP address has changed. Which of the following is the BEST method for the technician to ensure this will not happen again? A) Set up the users to print using the newly assigned IP address. B) Statically assign the current IP address to the printer. C) Set up MAC filtering on the switch to ensure the printer gets the same IP. D) Create an IP reservation for the printer on the DHCP server. Create an IP reservation for the printer on the DHCP server. The issue described in the question occurs because the printer's IP address was dynamically assigned by the DHCP server, which may change over time. This means that the printer may have been assigned a different IP address when it was powered on again on Monday, causing the print jobs to fail. To prevent this issue from happening again, the technician needs to ensure that the printer always has a consistent IP address. There are several ways to achieve this, but the best method is to create an IP reservation for the printer on the DHCP server. This option is available in answer C. An IP reservation is a DHCP configuration option that assigns a specific IP address to a device based on its MAC address. This ensures that the printer will always receive the same IP address when it connects to the network, even if it is powered off and on again. The MAC address is unique to the printer, so this method provides a reliable way to ensure that the correct IP address is assigned. 63. A customer has the LCD display in a laptop replaced. After the repair, the customer notices the laptop is showing a weaker WiFi signal than before the display was replaced. Which of the following BEST explains the lower WiFi signal? A) The antenna is too close to the screen`s power inverter. B) The radio antennas are damaged. C) The digitizer is calibrated improperly. 24  D) The new LCD panel is causing interference. The new LCD panel is causing interference. The BEST explanation for the weaker WiFi signal after replacing the LCD display in a laptop is option A, "The antenna is too close to the screen's power inverter." LCD displays in laptops usually have an antenna built into the display panel, which is responsible for the wireless connectivity of the device. The antenna is typically located near the top of the display panel, and in some laptops, it is routed around the edge of the display. When the LCD display is replaced, it is possible that the new display has a different design that could interfere with the antenna. 64. A user brings a Windows laptop into the office and connects it to a wireless network. Upon connecting to the network, the user is prompted to select whether the network is a home, work, or public network. The user selects the work profile and is able to access the Internet but cannot access office network resources. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of the problem? A) The user is connected to the wrong wireless network. B) The user put in the wrong credentials. C) The user`s firewall is blocking access to the resources. D) The user`s network card is malfunctioning. The user is connected to the wrong wireless network. What happens when you connect to a new network? It prompts you to select whether is is home, work, etc. User connected to the wrong network and was able to access Internet but not network resources because user is not connected to the correct network. 65. Which of the following is the type of address a DHCP server assigns on a network? A) Dynamic B) Static C) MAC D) Default E) APIPA Dynamic DHCP (Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol) is a network protocol that allows a server to automatically assign an IP address and other network configuration settings to a device connected to the network. A dynamic IP address is one that is assigned by the DHCP server and can change each time the device connects to the network. Dynamic IP addresses are the most common type of IP address used on local area networks (LANs) and are preferred over static IP addresses because they allow for more efficient use of IP addresses on the network. 66. For which type of PC component are 80 mm and 120 mm common sizes? A) Case fans B) Memory modules 25  C) CPUs D) Heat sinks Case fans Case fans are measured in mm (millimeters); 80 mm and especially 120 mm are very common. They are used to exhaust heat out of the case. These fans aid in keeping the CPU and other devices cool. The 120 mm is quite common in desktop and tower PCs, and the 80 mm is more common in smaller systems and 1U and 2U rackmount servers. 67. An exclamation point next to a device in the Device Manager indicates which of the following? A) The driver is not digitally signed. B) A driver is not properly installed for this device. C) The device is disabled. D) The device driver needs to be upgraded. A driver is not properly installed for this device. If you see an exclamation point in the Device Manager, this indicates that the device does not have a proper driver. 68. Beep codes are generated by which of the following? A) POST B) RTC C) CMOS D) Windows POST As the power-on self-test (POST) checks all the components of the computer, it may present its findings on the screen or in the form of beep codes. 69. You just turned off a printer to maintain it. Which of the following should you be careful of when removing the fuser? A) The fuser being wet B) The fuser releasing toner C) The fuser being fragile D) The fuser being hot The fuser being hot The fuser heats paper to around 400° Fahrenheit (204° Celsius). That’s like an oven. If you need to replace the fuser, let the printer sit for 10 or 15 minutes after shutting it down and before maintenance. 26 70. Which of the following connectors is used for musical equipment? A) DisplayPort B) DVI C) VGA D) MIDI MIDI The Musical Instrument Digital Interface (MIDI) connector is used for musical equipment such as keyboards, synthesizers, and sequencers. MIDI is used to create a clocking signal that all devices can synchronize to. 71. Moving your CPU’s speed beyond its normal operating range is called _____________. A) Overclocking B) Overspeeding C) Overpowering D) Overdriving Overclocking Overclocking is the act of increasing your CPU’s operating speed beyond its normal rated speed. 72. You are considering a cloud-based service for file storage and synchronization. Which of the following resources is the most critical to your design? A) RAM utilization B) Disk speed C) CPU utilization D) I/O bandwidth I/O bandwidth I/O bandwidth is the most critical of the listed resources in the question. When you are considering file storage and file synchronization, you need to know the maximum input/output operations per second (IOPS) that the cloud provider can deliver. (Get actual reports of previous customers as proof!) IOPS gives you a concrete measurement of data that you can use for analysis. 73. Which of the following statements describes why the display on a laptop gets dimmer when the power supply from the AC outlet is disconnected? A) The laptop cannot use full brightness when on battery power. B) To operate properly, laptop displays require an alternating current power source. C) Power management settings on the laptop are configured for power-saving. D) Security settings on the laptop are configured to dim the display. Power management settings on the laptop are configured for power-saving. 27 The power management settings on the laptop can cause the display to automatically dim when the AC adapter is unplugged. In fact, this is the default on many laptops to conserve battery power. These settings can be configured within Power Options in Windows. 74. Which of the following storage technologies is used by hard disk drives? A) Solid state B) Impact C) Magnetic D) Optical Magnetic Hard disk drives (HDDs) are magnetic disks. These are the type with moving parts, as opposed to solid- state drives (SSDs) that have no moving parts. 75. Which of the following printer technologies should be used to print payroll checks on paper forms that have a carbon backing? A) Impact B) Laser C) Thermal D) Inkjet Impact The impact printer technology is what you want. This strikes the ribbon and consequently the paper with a printhead. The physical hammering action causes the carbon backing to apply text to the next layer of paper. Multipart forms such as these are commonly used for receipts. 76. How many pins would you see in a high-quality printhead on a dot-matrix printer? A) 20 B) 8 C) 15 D) 24 24 High-quality dot-matrix printheads can come in 9, 18, or 24 pins, with 24 being the highest quality. 77. Setting an administrator password in the BIOS accomplishes which of the following? A) Prevents a user from reading email B) Prevents a virus from infecting the MBR C) Prevents an attacker from opening the case D) Prevents a user from rearranging the boot order 28 Prevents a user from rearranging the boot order The idea behind this is to stop a person from attempting to boot off an optical disc or USB flash drive. As an administrator, you should change the BIOS boot order to hard drive first. Then apply an administrative password. 78. Which of the following connectors can have audio and video pass through it? A) VGA B) RGB C) HDMI D) DVI HDMI High-Definition Multimedia Interface (HDMI), as the word multimedia implies, can transmit video and audio signals. 79. You just upgraded the CPU. Which of the following issues can make your computer shut down automatically after a few minutes? (Select the best answer.) A) Incorrect CPU has been installed. B) Wrong voltage to the CPU. C) The CPU has overheated. D) Wrong CPU driver. The CPU has overheated. The CPU could overheat if thermal compound has not been applied correctly (which is common) or if it is not seated properly (which is rare). 80. Which of the following devices limits network broadcasts, segments IP address ranges, and interconnects different physical media? A) Switch B) Router C) Firewall D) WAP Router A router can limit network broadcasts through segmenting and programmed routing of data. This is part of a router’s job when connecting two or more networks. It is also used with different media. For example, you might have a LAN that uses twisted-pair cable, but the router connects to the Internet via a fiber-optic connection. That one router will have ports for both types of connections. 29 81. You want to upgrade memory in your computer. Which of the following is user-replaceable memory in a PC? A) DRAM B) SRAM C) BIOS D) ROM E) CMOS DRAM Dynamic random-access memory (DRAM) is a module (or stick) of memory that you can install into a motherboard. SDRAM, DDR, DDR2, DDR3, DDR4 and DDR5 are all examples of DRAM. 82. Which of the following statements is correct concerning IPv6 addresses? A) They are supported by all routers. B) They cannot be used with IPv4. C) They represent addressing using 128 bits. D) They require fiber-optic connections. They represent addressing using 128 bits. The only statement that is correct concerning IPv6 is that it uses 128-bit addressing. This is compared to IPv4, which uses 32-bit addresses. 83. Which of the following traits and port numbers are associated with POP3? (Select the two best answers.) A) Receives inbound email on port 995 B) Sends outbound email on port 25 C) Receives inbound email on port 25 D) Sends outbound email on port 587 E) Sends outbound email on port 110 F) Receives inbound email on port 110 Receives inbound email on port 110 Receives inbound email on port 995 POP3 is a protocol used by email clients to receive email. It makes use of either port 110 (considered insecure) or port 995 (a default secure port). 84. Which type of cable should be used to connect a laptop directly to a PC? A) Cat 5e crossover cable 30  B) Cat 6 patch cable C) Rolled cable D) Parallel cable Cat 5e crossover cable To connect one computer to another directly by way of network adapter cards, use a crossover cable. (The category such as 5e or 6 doesn’t matter.) That cable is designed to connect like devices. It is wired as T568B on one end and T568A on the other. Those standards are ratified by the Telecommunications Industry Association/Electronic Industries Alliance (TIA/EIA). 85. To perform a network installation of Windows, which of the following must be supported by the computer’s network interface card? A) PnP B) PCIe C) PCL D) PXE PXE Network installations require that the network card be configured for Preboot eXecution Environment (PXE). This allows the network card to boot off the network, locate a network installation server, and request that the installation begin. This configuration might be done in the UEFI/BIOS of the computer (if the network adapter is integrated to the motherboard), within a special program in Windows, or in one that boots from disc or other removable media (if the network adapter is an adapter card). 86. Which of the following can send data the farthest? A) Coaxial B) STP C) Multi-mode fiber D) Single-mode fiber Single-mode fiber Single-mode fiber-optic cable can send data farther than any of the other answers—up to hundreds of kilometers. 87. If your “bandwidth” is 1000 Mbps, how many bits are you sending/receiving? (Select the two best answers.) A) 1 gigabit per second B) 100,000,000 bits per minute C) 1000 bits per second D) 1,000,000,000 bits per second 31 1,000,000,000 bits per second 1 gigabit per second 1000 Mbps is 1000 megabits per second, otherwise notated as 1,000,000,000 bits per second, or 1 gigabit per second. 88. Your organization relies heavily on its server farm for resources and is less reliant on the client computers. Which type of client computer is most likely used by the organization? A) Thick client B) Client/server C) Virtualization workstation D) Thin client Thin client In this scenario, the organization probably has thin client computers for its users. These computers have operating systems that are embedded in flash memory, and the rest of the information they require comes from a server. Thin clients normally have no hard drive; this is why they are referred to as diskless workstations. 89. Which of the following statements describe the respective functions of the two corona wires in a laser printer? (Select the two best answers.) A) Cleans the drum B) Fuses the toner to the paper C) Transfers toner from the drum to the paper D) Conditions the drum to be written to Conditions the drum to be written to Transfers toner from the drum to the paper Know the main steps of the laser printer imaging process: processing, charging, exposing, developing, transferring, fusing, and cleaning. In the charging step, the drum is conditioned/charged by the primary corona wire (negatively charging it) and is prepared for writing. In the transferring step, the paper is positively charged by the transfer corona wire, preparing it to accept the toner from the drum. 90. A customer reports that when his computer is turned on, the screen is blank except for some text and a flashing cursor. He also tells you that there are numbers counting upward when the computer beeps and then freezes. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this problem? A) The computer is attempting to boot off the network. B) The computer has faulty memory. C) There is a corrupt MBR. D) The OS is corrupted. 32 91. A technician is receiving reports that the entire office sporadically loses network connectivity throughout the day. The technician determines the root cause to be EMI. Which of the following cable mediums would be the MOST cost effective without sacrificing system performance? A) Fiber B) Plenum C) Shielded D) Coaxial Shielded STP (shielded twisted pair) is the only cable listed here that can reduce electro magnetic interference. However, fiber optic cable is another good solution, though it is more expensive and more difficult to install. 92. You have just installed a new NIC for a user, and they inquire about its functionality. Which of the following options best describes the primary purpose of this device? A) Power management B) Multimedia C) Input/output D) Communication E) Storage Communication A NIC (Network Interface Card) is a hardware component that enables a computer to connect to a network. It allows the computer to send and receive data over a network, facilitating communication between devices. The primary function of a NIC is to provide network connectivity and support various network protocols, such as Ethernet or Wi-Fi, depending on the type of NIC installed. 93. An organization is looking to upgrade the processing ability for its computers. Most users report that whenever multiple applications are being utilized, the system's response time slows down drastically. When only one application is open, the response time is acceptable. Which of the following should be upgraded FIRST? A) HDD B) SSD C) RAM D) CPU E) EC RAM When multiple applications are being utilized simultaneously, each application requires a certain amount of RAM to function efficiently. If the available RAM is insufficient to handle the workload, the 33 system may start using virtual memory (hard disk space) as a substitute, which significantly slows down the response time. 94. Which of the following describes metered utilization of cloud computing resources? A) Resources provisioned instantly B) Payments made only for resources that are used C) Resources pooled to increase computing power D) Integrating rapid elasticity Payments made only for resources that are used Metered utilization of cloud resources refers to the practice of charging users only for the actual resources they consume or utilize in the cloud environment. In this model, the cloud service provider measures the usage of resources, such as virtual machines, storage, bandwidth, or processing power, and bills the user accordingly. Users are billed based on the amount of resources they utilize, rather than a fixed or pre-allocated amount. 95. The technician hears a repetitive ticking noise coming from a PC that occasionally fails to boot. The PC's performance is degrading after a reboot. In this situation, which of the following steps should the technician take as the FIRST action? A) Reseat the RAM modules. B) Attempt to extract data. C) Check the CD tray. D) Inspect the fan. Attempt to extract data. Clicking would indicate a hard drive failure, so extracting and backing up the data should be top priority. 96. You are choosing an optical drive format for a client. Which optical disc format supports a data capacity of 25 GB? A) Double-sided, double-layer DVD+R B) Double-sided, single-layer DVD-R C) Double-sided, single-layer DVD+R D) Single-sided, single-layer Blu-ray Disc Single-sided, single-layer Blu-ray Disc Blu-ray Discs are capable of storing large amounts of data compared to other optical disc formats. A single-sided, single-layer Blu-ray Disc has a data capacity of approximately 25 GB. 34 97. A user on a SOHO network is unable to watch online videos, even at 240 pixels. The technician runs ipconfig from the user's computer and records the following: Connection-specific DNS Suffix.: lan Link-local IPV6 Address.........: fe80::1585:7fb2:b05f:7102%13 IPv4 Address....................: 192.168.1.131 Subnet Mask.....................: 255.255.255.0 Default Gateway.................: 192.168.1.0 The technician then connects a test laptop to the router via the user's Cat 5 cable and records the following information: Download: 95 mbps - Upload: 33 mbps - Ping: 28 ms - Which of the following is MOST likely causing the user's issue? A) Misconfigured default gateway B) Incorrect IP address C) Faulty network cable D) Faulty NIC Faulty NIC The technician did the laptop test with "user's CAT5 cable". The user's computer is experiencing difficulties watching online videos, even at a low resolution, despite having a valid IP address and a properly configured default gateway. Additionally, when the technician connects a test laptop to the router using the same network cable, the laptop achieves satisfactory download and upload speeds with low ping times 98. A colleague approaches you with a laptop that has been working fine for several years. However, recently they have noticed a small bulge in the bottom casing, and the laptop occasionally overheats while plugged into a wall outlet. In this scenario, which of the following components is MOST likely in need of replacement? A) Power adapter. B) Hard drive. C) Battery. D) CPU E) System fan. Battery. The small bulge in the bottom casing and occasional overheating while plugged in to a wall outlet strongly suggest that the laptop's battery may be the cause of the issue. Over time, laptop batteries can degrade, and in some cases, they may develop bulges or swell due to internal chemical reactions. The bulging battery can put pressure on the bottom casing, causing it to deform. Additionally, an overheating laptop could indicate that the battery is not functioning correctly, leading to excessive heat generation. 35 99. A client who runs a photography business recently purchased a new digital camera. They need to know which storage device is specifically designed for internal use in cameras. In this scenario, which of the following options would be the most suitable for their needs? A) Optical discs B) Flash drives C) Memory cards D) mSATA Memory cards Memory cards are specifically designed as internal storage devices for cameras. They provide a compact and removable storage solution for capturing and storing photos and videos. Memory cards come in various formats such as SD (Secure Digital), microSD, CompactFlash, and others, which are commonly used in digital cameras to save and transfer data. They offer a convenient and reliable method for expanding the storage capacity of cameras and are widely used by photographers in their photography businesses. 100. Which of the following would an administrator use to migrate virtual machines from on premises to the cloud? A) SaaS B) IaaS C) DaaS D) PaaS IaaS IaaS allows organizations to provision virtualized computing resources such as virtual machines, storage, and networking infrastructure in the cloud. With IaaS, administrators can replicate, transfer, or create new virtual machines in the cloud environment, facilitating the migration of their existing on-premises virtual machines. 101. A small office has a wireless network with several access points for roaming laptop use. Users occasionally report that the wireless connection drops or becomes very slow. Users have confirmed that this issue only happens when connected to the office wireless network. Which of the following would MOST likely be the cause? A) Ethernet port flapping B) Device interference C) Hidden SSID D) High ISP latency Device interference The cause of the slow or dropped wireless connection in the small office is likely due to device interference. Interference can come from other wireless devices operating on the same or nearby frequencies, such as microwaves, cordless phones, or other Wi-Fi networks. This can cause degradation of the wireless signal and result in slow or dropped connections. 36 102. You are attaching an external hard drive to a computer with USB 2.0 ports. The user is concerned about data transfer speed. What is the maximum speed of USB 2.0? A) 40 Gbps B) 10 Gbps C) 480 Mbps D) 20 Gbps E) 5 Gbps 480 Mbps USB 2.0, also known as Hi-Speed USB, offers a maximum data transfer rate of 480 Mbps. While this speed was considered fast at the time of its introduction, it has been surpassed by subsequent USB generations such as USB 3.0, USB 3.1, and USB 3.2, which provide higher speeds. 103. In a business environment, an organization is considering different cloud models for their IT infrastructure. They are specifically concerned about maintaining access to their critical systems and applications even in the event of a local internet outage. In this scenario, which of the following cloud models would be the most suitable for their requirement? A) Public cloud B) SaaS C) Community cloud D) Private cloud Private cloud In a private cloud model, the cloud infrastructure is dedicated to a single organization, providing exclusive use and control over the resources. Unlike public cloud models, private clouds are typically hosted within the organization's own data centers or on a private network. 104. A laptop has been returned for a screen repair. The owner insists the screen is broken, but occasionally a faded image is able to be seen in very bright settings on the desktop. Which of the following steps should the repair technician take FIRST? A) Update the graphics driver software. B) Ensure the backlight is functioning as expected. C) Replace the screen, as the customer insists. D) Connect an external monitor to the laptop. Ensure the backlight is functioning as expected. The backlight is responsible for illuminating the screen, allowing the images to be visible. If the backlight is faulty or not functioning properly, it can result in a dim or completely dark screen. 105. A laptop PC user is encountering recurring problems with their hard drive. Despite performing a filesystem check that confirms the accessibility of all files and a clean filesystem, the user is still receiving 37 a persistent hard drive error message. In this context, what is the MOST probable reason behind the error message? A) RAID failure B) DIMM failure C) S.M.A.R.T failure S.M.A.R.T failure Even though the filesystem check shows that all files are accessible and the filesystem is clean, the fact that the PC still issues a hard drive error message indicates a potential issue with the hard drive itself. S.M.A.R.T (Self-Monitoring, Analysis, and Reporting Technology) is a system built into hard drives that monitors various parameters, such as temperature, read/write errors, and reallocated sectors. If the S.M.A.R.T. data indicates a failure or potential failure of the hard drive, it can trigger an error message. 106. The company photographer is in the market for a new digital camera. He wants a camera that can be directly connected to his laptop for seamless picture transfer and editing. Based on this real scenario, which type of connector would most likely be found on his camera? A) Thunderbolt B) Mini-USB C) Lightning D) Molex Mini-USB Mini-USB connectors are commonly used in digital cameras for data transfer and connecting to computers. They provide a reliable and standardized connection for transferring images from the camera to a laptop or other devices. 107. A user's mobile phone gets really hot to the touch and does not retain a charge. The user also reports that the phone is very slow, especially while charging. Which of the following is MOST likely causing these symptoms? A) Software glitch B) Faulty charging cable C) Broken charging port D) CPU overheating E) Defective battery Defective battery A defective battery can result in poor charging efficiency, leading to overheating of the phone during charging. The reduced battery capacity may also cause the phone to drain quickly and struggle to retain a charge. Additionally, a failing battery can impact the overall performance of the phone, causing it to become slow and unresponsive. 38 108. Which of the following options would be the most suitable solution for a Microsoft Windows user who needs to adhere to corporate data protection policies when copying files to portable media before working in another country? A) A portable hard drive with FAT32 B) An xD memory card with ext3 C) An SD memory card with NTFS D) A USB 3.1 flash drive with BitLocker to Go installed A USB 3.1 flash drive with BitLocker to Go installed BitLocker is a built-in encryption feature provided by Microsoft Windows. It allows you to encrypt the data on your portable media, such as USB flash drives, ensuring that the files are protected from unauthorized access. By using BitLocker to Go on a USB 3.1 flash drive, you can encrypt the files and ensure that they remain secure even if the drive is lost or stolen. The computer has faulty memory. Chances are that the computer has faulty memory or a memory module that needs to be reseated properly. The flashing cursor on the screen tells you that the system is not posting properly. The numbers counting up are the system checking the RAM. If the system beeps and freezes during this count-up, the RAM has an issue. It could also be incompatible with the motherboard. 109. Which two of the following standards use the same connector? (Choose two.) A) Thunderbolt 3 B) USB 2 C) USB 4 D) eSATA E) Mini USB USB 4 Thunderbolt 3 USB4 is based on the Thunderbolt 3 specifications, and both natively use USB-C connector 110. What is the term used to describe a computer network that interconnects multiple LANs within a city area? A) TAN B) MAN C) PAN D) CAN MAN A Metropolitan Area Network (MAN) is the appropriate term for a computer network that interconnects multiple LANs within a city area. This is because a MAN typically covers a larger geographical area than a Local Area Network (LAN) but smaller than a Wide Area Network (WAN). It is designed to provide 39 connectivity and communication between various LANs or network segments within a specific metropolitan area or city. MANs are commonly used to connect offices, campuses, or other local networks within a city, providing efficient data transmission and resource sharing capabilities. 111. A type of network consisting of computers and peripheral devices that use high-frequency radio waves to communicate with each other is referred to as: A) WAN B) PAN C) LAN D) WLAN E) VLAN WLAN 112. In a corporate network setup, a company wants to ensure that broadcast traffic is contained within specific departments to enhance network performance and security. Which network device would be most suitable for separating broadcast domains in this scenario? A) Hub B) Wireless access point C) Router D) Switch Router Unlike the switch that increases broadcast domains and divides collison domains, The router divides out the broadcast domain. Which is the OSI Layer 2 funtion of the router. 113. A user with an iPhone 12 needs to charge her device and asks you to bring a cable. Which of the following connector types should you ensure that the cable has? A) USB C B) Lightning C) Thunderbolt D) Micro-USB Lightning The Lightning connector is the proprietary connector developed by Apple specifically for their iOS devices, including iPhones, iPads, and iPods. It is the standard charging and data transfer connector for Apple devices, including the iPhone 12 114. In an electrical installation project, you need to remove the insulation cover from electric wires. Which of the following tools would you use for this specific task? A) Multimeter 40  B) Tone probe C) Cable stripper D) Snips E) Crimper Cable stripper A cable stripper is a dedicated tool designed specifically for removing the insulation cover from electric wires. It typically has adjustable blades that can precisely cut and remove the insulation without damaging the underlying wire. 115. A user submits a help desk ticket regarding a smartphone that will no longer accept its charging cable. The assigned technician notices the phone does not have a protective case, and the user constantly transports the phone in a pocket. The technician attempts to use a secondary charger, but the cable falls out of the phone. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of the issue? A) The phone's battery has swelled, preventing the utilization of the charge port. B) The phone has experienced water damage, thus the battery is not charging. C) The charge port contains foreign objects, such as lint. D) The phone requires a firmware update to address charging issues. The charge port contains foreign objects, such as lint. The port is clogged up with debris and the connector cannot be fully inserted. 116. To track down users who have printed specific jobs containing hate speech, the most effective solution would be to utilize: A) Secured prints B) User authentication C) Badging D) Audit logs Audit logs Audit logs are comprehensive records that document various activities within a system or network. In the case of printing, audit logs maintain detailed information about print jobs, including the user who initiated the print, the date and time of printing, and potentially the content of the printed document. By examining the audit logs, administrators can identify the individuals responsible for printing unauthorized materials containing hate speech. 117. Which of the answers listed below refer to 1000BASE-T standard? (Select 2 answers) A) Twisted-pair copper cabling B) Coaxial cabling C) Transfer rates of up to 1000 Mbps D) Transfer rates of up to 10 Gbps E) Fiber-optic cabling 41 Twisted-pair copper cabling Transfer rates of up to 1000 Mbps 118. A network administrator was notified that laptop users are unable to access or ping any network resources on the corporate network. Which of the following should the network administrator check FIRST? A) AAAA B) ARP C) DNS D) AAA E) DHCP DHCP The first thing we ALWAYS check (besides "is it plugged in, is it turned on") when troubleshooting network connectivity is "does it have an IP address/did it get a DHCP lease?". The question does not say you're pinging by name, so DNS is NOT the first thing to check. Now, if we can ping by IP and NOT ping by name, then definitely we'd be checking DNS. 119. A type of tool used for verifying correct electrical connections of wires in a cable is known as: A) Multimeter B) Time Domain Reflectometer (TDR) C) Tone generator D) Cable tester Cable tester 120. The network administrator has set up security on office MFDs that requires users to authenticate before printing. Which of the following is a valid method for users to authenticate to the MFD? A) Type their username and password on the MFD’s touchscreen. B) Use SMB. C) Enable secured print. D) Use an authentication log. Type their username and password on the MFD’s touchscreen. Two ways for users to authenticate are to use user authentication (which requires typing in the username and password) or badging, which requires the MFD to have a badge-scanning feature. Secured print will save print jobs until they are ready to be released. SMB is a fileand print-sharing protocol used by MFDs to send scanned documents to a shared network folder. There are no printer authentication logs, but audit logs may be used to see who has used the MFD. 42 121. You have just installed a new printer, but it prints only garbled text. Which of the following is likely the problem? A) Worn rollers B) Incorrect printer drivers C) Unsupported printer D) Wrong paper size E) Wrong IP address F) Worn print head Incorrect printer drivers 122. While troubleshooting problems with a Network Interface Card (NIC), connector pins on the NIC's port can be tested with the use of: A) Cable stiper B) Crimper C) Cable tester D) Multimeter E) Loopback plug Loopback plug A loopback plug is a device that connects the transmit (TX) and receive (RX) pins of a network port, allowing the NIC to send and receive data to itself. This can help determine if the NIC's port and connector pins are functioning properly. 123. A technician identified an issue on a workstation, obtained details from the user, and made a backup of the system. Which of the following should the technician do NEXT? A) Establish a theory of probable cause, researching internally or externally as needed. B) Determine the next steps to resolve the issue and document it. C) Design a plan of action to resolve the issue and implement the solution. D) Document the findings, actions, and outcomes. Determine the next steps to resolve the issue and document it. 124. Which laser printer component permanently presses the toner into the paper? A) Transfer corona B) Paper transport assembly C) Printer controller circuitry D) Fuser assembly 43  Fuser assembly The fuser assembly presses and melts the toner into the paper 125. You need to put a connector on the end of an Ethernet crossover cable. The existing end has a white and green colored wire at pin 1. What color do you need to make pin 1 on the new end? A) White/green B) Green C) White/orange D) Orange White/orange A crossover cable will flip pins 1 and 3 on each end. Therefore, this end needs to have the white/orange wire as pin 1. The correct order for this cable should be white/orange, orange, white/green, blue, white/blue, green, white/brown, brown. 126. In a mixed environment where an organization has both macOS and Windows computers, there is a need to run a specific software application that is only available on Windows. What would be the most suitable solution to enable running the Windows software on macOS computers in this scenario? A) Cross-platform virtualization B) Operating system spoofing C) Remote software provisioning D) Indirect software implementation Cross-platform virtualization Cross-platform virtualization is the best solution for running Windows software on a computer running macOS. Cross-platform virtualization allows the user to create a virtual environment on their computer that mimics a different operating system, in this case Windows. The user can then install the Windows software within this virtual environment and run it just as they would on a computer running Windows. Operating system spoofing involves tricking the computer into thinking it is running a different operating system, which is not recommended as it can compromise the security and stability of the computer. Remote software provisioning involves accessing software on a remote computer and using it as if it were installed locally, which may not be feasible in this scenario if the software is only available on Windows. Indirect software implementation involves running the software through an intermediary such as a compatibility layer, which may not be possible for the specific software in question. 127. A field technician has been dispatched to a residential site where both internet connectivity and landline phone services are down. After examining the infrastructure, the technician determines that the issue is with the physical lines. Which of the following technologies is the site MOST likely using for their internet and phone services? A) Cable B) DSL C) Satellite 44  D) Fiber optic DSL DSL utilizes existing copper telephone lines (POTS lines) to provide internet connectivity. Since the field technician discovered that both the internet and POTS lines are not working, it suggests that the issue is specific to the DSL technology being used. DSL technology relies on the integrity of the copper telephone lines for both internet and telephone services. 128. An Ethernet network cable segment implemented with the use of twisted-pair copper cabling typically covers a maximum distance of: A) 55 meters B) 250 meters C) 100 meters D) 33 meters 100 meters An Ethernet network cable segment implemented with the use of twisted-pair copper cabling typically covers a maximum distance of 100 meters. 129. Which of the answers listed below refers to a cabling type suitable for installation under ground level without any additional protective covering? A) Coax B) Plenum C) DBC D) STP E) UTP DBC Direct Buried Cable is specifically designed for underground installations and is constructed with materials that can withstand environmental conditions without the need for additional protective covering. 130. What is the lowest grade of UTP that is rated for 100 Mbps transmission? A) CAT 6a B) CAT 5 C) CAT 5e D) CAT 6 CAT 5 Cat 5 was the first UTP standard ratified for 100 Mbps transmissions. Before that, Cat 3 was popular but only supported 10 Mbps. Cat 5e, Cat 6, and Cat 6a all support at least 1 Gbps and came after Cat 5. 45 131. An e-commerce company is experiencing a surge in online traffic due to a major sale event. To handle the increased demand and support the influx of customers, the company has recently added several new servers to their infrastructure. In this scenario, which of the following solutions should the company implement to ensure that the newly added servers are effectively utilized? A) Round-robin DNS B) Load balancer C) Virtualization D) Clustering Load balancer A load balancer can be deployed to distribute client requests across server nodes in a farm or pool. You can use a load balancer in any situation where you have multiple servers providing the same function. Examples include web servers, email servers, web conferencing servers, and streaming media servers. The load balancer is placed in front of the server network and distributes requests from the client network or Internet to the application servers. The service address is advertised to clients as a virtual server. This is used to provision high availability services that can scale from light to heavy loads. 132. A physical network device or software solution designed for managing the optimal distribution of workloads across multiple computing resources is known as: A) Proxy server B) Content filter C) Load balancer D) Domain controller Load balancer A load balancer is a physical network device or software solution specifically designed to manage the optimal distribution of workloads across multiple computing resources, such as servers or virtual mach