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All India RBTS-01 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2023 / Rank Booster Test Series / 27-Dec.-2022 ALL INDIA RANK BOOSTER TEST SERIES-UG-2022-23 RBTS-01...
All India RBTS-01 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2023 / Rank Booster Test Series / 27-Dec.-2022 ALL INDIA RANK BOOSTER TEST SERIES-UG-2022-23 RBTS-01 TEST-ID : 802 DURATION : 200 Minutes DATE : 27-12-2022 MARKS : 360 Topic Physics : Dual Nature, Atoms, Nuclei, Radioactivity Chemistry : Some basic concept of chemistry, Periodic table, Polymer, Chemistry in everyday life Biology : The Living World, Biological Classification, Reproduction in Organisms, Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants, Human Reproduction (Do not open this Test Booklet until you are asked to do so.) Please read the instructions carefully : The Test pattern of NEET (UG)-2021 comprises of two Sections. Each subject will consist of two sections. Section A will consist of 35 Questions and Section B will have 15 questions, out of these 15 Questions, candidates can choose to attempt any 10 Questions. The pattern for the NEET (UG)-2021 Examination for admission in the Session 2021-22 is as follows: The important points to note: I. Each question carries 04 (four) marks and, for each correct answer candidate will get 04 (four) marks. II. For each incorrect answer, 01(one) mark will be deducted from the total score. III. To answer a question, the candidate has to find, for each question, the correct answer/ best option. IV. However, after the process of the challenge of key, if more than one option is found to be correct then all/any one of the multiple correct/best options marked will be given four marks (+4). Any incorrect option marked will be given minus one mark (-1). Unanswered/Unattempted questions will be given no marks. In case, a question is dropped/ ignored, all candidates will be given four marks (+4) irrespective of the fact whether the question has been attempted or not attempted by the candidate. Name of the Student (In CAPITALS) : _____________________________________________________________ Candidate ID : _________________________________________________________________________________ Candidate Signature : _____________________________ Invigilator's Signature : _______________________ NLI / 1 All India RBTS-01 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2023 / Rank Booster Test Series / 27-Dec.-2022 INSTRUCTION The candidates should ensure that the Answer Sheet is not folded. Do not make any stray marks on the Answer Sheet. Do not write your roll no. anywhere else except in the specified space in the Test Booklet/Answer Sheet. Before attempting the question paper ensure that it contains all the pages and no question is missing. Each candidate must show on demand his/her Admission Card to the Invigilator. If any student is found to have occupied the seat of another student, both the students shall be removed from the examination and shall have to accept any other penalty imposed upon them. No candidate, without special permission of the Superintendent or Invigilator, would leave his/her seat. The candidates should not leave the Examination Hall without handing over their Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on duty and sign the Attendance Sheet twice. Cases where a candidate has not signed the Attendance Sheet second time will be deemed not to have handed over Answer Sheet and dealt with as an unfair means case. Use of Electronic/Manual Calculator is prohibited. The candidates are governed by all Rules and Regulations of the Board with regard to their conduct in the Examination Hall. All cases of unfair means will be dealt with as per Rules and Regulations of the Board. The candidates will write the Correct Test ID Code as given in the Test Booklet/Answer Sheet in the Attendance Sheet. Key Points of New Light Test Series : Rapid Fire Revision of all tests Live Classes available on "New LIght Institute" Channel ( ) before the scheduled test. Video of all tests' solution available on "New Light Institute" App. Chat support 24×7 available for the students on "New Light Institute" App. Test results are regularly sent to the parents and students. For lattest update on NEET, PDF sheets, other examinations and class schedule. Please Subscribe our – Telegram Channel - @NewLightInstituteKanpur Youtube Channel - New Light Institute NLI / 2 All India RBTS-01 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2023 / Rank Booster Test Series / 27-Dec.-2022 TOPIC : Dual Nature, Atoms, Nuclei, Radioactivity SECTION-A SECTION-A 15 1. Threshold frequency for a metal is 10 Hz. Light of 1. 1015 Hz = 4000 Å = 4000 Å falls on its surface. Which of the following statements is correct : (1) No photoelectric emission takes place (1) (2) Photoelectrons come out with zero speed (2) (3) Photoelectrons come out with 103 m/s speed (3) 103 m/s (4) Photoelectrons come out with 105 m/s speed (4) 105 m/s 2. In a photoemissive cell with exciting wavelength 2. , , the fastest electron has speed v. If the exciting v wavelength is changed to , the speed of the 4 4 fastest emitted electron will be : (1) v (1) Less than v (2) Greater than v (2) v (3) becomes zero (3) (4) none of these (4) 3. The incident photon involved in the photoelectric 3. effect experiment : (1) (1) Completely disappear (2) Comes out with increased frequency (2) (3) Comes out with a decreased frequency (3) (4) Comes out without change in frequency (4) ` 4. When electron of ‘H’ like atom jumps from n = 2 to 4. 'H' n=2 n=1 n = 1 it emits wavelength . Then wavelength n=4 emitted by the electron when it jumps from n = 4 n=2 to n = 2 is: (1) /4 (1) /4 (2) /2 (2) /2 (3) 4 (3) 4 (4) 2 (4) 2 5. Density of a nucleus : 5. (1) Does not depend upon size of nucleus (1) (2) Increases as size of nucleus increases (2) (3) Decreases as size of nucleus increases (3) (4) Randomly change from atom to atom. (4) NLI / 3 All India RBTS-01 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2023 / Rank Booster Test Series / 27-Dec.-2022 6. When free nucleons combine : 6. (1) Total mass remains constant (1) (2) Mass slightly decreases and energy is released (2) (3) Mass slightly decreases and some energy is absorbed (3) (4) Mass slightly decreases but energy is not absorbed or evolved. (4) 7. A -ray particle is emitted by : 7. (1) Orbital electron (1) (2) Nucleus (2) (3) Both orbital electron and nucleus (3) (4) Cosmic rays on collision with electron (4) 8. In equation 1H1 0n1 + ? + ? + ?, the missing 8. H1 0 n 1 + ? + ? + ? 1 particles are : (1) , e , (2) , e , (1) , e , (2) , e , (3) , e , (4) , e , (3) , e , (4) , e , 9. In K shell capture : 9. K shell (1) electron of k shell jumps to n = 2 (1) k n=2 (2) k n= (2) electron of k shell jumps to n = (3) k (3) electron of k shell get absorbed by nucleus (4) An extra electron comes in k shell. (4) k 10. If 3Li7 + 1H1 4B8 mass of 3Li7 = 7.0020 u mass of 1H1 10. 3 Li7 + 1H1 4B8 is 1.0027 u and mass of 4B8 is 8.0016u. Then energy 1 H1 1.0027 u, 3Li7 7.0020 evolved is : u, 4B 5 8.0016 u (1) 2.89 colorie (1) 2.89 colorie (2) 2.89 eV (2) 2.89 eV (3) 2.89 MeV (3) 2.89 MeV (4) 2.89 kJ. (4) 2.89 kJ. 11. , , are detected from : 11. (1) Wilson cloud chamber (1) (2) Geiger muller counter (2) (3) Ionisation chamber (3) (4) Discharge tube. (4) NLI / 4 All India RBTS-01 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2023 / Rank Booster Test Series / 27-Dec.-2022 12. Which of these donot show fluorescence on ZnS 12. ZnS screen: (1) -rays (1) - (2) -rays (2) - (3) -rays (3) - (4) Electrons. (4) 13. Quantity of radioactive substance remained 13. 2 undecayed after 2 mean lives is nearly : (1) 25% (2) 75% (1) 25% (2) 75% (3) 13.7% (4) 39.69% (3) 13.7% (4) 39.69% 14. Half life of a radioactive substance is 12 days. If it 14. 20g 12 3 initially 20 gram, then its quantity after 3 days is: (1) 16.6 g (2) 14.4 g (1) 16.6 g (2) 14.4 g (3) 15.2 g (4) 18.1 g. (3) 15.2 g (4) 18.1 g. 15. If 3Li7 + 1H1 4Be8 mass of 3Li7 = 7.0020 u mass of 15. 3 Li7 + 1H1 4Be8 1 H1 is 1.0027 u and mass of 4Be8 is 8.0016u. Then 1 H1 1.0027 u, 3Li7 7.0020 energy evolved is : 8 u, 4Be 8.0016 u (1) 2.89 colorie (1) 2.89 colorie (2) 2.89 eV (2) 2.89 eV (3) 2.89 MeV (3) 2.89 MeV (4) 2.89 kJ. (4) 2.89 kJ. 16. The wavelength of radiation is 0 when an electron 16. jumps from third to second orbit of hydrogen atom. 0 For the electron to jump from the fourth to the second orbit of the hydrogen atom, the wavelength of radiation emitted will be : 16 20 16 20 (1) 0 (2) 0 (1) 0 (2) 0 25 27 25 27 27 15 27 15 (3) 0 (4) 0 (3) 0 (4) 0 20 16 20 16 17. Which of the following transitions in a hydrogen 17. atom emits photons of the highest wavelength : (1) n = 1 to n = 2 (1) n = 1 to n = 2 (2) n = 4 to n = 1 (2) n = 4 to n = 1 (3) n = 2 to n = 6 (3) n = 2 to n = 6 (4) n = 3 to n = 2 (4) n = 3 to n = 2 NLI / 5 All India RBTS-01 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2023 / Rank Booster Test Series / 27-Dec.-2022 18. The correct curve showing variation of binding 18. energy per nucleon(2) with mass number (1) of the nucleus is: B B B B (a) (b) (a) (b) A A A A 0,0 0,0 0,0 0,0 B B B B (c) (d) (c) (d) A A A A 0,0 0,0 0,0 0,0 (1) (1) (1) (1) (2) (2) (2) (2) (3) (3) (3) (3) (4) (4) (4) (4) 19. According to Bohr's theory of hydrogen atom for 19. nth an electron in the nth permissible orbit : (1) n (1) radius of orbit n 1 1 (2) (2) angular momentum n n (3) velcoity n (3) n 1 1 (4) linear momentum (4) n n 20. The diagram shows that energy levels for an 20. electron in a certain atom. Which transition shown represents the emission of a photon with the most energy n=4 n=4 n=3 n=3 n=2 n=2 n=1 I II III IV n=1 I II III IV (1) I (1) I (2) II (2) II (3) III (3) III (4) IV. (4) IV. NLI / 6 All India RBTS-01 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2023 / Rank Booster Test Series / 27-Dec.-2022 21. The ratio of short wavelength limits of lymen series 21. and Balmer series is : (1) 1 : 4 (1) 1 : 4 (2) 2 : 1 (2) 2 : 1 (3) 4 : 1 (3) 4 : 1 (4) 1 : 2. (4) 1 : 2. 22. In the reaction 1H2 + 1H3 2He4 + 0n1 if the binding 22. 2 + 1H3 2He4 + 0n1 2 3 1H 1H , 1H energies of 1H2, 1H3 and 2He4 are respectively x, y 4 2He x, y z (MeV ) and z (in MeV) energy released in this reaction is : (1) – z – x – y (1) – z – x – y (2) x + y + z (2) x + y + z (3) x + y – z (3) x + y – z (4) z – x – y. (4) z – x – y. 23. In the given reaction radioactive 23. Z XA ZYA Z–2KA–4 Z–1KA–4 XA ZYA Z–2KA–4 Z–1KA–4 radiations are emitted in the sequence : Z (1) , , (1) , , (2) , , (2) , , (3) , , (3) , , (4) , , (4) , , 24. When graph is plotted between cut off potential 24. (Vc) (Vc) and frequency light () from graph slope is : vc vc (1) h (1) h (2) h/e (2) h/e (3) 2h/3 (3) 2h/3 (4) 1/h (4) 1/h 25. For photoelectric emission from certain metal the 25. cut-off frequency is . If radiation of frequency 2 2 incident on the metal plate, the maximum possible velocity of the emitted electron will be (m is the (m ): electron mass) : h 2h h 2h (1) (2) (1) (2) m m m m h h h h (3) 2 (4) (3) 2 (4) m (2m) m (2m) NLI / 7 All India RBTS-01 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2023 / Rank Booster Test Series / 27-Dec.-2022 26. Light of wavelength 4000Å is incident on two metals 26. 4000Å A B A and B, A of work function 4.2 eV and B of work function 1.19 eV respectively. The photoelectrons 4.2 eV, 1.19 eV will be emitted by: (1) Metal A (1) A (2) Metal B (2) B (3) Both A and B (3) A B (4) Neither metal A nor metal B (4) A B 27. For the Bohr’s first orbit of circumference 2r, the 27. 2r, de-Broglie wavelength of revolving electron will be: (1) 2r (1) 2r (2) r (2) r 1 1 (3) (3) 2r 2r 1 1 (4) (4) 4r 4r 28. When graph is plotted between max. KE of electron 28. (Ek)) (Ek)) and frequency () correct graph will be : () Ek Ek Ek Ek (1) (2) (1) (2) Ek Ek Ek Ek (3) (4) (3) (4) 29. Which rays deflected more cathode ray, X-rays 29. X- - -rays in magnetic field : (1) X-ray (1) X- (2) rays (2) (3) cathode ray (3) (4) none of these (4) 30. E and be the K.E. of photo electron and frequency 30. E of light radiation respectively. If we double the frequency of radiation then the new K.E. energy of electron is : (1) E–h (1) E–h (2) h+E (2) h+E (3) 2h+E (3) 2h+E (4) 2h (4) 2h NLI / 8 All India RBTS-01 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2023 / Rank Booster Test Series / 27-Dec.-2022 31. Two photons having 31. (1) Equal wavelengths have equal linear momentum (1) (2) Equal energies have zero linear momentum (2) (3) Equal frequencies have infinite linear momentum (3) (4) Equal linear momentum have equal wave lengths (4) 32. Rest mass of photon is : 32. (1) Zero (1) (2) h/c2 (2) h/c2 (3) h3/c2 (3) h3/c2 (4) h/c (4) h/c 33. If alpha particle and deutron move with velocity v 33. v 2v and 2v respectively, the ratio of their de-Broglie wave length will be: : (1) 1: 2 (2) 2 : 1 (1) 1: 2 (2) 2 : 1 (3) 1 : 1 (4) 2 :1 (3) 1 : 1 (4) 2 :1 34. The de Broglie wavelength associated with an 34. 64 V electron accelerated by a potential of 64 V is: : (1) 1.227 nm (2) 0.613 nm (1) 1.227 nm (2) 0.613 nm (3) 0.302 nm (4) 0.153 nm (3) 0.302 nm (4) 0.153 nm 35. de-Broglie hypothesis treated electrons as: 35. : (1) Particles (1) (2) Waves (2) (3) Both a and b (3) a b (4) None of these (4) SECTION-B SECTION-B 36. If particles are moving with same velocity, the 36. minimum de-Broglie wavelength will be for: (1) Neutron (1) (2) Proton (2) (3) - particle (3) - (4) -particle (4) - 37. If the kinetic energy of the particle is increased 37. by 16 times, the percentage change in the de Broglie wavelength of the particle is: (1) 25% (1) 25% (2) 75% (2) 75% (3) 60% (3) 60% (4) 50% (4) 50% NLI / 9 All India RBTS-01 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2023 / Rank Booster Test Series / 27-Dec.-2022 38. Which of the following is true for photon: 38. : hc hc (1) E (1) E 1 1 (2) E mu2 (2) E mu2 2 2 E E (3) P (3) P 2v 2v 1 1 (4) E mc 2 (4) E mc 2 2 2 39. Which of the following is incorrect statement 39. : regarding phton: (1) (1) Photon exerts no pressure (2) hv (2) Photon energy is hv (3) Photon rest mass is zero (3) (4) None of these (4) 40. The work function of a metal is 4.2 eV, its threshold 40. 4.2 eV wavelength will be: : (1) 4000Å (1) 4000Å (2) 3500Å (2) 3500Å (3) 2955Å (3) 2955Å (4) 2500Å (4) 2500Å 41. Among the following four spectral regions, the 41. photons has the highest energy is: : (1) Infrared (1) (2) Violet (2) (3) Red (3) (4) Blue (4) 42. Stopping potential required to reduce the 42. photoelectric current to zero: : (1) Is directly proportional to wavelength of the incident radiation (1) (2) Increases uniformly with wavelength of the incident radiation (2) (3) is directly proportional to frequency of the incident radiation (3) (4) Decreases uniformly with the frequency of the incident radiation (4) NLI / 10 All India RBTS-01 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2023 / Rank Booster Test Series / 27-Dec.-2022 43. Match List –I (Fundamental Experiment) with 43. –I ( ) –II ( ) List–II (its conclusion) and select the correct option from the choice given below the list List–I List–II –I –II A. Frank-Hertz experiment i. Particle nature of A. i. light B. Photoelectric ii. Discrete energy B. ii. experiment levels of atom C. Davisson-Germer iii. Wave nature of C. iii. experiment electron iv. Structure of atom iv. (1) A–ii, B–i, C–iii (2) A–iv, B–ii, C–iii (1) A–ii, B–i, C–iii (2) A–iv, B–ii, C–iii (3) A–ii, B–iv, C–iii (4) A–iii, B–i, C–ii (3) A–ii, B–iv, C–iii (4) A–iii, B–i, C–ii 44. Assertion: The energy (E) and momentum (p) of a 44. : (E) (p) photon are related by p = E/c p = E/c Reason: The photon behaves like a particle : (1) If both assertion and reason are true and the reason (1) is the correct explanation of the assertion (2) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is (2) not the correct explanation of the assertion (3) (3) If assertion is true but reason is false (4) It the assertion and reason both are false (4) 45. If we plot a graph between K.E. of photoelectron 45. E E and frequency of light what does the slope represent. (1) (1) Stefan’s constant (2) (2) Gravitational constant (3) Planck’s constant (3) (4) None of these (4) 46. Photocells are used for the : 46. (1) Conversion of electrical in to chemical energy (1) (2) Conversion of electric energy in to Light energy (2) (3) Conversion of light energy in to electric energy (3) (4) Conversion of light energy in to mechanical energy (4) NLI / 11 All India RBTS-01 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2023 / Rank Booster Test Series / 27-Dec.-2022 47. The momentum of a photon of energy 1 MeV in 47. 1 MeV kgm/s kgm/s will be : (1) 5 × 10–22 (1) 5 × 10–22 (2) 0.33 × 106 (2) 0.33 × 106 (3) 7 × 10–24 (3) 7 × 10–24 (4) 10–22. (4) 10–22. 48. The veloity of photon is proprotional to where 48. (v = frequency) 1 1 (1) (2) v2 (1) (2) v 2 v v (3) v (4) does not depend (3) v (4) 49. Momentum of photon of wavelength is : 49. hv hv (1) (2) zero (1) (2) c c h h h h (3) (4) (3) (4) c2 c c2 c 50. Which of the following figures represent the 50. variation of particle momentum and the associated de-Broglie wavelength : (1) (1) (2) (2) (3) (3) (4) (4) NLI / 12 All India RBTS-01 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2023 / Rank Booster Test Series / 27-Dec.-2022 TOPIC : Mole Concept, Periodic Properties, Polymers, Chemistry in Everyday Life Atomic Masses : H = 1, He = 4, C = 12, N = 14, O = 16, Na = 23, Mg = 24, P=31, S=32, Cl = 35.5, K = 39, Ca = 40, Fe=56, Cu=63.5, Br = 80, Ag = 108, I = 127, Ba =137, Au = 197 SECTION – A SECTION – A 51. Which one of the following has maximum number 51. of atoms : (1) 1 Ag (1) 1 gm Ag (2) 1 gm Mg (2) 1 Mg (3) 1 gm O2 (3) 1 O2 (4) 1 gm Li (4) 1 Li 52. The total number of valence shell electrons present 52. 4.4 in 4.4 gm oxalate ion is (NA = Avagadro’s number) : by sDVªkW uksad h l a [ ; k gksx h (NA = ): (1) 1.7 NA (1) 1.7 NA (2) 2.3 NA (2) 2.3 NA (3) 3.2 NA (3) 3.2 NA (4) 4.6 NA (4) 4.6 NA 53. The number of moles of hydrogen molecules 53. 20 NH3 required to produce 20 moles of NH3 through Haber's process is : (1) 40 (1) 40 (2) 10 (2) 10 (3) 20 (3) 20 (4) 30 (4) 30 54. In a closed container N2 and H 2 are mixed to 54. N2 H2 produce NH3. If at any instant moles of N2, H2 and N 2 , H2 NH3 NH3 are 2 each, the orignal moles of N2 and H2 2 N2 H2 were respectively: (1) 3 and 4 (2) 3 and 5 (1) 3 4 (2) 3 5 (3) 4 and 5 (4) 4 and 3 (3) 4 5 (4) 4 3 55. Which has maximum number of molecules among 55. the following : (1) 44 CO2 (1) 44 gm CO2 (2) 48 gm O3 (2) 48 O3 (3) 8 gm H2 (3) 8 H2 (4) 64 gm SO2 (4) 64 SO2 56. If two compounds have same empirical formula, 56. they must have same : (1) molecular weight (1) (2) vapour density (2) (3) molecular formula (3) (4) percentage of elements (4) NLI / 13 All India RBTS-01 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2023 / Rank Booster Test Series / 27-Dec.-2022 57. The formula of an acid is HXO2. The mass of 0.0242 57. HXO2 0.0242 moles of the acid is 1.657 g. What is the atomic 1.657 X mass of X is: (1) 35.5 (1) 35.5 (2) 28.1 (2) 28.1 (3) 128 (3) 128 (4) 19 (4) 19 58. The molecular weight of O2 and SO2 are 32 and 64 58. O2 SO2 32 64 150C respectively. At 150C and 150 mmHg pressure, 1 L 150 mmHg 1 L O2 ‘N’ of O 2 contains ‘N’ molecules. The number of 2 L SO2 molecules in 2 L of SO2 under the same conditions of temperature and pressure will be: (1) N/2 (1) N/2 (2) N (2) N (3) 2N (3) 2N (4) 4N (4) 4N 59. If the concentration of glucose (C6H12O6) in blood 59. 0.9 –1 is 0.9 g L , what will be the molarity of glucose in blood: (1) 5 M (1) 5 M (2) 50 M (2) 50 M (3) 0.005 M (3) 0.005 M (4) 0.5 M (4) 0.5 M 60. 20 mL of 0.1 M, 30 mL of 0.2 M and 30 mL of 0.3 M 60. 0.1 M, 20 mL, 0.2 M, 30 mL solutions of oxalic acid are mixed and the volume 0.3 M, 30 mL 100 mL is made 100 mL. The molarity of the resulting solution is : (1) 0.21 M (1) 0.21 M (2) 8.51 M (2) 8.51 M (3) 5.67 M (3) 5.67 M (4) 0.17 M (4) 0.17 M 61. When 22.4 litres of H2(g) is mixed with 11.2 litres 61. 22.4 H2(g) 11.2 Cl2(g) of Cl2(g) each at STP, the moles of HCl(g) formed HCl(g) is equal to : (1) HCl(g) (1) 1 mol of HCl(g) (2) HCl(g) (2) 2 mol of HCl(g) (3) 0.5 mol of HCl(g) (3) HCl(g) (4) 1.5 mol of HCl(g) (4) HCl(g) 62. The empirical formula and molecular mass of a 62. CH2O compound are CH2O and 180 g respectively. What 180 will be the molecular formula of the compound : (1) C9H18O9 (1) C9H18O9 (2) CH2O (2) CH2O (3) C6H12O6 (3) C6H12O6 (4) C2H4O2 (4) C2H4O2 NLI / 14 All India RBTS-01 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2023 / Rank Booster Test Series / 27-Dec.-2022 63. A balanced equation for combustion of methane 63. is given below : CH4(g) + 2O2(g) CO2(g) + 2H2O(g) CH4(g) + 2O2(g) CO2(g) + 2H2O(g) Which of the following statements is not correct on the basis of the above chemical equation : (1) CH4 , 2 (1) one mole of CH4 reacts with 2 moles of oxygen to give one mole of CO2 and 2 moles of water. CO2 2 (2) one molecule of CH4 reacts with 2 molecule of oxy- (2) CH4 gen to give one molecule of CO2 and 2 molecule of CO2 2 water. (3) 22.4 44.8 44.8 (3) 22.4 L of methane reacts with 44.8 L of oxygen to CO2 22.4 give 44.8 L of CO2 and 22.4 L of water (4) 16 g 64 g O2 44 CO2 36 (4) 16 g of methane reacts with 64 g of O2 to give 44 gm of CO2 and 36 gm of water. 64. Identify the type of polymer 64. (i) – A – A – A – A – A – A – (i) –A–A–A–A–A–A– (ii) – A – B – B – A – A – A – B – A – (ii) – A – B – B – A – A – A – B – A – (1) (i) (ii) (1) (i) Homopolymer, (ii) Copolymer (2) (i) , (ii) (2) (i) Natural polymer, (ii) Synthetic polymer (3) (i) , (ii) (3) (i) Linear polymer, (ii) Branched polymer (4) (i) , (ii) (4) (i) Fibre, (ii) Elastomer 65. -S 65. The correct structure of monomers of buna-S is : CH 3 CH 3 (1) CH3 – CH = CH – CH3 + (1) CH3 – CH = CH – CH3 + (2) CH 3 – CH – CH = CH 2 + CH2 = CH – CN (2) CH 3 – CH – CH = CH 2 + CH2 = CH – CN CH 3 CH 3 CH = CH 2 CH = CH 2 (3) CH2 = CH – CH = CH2 + (3) CH2 = CH – CH = CH2 + CH 3 – CH – CH 3 CH 3 – CH – CH 3 (4) CH 3 – CH – CH = CH 2 + (4) CH 3 – CH – CH = CH 2 + Cl Cl 66. Fill up the blanks with suitable reagents to show 66. synthesis of polyvinyl chloride : Cl Cl X Y CH CH CH2 = CHCl ( CH 2 – CH ) n X Y CH CH CH2 = CHCl ( CH 2 – CH ) n (1) X = HCl, HgCl2 ; Y = Polymerisation, peroxide (1) X = HCl, HgCl2 ; Y= (2) X = Cl2, FeCl3 ; Y = Polymerisation, heat (2) X = Cl2, FeCl3 ; Y= (3) X = HCl, CuCl2 ; Y = H2O, H+ (3) X = HCl, CuCl2 ; Y = H2O, H+ (4) X = HCl, HgCl2 ; Y = Pt, high pressure (4) X = HCl, HgCl2 ; Y = Pt, NLI / 15 All India RBTS-01 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2023 / Rank Booster Test Series / 27-Dec.-2022 67. During addition polymerisation of ethene 67. molecules, the initiator like benzoyl peroxide, acetyl peroxide, tert-butyl peroxide, etc. are added. Their function is to : (1) (1) Ensure anti-Markownikoff's addition of molecules to form polymer (2) Give cations during the reaction which join together (2) to form bigger molecules (3) Decrease the temperature of the reaction mixture (3) (4) Generate free radical which adds to the monomer (4) to give bigger free radical 68. High density polythene is obtained by : 68. (1) Polymerisation of ethene in a hydrocarbon solvent (1) in the presence of Ziegler-Natta catalyst (2) Polymerisation of ethene under high pressure and (2) temperature (3) Free radical polymerisation of ethene at low (3) temperature in presence of peroxide (4) Polymerisation of ethene in presence of carbon (4) tetrachloride 69. Formation of nylons and polyesters are called step 69. growth polymerisation because : (1) the polymers are formed by addign a monomer (1) step by step (2) the polymers are formed by condensation and monomers are joined by loss of simple molecules (2) like water (3) the monomers used for condensation are (3) unsaturated molecules (4) the polymers are formed by addition of a large (4) number of free radicals formed by monomers 70. Which of the following polymers does not involve 70. cross-linkage : (1) Vulcanised rubber (1) (2) Bakelite (2) (3) Melamine (3) (4) Teflon (4) 71. Identify X and Y in the given polymerisation 71. X Y reaction : OH OH +HCHO +HCHO +HCHO +HCHO + H or OH – X heat Y + H or OH – X heat Y (1) X= ,Y= (1) X = Bakelite, Y = Novolac (2) X= ,Y= (2) X = Novolac, Y = Melamine (3) X = Bakelite, Y = Melamine (3) X= ,Y= (4) X = Novolac, Y = Bakelite (4) X= ,Y= NLI / 16 All India RBTS-01 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2023 / Rank Booster Test Series / 27-Dec.-2022 72. cis-Polyisoprene possesses elastic property 72. - because : (1) It is soft and soluble in non-polar solvent (1) (2) It is unsaturated and porous (2) (3) It has a coiled structure and chains held together (3) by weak van der Waals forces (4) It has a fibrous structure and reactive sites at (4) various double bonds 73. Which one of the following statements is wrong : 73. (1) PVC stands for poly vinyl chloride (1) PVC (2) PTFE stands for teflon (2) PTFE (3) PMMA stands for polymethyl methyl acrylate (3) PMMA (4) Buna-S stands for natural rubber (4) -S 74. The monomers of biodegradable polymer, nylon 74. -2- -6 2-nylon 6 are : (1) Glycine + adipic acid (1) + (2) Glycol + Phthalic acid (2) + (3) Phenol + urea (3) + (4) Glycine + amino caproic acid (4) + 75. Few polymers are matched with their uses. Point 75. out the wrong match : (1) Polyester – Fabric, tyre cords, safety belts (1) – (2) Nylon 6 – Ropes, tyre cords, fabrics (2) 6– (3) Bakelite – Packaging inductry, lubricant (3) – (4) Teflon – Oil seals, gaskets, non-stick utensils (4) – 76. Given below are two statements : 76. Statement I: I: Mendeleev's periodic table was based on atomic numbers. Statement II : II : Modern periodic table is based on atomic numbers. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below : (1) I II (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect (2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect (2) I II (3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct (3) I II (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct. (4) I II NLI / 17 All India RBTS-01 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2023 / Rank Booster Test Series / 27-Dec.-2022 77. Which of the following obeys triad law : 77. (1) Li, Na, K (1) Li, Na, K (2) Ca, Sr, Ba (2) Ca, Sr, Ba (3) Cl , Br , I (3) Cl , Br , I (4) All of these (4) 78. The screening effect of inner electrons on the 78. nucleus causes : (1) A decrease in the ionization potential (1) (2) An increase in the ionization potential (2) (3) No effect on the ionization potential (3) (4) None of these (4) 79. Four elements are given, choose the correct order 79. of their first ionisation potential : a. 1s2, 2s22p63s1 b. 1s2, 2s22p63s23p6 a. 1s2, 2s22p63s1 b. 1s2, 2s22p63s23p6 c. 1s2, 2s2 2p63s23p2 d. 1s2, 2s22p63s23p1 2 2 6 2 2 2 2 6 2 1 c. 1s , 2s 2p 3s 3p d. 1s , 2s 2p 3s 3p (1) a > b > c > d (1) a > b > c > d (2) d > c > b > a (2) d > c > b > a (3) b > c > d > a (3) b > c > d > a (4) b > d > c > a (4) b > d > c > a 80. Consider the isoelectronic series : Na+, O2–, F– and 80. Na+, O2–, F– Mg2+ Mg2+, the radii of the ions decrease as : (1) Mg2+ > Na+ > F– > O2– (1) Mg2+ > Na+ > F– > O2– (2) F– > O2– > Na+ > Mg2+ (2) F– > O2– > Na+ > Mg2+ (3) O2– > F– > Na+ > Mg2+ (3) O2– > F– > Na+ > Mg2+ (4) Na+ > Mg2+ > O2– > F– (4) Na+ > Mg2+ > O2– > F– 81. Given below are two statements: one is labelled 81. (A) as Assertion(A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R) (R). (A) : Assertion(A): Electronegativity is measurable quantity. Reason(R): (R) : The electronegativity of any given element is not constant, it varies depending on the element to which it bound. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: (1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct (1) (A) (R) (R) exaplanation of (A) (A) (2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct (3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct (2) (A) (R) (4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct (3) (A) (R) explanation of (A) (4) (A) (R) (R) (A) NLI / 18 All India RBTS-01 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2023 / Rank Booster Test Series / 27-Dec.-2022 82. Eka-Silicon was later called : 82. (1) Silicon (1) (2) Scandium (2) (3) Gallium (3) (4) Germanium (4) 83. Nature of As2O3 and Al2O3 is : 83. As2O3 Al2O3 : (1) Acidic (1) (2) Basic (2) (3) Amphoteric (3) (4) None of these (4) 84. IUPAC name of the element having atomic 84. 119 IUPAC number 119 is : (1) Ununnonium (uun) (1) Ununnonium (uun) (2) Oneunnonium (Oun) (2) Oneunnonium (Oun) (3) Unnilennium (une) (3) Unnilennium (une) (4) Ununennium (uue) (4) Ununennium (uue) 85. After the discovery of element of atomic number 85. 120 120, which group and period respectively, will it belongs to : (1) 8, 9 (1) 8, 9 (2) 1, 8 (2) 1, 8 (3) 2, 8 (3) 2, 8 (4) 2, 9 (4) 2, 9 SECTION-B SECTION-B 86. 4th period has 18 elements because filling of : 86. 18 (1) 3s 3p 3d (1) 3s 3p 3d (2) 4s 3d 4p (2) 4s 3d 4p (3) 4s 3f 4p (3) 4s 3f 4p (4) 3s 4f 5d (4) 3s 4f 5d 87. Select incorrect statment : 87. – 2– (1) Formation of Cl ion is exothermic whereas O is (1) Cl– endothermic from their respective elements. O2– (2) Noble gases have highest ionisation energy in their (2) respective period. (3) In general successive electron gain enthalpy of (3) elements will be negative. (4) F atom has less electron affinity the Cl atom. (4) F Cl NLI / 19 All India RBTS-01 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2023 / Rank Booster Test Series / 27-Dec.-2022 88. The correct order of electron affinity of Cl, S, F, O 88. Cl, S, F O is : (1) F > Cl > O > S (1) F > Cl > O > S (2) Cl > F > O > S (2) Cl > F > O > S (3) Cl > F > S > O (3) Cl > F > S > O (4) S > O > F > C (4) S > O > F > C 89. Which of the following compounds represents an 89. analgesic? OCOCH 3 OH OCOCH 3 OH COOH COOH (1) (2) (1) (2) CONH 2 CONH 2 CH3 OH CH3 OH CHO CHO (3) (4) (3) (4) COOH COOH 90. Which of the following is a narcotic analgesic: 90. (1) Ibuprofen (2) Aspirin (1) (2) (3) Paracetamol (4) Morphine (3) (4) 91. The structure given below is known as : 91. NHCOCHCl 2 NHCOCHCl 2 O2N CH – CH – CH 2 OH O2N CH – CH – CH 2 OH OH OH (1) prontosil (1) (2) sulphapyridine (2) (3) chloramphenicol (3) (4) chloroxylenol. (4) 92. Match the drugs in column I with the examples given in column II and mark the appropriate 92. -I -II choice. Column I Column II (A) Antibiotic (i) Codeine (B) Antiseptic (ii) Phenelzine (C) Analgesic (iii) Chloramphenicol (D) Tranquilizer (iv) Chloroxylenol (1) (A) (i), (B) (iii), (C) (ii), (D) (iv) (1) (A) (i), (B) (iii), (C) (ii), (D) (iv) (2) (A) (iv), (B) (ii), (C) (iii), (D) (i) (2) (A) (iv), (B) (ii), (C) (iii), (D) (i) (3) (A) (ii), (B) (iv), (C) (i), (D) (iii) (3) (A) (ii), (B) (iv), (C) (i), (D) (iii) (4) (A) (iii), (B) (iv), (C) (i), (D) (ii) (4) (A) (iii), (B) (iv), (C) (i), (D) (ii) NLI / 20 All India RBTS-01 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2023 / Rank Booster Test Series / 27-Dec.-2022 93. Which of the following statements is not correct : 93. (1) Antiseptics can be safely applied to the living (1) tissues. (2) Antiseptics can be incorporated into deoderants, (2) face powders and soaps. (3) (3) Disinfectants can also be applied to the skin safely. (4) A very dilute solution of a few disinfectants can“be (4) used as antiseptics. 94. What is tincture of iodine : 94. (1) 2-3% solution of iodine in alcohol-water mixture. (1) 2-3% (2) A mixture of iodine in chloroxylenol. (2) (3) A mixture of 0.2% phenol and 2-3% iodine in water. (3) 0.2% 2-3% (4) 2-3% (4) 2-3% solution of iodine in potassium iodide. 95. -I -II 95. Match column I wtih column II and mark the appropriate choice : Column I Column II (A) Bacteriostatic (i) Crucial to body's communication process (B) Batericidal (ii) Inhibit growth of microbes (C) Narrow spectrum (iii) Kill microbes antibiotics (D) Receptors (iv) Effective against single disease (1) (A) (i), (B) (ii), (C) (iv), (D) (iii) (1) (A) (i), (B) (ii), (C) (iv), (D) (iii) (2) (A) (ii), (B) (iii), (C) (iv), (D) (i) (2) (A) (ii), (B) (iii), (C) (iv), (D) (i) (3) (A) (iii), (B) (iv), (C) (i), (D) (ii) (3) (A) (iii), (B) (iv), (C) (i), (D) (ii) (4) (A) (iv), (B) (i), (C) (ii), (D) (iii) (4) (A) (iv), (B) (i), (C) (ii), (D) (iii) 96. Aspartame, the artificial sweetener is made7 by a 96. dipeptide of the amino acids, (1) aspartic acid and phenylalanine (1) (2) aspartic acid and glycine (2) (3) alanine and glycine (3) (4) aspartic acid and glutamic acid. (4) NLI / 21 All India RBTS-01 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2023 / Rank Booster Test Series / 27-Dec.-2022 97. Match column I wtih column II and mark the 97. -I -II appropriate choice : Column I Column II (A) Alitame (i) Antihistamine (B) Iodoform (ii) Artificial sweetener (C) Prontosil (iii) Antibacterial agent (D) Terfenadine (iv) Antiseptic (1) (A) (i), (B) (ii), (C) (iv), (D) (iii) (1) (A) (i), (B) (ii), (C) (iv), (D) (iii) (2) (A) (ii), (B) (iv), (C) (iii), (D) (i) (2) (A) (ii), (B) (iv), (C) (iii), (D) (i) (3) (A) (iii), (B) (i), (C) (ii), (D) (iv) (3) (A) (iii), (B) (i), (C) (ii), (D) (iv) (4) (A) (iv), (B) (iii), (C) (i), (D) (ii) (4) (A) (iv), (B) (iii), (C) (i), (D) (ii) 98. What are the hydrolysis products of glyceryl oleate 98. (C17H32COO)3C3H5 (C17H32COO)3C3H5 during preparation of soap : (1) C7H32COONa + C3H5OH (1) C7H32COONa + C3H5OH (2) C7H32COOH + CH3CH2CH2OH (2) C7H32COOH + CH3CH2CH2OH (3) C17H32COOH + CH2OH – CHOH – CH2OH (3) C17H32COOH + CH2OH – CHOH – CH2OH (4) C17H32COONa + CH2OH – CHOH – CH2OH (4) C17H32COONa + CH2OH – CHOH – CH2OH 99. Which of the following is not a true statement about 99. the detergents? (1) (1) Anionic detergents are sodium salts of sulphonated long chain alcohols or hydrocarbons. (2) (2) Cationic detergents are quarternary ammonium salts of amines with acetates, chlorides or bromides as an ions. (3) Non-ionic detergents do not contain any ion in (3) their constitution. (4) Detergents containing branched hydrocarbon (4) chains are biodegradable. 100. Which pair of oxide is acidic in nature : 100. (1) B2O3, CaO (1) B2O3, CaO (2) B2O3, SiO2 (2) B2O3, SiO2 (3) N2O, BaO (3) N2O, BaO (4) CaO, SiO2 (4) CaO, SiO2 NLI / 22 All India RBTS-01 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2023 / Rank Booster Test Series / 27-Dec.-2022 TOPIC : The Living World, Biological Classification, Reproduction in Organisms, Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants, Human Reproduction SECTION–A–(PART-1) SECTION–A–(PART-1) 101. Each and every organisms can live only for a 101. certain period of time. The period from birth to the natural death of an organism is defined as : (1) Life span (1) (2) Life history (2) (3) Life mystery (3) (4) Both 1 and 2 (4) 1 2 102. When offspring is produced by a single parent with 102. or without the involvement of gamete formation, such reproduction is called as : (1) Asexual and sexual both (1) (2) Asexual (2) (3) Sexual (3) (4) All of these (4) 103. Given below are two statements : 103. Statement I : I: Unicellular organisms grow by cell division. Statement II : II : All the living organisms are self-conscious. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect (1) I II (2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect (2) I II (3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct (3) II I (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct. (4) I II 104. No. of animals in given set in which oestrus cycle 104. occur , , , , , , , Cows, Rats, Monkeys, Deers, Dogs, Sheep, Tiger, Apes (1) 5 (1) 5 (2) 6 (2) 6 (3) 4 (3) 4 (4) 3 (4) 3 105. In majority of sexually reproducing organisms the 105. gametes produced are (1) Heterogametes (1) (2) Two morphologically distinct types gametes (2) (3) Both (1) and (2) (3) (1) (2) (4) None of these (4) NLI / 23 All India RBTS-01 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2023 / Rank Booster Test Series / 27-Dec.-2022 106. How many organism are bisexual in the given 106. diagram (a) (b) (a) (b) (c) (d) (c) (d) (1) 3 (1) 3 (2) 4 (2) 4 (3) 1 (3) 1 (4) 2 (4) 2 107. How many organism in which parthenogenesis 107. occur. Rotifers, honeybees, turkey birds, ascaris, planaria (1) 4 (1) 4 (2) 3 (2) 3 (3) 5 (3) 5 (4) 2 (4) 2 108. In flowering plants after fertilization many 108. structure are changes to other structure How many are correct matching according to this statements (a) – (a) Zygote – Embryo (b) – (b) Ovule – Fruit (c) Ovule – Seed (c) – (d) Ovary wall – Pericarp (d) – (e) Ovary – Fruit (e) – (1) 3 (1) 3 (2) 4 (2) 4 (3) 2 (3) 2 (4) 1 (4) 1 NLI / 24 All India RBTS-01 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2023 / Rank Booster Test Series / 27-Dec.-2022 109. 1260 chromosome present in : 109. 1260 (1) A fern (ophioglossum) (1) (2) A fungi (ophioglossum) (2) (3) A gymnosperm (ophioglossum) (3) (4) A angiosperm (ophioglossum) (4) 110. If vasa deferens are removed from human male 110. then sperms are present in which part (1) Rete testis (1) (2) Vasa efferentia (2) (3) Epididymis (3) (4) All of these (4) 111. In human female fertilisation takes place when 111. (1) Only sperm are reach the ampullary region (1) (2) Only ovum are reach the ampullary region (2) (3) Ovum and sperms are transported simultaneously (3) to the ampullary region (4) None of these (4) 112. Given below are two statements : one is labelled 112. (A) as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R) (R) (A) : Assertion (A) : The keys are based on the contrasting characters generally in a pair called couplet. Reason (R) : (R) : Each statement in the key in called a lead. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below : (1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the (1) (A) (R) (R) (A) correct explanation of (A) (2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct (3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct (2) (A) (R) (4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct (3) (A) (R) explanation of (A) (4) (A) (R) (R) (A) 113. Why a woman cannot get pregnant again during 113. pregnancy: (1) A woman ovulates during pregnancy , but the (1) oviducts are plugged with protective mucus to prevent sperm from entering (2) High levels of hCG in women's bodies kill sperm (2) hCG (3) A woman cannot have intercourse during pregnancy due to the presence of a protective mucus plug that develops in the cervix (3) (4) High levels of estrogen and progesterone, secreted by the corpus luteum or placenta during pregnancy (4) inhibit the secretion of gonadotropins and prevent ovulation NLI / 25 All India RBTS-01 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2023 / Rank Booster Test Series / 27-Dec.-2022 114. Corona radiata are related with : 114. (1) Human female gamete (1) (2) Human male gamete (2) (3) Covid-19 (3) -19 (4) Catalytic converter (4) 115. Which of the following is not a paired structure in 115. male: (1) Urethra (1) (2) Vas deferens (2) (3) Epididymis (3) (4) Ejaculatory duct (4) 116. Given below are two statements : 116. Statement I : I: In general, viruses that infect plants have single stranded R.N.A. Statement II : II : Viruses that infect animal may have single or double stranded R.N.A. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect (1) I II (2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect (2) I II (3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct (3) II I (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct. (4) I II 117. Interstitial cells are present : 117. (1) Inside ovary (1) (2) Outside layer of ovary (2) (3) Outside seminal vesicles (3) (4) Outside seminiferous tubules (4) 118. Spot the odd one out from the following structures 118. with reference to female reproductive system : (1) Ovary (1) (2) Oviduct (2) (3) Uterus (3) (4) Epididymis (4) 119. Correct sequence of layer of uterus from outside 119. to inside is : (1) (1) Myometrium perimetrium Endometrium (2) (2) Perimetrium Myometrium Endometrium (3) Endometrium Myometrium Perimetrium (3) (4) Endometrium Perimetrium Myometrium (4) NLI / 26 All India RBTS-01 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2023 / Rank Booster Test Series / 27-Dec.-2022 120. Which of the following layer of uterus is exhibits 120. strong contraction during delivery of the baby : (1) (1) Perimetrium (2) (2) Myometrium (3) Endometrium (3) (4) Both A and B (4) A B 121. How many sperms and ova are formed from 20 121. primary spermatocytes and 20 primary Oocytes : (1) 80, 40 (2) 80, 20 (1) 80, 40 (2) 80, 20 (3) 100, 20 (4) 40, 40 (3) 100, 20 (4) 40, 40 122. Which of the following is wrongly matched : 122. (1) Leydig cells - testosterone (1) (2) Spermatogenesis - seminiferous tubules (2) (3) Male reproductive system - Pelvis region (3) (4) Spermatogonia - budding (4) 123. The correct sequence of duct from inside to outside 123. the mammary gland is : (1) (1) Alveoli mammary duct mammary tubules mammary ampulla lactiferous ducts (2) (2) Alveoli mammary tubules mammary ampulla mammary duct lactiferous ducts (3) Alveoli mammary tubules mammary duct (3) mammary ampulla lactiferous ducts (4) Alveoli mammary duct mammary ampulla (4) mammary tubules lactiferous ducts 124. At what stage of life is oogenesis initiated in a 124. human female : (1) At puberty (1) (2) During menarch (2) (3) During menopause (3) (4) During embryonic development (4) 125. The function of secretion of prostate gland is to : 125. (1) Inhibit sperm activity (1) (2) Attract sperms (2) (3) Stimulate sperm activity (3) (4) Phagocytosis of sperms (4) 126. Correct sequence of spermatogenesis is 126. (1) Spermatogonia secondary spermatocyte (1) spermatid Primary spermatocyte spermatozoa (2) Spermatogonia primary spermatocyte (2) Secondary spermatocyte Sperm atid spermatozoa (3) Spermatid spermatozoa Spermatogonia (3) Secondary spermatocyte Primary Spermatocyte (4) Spermatozoa Primary sperm atocyte (4) Secondary spermatocyte Spermatogonia Spermatid NLI / 27 All India RBTS-01 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2023 / Rank Booster Test Series / 27-Dec.-2022 127. Which hormone stimulate for repair of 127. endometrium : (1) LH (1) LH (2) FSH (2) FSH (3) Estrogen (3) (4) Prolactin (4) 128. The cellular membrane of the ovum at ovulation 128. is : (1) (1) Corona radiata (2) (2) Zona pellucida (3) Chorion (3) (4) Perimetrium (4) 129. Given below are two statements : one is labelled 129. (A) as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R) : (R) (A) : Assertion (A) : Spores are endogenously produced in sporangium of Rhizopus. (R) : Reason (R) : Mycelium is branched & septate in Penicillium In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below : (1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the (1) (A) (R) (R) (A) correct explanation of (A) (2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct (2) (A) (R) (3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct (3) (A) (R) (4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A) (4) (A) (R) (R) (A) 130. Placenta acts as an : 130. (1) Endocrine tissue (1) (2) Exocrine tissue (2) (3) Inner cell mass (3) (4) Corpus luteum (4) 131. Which of the following differentiate into embryo : 131. (1) Zona pellucida (1) (2) Chorionic villi (2) (3) Trophoblast (3) (4) Inner cell mass (4) 132. Which of the following hormone is not a secretory 132. product of human placenta : (1) Cortisol (1) (2) Estrogen (2) (3) Human placental Lactogenic hormone (3) (4) Progesterone (4) NLI / 28 All India RBTS-01 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2023 / Rank Booster Test Series / 27-Dec.-2022 133. Normally placenta is formed by the interdigitation 133. of : (1) (1) Chorionic villi with trophoblast (2) (2) Chorionic villi with fallopian tube wall (3) Chorionic villi with uterine wall (3) (4) Chorionic villi with inner cell mass (4) 134. Colostrum : 134. : (1) is a hormone essential for milk secretion (1) (2) can be synthesized by the newborn infant but not (2) by a foetus (3) Stimulates further secretion of oxytocin for uterine (3) contraction (4) is a source of antibodies essential to develop (4) resistance against diseases in new born babies 135. Which cells have the potency to give rise to all 135. the tissues and organs : (1) Peptic cell (1) (2) Stem cells (2) (3) G. cell (3) (4) Oxyntic cell (4) SECTION–B–(PART-1) SECTION–B–(PART-1) 136. During parturition which of the following hormone 136. acts on myometrium : (1) Prolactin (1) (2) Oxytocin (2) (3) Relaxin (3) (4) Progesterone (4) 137. In human male reproductive system, secretion of 137. which structure constitute the seminal plasma a a b b c c d d (1) a, b, c (1) a, b, c (2) a, b, c, d (2) a, b, c, d (3) only a, c (3) a, c (4) a, b, d (4) a, b, d NLI / 29 All India RBTS-01 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2023 / Rank Booster Test Series / 27-Dec.-2022 138. Which of the following statement are not correct 138. according to the given diagram : c c a a b b
