Combinepdf Biology Exam PDF

Started on Monday, 23 September 2024, 8:05 AM State Finished Completed on Monday, 23 September 2024, 8:51 AM Time taken 45 mins 41 secs Marks 35.00/50.00 Grade 70.00 out of 100.00 Question 1 The thoracic cavity is ________...

Started on Monday, 23 September 2024, 8:05 AM State Finished Completed on Monday, 23 September 2024, 8:51 AM Time taken 45 mins 41 secs Marks 35.00/50.00 Grade 70.00 out of 100.00 Question 1 The thoracic cavity is ___________ to the abdominopelvic cavity. Correct Mark 1.00 out Select one: of 1.00 a. deep b. distal c. anterior d. superior ✓ The correct answer is: superior Question 2 [H+] refers to: Correct Mark 1.00 out Select one: of 1.00 a. an isotope of hydrogen. b. heavy hydrogen. c. hydrogen bonding. d. hydrogen ion concentration. ✓ The correct answer is: hydrogen ion concentration. Question 3 Which of the following is true of Cl−? Incorrect Mark 0.00 out Select one: of 1.00 a. Is an electrolyte. × b. Is an anion. c. Increases pH. d. Decreases pH. The correct answer is: Is an anion. Question 4 Which of the following is correct about the following reaction: NaCl ↔ Na+ + Cl−? Correct Mark 1.00 out Select one: of 1.00 a. Neutralization b. Ionization ✓ c. Anabolic d. Irreversible The correct answer is: Ionization Question 5 The pH of urine: Incorrect Mark 0.00 out Select one: of 1.00 a. is always more alkaline than blood. b. is always acidic. × c. can be acidic or alkaline. d. is more acidic than stomach contents. The correct answer is: can be acidic or alkaline. Question 6 Which of the following is most descriptive of the function of an enzyme? Correct Mark 1.00 out Select one: of 1.00 a. Neutralization b. Ionization c. Catalyst ✓ d. pH The correct answer is: Catalyst Question 7 The heart pushes blood into the blood vessels as chemical energy is converted to which form of Correct energy? Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 Select one: a. Thermal b. Radiant c. Mechanical ✓ d. Nuclear The correct answer is: Mechanical Question 8 Fe2+ is formed when iron: Incorrect Mark 0.00 out Select one: of 1.00 a. gains 2 protons. × b. gains 2 electrons. c. loses 2 protons. d. loses 2 electrons. The correct answer is: loses 2 electrons. Question 9 A cation is a(n): Correct Mark 1.00 out Select one: of 1.00 a. positively charged ion. ✓ b. electrolyte. c. isotope. d. ion that has an atomic mass of 2. The correct answer is: positively charged ion. Question 10 What happens when HCl is added to a solution with a pH of 7.45? Incorrect Mark 0.00 out Select one: of 1.00 a. The pH will be higher than 7.45. b. The solution will become more alkaline. × c. The [H+] of the solution will increase. d. The pH will be higher than 8.0. The correct answer is: The [H+] of the solution will increase. Question 11 Which of the following best describes a solution in which water is the solvent? Correct Mark 1.00 out Select one: of 1.00 a. Colloidal suspension b. Aqueous solution ✓ c. Tincture d. Isotope The correct answer is: Aqueous solution Question 12 What kind of ion would have 8 protons in its nucleus and 9 electrons in its orbits? Incorrect Mark 0.00 out Select one: of 1.00 a. Cation b. Electrolyte × c. Acid d. Anion The correct answer is: Anion Question 13 Which group is correct? Incorrect Mark 0.00 out Select one: of 1.00 a. Subatomic particles located within the nucleus: protons, neutrons, electrons × b. Common cations: Na+, K+, HCO3−, NH4+ c. Common molecules: O2, N2, H2O d. Bases: NaOH, Na HCO3−, HCl The correct answer is: Common molecules: O2, N2, H2O Question 14 A catalyst: Correct Mark 1.00 out Select one: of 1.00 a. is an H+-yielding molecule. b. is an acid. c. is an alkali. d. increases the speed of a chemical reaction. ✓ The correct answer is: increases the speed of a chemical reaction. Question 15 Which of the following is most descriptive of a precipitate that forms during a chemical reaction? Correct Mark 1.00 out Select one: of 1.00 a. Acid b. Base c. Solid ✓ d. Solution The correct answer is: Solid Question 16 Which of the following is an anion? Correct Mark 1.00 out Select one: of 1.00 a. Sodium ion b. Potassium ion c. Chloride ion ✓ d. Calcium ion The correct answer is: Chloride ion Question 17 ATP: Correct Mark 1.00 out Select one: of 1.00 a. is a buffer, removing H+ from solution. b. is an energy transfer molecule. ✓ c. is a radioactive isotope of phosphate. d. ionizes to H+, thereby lowering pH. The correct answer is: is an energy transfer molecule. Question 18 As assessment of a patient’s electrolytes is performed by collecting a sample of the patient’s: Incorrect Mark 0.00 out Select one: of 1.00 a. saliva. b. urine. × c. blood. d. hair follicles. The correct answer is: blood. Question 19 An atom has 2 protons, 2 neutrons, and 2 electrons; it has an atomic: Incorrect Mark 0.00 out Select one: of 1.00 a. number of 6. b. mass of 2. c. mass of 4. d. number of 4. × The correct answer is: mass of 4. Question 20 Which of the following is true of an anion? Correct Mark 1.00 out Select one: of 1.00 a. An anion always ionizes to form electrolytes. b. An anion always has an atomic mass of 15. c. An anion carries a negative charge. ✓ d. A hydrogen ion is an anion. The correct answer is: An anion carries a negative charge. Question 21 Which of the following is true of Na+? Correct Mark 1.00 out Select one: of 1.00 a. Called the sodium ion. ✓ b. Has fewer protons than electrons. c. Called an anion. d. Lowers pH. The correct answer is: Called the sodium ion. Question 22 Which of the following is most descriptive of HCl? Correct Mark 1.00 out Select one: of 1.00 a. Is called bicarbonate. b. Is an acid. ✓ c. Raises pH. d. Dissociates into Na+ and Cl−. The correct answer is: Is an acid. Question 23 Which of the following is a measurement of hydrogen ion concentration [H+]? Correct Mark 1.00 out Select one: of 1.00 a. Atomic number b. Atomic mass c. Isotope d. pH ✓ The correct answer is: pH Question 24 Zinc, selenium, cobalt, and iodine are all: Correct Mark 1.00 out Select one: of 1.00 a. trace elements. ✓ b. compounds. c. radioactive. d. isotopes of hydrogen. The correct answer is: trace elements. Question 25 Water is a(n): Correct Mark 1.00 out Select one: of 1.00 a. molecule. b. aqueous solvent. c. compound. d. all is applicable. ✓ The correct answer is: all is applicable. Question 26 Which of the following acts as a catalyst? Correct Mark 1.00 out Select one: of 1.00 a. An acid b. An enzyme ✓ c. A buffer d. ATP The correct answer is: An enzyme Question 27 Which of the following is contained in the ventral cavity? Correct Mark 1.00 out Select one: of 1.00 a. Thoracic cavity b. Pleural cavities c. Abdominopelvic cavity d. All is applicable ✓ The correct answer is: All is applicable Question 28 The distal humerus (arm bone) is: Correct Mark 1.00 out Select one: of 1.00 a. closer to the axillary area than to the elbow. b. closer to the wrist than to the antecubital area. c. distal to the wrist. d. closer to the elbow than to the axillary area. ✓ The correct answer is: closer to the elbow than to the axillary area. Question 29 Which group is incorrect? Correct Mark 1.00 out Select one: of 1.00 a. Planes: transverse, sagittal, frontal b. Cavities: dorsal, ventral c. Ventral cavities: thoracic, vertebral ✓ d. Organs: heart, stomach, lungs, brain The correct answer is: Ventral cavities: thoracic, vertebral Question 30 The medial thigh is located: Incorrect Mark 0.00 out Select one: of 1.00 a. along the plantar surface of the foot. b. along the inner surface of the upper extremity. c. on the inner thigh region. d. distal to the popliteal region. × The correct answer is: on the inner thigh region. Question 31 The ventral cavity is the anterior cavity; the ________ is the posterior cavity. Correct Mark 1.00 out Select one: of 1.00 a. thoracic cavity b. dorsal cavity ✓ c. pleural cavity d. mediastinum The correct answer is: dorsal cavity Question 32 The leg is ___________ to the thigh. Correct Mark 1.00 out Select one: of 1.00 a. distal b. proximal × c. superior d. deep The correct answer is: distal Comment: Question is vague as to what part of the leg Question 33 A 26-year-old man is scheduled for the surgical repair of a right inguinal hernia. Which of the Correct following areas is involved surgically? Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 Select one: a. RUQ b. Umbilical region c. Right iliac region ✓ d. Right hypochondriac region The correct answer is: Right iliac region Question 34 What is another name for the frontal plane? Correct Mark 1.00 out Select one: of 1.00 a. Sagittal plane b. Cross section c. Transverse plane d. Coronal plane ✓ The correct answer is: Coronal plane Question 35 Which organ is located in both the ventral and thoracic cavities? Correct Mark 1.00 out Select one: of 1.00 a. Stomach b. Liver c. Lung ✓ d. Spinal cord The correct answer is: Lung Question 36 The proximal end of the thigh bone (femur) is: Incorrect Mark 0.00 out Select one: of 1.00 a. distal to the knee. b. closer to the knee than to the inguinal area. c. distal to the pedal area. × d. closer to the inguinal area than to the umbilical area. The correct answer is: closer to the inguinal area than to the umbilical area. Question 37 The lung is located in the thoracic cavity. What is the relationship of the lung to the head? Incorrect Mark 0.00 out Select one: of 1.00 a. Inferior b. Deep c. Anterior d. Superior × The correct answer is: Inferior Question 38 In which cavity is the mediastinum located? Correct Mark 1.00 out Select one: of 1.00 a. Pelvic b. Dorsal c. Thoracic ✓ d. Abdominal The correct answer is: Thoracic Question 39 Which of the following is superior to the lumbar region? Correct Mark 1.00 out Select one: of 1.00 a. Scapular ✓ b. Inguinal c. Popliteal d. Gluteal The correct answer is: Scapular Question 40 Which region is included within the left lower quadrant (LLQ)? Correct Mark 1.00 out Select one: of 1.00 a. Umbilical b. Left hypochondriac c. Epigastric d. Left iliac ✓ The correct answer is: Left iliac Question 41 Which organ is located within the mediastinum? Correct Mark 1.00 out Select one: of 1.00 a. Lungs b. Stomach c. Liver d. Heart ✓ The correct answer is: Heart Question 42 Which of the following is true of the dorsal cavity? Correct Mark 1.00 out Select one: of 1.00 a. It contains the mediastinum. b. It contains the brain and spinal cord. ✓ c. It contains the thoracic cavity. d. It is smaller than the cranial cavity. The correct answer is: It contains the brain and spinal cord. Question 43 The kneecap is located distal to the: Incorrect Mark 0.00 out Select one: of 1.00 a. leg. b. thigh. c. foot. × d. toes. The correct answer is: thigh. Question 44 Pedal, patellar, popliteal, and plantar are terms that refer to: Correct Mark 1.00 out Select one: of 1.00 a. lower extremities areas. ✓ b. arm. c. toes. d. structures that are proximal to the kneecap. The correct answer is: lower extremities areas. Question 45 Which of the following is descriptive of the location of the reproductive organs? Correct Mark 1.00 out Select one: of 1.00 a. Dorsal cavity and vertebral cavity b. Mediastinum and the thoracic cavity c. Ventral cavity and pelvic cavity ✓ d. Pleural cavity and mediastinum The correct answer is: Ventral cavity and pelvic cavity Question 46 Which of the following is descriptive of the mediastinum? Correct Mark 1.00 out Select one: of 1.00 a. Thoracic cavity ✓ b. Dorsal cavity c. Abdominopelvic cavity d. RUQ The correct answer is: Thoracic cavity Question 47 The term viscera refers to: Correct Mark 1.00 out Select one: of 1.00 a. the organs of the body. ✓ b. the cavities contained within the ventral cavity. c. the cavities contained within the thoracic cavity. d. the divisions of the abdominopelvic cavity. The correct answer is: the organs of the body. Question 48 A patient with a history of gallbladder disease complains of midepigastric pain that radiates to the Incorrect right subscapular region. Which of the following best describes the pain? Mark 0.00 out of 1.00 Select one: a. High abdominal pain that radiates to the groin b. Crushing chest pain × c. Aching pain behind the breastbone, radiating to the left shoulder d. High abdominal pain, radiating to below the right shoulder blade area The correct answer is: High abdominal pain, radiating to below the right shoulder blade area Question 49 The thigh is ___________ to the foot. Incorrect Mark 0.00 out Select one: of 1.00 a. distal b. proximal c. inferior × d. deep The correct answer is: proximal Question 50 Which two words are directional “opposites”? Incorrect Mark 0.00 out Select one: of 1.00 a. Proximal, femoral b. Caudal, cephalic c. Distal, peripheral d. Anterior, superficial × The correct answer is: Caudal, cephalic  Started on Monday, 30 September 2024, 8:07 AM State Finished Completed on Monday, 30 September 2024, 8:45 AM Time taken 37 mins 52 secs Marks 42.00/50.00 Grade 84.00 out of 100.00 Question 1 Which of the following best describes a cell that is necrotic? Correct Mark 1.00 out Select one: of 1.00 a. Dehydrated b. Stem cell c. Undifferentiated d. Dead ✓ The correct answer is: Dead Question 2 Which of the following represents a complementary strand of mRNA: TTT CGC GGG TCG? Incorrect Mark 0.00 out Select one: of 1.00 a. UUU GCG CCC UGC b. UUU GCG CCC AGC × c. AAA GCG CCC AGC d. AAA GCG CCC UGC The correct answer is: AAA GCG CCC AGC Question 3 Which of the following represents base pairing? Correct Mark 1.00 out Select one: of 1.00 a. CCGTTACTG b. Sugar–phosphate, sugar–phosphate, sugar–phosphate c. Ribose–deoxyribose, ribose–deoxyribose, ribose–deoxyribose d. A–T, T–A, C–G, A–U ✓ The correct answer is: A–T, T–A, C–G, A–U Question 4 Aerobic catabolism ends with: Correct Mark 1.00 out Select one: of 1.00 a. the complete breakdown of glucose into CO2 and water and the release of energy. ✓ b. the Krebs cycle. c. glucose being broken down to pyruvic acid. d. the production of amino acids. The correct answer is: the complete breakdown of glucose into CO2 and water and the release of energy. Question 5 Which of the following is true of glycogen? Correct Mark 1.00 out Select one: of 1.00 a. It is an end-product of fatty acid catabolism. b. It is stored in adipose tissue. c. It is the storage form of glucose. ✓ d. It is an essential amino acid. The correct answer is: It is the storage form of glucose. Question 6 Glycogen is a(n): Correct Mark 1.00 out Select one: of 1.00 a. alcohol, an end-product of fat digestion. b. indigestible polysaccharide also called cellulose. c. polysaccharide, that is, the storage form of glucose. ✓ d. plant starch. The correct answer is: polysaccharide, that is, the storage form of glucose. Question 7 Adenine, uracil, cytosine, and guanine are: Correct Mark 1.00 out Select one: of 1.00 a. sugars used to synthesize nucleotides. b. bases of RNA. ✓ c. nonessential amino acids. d. ketone bodies. The correct answer is: bases of RNA. Question 8 Which of the following is descriptive of mitochondrial function? Correct Mark 1.00 out Select one: of 1.00 a. Lactic acid production b. Glycolysis c. Aerobic catabolism ✓ d. Protein synthesis The correct answer is: Aerobic catabolism Question 9 This substance is composed of glycerol and three fatty acids. Correct Mark 1.00 out Select one: of 1.00 a. Glycogen b. Polypeptide c. Steroid d. Triglyceride ✓ The correct answer is: Triglyceride Question 10 Transcription: Correct Mark 1.00 out Select one: of 1.00 a. occurs within the nucleus. b. involves DNA and mRNA. c. involves tRNA and mRNA. d. both A and B. ✓ The correct answer is: both A and B. Question 11 Which of the following is characteristic of urea? Correct Mark 1.00 out Select one: of 1.00 a. Formed in the kidneys and excreted by the liver into bile. b. Nitrogen-containing waste formed in the liver. ✓ c. Characterized as an essential amino acid. d. Classified as a disaccharide. The correct answer is: Nitrogen-containing waste formed in the liver. Question 12 Which of the following is a waste product of the aerobic glucose metabolism? Correct Mark 1.00 out Select one: of 1.00 a. ATP b. CO2 ✓ c. Urea d. Glycogen The correct answer is: CO2 Question 13 Monosaccharides: Incorrect Mark 0.00 out Select one: of 1.00 a. include glucose, fructose, and galactose. b. include sucrose, lactose, and maltose. × c. are classified as saturated and unsaturated. d. are carbohydrate-splitting enzymes. The correct answer is: include glucose, fructose, and galactose. Question 14 Which of the following represents a strand of DNA complementary to TTT CGC GGG TCG? Correct Mark 1.00 out Select one: of 1.00 a. UUU GCG AAA UGC b. UUU GCG CCC AGC c. AAA GCG CCC AGC ✓ d. AAA GCG CCC UGC The correct answer is: AAA GCG CCC AGC Question 15 tRNA reads the genetic code stored in: Correct Mark 1.00 out Select one: of 1.00 a. DNA. b. ribosomes. c. mRNA. ✓ d. nuclear membrane. The correct answer is: mRNA. Question 16 Which of the following terms is most descriptive of ribose and deoxyribose? Incorrect Mark 0.00 out Select one: of 1.00 a. Steroids b. Lipids × c. Sugars d. Disaccharides The correct answer is: Sugars Question 17 Which of the following delivers cholesterol to nonhepatic tissue? Correct Mark 1.00 out Select one: of 1.00 a. HDL b. LDL ✓ c. VLDL d. Fatty acids The correct answer is: LDL Question 18 Which of the following is descriptive of cholesterol? Correct Mark 1.00 out Select one: of 1.00 a. Protein b. Functions as an enzyme c. Can be synthesized by the liver ✓ d. Primary sequence and peptide bonds The correct answer is: Can be synthesized by the liver Question 19 Which of the following is characteristic of glycolysis? Correct Mark 1.00 out Select one: of 1.00 a. Occurs within the cytoplasm. ✓ b. Functions aerobically. c. Converts protein to glucose. d. Completely metabolizes glucose to CO2, H2O, and ATP. The correct answer is: Occurs within the cytoplasm. Question 20 Which of the following represents a base sequence of tRNA that will bind to mRNA UUU? Correct Mark 1.00 out Select one: of 1.00 a. UUU b. AAA ✓ c. TTT d. CCC The correct answer is: AAA Question 21 Dietary cellulose: Incorrect Mark 0.00 out Select one: of 1.00 a. is absorbed from the digestive tract and converted to glucose and fuels the cells. × b. is converted to protein by the process of gluconeogenesis. c. is catabolized by the liver to ketone bodies. d. cannot be metabolized but is beneficial because it provides fiber and bulk. The correct answer is: cannot be metabolized but is beneficial because it provides fiber and bulk. Question 22 Translation: Correct Mark 1.00 out Select one: of 1.00 a. occurs within the nucleus. b. involves DNA and tRNA. c. involves tRNA and mRNA. ✓ d. refers to the production of a complementary strand of DNA. The correct answer is: involves tRNA and mRNA. Question 23 Which of the following is least related to lactic acid? Correct Mark 1.00 out Select one: of 1.00 a. Glycolysis b. Krebs cycle ✓ c. Anaerobic d. Cytoplasm The correct answer is: Krebs cycle Question 24 Gluconeogenesis converts: Correct Mark 1.00 out Select one: of 1.00 a. glucose to amino acids for protein synthesis. b. glucose to fatty acids for storage of excess sugar as fat. c. body protein to glucose in an insulin-deficient state. ✓ d. ammonia to urea for excretion into the urine. The correct answer is: body protein to glucose in an insulin-deficient state. Question 25 With which base can adenine pair? Correct Mark 1.00 out Select one: of 1.00 a. Guanine b. Cytosine c. Ribose d. Uracil ✓ The correct answer is: Uracil Question 26 Which of the following are building blocks of protein? Correct Mark 1.00 out Select one: of 1.00 a. Monosaccharides b. Glucose, fructose, and galactose c. Amino acids ✓ d. Cellulose and glycogen The correct answer is: Amino acids Question 27 A beaker contains two compartments. Compartment A (CA) contains a 10% salt solution and Correct Compartment B (CB) contains a 20% salt solution. The membrane is permeable only to water. At Mark 1.00 out equilibrium, the volume in: of 1.00 Select one: a. CA is greater than the volume in CB. b. CA is less than the volume in CB. ✓ c. CB is less than the volume in CA. d. CA is the same as the volume in CB. The correct answer is: CA is less than the volume in CB. Question 28 The capillary filtration pressure (arterial end of the capillary) is 30 and 7 mm Hg at the venous end. Incorrect The capillary oncotic pressure is 15 mm Hg. Which of the following is true? Mark 0.00 out of 1.00 Select one: a. Most water is filtered out of the capillary into the interstitium at the arterial end of the capillary. b. The capillary oncotic pressure is responsible for the movement of water from the × capillary into the interstitium. c. The capillary oncotic pressure is responsible for the flow of blood from the arterial end of the capillary to the venous end of the capillary. d. A decline in capillary oncotic pressure causes excess water to be reabsorbed from the interstitium. The correct answer is: Most water is filtered out of the capillary into the interstitium at the arterial end of the capillary. Question 29 Compartment A contains a 25% glucose solution. Compartment B contains a 15% glucose solution. Correct The membrane (dividing the beaker into compartments A and B) is permeable to water but Mark 1.00 out impermeable to glucose. Which of the following statements is true regarding the initial net flux? of 1.00 Select one: a. Water diffuses from compartment B to compartment A. ✓ b. Glucose diffuses from compartment A to compartment B. c. Solute diffuses from compartment A to compartment B. d. Solvent diffuses from compartment A to compartment B. The correct answer is: Water diffuses from compartment B to compartment A. Question 30 Which process describes phagocytosis and pinocytosis? Correct Mark 1.00 out Select one: of 1.00 a. Facilitated diffusion b. Endocytosis ✓ c. Filtration d. Exocytosis The correct answer is: Endocytosis Question 31 If plasma protein leaks into the tissue spaces, Correct Mark 1.00 out Select one: of 1.00 a. edema develops. ✓ b. the tissue space becomes dehydrated as excess tissue fluid enters the capillaries. c. blood volume expands as excess fluid is absorbed into the blood vessels (capillaries). d. All is applicable. The correct answer is: edema develops. Question 32 Which of the following best describes the power or driving force for active transport? Correct Mark 1.00 out Select one: of 1.00 a. ATP ✓ b. Pressure c. DNA d. H+ The correct answer is: ATP Question 33 What is the transport mechanism in this description: A passive process that uses a carrier molecule Correct to move a solute from an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration? Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 Select one: a. Osmosis b. An ATP-driven pump c. Filtration d. Facilitated diffusion ✓ The correct answer is: Facilitated diffusion Question 34 What are the hairlike structures located on the outer surface of the cell membrane? Correct Mark 1.00 out Select one: of 1.00 a. Mitochondria b. Ribosomes c. Cilia ✓ d. Centrioles The correct answer is: Cilia Question 35 Most K+ is located in the cells, with little K+ in the tissue spaces. What accounts for the movement Incorrect of additional K+ into the cells? Mark 0.00 out of 1.00 Select one: a. K+ in the tissue fluid diffuses into the cell. × b. K+ enters the cell in response to facilitated diffusion. c. K+ is actively pumped into the cell. d. K+ enters the cell because of pinocytosis. The correct answer is: K+ is actively pumped into the cell. Question 36 With regard to the cell cycle, Correct Mark 1.00 out Select one: of 1.00 a. the M phase is the same as interphase. b. cells cannot enter phase G0 when they complete the cycle. c. cell division occurs during the M phase. ✓ d. prophase, metaphase, anaphase, and telophase occur during phase G1. The correct answer is: cell division occurs during the M phase. Question 37 Which group is correct? Correct Mark 1.00 out Select one: of 1.00 a. Lipids: triglycerides and urea b. Polysaccharides: glycogen and glucose c. Amino acids: ammonia and glycerol d. Nitrogen-containing waste: urea and creatinine ✓ The correct answer is: Nitrogen-containing waste: urea and creatinine Question 38 Which of the following is true of a benign neoplasm? Correct Mark 1.00 out Select one: of 1.00 a. Metastatic lesion b. Secondary tumor site c. Cancerous d. Noncancerous tumor ✓ The correct answer is: Noncancerous tumor Question 39 Which of the following most accurately describes diffusion? Correct Mark 1.00 out Select one: of 1.00 a. ATP-driven. b. Passive transport. ✓ c. Requires a pressure or pushing force. d. Causes solute to move uphill. The correct answer is: Passive transport. Question 40 Which of the following is common to the ribosomes, rough ER, and Golgi apparatus? Correct Mark 1.00 out Select one: of 1.00 a. ATP-producing organelles b. Protein synthesis ✓ c. Ammonia producing d. Glycogen storage The correct answer is: Protein synthesis Question 41 Which structure is described as rough or smooth? Correct Mark 1.00 out Select one: of 1.00 a. Ribosome b. Mitochondrion c. Cilia d. Endoplasmic reticulum ✓ The correct answer is: Endoplasmic reticulum Question 42 A beaker is divided into two compartments by a semipermeable membrane. Compartment A Correct contains a 20% NaCl solution and compartment B contains a 50% NaCl solution. The membrane is Mark 1.00 out permeable to water but not to Na+ or Cl−. At equilibrium, the: of 1.00 Select one: a. volume of water in compartment A will be greater than the volume in compartment B. b. volume in both compartments A and B will be equal. c. concentration of compartment A will decrease. d. volume in compartment B will be greater than the volume in compartment A. ✓ The correct answer is: volume in compartment B will be greater than the volume in compartment A. Question 43 Which of the following describes the response of a red blood cell (RBC) to immersion in an isotonic Correct solution? Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 Select one: a. The RBC swells and bursts. b. The RBC undergoes hemolysis. c. The RBC undergoes crenation; it shrinks. d. There is no net movement of water between the RBC and solution. ✓ The correct answer is: There is no net movement of water between the RBC and solution. Question 44 In which structure is most DNA found? Correct Mark 1.00 out Select one: of 1.00 a. Nucleus ✓ b. Mitochondrion c. Lysosome d. Golgi apparatus The correct answer is: Nucleus Question 45 What is the effect of an intravenous infusion of pure water? Incorrect Mark 0.00 out Select one: of 1.00 a. It is the same response as to the infusion of isotonic saline. b. It is the same response as to the infusion of Ringer’s solution. c. The RBCs burst. d. The RBCs shrink (crenation). × The correct answer is: The RBCs burst. Question 46 At equilibrium the volume in compartment B is greater than the volume in compartment A. In which Correct initial situation would this be achieved? Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 Select one: a. There is a 5% glucose solution in compartment A and a 15% glucose solution in ✓ compartment B. The membrane (separating the beaker into compartments A and B) is impermeable to the solute and permeable to the solvent. b. There is a 15% glucose solution in compartment A and a 5% glucose solution in compartment B. The membrane (separating the beaker into compartments A and B) is permeable to water and impermeable to glucose. c. There is a 15% glucose solution in compartment A and a 15% glucose solution in compartment B. The membrane (separating the beaker into compartments A and B) is permeable to both solute and solvent. d. There is a 25% glucose solution in compartment A and a 5% glucose solution in compartment B. The membrane (separating the beaker into compartments A and B) is permeable to solvent but impermeable to glucose. The correct answer is: There is a 5% glucose solution in compartment A and a 15% glucose solution in compartment B. The membrane (separating the beaker into compartments A and B) is impermeable to the solute and permeable to the solvent. Question 47 Which of the following best describes the eating of a bacterium by a lysosome? Correct Mark 1.00 out Select one: of 1.00 a. Differentiation b. Phagocytosis ✓ c. Meiosis d. Hemolysis The correct answer is: Phagocytosis Question 48 A beaker is divided into two compartments by a semipermeable membrane. Compartment A Incorrect contains a 20% NaCl solution and compartment B contains a 50% NaCl solution. The membrane is Mark 0.00 out permeable to both water and Na+ and Cl−. At equilibrium, the: of 1.00 Select one: a. volume in compartment A will be greater than the volume in compartment B. b. volume in compartment B will be greater than the volume in compartment A. × c. concentrations and volumes will be the same in both compartments. d. concentration of salt is greater in compartment A than in compartment B. The correct answer is: concentrations and volumes will be the same in both compartments. Question 49 Prophase, metaphase, anaphase, and telophase: Correct Mark 1.00 out Select one: of 1.00 a. are stages of cytokinesis. b. occur during G1. c. are concerned with the synthesis of DNA and the doubling of the chromosomes. d. are stages of mitosis. ✓ The correct answer is: are stages of mitosis. Question 50 The first gap phase (G1), second gap phase (G2), and synthesis phase (S): Correct Mark 1.00 out Select one: of 1.00 a. occur during interphase. ✓ b. include prophase, metaphase, anaphase, and telophase. c. are stages of mitosis. d. All is applicable. The correct answer is: occur during interphase.  Started on Monday, 14 October 2024, 8:11 AM State Finished Completed on Monday, 14 October 2024, 8:36 AM Time taken 24 mins 40 secs Marks 37.00/50.00 Grade 74.00 out of 100.00 Question 1 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 Which of the following lives in the intestinal tract and lays its eggs in the perianal area, causing severe pruritus? Select one: a. C. tetani b. Pinworms ✓ c. S. typhi d. C. albicans The correct answer is: Pinworms Question 2 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 Which of the following is most related to the rusty nail infection? Select one: a. Clostridium ✓ b. Mycotic c. Viral d. Parasitic The correct answer is: Clostridium Question 3 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 With regard to infectious disease, arthropods most often act as: Select one: a. parasites. b. causative organisms of disease. c. vectors. ✓ d. fomites. The correct answer is: vectors. Question 4 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 Which of the following is defined as a disease-producing microorganism? Select one: a. Normal flora b. Pathogen ✓ c. Arthropod d. Parasite The correct answer is: Pathogen Question 5 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 Which of the following describes the signs and symptoms that develop in response to a pathogen? Select one: a. Syndrome b. Allergy c. Infection ✓ d. Immunity The correct answer is: Infection Question 6 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 A fomite is a: Select one: a. worm. b. parasite. c. vector. ✓ d. host. The correct answer is: vector. Question 7 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 Identify the portal of exit and mechanism for most diseases that are spread by droplet infection. Select one: a. Urinary system by contaminated urine b. Respiratory system by coughing or sneezing ✓ c. Digestive system through contaminated feces d. Central nervous system through contaminated cerebrospinal fluid The correct answer is: Respiratory system by coughing or sneezing Question 8 Incorrect Mark 0.00 out of 1.00 Which of the following is true of commensal organisms that populate the normal flora? Select one: a. They live harmoniously without harming the person. b. Unless they are destroyed with an antibiotic, the person develops an infection. × c. The organisms are usually walled off as an abscess. d. All commensal organisms are confined to the large intestine (bowel). The correct answer is: They live harmoniously without harming the person. Question 9 Incorrect Mark 0.00 out of 1.00 Which of the following is called the acid-fast bacillus? Select one: a. Staphylococcus aureus × b. Salmonella typhi c. Mycobacterium tuberculosis d. C. tetani The correct answer is: Mycobacterium tuberculosis Question 10 Incorrect Mark 0.00 out of 1.00 Penicillin exerts its antibiotic effect primarily through destruction of the cell wall of the pathogen. Which of the following is most apt to be affected by penicillin? Select one: a. Viruses × b. Bacteria c. Worms d. Ectoparasites The correct answer is: Bacteria Question 11 Incorrect Mark 0.00 out of 1.00 Infections such as athlete’s foot and ringworm are referred to as: Select one: a. systemic. b. mycotic. c. parasitic. × d. bacterial. The correct answer is: mycotic. Question 12 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 Clostridia: Select one: a. are viruses. b. cause botulism, gas gangrene, and lockjaw. ✓ c. are protozoa. d. respond therapeutically to anthelmintics. The correct answer is: cause botulism, gas gangrene, and lockjaw. Question 13 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 Influenza is best described as a(n): Select one: a. localized infection. b. allergic reaction. c. bacterial infection. d. systemic infection. ✓ The correct answer is: systemic infection. Question 14 Incorrect Mark 0.00 out of 1.00 Tinea is most related to: Select one: a. ringworm. b. tetanus. × c. systemic infection. d. treatment with anthelmintics. The correct answer is: ringworm. Question 15 Incorrect Mark 0.00 out of 1.00 Which of the following is least descriptive of a vector? Select one: a. Is a carrier of pathogens from one host to another. b. Can be an insect such as the mosquito carrying the plasmodium to humans. c. Must be living. d. Can be a contaminated syringe (fomite). × The correct answer is: Must be living. Question 16 Incorrect Mark 0.00 out of 1.00 Which of the following is least descriptive of Candida albicans? Select one: a. Causative organism of impetigo b. Fungal infection c. Yeast infection × d. Antibiotic-induced superinfection The correct answer is: Causative organism of impetigo Question 17 Incorrect Mark 0.00 out of 1.00 Streptococci and staphylococci are: Select one: a. viruses. × b. gram-positive bacteria. c. arthropods. d. parasites. The correct answer is: gram-positive bacteria. Question 18 Incorrect Mark 0.00 out of 1.00 Which group is correct? Select one: a. Ringworm, mycotic infection, treatment by anthelmintic drug × b. Syphilis, lues, T. pallidum c. Gonorrhea, Neisseria, virus d. Trichinae, filariasis, helminths, penicillin The correct answer is: Syphilis, lues, T. pallidum Question 19 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 Rickettsiae and chlamydiae are classified as: Select one: a. viruses. b. bacteria. ✓ c. arthropods. d. bacilli. The correct answer is: bacteria. Question 20 Incorrect Mark 0.00 out of 1.00 Which disease is caused by a sporozoan carried by a mosquito? Select one: a. Typhoid fever b. Tetanus c. Malaria d. Rocky Mountain spotted fever × The correct answer is: Malaria Question 21 Incorrect Mark 0.00 out of 1.00 What is the significance of bacterial spore formation? The bacterium: Select one: a. becomes more sensitive to the effects of antibiotics. b. becomes more resistant to harsh environmental conditions. c. increases its reproductive activity. × d. permanently loses its ability to cause disease. The correct answer is: becomes more resistant to harsh environmental conditions. Question 22 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 A mycotic infection is caused by a(n): Select one: a. parasite. b. bacterium. c. fungus. ✓ d. arthropod. The correct answer is: fungus. Question 23 Incorrect Mark 0.00 out of 1.00 A helminth is a(n): Select one: a. parasite. × b. arthropod. c. worm. d. bacterium. The correct answer is: worm. Question 24 Incorrect Mark 0.00 out of 1.00 Iron deficiency anemia is endemic in low economic areas of a city, meaning: Select one: a. most of the population has iron deficiency anemia. × b. the iron deficiency anemia is untreatable. c. the iron deficiency anemia has been eradicated. d. the iron deficiency anemia always exists in small numbers in the community. The correct answer is: the iron deficiency anemia always exists in small numbers in the community. Question 25 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 The puerperal fever described by Dr. Semmelweiss is best described as: Select one: a. a localized infection. b. an age-related degenerative disease. c. a nosocomial infection. ✓ d. pandemic. The correct answer is: a nosocomial infection. Question 26 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 Which of the following requires another living host for its continued existence? Select one: a. Arthropod b. Pathogen c. Parasite ✓ d. Bacterium The correct answer is: Parasite Question 27 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 The tick associated with Rocky Mountain spotted fever is referred to as a(n): Select one: a. arthropod vector. ✓ b. causative organism. c. spirochete. d. fungus. The correct answer is: arthropod vector. Question 28 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 Which of the following is both a vector and an arthropod? Select one: a. Contaminated drinking glass b. Virus c. Worm d. Flea ✓ The correct answer is: Flea Question 29 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 Tetanus, tuberculosis, and diphtheria are: Select one: a. staphylococcal infections. b. caused by a spirochete. c. localized infections. d. bacterial infections. ✓ The correct answer is: bacterial infections. Question 30 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 Which of the following is classified as gram-positive and gram-negative? Select one: a. Viruses b. Bacteria ✓ c. Fungi d. Yeast The correct answer is: Bacteria Question 31 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 The Rubella virus: Select one: a. is sensitive to penicillin. b. causes German measles. c. is teratogenic. d. both B and C. ✓ The correct answer is: both B and C. Question 32 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 A pox infection: Select one: a. is always caused by herpes varicella-zoster. b. occurs only in humans. c. is a skin lesion. ✓ d. is communicable but never contagious. The correct answer is: is a skin lesion. Question 33 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 Rickettsiae are: Select one: a. classified as fungi. b. viruses. c. often carried by fleas, ticks, and body lice. ✓ d. arthropod vectors. The correct answer is: often carried by fleas, ticks, and body lice. Question 34 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 The ova of which of these parasitic and pathogenic multicellular animals usually appear in the stool of the infected person? Select one: a. Worms ✓ b. Viruses c. Arthropods d. Spirochetes The correct answer is: Worms Question 35 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 Rickettsiae require a living host for their survival and are therefore considered to be: Select one: a. pathogenic. b. parasitic. ✓ c. fungal. d. communicable. The correct answer is: parasitic. Question 36 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 Which of the following is least descriptive of Treponema pallidum? Select one: a. Causes syphilis. b. Classified as a bacterium. c. Is most often spread by the fecal–oral route. ✓ d. Is a spirochete. The correct answer is: Is most often spread by the fecal–oral route. Question 37 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 Which “bad air” disease is caused by a plasmodium? Select one: a. Measles b. Tinea c. Tetanus d. Malaria ✓ The correct answer is: Malaria Question 38 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 Clostridium tetani and Clostridium difficile: Select one: a. are gram-negative bacilli. b. are anaerobic. ✓ c. are always pathogenic. d. cause the “tineas,” such as athlete’s foot and ringworm. The correct answer is: are anaerobic. Question 39 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 Which group includes single-cell animal-like microbes, such as amebas? Select one: a. Bacilli b. Arthropods c. Viruses d. Protozoa ✓ The correct answer is: Protozoa Question 40 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 Rocky Mountain spotted fever is most effectively treated with an _____ drug. Select one: a. antiviral b. anthelmintic c. antibiotic ✓ d. antifungal The correct answer is: antibiotic Question 41 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 An abscess is: Select one: a. an example of a systemic infection. b. always viral in origin. c. an example of a mycotic infection. d. an example of a localized infection. ✓ The correct answer is: an example of a localized infection. Question 42 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 Which highly coiled microorganism resembles a corkscrew? Select one: a. Staphylococcus b. Streptococcus c. Bacillus d. Spirillum ✓ The correct answer is: Spirillum Question 43 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 Biting flies, fleas, and ticks: Select one: a. most often cause systemic infections. b. are best described as ectoparasites. ✓ c. are classified as helminths. d. cause mycotic infections. The correct answer is: are best described as ectoparasites. Question 44 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 The acid-fast bacillus is: Select one: a. most often spread through droplet infection. ✓ b. eradicated by a single dose of penicillin. c. pathogenic only in humans. d. most often diagnosed by a urine culture. The correct answer is: most often spread through droplet infection. Question 45 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 Humans, other animals, contaminated soil and water, and fomites can serve as a continual source of infection. Which of the following terms best describes this observation? Select one: a. Normal flora b. Incubation period c. Nosocomial d. Reservoir of infection ✓ The correct answer is: Reservoir of infection Question 46 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 Amebic dysentery and giardiasis are: Select one: a. mycotic infections. b. caused by Salmonella. c. worm infestations. d. caused by protozoan parasites. ✓ The correct answer is: caused by protozoan parasites. Question 47 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 Ectoparasites are most likely to cause: Select one: a. itching and discomfort. ✓ b. high fever. c. paralysis. d. loss of consciousness. The correct answer is: itching and discomfort. Question 48 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 Rhinoviruses: Select one: a. are sensitive to penicillin. b. are capable of causing infection only in an immunosuppressed individual. c. cause the common cold. ✓ d. are gram-positive. The correct answer is: cause the common cold. Question 49 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 Herpes varicella-zoster may lay dormant in the nerves for many years; when awakened in later life, it causes: Select one: a. “the great pox.” b. shingles. ✓ c. tinea capitis. d. smallpox. The correct answer is: shingles. Question 50 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 Which of the following refers to a process that destroys all living organisms? Select one: a. Nosocomial b. Commensal c. Sterilization ✓ d. Colonization The correct answer is: Sterilization  Started on Monday, 7 October 2024, 8:06 AM State Finished Completed on Monday, 7 October 2024, 8:38 AM Time taken 32 mins 10 secs Marks 44.00/50.00 Grade 88.00 out of 100.00 Question 1 Which of the following membranes secretes serous fluid? Correct Mark 1.00 out Select one: of 1.00 a. Membrane that lines the respiratory tract. b. Membrane that lines the digestive tract. c. Membrane that lines the inner wall of the pleural cavity. ✓ d. Membrane that lines the urinary tract. The correct answer is: Membrane that lines the inner wall of the pleural cavity. Question 2 Vascular smooth muscle in blood vessels helps to: Correct Mark 1.00 out Select one: of 1.00 a. affect the flow of air. b. stabilize the joints. c. maintain posture. d. propel blood. ✓ The correct answer is: propel blood. Question 3 The cutaneous membrane: Correct Mark 1.00 out Select one: of 1.00 a. is a synovial membrane. b. is the skin. ✓ c. has a visceral and parietal layer. d. has three layers: squamous, cuboidal, and columnar. The correct answer is: is the skin. Question 4 Which of the following is descriptive of the peritoneum? Correct Mark 1.00 out Select one: of 1.00 a. Serous membrane b. Abdominopelvic cavity c. Parietal and visceral layers d. All is applicable ✓ The correct answer is: All is applicable Question 5 Which type of tissue is found in organs that need to stretch (e.g., urinary bladder)? Correct Mark 1.00 out Select one: of 1.00 a. Transitional epithelium ✓ b. Loose connective tissue c. Adipose tissue d. Simple squamous epithelium The correct answer is: Transitional epithelium Question 6 Meninges: Correct Mark 1.00 out Select one: of 1.00 a. are connective tissue membranes. b. cover the brain and spinal cord. c. are located in cranial and vertebral cavities. d. all is applicable. ✓ The correct answer is: all is applicable. Question 7 Which of the four major tissue types is able to regenerate and repair quickly when injured? Correct Mark 1.00 out Select one: of 1.00 a. Nervous b. Muscle c. Epithelial ✓ d. Connective The correct answer is: Epithelial Question 8 Chondrocytes, perichondrium, and chondroblasts are most associated with: Correct Mark 1.00 out Select one: of 1.00 a. immature cells. b. tissue that is classified as striated and nonstriated. c. cartilage. ✓ d. simple squamous epithelium. The correct answer is: cartilage. Question 9 Which tissue type is the most abundant? Incorrect Mark 0.00 out Select one: of 1.00 a. Epithelial × b. Muscular c. Connective d. Nervous The correct answer is: Connective Question 10 Skeletal, cardiac, and smooth are: Correct Mark 1.00 out Select one: of 1.00 a. all striped or striated. b. types of connective tissue. c. all concerned with the movement of bones. d. types of muscle. ✓ The correct answer is: types of muscle. Question 11 Which of the following is true of an exocrine gland? Correct Mark 1.00 out Select one: of 1.00 a. Made of connective tissue. b. Secretes hormones. c. Secretes its products to the outside or onto a surface. ✓ d. Secretes only sweat. The correct answer is: Secretes its products to the outside or onto a surface. Question 12 Fibrosis refers to: Incorrect Mark 0.00 out Select one or more: of 1.00 a. tissue regeneration. b. repair of damaged muscle fibers. c. regeneration of nerve fibers. d. replacement of injured tissue with fibrous connective tissue. × Question 13 Endocrine is least often described as: Incorrect Mark 0.00 out Select one: of 1.00 a. hormone secreting. b. ductless. × c. glandular epithelium. d. contractile. The correct answer is: contractile. Question 14 Which of the following is the culprit in obesity? Correct Mark 1.00 out Select one: of 1.00 a. Osseous tissue b. Adipose tissue ✓ c. Squamous epithelium d. Glia cells The correct answer is: Adipose tissue Question 15 Adipose, dense fibrous, areolar, blood, and osseous are all: Correct Mark 1.00 out Select one: of 1.00 a. stratified epithelia. b. connective tissue. ✓ c. glial. d. fat storing. The correct answer is: connective tissue. Question 16 The epithelium is described as being avascular, meaning that it: Correct Mark 1.00 out Select one: of 1.00 a. is single-layered. b. has no blood supply of its own. ✓ c. is colorless. d. contains sudoriferous glands but not sebaceous glands. The correct answer is: has no blood supply of its own. Question 17 Stratified and squamous refer to: Correct Mark 1.00 out Select one: of 1.00 a. layered and striped. b. solid and liquid. c. layered and flat. ✓ d. columnar and cube shaped. The correct answer is: layered and flat. Question 18 Which of the following is most descriptive of tendons, ligaments, fascia, and capsules? Correct Mark 1.00 out Select one: of 1.00 a. Designed for rapid diffusion of O2 and CO2 b. Hormone secreting c. Tough, dense, fibrous, connective ✓ d. Cells form large sheets resembling floor tiles The correct answer is: Tough, dense, fibrous, connective Question 19 Which of the following membranes form(s) the outer layer of the membrane lining the lungs? Correct Mark 1.00 out Select one: of 1.00 a. Parietal pleura b. Visceral peritoneum c. Meninges d. Visceral pleura ✓ The correct answer is: Visceral pleura Question 20 Collagen and elastic fibers are found in the intercellular matrix of _____ tissue. Correct Mark 1.00 out Select one: of 1.00 a. squamous epithelial b. glandular c. connective ✓ d. nervous The correct answer is: connective Question 21 Which type of cell conducts an action potential or electrical signal? Correct Mark 1.00 out Select one: of 1.00 a. Astrocyte b. Glial cell c. Neuron ✓ d. Ependymal cell The correct answer is: Neuron Question 22 Which type of membrane lines the body cavities that open to the exterior of the body? Correct Mark 1.00 out Select one: of 1.00 a. Serous membrane b. Synovial membrane c. Mucous membrane ✓ d. Meninges The correct answer is: Mucous membrane Question 23 In connective tissue, blast cells secrete the matrix and: Correct Mark 1.00 out Select one: of 1.00 a. fibroblasts, chondrocytes, and osteocytes. b. mature forming fibrocytes, chondrocytes, and osteocytes. ✓ c. chondroblasts, chondrocytes, and fibroblasts. d. osteocytes, chondrocytes, and macrophages. The correct answer is: mature forming fibrocytes, chondrocytes, and osteocytes. Question 24 Ligaments, tendons, and cartilage are types of _____ tissue. Correct Mark 1.00 out Select one: of 1.00 a. epithelial b. connective ✓ c. muscle d. nervous The correct answer is: connective Question 25 The words visceral and parietal: Correct Mark 1.00 out Select one: of 1.00 a. describe pleural and peritoneal membranes. ✓ b. describe two types of glands. c. refer to connective tissue membranes. d. are layers of meninges. The correct answer is: describe pleural and peritoneal membranes. Question 26 The intercellular matrix of which tissue is the hardest of all connective tissue? Correct Mark 1.00 out Select one: of 1.00 a. Fibrocartilage b. Collagen c. Osseous tissue ✓ d. Muscle The correct answer is: Osseous tissue Question 27 Which of the following is most descriptive of a bed sore? Correct Mark 1.00 out Select one: of 1.00 a. Decubitus ulcer ✓ b. Sarcoma c. Malignant neoplasm d. Metastatic The correct answer is: Decubitus ulcer Question 28 What distinguishes one type of connective tissue from another type? Correct Mark 1.00 out Select one: of 1.00 a. Protein fibers b. Tissue cells c. Fine collagen d. The matrix ✓ The correct answer is: The matrix Question 29 The pericardium and pleurae: Correct Mark 1.00 out Select one: of 1.00 a. surround the lungs. b. line the dorsal cavity. c. are located in the thoracic cavity. ✓ d. are mucous membranes. The correct answer is: are located in the thoracic cavity. Question 30 Fibro-, elastic, and hyaline are: Correct Mark 1.00 out Select one: of 1.00 a. striated epithelia. b. found exclusively in the lungs where they function in gas exchange. c. types of cartilage. ✓ d. formed by osteocytes. The correct answer is: types of cartilage. Question 31 Which of the following is most related to mucous membrane? Correct Mark 1.00 out Select one: of 1.00 a. Forms the dermis. b. Lines all the body cavities that open to the exterior of the body. ✓ c. Is also called the skin. d. Is the same as the epidermis. The correct answer is: Lines all the body cavities that open to the exterior of the body. Question 32 Ligaments, tendons, and cartilage are: Correct Mark 1.00 out Select one: of 1.00 a. made of connective tissue. ✓ b. classified as squamous, cuboidal, and columnar. c. classified as simple and stratified. d. classified as smooth, skeletal, and cardiac. The correct answer is: made of connective tissue. Question 33 Which type of tissue allows for the rapid diffusion of oxygen from the alveoli in the lungs to the Correct blood? Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 Select one: a. Osseous b. Fascia c. Simple squamous epithelium ✓ d. Synovial membrane The correct answer is: Simple squamous epithelium Question 34 Chondrocytes and osteocytes form: Correct Mark 1.00 out Select one: of 1.00 a. squamous epithelium. b. transitional epithelium. c. astrocytes and ependymal cells. d. cartilage and bone. ✓ The correct answer is: cartilage and bone. Question 35 Which of the following is most related to a carcinoma and sarcoma? Correct Mark 1.00 out Select one: of 1.00 a. Decubitus ulcer b. Cancer ✓ c. Pressure sore d. Bed sore The correct answer is: Cancer Question 36 In which type of tissue is plasma the interstitial matrix? Correct Mark 1.00 out Select one: of 1.00 a. Simple squamous epithelium b. Adipose tissue c. Blood ✓ d. Cartilage The correct answer is: Blood Question 37 Which group is incorrect? Correct Mark 1.00 out Select one: of 1.00 a. Appearance of muscle: striated and smooth b. Types of cartilage: hyaline, elastic, fibrocartilage c. Types of epithelial membranes: cutaneous, mucous, serous d. Types of connective tissue: tendons, ligaments, fat, glia ✓ The correct answer is: Types of connective tissue: tendons, ligaments, fat, glia Question 38 Which of the following best describes glia? Correct Mark 1.00 out Select one: of 1.00 a. Basement membrane b. Dense fibrous connective tissue c. Nervous tissue ✓ d. Matrix The correct answer is: Nervous tissue Question 39 Which type of tissue is most likely to prevent a kidney from “floating”? Incorrect Mark 0.00 out Select one: of 1.00 a. Simple squamous epithelium b. Muscle tissue × c. Adipose tissue d. Stratified columnar epithelium The correct answer is: Adipose tissue Question 40 Regeneration occurs in injured tissue: Correct Mark 1.00 out Select one: of 1.00 a. when the tissue is replaced with the same type of tissue as the injured tissue. ✓ b. when a blood clot forms. c. when fibrous connective tissue replaces the injured tissue. d. after scar tissue forms. The correct answer is: when the tissue is replaced with the same type of tissue as the injured tissue. Question 41 The alveolar wall in the distal lungs is designed for rapid diffusion of the respiratory gases, O2 and Incorrect CO2 across the alveolar wall. The alveolar wall is composed of: Mark 0.00 out of 1.00 Select one: a. adipose tissue. b. transitional epithelium. c. dense, fibrous connective tissue. × d. simple squamous epithelium. The correct answer is: simple squamous epithelium. Question 42 Which of the following is characterized by cells that are arranged like tiles on a floor? Correct Mark 1.00 out Select one: of 1.00 a. Osseous tissue b. Fascia c. Ligaments d. Squamous epithelium ✓ The correct answer is: Squamous epithelium Question 43 Endocrine and exocrine glands are composed of: Correct Mark 1.00 out Select one: of 1.00 a. cuboidal epithelia. ✓ b. dense, fibrous connective tissue. c. transitional epithelium. d. glial tissue. The correct answer is: cuboidal epithelia. Question 44 Which type of membrane lines the ventral body cavities that are not open to the exterior of the Correct body? Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 Select one: a. Serous membrane ✓ b. Mucous membrane c. Synovial membrane d. Meninges The correct answer is: Serous membrane Question 45 Squamous: Correct Mark 1.00 out Select one: of 1.00 a. means striated or striped. b. means joint lining. c. refers to the flattened appearance of fish scales. ✓ d. refers to electrical conduction. The correct answer is: refers to the flattened appearance of fish scales. Question 46 To which of the following is glandular epithelium most related? Correct Mark 1.00 out Select one: of 1.00 a. Endocrine and exocrine ✓ b. Striated and smooth c. Neuronal and glial d. Periosteum and pericardial The correct answer is: Endocrine and exocrine Question 47 Which of the following groups is correct? Incorrect Mark 0.00 out Select one: of 1.00 a. Types of cartilage: hyaline, fibrocartilage, and elastic cartilage × b. Types of loose connective tissue: areolar, adipose, and reticular c. Layers of epithelial tissue: simple and stratified d. Connective tissue membranes: mucous, serous, and synovial The correct answer is: Connective tissue membranes: mucous, serous, and synovial Question 48 Which of the following is most descriptive of fascia? Correct Mark 1.00 out Select one: of 1.00 a. Contractile b. Fatty c. Tough and supportive ✓ d. Glandular The correct answer is: Tough and supportive Question 49 This type of connective tissue membrane lines many joints and secretes a lubricating fluid that has Correct the consistency of egg white. Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 Select one: a. Meningeal b. Synovial ✓ c. Pleural d. Pericardial The correct answer is: Synovial Question 50 Which group is incorrect? Correct Mark 1.00 out Select one: of 1.00 a. Types of serous membranes: pleura, peritoneum, mucosa ✓ b. Types of muscles: skeletal, cardiac, smooth c. Types of membranes: epithelial, connective tissue d. Types of epithelial membranes: cutaneous, mucous, serous The correct answer is: Types of serous membranes: pleura, peritoneum, mucosa  Started on Monday, 21 October 2024, 8:05 AM State Finished Completed on Monday, 21 October 2024, 8:26 AM Time taken 20 mins 12 secs Marks 44.00/50.00 Grade 88.00 out of 100.00 Question 1 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 Which of the following is true of sebaceous glands? Select one: a. They are exocrine glands. ✓ b. They are primarily responsible for temperature regulation. c. They secrete melanin in response to ultraviolet radiation. d. They secrete vitamin D in response to ultraviolet radiation. The correct answer is: They are exocrine glands. Question 2 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 Perspiration can be classified as: Select one: a. sensible and insensible. ✓ b. active and passive. c. external and internal. d. shivering and nonshivering. The correct answer is: sensible and insensible. Question 3 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 Which of the following is least descriptive of the dermal layer? Select one: a. It is nourished by blood vessels in the epidermal layer. ✓ b. It sits on the subcutaneous layer. c. It supports the epidermis. d. It contains the cutaneous blood vessels, free nerve endings, tactile receptors, and arrector pili muscles. The correct answer is: It is nourished by blood vessels in the epidermal layer. Question 4 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 Nonshivering thermogenesis is accomplished by: Select one: a. involuntary contraction of skeletal muscles. b. constriction of the dermal blood vessels. c. metabolism associated with brown fat. ✓ d. involuntary contraction of the arrector pili muscles. The correct answer is: metabolism associated with brown fat. Question 5 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 The color of skin that is supplied by oxygen-poor blood is described as: Select one: a. flushed. b. jaundiced. c. cyanotic. ✓ d. pink. The correct answer is: cyanotic. Question 6 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 Which of the following is descriptive of the epidermal layer? Select one: a. It is nourished by blood vessels in the dermal layer. ✓ b. It sits on the subcutaneous layer. c. It sits inferior to the stratum germinativum. d. It contains the cutaneous blood vessels, free nerve endings, tactile receptors, and arrector pili muscles. The correct answer is: It is nourished by blood vessels in the dermal layer. Question 7 Incorrect Mark 0.00 out of 1.00 Which type of gland secretes vernix caseosa in the fetus? Select one: a. Sudoriferous × b. Apocrine c. Eccrine d. Sebaceous The correct answer is: Sebaceous Question 8 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 What is the result of the contraction of the arrector pili muscles? Select one: a. Nail growth b. Goosebumps ✓ c. Sweating d. Tanning The correct answer is: Goosebumps Question 9 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 Which of the following is associated with tanning? Select one: a. Sudoriferous glands b. Apocrine glands c. Arrector pili muscles d. Melanocytes ✓ The correct answer is: Melanocytes Question 10 Incorrect Mark 0.00 out of 1.00 Who or what is covered with vernix caseosa? Select one: a. A pregnant woman b. A toddler × c. A fetus d. The pregnant uterus The correct answer is: A fetus Question 11 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 Rectal temperature is: Select one: a. a measure of shell temperature. b. lower than oral and axillary temperatures. c. higher in the early morning than in late afternoon. d. a measurement of core temperature. ✓ The correct answer is: a measurement of core temperature. Question 12 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 The hair follicle is: Select one: a. the part of the hair that is above the surface of the skin. b. composed of epithelial cells. ✓ c. composed of dead and keratinized cells. d. that which we brush, blow dry, curl, and iron. The correct answer is: composed of epithelial cells. Question 13 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 The hypothalamus: Select one: a. is the body’s thermostat. b. can be affected by pyrogens. c. is involved in thermoregulation. d. all is applicable. ✓ The correct answer is: all is applicable. Question 14 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 The layer that insulates the body from extreme temperature changes in the external environment is the: Select one: a. epidermis. b. subcutaneous layer. ✓ c. stratum germinativum. d. dermis. The correct answer is: subcutaneous layer. Question 15 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 What is the effect of shivering? Select one: a. Increases heat production. ✓ b. Increases heat loss. c. Causes the blood vessels of the skin to dilate. d. Decreases sweating. The correct answer is: Increases heat production. Question 16 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 Drugs can be placed on the surface of the skin and absorbed ________________ to achieve a systemic effect. Select one: a. topically b. transdermally ✓ c. subcutaneously d. intradermally The correct answer is: transdermally Question 17 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 Which of the following is a consequence of a congenital absence of eccrine glands? Select one: a. Jaundice b. Vitiligo c. Acne vulgaris d. Inability to regulate body temperature ✓ The correct answer is: Inability to regulate body temperature Question 18 Incorrect Mark 0.00 out of 1.00 The sebaceous, apocrine, and eccrine glands are _____ glands. Select one: a. sweat b. endocrine × c. sebum-secreting d. exocrine The correct answer is: exocrine Question 19 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 Which of the following is least true of the epidermis? Select one: a. Is the thin outer layer of the skin. b. Sits on the subcutaneous layer. ✓ c. Is avascular. d. Contains the stratum germinativum and the stratum corneum. The correct answer is: Sits on the subcutaneous layer. Question 20 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 Hives are called: Select one: a. impetigo. b. urticaria. ✓ c. psoriasis. d. vitiligo. The correct answer is: urticaria. Question 21 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 Freckles and moles are caused by an accumulation of: Select one: a. bilirubin. b. vernix caseosa. c. melanin. ✓ d. keratin. The correct answer is: melanin. Question 22 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 Anticancer drugs often cause hair loss, a condition called: Select one: a. alopecia. ✓ b. hirsutism. c. vitiligo. d. keratinization. The correct answer is: alopecia. Question 23 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 Which of the following is associated with the conservation of heat? Select one: a. The person appears flushed. b. The person sweats. c. Melanin is secreted. d. Blood vessels constrict. ✓ The correct answer is: Blood vessels constrict. Question 24 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 Eccrine glands: Select one: a. are sweat glands. ✓ b. secrete sebum. c. are active only after puberty. d. arise within the hypodermis. The correct answer is: are sweat glands. Question 25 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 A person sweats and becomes flushed while exercising to: Select one: a. decrease heat production. b. keep the heat in the core or center of the body. c. lose heat. ✓ d. prevent hypothermia. The correct answer is: lose heat. Question 26 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 Which of the following is least true of a fever? Select one: a. Involves the upward resetting of the hypothalamus. b. Often responds to the antipyretic effect of aspirin. c. Is generally caused by an inability of the body to get rid of excess heat, as in heat stroke. ✓ d. Is “broken” in response to vasodilation and sweating. The correct answer is: Is generally caused by an inability of the body to get rid of excess heat, as in heat stroke. Question 27 Incorrect Mark 0.00 out of 1.00 The stratum germinativum is: Select one: a. dead. b. mitotically active. c. found in the derma layer. × d. located in the subcutaneous layer. The correct answer is: mitotically active. Question 28 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 What is the name of the thickening of the epidermis that develops in response to constant pressure or irritation? Select one: a. Nevus b. Vitiligo c. Callus ✓ d. Blister The correct answer is: Callus Question 29 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 Which of the following is a true statement about hirsutism? Select one: a. It is also called alopecia. b. It may occur in response to abnormal secretion of hormones such as steroids. ✓ c. It is an abnormal color change of the skin. d. It refers to an inability to regulate body temperature. The correct answer is: It may occur in response to abnormal secretion of hormones such as steroids. Question 30 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 The name of the yellow pigment found in skin is: Select one: a. keratin. b. collagen. c. carotene. ✓ d. vitamin D. The correct answer is: carotene. Question 31 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 Which word is most descriptive of sudoriferous? Select one: a. Yellow b. Sweat ✓ c. Hot d. Tan The correct answer is: Sweat Question 32 Incorrect Mark 0.00 out of 1.00 Brown fat is found in the fetus and neonate and is concerned with: Select one: a. regulation of thirst. b. urine production by the fetal kidney. c. nonshivering thermogenesis. × d. regulation of fetal and neonatal blood glucose. The correct answer is: regulation of fetal and neonatal blood glucose. Question 33 Incorrect Mark 0.00 out of 1.00 A person feels warmer on a humid day because: Select one: a. the decrease in evaporation of water from the skin surface decreases the loss of heat. b. the body produces more heat on a humid day. c. a person breathes slower on a humid day and exhales less heated air. d. all is applicable. × The correct answer is: the decrease in evaporation of water from the skin surface decreases the loss of heat. Question 34 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 Which of the following is least true of hyperthermia? Select one: a. Body temperature is elevated. b. The elevated temperature is due to the inability of the body to get rid of excess heat. c. Hyperthermia is most often due to infection. ✓ d. Hyperthermia does not respond to the antipyretic effect of aspirin. The correct answer is: Hyperthermia is most often due to infection. Question 35 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 To lose heat, flushing is generally accompanied by: Select one: a. activation of the eccrine glands. ✓ b. secretion of sebum. c. contraction of the arrector pili muscles. d. constriction of the cutaneous blood vessels. The correct answer is: activation of the eccrine glands. Question 36 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 Sweat glands usually associated with hair follicles and found in the axillary and genital areas are called: Select one: a. ceruminous glands. b. eccrine glands. c. sebaceous glands. d. apocrine glands. ✓ The correct answer is: apocrine glands. Question 37 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 If the blood vessels of the skin dilate, the person appears: Select one: a. jaundiced. b. flushed. ✓ c. cyanotic. d. pale and washed out. The correct answer is: flushed. Question 38 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 The stratum corneum is: Select one: a. the outermost layer of the epidermis. b. an epidermal layer. c. nourished by blood vessels within the dermis. d. all is applicable. ✓ The correct answer is: all is applicable. Question 39 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 Which action is most likely to lower body temperature? Select one: a. Shivering b. Vasoconstriction c. Cyanosis d. Vasodilation ✓ The correct answer is: Vasodilation Question 40 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 Cyanosis: Select one: a. refers to a bluish coloring of the skin caused by hypoxemia. ✓ b. refers to a yellow coloring of the skin caused by elevated blood levels of bilirubin. c. is caused by abnormal and spotty deposition of melanin. d. is a hardening of the skin due to keratin. The correct answer is: refers to a bluish coloring of the skin caused by hypoxemia. Question 41 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 Which of the following substances makes the skin water resistant? Select one: a. Melanin b. Iron pigments c. Keratin ✓ d. Carotene The correct answer is: Keratin Question 42 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 Which of the following has the poorest prognosis (expected outcome)? Select one: a. Freckles b. Vitiligo c. Melanoma ✓ d. Albinism The correct answer is: Melanoma Question 43 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 Keratin is: Select one: a. found only in the hypodermis. b. carried to the stratum corneum by the dermal blood vessels. c. a protein that hardens and makes an epidermal cell water resistant. ✓ d. pigment that makes the skin dark when exposed to the sun. The correct answer is: a protein that hardens and makes an epidermal cell water resistant. Question 44 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 Which of the following lies on the subcutaneous layer? Select one: a. Stratum corneum b. Epidermis c. Dermis ✓ d. Stratum germinativum The correct answer is: Dermis Question 45 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 Apocrine glands: Select one: a. become active at puberty. b. are exocrine glands. c. are found primarily in the axillary and genital areas. d. all is applicable. ✓ The correct answer is: all is applicable. Question 46 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 Which of the following describes exfoliation and desquamation? Select one: a. The sloughing off by the stratum corneum of dead cells ✓ b. The elimination of heat as part of the thermoregulatory mechanism c. The conservation of heat as part of the thermoregulatory mechanism d. Tanning as a protective mechanism from ultraviolet radiation The correct answer is: The sloughing off by the stratum corneum of dead cells Question 47 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 Hemorrhaging diminishes the amount of oxygenated blood delivered to the fingers and can cause the nails to appear: Select one: a. bluish. ✓ b. brittle. c. shiny. d. thickened. The correct answer is: bluish. Question 48 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 Melanocytes: Select one: a. secrete a tanning pigment in response to exposure to sunlight. ✓ b. secrete bilirubin and cause jaundice. c. are located only in the external ear and secrete cerumen. d. secrete carotene, giving the skin a yellow tint. The correct answer is: secrete a tanning pigment in response to exposure to sunlight. Question 49 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 The subcutaneous layer: Select one: a. is composed of the stratum germinativum and stratum corneum. b. contains adipose tissue. c. cushions, binds, and insulates. d. two of the above. ✓ The correct answer is: two of the above. Question 50 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 When exposed to the ultraviolet radiation of sunlight, melanocytes: Select one: a. create carotene. b. produce freckles. c. secrete more melanin. ✓ d. constrict the blood vessels. The correct answer is: secrete more melanin.  ST112 Midterm Chapter 1,2,3,4 & 6 1. Zinc, selenium, cobalt, and iodine are all Select one: a. Trace Elements b. Compounds c. Radioactive d. Isotopes of Hydrogen 2. Which of the following describes the response of a red blood cell (RBC) to immersion in an isotonic solution? Select one: a. The RBC swells and bursts. b. The RBC undergoes hemolysis. c. The RBC undergoes crenation; it shrinks. d. There is no net movement of water between the RBC and solution. 3. The intercellular matrix of which tissue is the hardest of all connective tissue? Select one: a. Fibrocartilage b. Collagen c. Osseous tissue d. Muscle 4. A patient with a blood pH of 7.28 Select one: a. Has an excess of H+. b. Has a blood pH that is within normal limits. c. Is alkalotic. d. Has a blood pH that indicates a deficiency of acid.  5. Which of the following is most related to mucous membrane? Select one: a. Forms the dermis b. Lines all the body cavities that open to the exterior of the body c. Is also called the skin d. Is the same as the epidermis 6. Which of the following illustrates antacid activity? Select one: a. NaCl → Na+ + Cl– b. HCl → H+ + Cl– c. Mg(OH)2 + HCl → MgCl2 + H2O d. KCl → K+ + Cl– 7. An atom has 1 proton, 0 neutrons, and 1 electron; its isotope has Select one: a. 2 electrons and 0 neutrons. b. 2 protons and 2 neutrons. c. 1 proton and 1 neutron. d. 2 protons and 0 neutrons. 8. Which type of solution causes crenation or shrinkage of submerged red blood cells? Select one: a. Hypotonic b. Isotonic c. Hypertonic d. Water 9. The kneecap is located distal to the Select one: a. Leg. b. Thigh. c. Foot. d. Toes.  10. What is another name for the frontal plane? Select one: a. Sagittal plane b. Cross section c. Transverse plane d. Coronal plane 11. Which of the following is true? Select one: a. The wrist is proximal to the elbow. b. The distal humerus (arm bone) is closer to the axilla than to the elbow. c. The proximal thigh bone is closer to the hip than to the knee. d. The distal tibia (shin bone) is closer to the knee than to the ankle. 12. Regeneration occurs in injured tissue Select one: a. When the tissue is replaced with the same type of tissue as the injured tissue. b. When a blood clot forms. c. When fibrous connective tissue replaces the injured tissue. d. After scar tissue forms. 13. The alveolar wall in the distal lungs is designed for rapid diffusion of the respiratory gases, O2, and CO2 across the alveolar wall. The alveolar wall is composed of Select one: a. Adipose tissue. b. Transitional epithelium. c. Dense, fibrous connective tissue. d. Simple squamous epithelium. 14. The pleura, pericardium, and peritoneum are Select one: a. Confined to the thoracic cavity. b. Confined to the abdominopelvic cavity. c. Serous membranes. d. Mucous membranes.  15. What happens when HCl is added to a solution with a pH of 7.45? Select one: a. The pH will be higher than 7.45. b. The solution will become more alkaline. c. The [H+] of the solution will increase. d. The pH will be higher than 8.0. 16. In which structure is most DNA found? Select one: a. Nucleus b. Mitochondrion c. Lysosome d. Golgi apparatus 17. The selectively permeable membrane Select one: a. Is a result of its composition; it is tough connective tissue, much like a ligament. b. Determines which substances enter and leave the cell. c. Allows for the unrestricted movement of water and electrolytes across the cell membrane. d. Permits diffusion but not osmosis. 18. Which of the following best describes normal saline? Select one: a. Radioactive b. Hemolytic to red blood cells c. Isotonic d. Crenating to red blood cells 19. What is the transport mechanism in this description: A passive process that “pulls” water from an area where there is more water to an area where there is less water? Select one: a. Filtration b. Endocytosis c. An ATP-driven pump d. Osmosis 20. Which of the following is true of Na+? Select one: a. Called the sodium ion b. Has fewer protons than electrons c. Called an anion d. Lowers pH 21. ATP Select one: a. Is a buffer, removing H+ from solution. b. Is an energy transfer molecule. c. Is a radioactive isotope of phosphate. d. Ionizes to H+, thereby lowering pH. 22. Which of the following is most descriptive of ionic and covalent? Select one: a. Types of bonding in which the electrons are shared b. Types of bonding in which the electrons are swapped c. Types of bonding d. Types of bonding found only in reactions in which H+ is produced 23. The heart pushes blood into the blood vessels as chemical energy is converted to which form of energy? Select one: a. Thermal b. Radiant c. Mechanical d. Nuclear 24. Which structure puts the finishing touches on and packages the protein for export from the cell? Select one: a. Mitochondrion b. Golgi apparatus c. Lysosome d. Nucleolus 25. Plasma proteins determine Select one: a. Plasma oncotic (osmotic) pressure. b. Capillary filtration pressure. c. The rate of diffusion out of the capillary. d. The size of the capillary pores. 26. Which of the following membranes form(s) the outer layer of the membrane lining the lungs? Select one: a. Parietal pleura b. Visceral peritoneum c. Meninges d. Visceral pleura 27. The pH of urine Select one: a. Is always more alkaline than blood. b. Is always acidic. c. Can be acidic or alkaline. d. Is more acidic than stomach contents. 28. A stem cell develops into a muscle cell. Which of the following most accurately describes this process? Select one: a. Differentiation b. Malignant c. Neoplastic d. Necrotic 29. Endocrine is least often described as Select one: a. Hormone secreting. b. Ductless. c. Glandular epithelium. d. Contractile 30. The thoracic cavity is ___________ to the abdominopelvic cavity. Select one: a. Deep b. Distal c. Anterior d. Superior 31. The sternal area is Select one: a. Superior to the cervical region. b. The breastbone area. c. Deep to the mediastinum. d. Inferior to the thoracic cavity. 32. Which group is incorrect? Select one: a. Types of serous membranes: pleura, peritoneum, mucosa b. Types of muscles: skeletal, cardiac, smooth c. Types of membranes: epithelial, connective tissue d. Types of epithelial membranes: cutaneous, mucous, serous 33. Methotrexate, an anticancer drug that interferes with cell replication, is most effective when the cancer cell is in the S phase of the cell cycle. Which of the following best describes methotrexate? Select one: a. Cell cycle phase–specific b. Stem cell stimulator c. Anaplastic d. Keratinized 34. A cation is a(n) Select one: a. Positively charged ion. b. Electrolyte. c. Isotope. d. Ion that has an atomic mass of 2. 35. Which of the following increases the speed of a chemical reaction but is itself not used up in the chemical reaction? Select one: a. An isotope b. A cation c. A catalyst d. ATP 36. Oxygen moves from the lungs (high concentration) into the blood (low concentration) in response to Select one: a. Filtration. b. Osmosis. c. Diffusion. d. Endocytosis. 37. Which organ is located in the ventral cavity and thoracic cavity but not in the mediastinum? Select one: a. Lung b. Liver c. Stomach d. Heart 38. The cutaneous membrane Select one: a. Is a synovial membrane. b. Is the skin. c. Has a visceral and