VMC Medical Practice Test Series 10B NEET 2023 PDF

Important Instructions: 1. Immediately fill in the particulars on this page of the Test Booklet with Blue or Black Ball Point Pen. To mark answers on the OMR Sheet, use Blue or Black ball point pen only. 2. The Test Booklet consists of 200 questions. There are questions of FOUR subjects in...

Important Instructions: 1. Immediately fill in the particulars on this page of the Test Booklet with Blue or Black Ball Point Pen. To mark answers on the OMR Sheet, use Blue or Black ball point pen only. 2. The Test Booklet consists of 200 questions. There are questions of FOUR subjects in the paper namely Physics, Chemistry, Botany & Zoology. Questions of each subject are divided into two sections. Section-A contains 35 Questions of a Subject all of which must be attempted. Section-B contains 15 Questions of which any 10 can be attempted. 3. Each question is allotted 4 (four) marks for correct response. For each wrong answer, 1 (One) mark will be deducted. No deduction from the total score will be made if no response is indicated for an item in the answer sheet. Maximum marks of the paper are 720. 4. There is only one correct response for each question. Filling up more than one response in any question will be treated as wrong response and marks for wrong response will be deducted accordingly as per instruction 3 above. 5. No candidate is allowed to carry any text material, printed or written, mobile phone or any electronic device, etc. inside the examination room/hall. 6. Do not fold or make any stray mark on the OMR Sheet. 7. The candidates are governed by all Rules and Regulations of the Examination body with regard to their conduct in the Examination Hall. All cases of unfair means will be dealt with as per Rules and Regulations of the Examination body. SUBJECT SYLLABUS COVERED PHYSICS Complete Syllabus of Class XI and XII CHEMISTRY Complete Syllabus of Class XI and XII BOTANY Complete Syllabus of Class XI and XII ZOOLOGY Complete Syllabus of Class XI and XII  Vidyamandir Classes SECTION - A (PHYSICS) 140 MARKS 1. A particle is moving in a straight line with coefficient of restitution between the floor and velocity (v) = (t − 4) m / s. What is the average particle is e. Maximum height attained by the speed between t = 0 to t = 8 second? particle after second collision is: (1) 0ms−1 (2) 1ms−1 (1) eh0 (2) e2 h0 (3) 2ms−1 (4) 4ms−1 (3) e3h0 (4) e4 h0 2. A proton and a deuteron enter in a uniform 8. In the circuit shown in figure, what is the value magnetic field with equal kinetic energy in the direction perpendicular to the field. The ratio of of l0 just after pressing the key K? radius of circular path is: (1) 1 : 1 (2) 1 : 2 (3) 2 : 1 (4) 1: 2 3. When an elevator is moving downward with a increasing speed, the apparent weight of a body inside elevator: (1) 0.25 A (2) 0.75 A (1) Will increase (3) 2.25 A (4) 1A (2) Will decrease 9. A proton moving with velocity v along the axis (3) Remains the same (4) First increase then decrease approaches a circular current carrying loop as shown in figure. The magnitude of magnetic 4. Mercury does not wet glass because: (1) Cohesive force is equal to adhesive force force on proton at this instant is: (2) Cohesive force is much greater then adhesive force (3) Cohesive force is less than adhesive force (4) Angle of contact is 90° 5. Two infinitely long parallel wires having linear charge densities 1 & 2 respectively are placed 0 evR 2 0 eviR 2 at a distance of R. The force per unit length on (1) (2) either wire will be: 2( R 2 + x 2 )3/2 2( R 2 + x 2 )3/2 2k 12 k 1 2 0eviR 2 (1) (2) (3) (4) Zero R R 4n( R 2 + x 2 )3/2 2k 12 k 1 2 (3) (4) R2 R2 10. Five metallic plates each of area A and separated from adjacent plate by a distance d as 6. A ball is projected from ground with initial shown in figure. The capacitance of the system momentum p at an angle . What is the across A and B is: magnitude of net change in linear momentum when it reaches at maximum height of journey? (1) p sin  (2) p cos  A 0 2A 0 (3) 2 p sin  (4) p sin  + p cos  (1) (2) d d 7. A particle of mass m is dropped from rest from 3A 0 4A 0 a height h0 on a horizontal floor. The (3) (4) d d Page SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK  Vidyamandir Classes 11. Two co-planar circular loops are placed What is the heat given to the gas during the concentrically as shown in figure. The radius of process A → B ? the outer and inner loops are R and r respectively R > > r. The mutual inductance between them will be: (1) 1.5PV 0 0 (2) 2.5PV 0 0 (3) 3.5PV 0 0 (4) 2PV 0 0 0 r 2 0 r 2 16. The following figure depicts snapshot of a (1) (2) 2R 4R wave travelling in a medium. Which pair of 0 R2 0 R2 particle are in phase? (3) (4) 4r 2r 12. The B-H curve of two material are given below. Substance (a) most likely indicate. (1) A and D (2) B and F (3) C and E (4) B and G 17. Light wave is travelling along +y-direction. If (1) Diamagnetic substance the corresponding E vector at any time is along (2) Paramagnetic substance the +z-axis. Then the director of B vector at this (3) Soft iron (4) Steel time is along: 13. Maximum wavelength in Balmer series of hydrogen spectrum is (R: Rydberg constant) 4 9 (1) (2) R R 1 36 (3) (4) R 5R 14. A radioactive element 238 undergoes (1) y-axis (2) +x-axis 92 U (3) -x-axis (4) -z-axis successive radioactive decay and decays into 18. A nuclear fusion reaction is given by 206 82 Pb. The number of  & − particle emitted respectively are: 4 ( ) 4 2 He → 16 8 O. If atomic mass of He is 4.0026 (1) 10 and 4 (2) 6 and 6 amu and that of O is 15.9994 amu then the Q- (3) 8 and 6 (4) 8 and 8 value of the reaction will be approximately: 15. The P-V diagram of 4 g of helium gas for a (1) 5.4 MeV (2) 10.2 MeV certain process A → B is shown in the figure. (3) 18.6 MeV (4) 20.4 MeV Page SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK  Vidyamandir Classes 19. The spectrum of a black body at two 23. Consider a uniform square plate of side ‘a’ and temperature 127°C and 527°C is shown in the mass ‘m’. The moment of inertia of this plate figure. Let A1 & A2 be the areas under the two about an axis perpendicular to its plane and A1 passing through one of tis corners is: curves respectively. The value of is: 2 2 7 A2 (1) ma (2) ma2 3 12 5 2 1 (3) ma (4) ma2 6 12 24. The change in surface energy when a drop of radius R splits into 8 droplets, each of radius r is (surface tension is T) (1) 1:4 (2) 1:8 (3) 1 : 16 (4) 1:2 (1) 2R2T (2) 4R2T 20. The length of a potentiometer wire is. A cell (3) 8R2T (4) 16R2T of emf E is balanced at a length / 4 from the 25. The force required to stretch a steel wire of positive end of the wire. If the length of the wire is increased by / 2, at what distance will cross section 4cm2 to 1.02 times its length be same cell give a balanced point? would be: (Y = 2 1011 N m−2 ) (Potentiometer battery is ideal) 3 3 (1) 1.6 106 N (2) 1.6 10−6 N (1) (2) 4 8 (3) 1.6 10−7 N (4) 1.6 107 N (3) (4) 26. When a metallic surface is illuminated with 4 2 radiation of wavelength , the stopping 21. If the gravitational acceleration at the surface of potential is V. If the same surface is illuminated earth is g, then increase in potential energy in with radiation of wavelength 2, the stopping lifting an object of mass m from earth surface to V a height equal to half of radius of earth from potential is. The threshold wavelength for surface will be: 4 mgR 2mgR metallic surface is: (1) (2) (1) 2 (2) 3 2 3 mgR mgR 5 (3) (4) (3)  (4) 5 3 4 2 22. For the transistor circuit as shown. If  = 100, 27. A resistance R drawn power P when connected voltage drop between emitter and base is 0.7 V, to an AC source. If an inductance is now placed then value of VCE will be: in series with the resistance, such that the impedance of the circuit becomes Z the power drawn will be : R (1) P (2) P  Z 2 (1) 10 V (2) 15 V R PR2 (3) P  (4) (3) 20 V (4) 5V Z Z Page SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK  Vidyamandir Classes 28. For the arrangement shown in figure, the 32. Resistance of given carbon resistor is: tension in the string to prevent it from sliding down, is ( g = 10 m / s2 ) (1) 10 103   5% (2) 10 104   5% (1) 12 N (2) 21.6 N (3) 10 103   10% (3) 0N (4) 2.4 N (4) 10 104   10% 29. A charged particle of mass m and charge q is released from rest in a uniform electric field E. 33. The velocity of liquid coming out of a small The KE of particle after time t is : hole of a large vessel containing two different liquids shown in figure is: qEt 2 q2 E 2t 2 (1) (2) 2m 2m q 2 E 2t qE 2t 2 (3) (4) 2m 2m 30. What is the current through and ideal P − N junction diode shown in figure below? (1) 2 gh (2) 2gh (3) gh (4) 3 gh 34. A Carnot engine working between the (1) 40 mA (2) 20 mA temperature 500 K and 1000 K does a work of (3) 10 mA (4) 80 mA 1000 J. The heat energy supplied by the source 31. If force (F) mass (M) length (L) are taken as to the engine per cycle is: fundamental quantities, dimensions of time will (1) 1000 J (2) 1500 J be: (3) 2000 J (4) 2500 J (1) [M L F ] 35. An observer moves towards a stationary source of sound with a velocity one-fourth of the (2) [M LF −1] velocity of sound. What is the percentage (3) [M1/2 L1/2 F1/2 ] increase in the apparent frequency? (4) [M1/2 L1/2 F −1/2 ] (1) 25% (2) 50% (3) 10% (4) 20% Page SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK  Vidyamandir Classes SECTION - B (PHYSICS) 40 MARKS 36. Two balls each of mass 1 kg moving in (1) 6 km/h (2) 7.5 km/h opposite directions with speed 15 m/s colliders (3) 10 km/h (4) 8 km/h and rebounds with the same speed. The 41. Determine the energy required to launch a magnitude of impulse imparted to each ball due satellite of mass m from the surface of a planet to other is: of mass M and radius R in a circular orbit at an (1) 15kg ms−1 (2) 5kg ms−1 altitude of 3R. 5GMm 5GMm (3) 30kg ms−1 (4) 10kg ms−1 (1) (2) 6R 3R 37. The position x of a particle of mass 2 kg moving GMm 7GMm (3) (4) along straight line is given as x = (t − 2)2 , where t 3R 8R is in second and x is in metre. The work done by the 42. Electric field in a region is E = 3 ˆjN / C. force in first 2 s is: Equipotential surfaces are parallel to: (1) 0 J (2) -16 J (1) xy plane (2) xz plane (3) 16 J (4) 32 J (3) yz plane (4) All of these 38. An insect of mass m = 2 g is inside a vertical 43. The potential energy of a particle varies with x drum of radius 1 m that is rotating with an according to the relation U ( x) = x2 − 4x. The angular velocity of 10 rad/s. If the insect does point x = 2 is a point of: not fall off then the minimum coefficient of (1) Stable equilibrium friction is: (2) Unstable equilibrium (3) Neutral equilibrium (4) None of these 44. If A  B = 3 A  B then angle between A and B will be:   (1) (2) (1) 0.1 (2) 0.2 6 4 (3) 0.3 (4) 0.4   (3) (4) 39. Two circular rings (of same material) are of 3 2 same thickness. The diameter of first ring is 45. The reading of the voltmeter shown in figure is: twice that of second. The moment of inertia of first ring as compared to that of second is : (1) 4 times (2) 8 times (3) 16 times (4) 2 times 40. A man is swimming with speed 10 km/h in still water crosses a river of width 1 km along the (1) 50 V (2) 60 V shortest path in 10 minutes. The velocity of (3) 40 V (4) 80 V river flow is: Page SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK  Vidyamandir Classes 46. A particle having a charge -q and mass m is hc released from rest on axis of fixed ring of total 48. In the formula F = A.e x , where h is Planck’s charge Q and radius R, at a distance 3R from constant and c is speed of light. The dimensional formula for x is: the centre of the ring. Its kinetic energy when it reaches the centre of the ring is: (1) [M 0 L0T 0 ] (2) [M1L3T −2 ] (3) [M 0 LT 1 0 ] (4) [M 1L2T −2 ] 49. If A = 0 and B = 1 for a given logic gate, then value of X and Y respectively are: Qq Qq (1) (2) 20 R 160 R Qq Qq (1) 1, 0 (2) 0, 1 (3) (4) 80 R 30 R (3) 1, 1 (4) 0, 0 47. A ball is thrown vertically upwards with a 50. If two SHMs are represented by equations speed of 68 m/s. The distance travelled by the   y1 = 4sin  3t +  and ball in its seventh second of motion will be  3 ( g = 10 ms−2 ) y2 = 4(sin3t + 3 cos3t ), then ratio of their (1) 3.4 m (2) 2.4 m amplitudes is: (3) 5.2 m (4) 4.8 m (1) 3 :1 (2) 1:1 (3) 1:2 (4) 3:1 Page SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK  Vidyamandir Classes SECTION - A (CHEMISTRY) 140 MARKS 51. Which of the following is arranged in the order 56. Which of the following gives both positive of increasing radius of ions in aqueous iodoform test and positive Fehling’s solution solution? test? (1) Li+  Na +  K+  Rb+  Cs+ (1) Acetaldehyde (2) Acetone (2) Cs+  Rb+  K+  Na +  Li+ (3) Ethyl alcohol (3) Rb+  Na +  Li+  Cs+  K+ (4) Formaldehyde (4) Cs+  K+  Rb+  Li+  Na + 57. Major product formed on oxidation of 1- 52. Major product of the given reaction is: Decanol in the presence of Jones reagent is: (CH3 )3 CBr + CH3 − CH2 − ONa → product (1) Decanal (2) Decanoic acid (3) Pentanoic acid (1) CH3 − C = CH2 | (4) Pentanal CH3 58. Chloroform on reaction with O 2 in presence of CH3 light gives: | (2) CH3 − C − O − C2 H5 (1) CO2 (2) COCl2 | CH3 (3) CO (4) CCl3 − CHO (3) CH3 − CH2 − O − CH3 59. The process of setting of colloidal particles is (4) CH3 − CH2 − O − CH2 − CH3 known as: (1) Electrophoresis 53. The correct order of bond order of the given (2) Brownian movement species is: (3) Coagulation (4) Peptization (1) O+2  O2  O2− 60. Select the correct statement among the following: (2) O−2  O2+  O2 (1) The prescribed upper limit concentration of lead in drinking water is about 50 ppm (3) O2  O2−  O2+ (2) Na3AsO3 is used as pesticide (4) O−2  O2  O2+ (3) Excessive nitrate ion in drinking water 54. Ratio of the kinetic energy of 14 g of N 2 at can cause methemoglobinemia 27°C to 16 g of O 2 at 127°C will be: (4) Photochemical smog occurs in cool humid climate (1) 1:4 (2) 1:1 (3) 3:4 (4) 2:3 61. The most stable carbanion among the following is: 55. Which of the following does not undergo Cannizzaro reaction? (1) (2) (1) HCHO (2) (3) (4) (3) CH3 − CH2 − CHO (4) (CH3 )3 C − CHO Page SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK  Vidyamandir Classes 62. The compound which will react fastest by SN 2 68. Maximum number of electrons present in p mechanism is: subshell is: (1) 2 (2) 6 (1) (2) (3) 10 (4) 5 (3) Ph − CH2 − Br 69. Packing fraction of body centred cubic structure (4) (Ph)3 C − Br is:  3 63. At 25°C, the highest osmotic pressure is (1) (2)  6 8 exhibited by 0.1 M solution of: 2 3 (1) Urea (2) Glucose (3)  (4)  (3) NaCl (4) 8 6 AlCl3 70. Monomer of neoprene polymer is: 64. For the reaction, N2 + 3H2 → 2NH3 , if (1) 2-Chloro-1, 3-butadiene d[N2 ] − = 2 10−3 mol L−1 s−1, the value of (2) 1-Chloro-1, 3-butadiene dt (3) 2-methyl-1, 3-butadiene −d[H2 ] (4) 3-Hydroxybutanoic acid would be: dt 71. For the reaction, (1) 110−3 mol L−1 s−1 CaCO3 (s) → CaO(s) + CO2 (g) H = 82.8kJ at (2) 6 10−3 mol L−1 s−1 25°C, U at 25°C is (1) 85.28 kJ (2) 82.8 kJ (3) 3 10−3 mol L−1 s−1 (3) 80.32 kJ (4) 234 kJ (4) 4 10−3 mol L−1 s−1 72. Oxidation state of oxygen in KO2 is: 65. Consider the following reaction sequence 1 (1) −1 (2) − CH3CHO ⎯⎯⎯⎯ dil. NaOH  ⎯→A 2 1 ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯ (i) NH2 NH2 → B. B is: (3) −2 (4) + (ii) Ethylene glycol/KOH/  2 (1) CH3 − CH = CH − CHO 73. An ideal solution made by mixing two volatile (2) CH3 − CH = CH − CH2 − OH components A and B. If the vapour pressure of (3) CH3 − CH = CH − CH3 solution is 170 mm Hg, then mole fraction of A (4) CH3 − CH2 − CH2 − CH3 in vapour phase is: ( PA0 = 200mmHg, PB0 = 100mmHg) 66. Which among the following species is pyramidal in shape? (1) 0.72 (2) 0.82 (1) ClF3 (2) SF4 (3) 0.68 (4) 0.50 (3) NF3 (4) BCl3 74. Which of the following compounds is not an antacid? 67. The species which does not exist is: (1) Ranitidine (2) Cimetidine (1) H2 (2) He2 (3) Magnesium hydroxide (3) C2 (4) O2 (4) Serotonin Page SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK  Vidyamandir Classes 75. The cis-alkenes are formed by the reduction of 80. The number of aldehyde isomers for C4H8O alkynes with: will be: (1) NaBH4 (2) Na / liq.NH3 (1) 4 (2) 3 (3) H2 − Pd / C, BaSO4 (3) 2 (4) 5 (4) Fe + HCl 81. The rate constant for a first order reaction 76. The aqueous solution containing which one of which has half-life 231 s is: the following ions will be colourless? (1) 10−4 s−1 (2) 3 10−3 s−1 (1) Fe2+ (2) Zn2+ (3) 10−6 s−1 (4) 3 10−2 s−1 (3) Ni2+ (4) V3+ 82. The migration of colloidal particles under the 77. Hell-Volhard-Zelinsky reaction is given by: influence of an electric field is known as: (1) CH3COOH (2) CH3COCH3 (1) Brownian movement (3) CH3CHO (4) CH3CH2OH (2) Dialysis (3) Electrophoresis 78. Aniline in a set of reactions yielded a product (4) Electro-osmosis (D) 83. Correct electronic configuration of cobalt in complex cation [Co(NH3 )6 ]3+ is: (Atomic no. NaOH+CaO of Co is 27) C ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯  →D (1) t 42g eg2 (2) t 42g e1g The structure of the product D would be: (3) t 62g e0g (4) t 52g e1g (1) (2) 84. Which among the following carboxylic acids has the highest pKa value? (1) HCOOH (3) (4) (2) C6H5COOH (3) O2 NCH2COOH 79. The correct IUPAC name of (4) CH3COOH Cl − CH2 − CH = CH2 is: (1) 3-Chloroprop-1-ene 85. Depletion of ozone in stratosphere is due to: (2) 1-Chloroprop-2-ene (1) CF2Cl2 (2) CO2 (3) 1-Chloroprop-1-ene (3) C6 H6 (4) C6 H6 Cl6 (4) 3-Chloroprop-2-ene Page SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK  Vidyamandir Classes SECTION - B (CHEMISTRY) 40 MARKS 86. Major product of the given reaction is 91. Which of the following compound is optically CH3CH = CH2 ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯ dil. KMnO4 273K → active? CH3 (1) CH3CH2CH2OH | (1) C2 H5 − C − Br (2) CH3CH(OH)CH2 (OH) | (3) CH3COCH3 H (4) CH3 CH3COCH2CH3 | (2) CH3 − C − Br 87. The compound which will not show | geometrical isomerism is: H (1) PhCH = CHPh C2 H5 (2) (Ph)2 C = CHCH3 | (3) C2 H5 − C − Br (3) CH3CH = CHCH3 | H (4) CH3CH2CH = CHCH3 CH3 88. 0.16 g of an organic compound gave 0.094 g of | AgBr by Carius method. The percentage of Br (4) C2 H5 − C − Br | in the compound is (Atomic mass of Ag = 108 Br u, Br = 80 u). (1) 38% (2) 25% 92. The ionization constant of HCN is 4.5 10−10 at (3) 12.5% (4) 50% 298 K. Hydrolysis constant of sodium cyanide is: 89. Least stable carbocation among the following is: (1) 1.1110−6 (2) 3.33 10−4 (3) 2.22 10−5 (4) 4.44 10−7 93. Which of the following equilibrium will shift in (1) (2) forward direction on applying pressure? 1 (1) SO2 (g) + O2 (g) SO3 (g) 2 (2) PCl5 (g) PCl3 (g) + Cl2 (g) (3) (4) (3) H2 (g) + Cl2 (g) 2HCl(g) (4) CaCO3 (s) CaO(s) + CO2 (g) 94. Oxidation number of S in H2SO5 is: 90. The effective atomic number of Fe in (1) +8 (2) +6 K4[Fe(CN)6 ] (3) +4 (4) +7 (1) 35 (2) 38 95. An element with atomic number 50 belongs to: (3) 36 (4) 34 (1) s-block (2) p-block (3) d-block (4) f-block Page SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK  Vidyamandir Classes 96. The number of radial nodes and angular nodes 99. The disease caused by the deficiency of in 3p orbital respectively are: thiamine is (1) 1 and 1 (2) 1 and 2 (1) Night blindness (3) 2 and 1 (4) 0 and 1 (2) Beri-Beri 97. Which of the following pairs of ions is (3) Convulsions isoelectronic? (4) Cheilosis (1) N3− and S2− 100. Which of the following pairs of compounds can be distinguished by carbylamine test? (2) Ni2+ and Co2+ (1) 3+ 2+ (3) Cr and V (2) (4) Zn2+ and Cu2+ (3) CH3 − CH2 − NH2 and 98. Which of the following has maximum number of atoms? CH3 − CH − NH − CH3 | (1) 11 g of CO2 CH3 (2) 11.2 L of O 2 at STP (4) CH3 − NH − CH3 and CH3 − N − CH3 (3) 12 g of Mg | CH3 (4) 0.5 mol of H2O2 Page SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK  Vidyamandir Classes SECTION - A (BOTANY) 140 MARKS 101. Which taxonomic category will have similar as conformers did not evolve and became taxon in the classification of mango and regulators because: wheat? (1) Heat loss and heat gain is function of (1) Class (2) Division surface area (3) Order (4) Family (2) Thermoregulation is energetically expensive for many organisms 102. Out of the 20 essential amino acids in plants, (3) The costs benefits of maintaining a which one is the key amino acid that can constant internal environment are taken convert keto acid into other amino acid by the into consideration during the course of process of transamination? evolution (1) Alanine (2) Glutamine (4) All of these (3) Glutamic acid (4) Aspartic acid 107. Pyramid of number in tree ecosystem with predatory food chain is: 103. Stroma lamellae membrane in chloroplasts: (1) Triangular (2) Upright (1) Have only PS I and NADP reductase (3) Spindle shaped enzyme (4) Inverted (2) Do not have PS II and NADP reductase (3) Have PS I and PS II but no NADP 108. Ancient bacteria differ from other bacteria in reductase having: (4) Do not have PS I and NADP reductase (1) Different cell wall structure (2) Lipid bilayers in their cell membranes 104. Which of these is never released as by-product but no sterols in fermentation? (3) Circular double stranded DNA without (1) Formation of metabolic water as a product introns (2) Evolution of CO2 (4) Anaerobic respiration (3) Oxidation of glycolytic NADH 109. Non-vascular amphibians of plant kingdom are (4) End product of the process is organic characterised by all, except: acid (1) No free living sporophyte 105. Flowering can be inhibited when the plants (2) Can help in succession on rocks exposed to light above the critical photoperiod (3) Zygote divides by meiosis immediately is: after its formation (1) Maize, tomato (4) Presence of multicellular sex organs (2) Rice, sugarbeet 110. What is incorrect for the smallest group of plants? (3) Soyabean, tobacco (1) Male and female gametophytes are of (4) Cotton, oat independent free living existence 106. Organisms that cannot maintain a constant (2) Pollens are transferred by air internal environment with ambient (3) Two or more archegonia developed in environmental factor like temperature known female gametophytes (4) All are heterosporous Page SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK  Vidyamandir Classes 111. Which of these have diplontic life cycle? (2) Environmental resistance becomes (1) Dryopteris, all spermatophytes suddenly effective (2) Caulerpa and Marchantia (3) Population finally achieves asymptote (3) Ginkgo and mustard with the resources on carrying capacity (4) Anthophytes only (4) Population faces a crash also 112. Thorns in Citrus and Bougainvillea are: 118. Which of these diversity promotes speciation (1) Modified axillary buds and enables a population to adapt to its (2) Modified leaves environment? (3) Small branches arising in axil of leaves (1) Genetic diversity (4) Meant for reducing transpiration (2) Species diversity 113. Choose odd one out w.r.t. enzymes involved in (3) Ecological diversity post transcriptional processing (4) Beta diversity (1) Guanyl transferase 119. Transcription and translation have to be tightly (2) Ribonuclease-P regulated as these processes: (3) SnRNPs (4) Translocase (1) Occur in cytoplasm of bacteria 114. According to chemiosmotic hypothesis of ATP (2) Are energetically very expensive formation in chloroplast which one does not (3) Occur in nucleus of fruit fly contribute to develop proton gradient across (4) Occur in plastids and mitochondria in thylakoid membrane: humans (1) Splitting of water 120. Select the incorrect match: + + (2) Reduction of NADP to NADPH + H Options: Plants Number of stamens Gynoecium (3) NAD+ to NADH + H+ G (2) (1) Petunia 5 + (4) Removal to H from stroma while (2) Tomato 5 G (2) transporting electron (3) Asparagus 6 G (2) 115. Percentage of offsprings with genotype G (2) (4) Trifolium 10 aaBbCc from a cross Aabbcc and AaBBCC would be: 121. Consider the following figure w.r.t. secondary (1) 50% (2) 25% structure and select the right option. (3) 12.5% (4) 37.5% 116. Basis of DNA fingerprinting lies in: (1) VNTRs (2) ESTs (3) Hybridization (4) Autoradiography 117. In Verhulst-Pearl Logistic growth of a (1) ‘A’ represents cork cells population: (2) ‘B’ is developed after redifferentiation (1) Population stops abruptly due to (3) ‘C’ is developed from phellogen environmental resistance (4) ‘C’ represents secondary phloem Page SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK  Vidyamandir Classes 122. How many diseases in the list given below are caused by virus? Mumps, Small pox, Typhoid, Influenza, Herpes (1) Two (2) Three (3) Four (4) Five (1) A – Stigma, B – Oogonium, 123. Formation of triploid endosperm precedes C – Archegoniophore, D – Offset development of the embryo in: (2) A – Stamen, B –Antheridium, a. Ginkgo b. Castor C – Archegoniophore, D – Offset c. Beans d. Sequoia (3) A – Stigma, B – Oogonium, (1) d only (2) a & d C – Antheridiophore D – Offset (3) b & c (4) All of these (4) A – Stamen, B – Antheridium, C – Archegoniophore, D – Stolon 124. Read the following statements w.r.t. dicot stem and select the right choice. 127. Taylor is heterozygous for two autosomal gene a. The epidermis is covered with thick pair (CcDd). He is also colour-blind. What is layer of cuticle the probability of gametes having c, d and b. The cells of endodermis are rich in colour-blind genes? starch grains 1 1 (1) (2) c. Pericycle is present on the inner side of 2 4 endodermis and above the phloem in the 1 1 (3) (4) form of semilunar patches of 8 16 sclerenchyma 128. In lac operon, promoter gene provides binding d. The vascular bundles are arranged in a site for: ring. (1) β-galactosidase (1) c and d are incorrect (2) Lactose (2) b, c and d are incorrect (3) Repressor protein (3) a, b and c are correct (4) RNA polymerase (4) b, c and d are correct 129. Read the following statements w.r.t. predation 125. Select incorrect function w.r.t ethephon: and select the two wrong statements. (1) Accelerates abscission in flowers a. Predators help in maintaining species (2) Promotes female flowers in cucumber diversity in a community (3) Accelerates abscission in fruits b. Predators in nature are prudent (4) Early seed production in conifers c. Predators cannot reduce the intensity of 126. Examine the figure (A-D) given below and competition among competing prey select the right option out of 1-4 in which all species the four structures A, B, C and D are identified d. Predators do not act as conduits for correctly. energy transfer across trophic levels. (1) A and B (2) C and D (3) A and C (4) B and C Page SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK  Vidyamandir Classes 130. When a cross is made between tall garden pea 133. During photorespiration, the decarboxylation plant with yellow seeds (TtYy) and tall garden reaction occurs in: pea plant with green seeds (Ttyy), what (1) Peroxisomes proportion of phenotype in the offspring could (2) Mitochondria be expected to be tall and green? (3) Chloroplast 3 1 (4) Chloroplast of bundle sheath cell (1) (2) 8 2 134. Which of the following is incorrect w.r.t. 1 3 anemophily? (3) (4) 4 4 (1) Well exposed stamens 131. Select the incorrect match w.r.t recent (2) Pollen grains are light and sticky extinction of animals: (3) Feathery stigma to trap pollen grains (1) Quagga – Africa (4) It is quite common in grasses (2) Thylacine – Australia 135. In mitochondrial electron transport system: (3) Steller’s sea cow – Russia (1) Number of ATP molecules synthesised (4) Dodo – India does not depend on nature of electron 132. According to mass flow hypothesis of phloem donor transport: (2) Ubiquinone receives reducing (1) Sucrose is loaded actively in phloem equivalents via FADH2 also sieve tube directly from mesophyll cells (2) Loading of sugar at source produces (3) Cytochrome c is a large protein attached hypotonic condition to outer surface of inner mitochondrial (3) Turgor pressure gradient between source membrane and sink has no role in phloem transport (4) Complex IV has cyt. a and cyt. a 3 but no (4) Loading of the phloem sets up a water copper centres potential gradient that facilitates movement of sugar in mass Page SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK  Vidyamandir Classes SECTION - B (BOTANY) 40 MARKS 136. Decomposition is inhibited during: (2) Uses computation of data (1) Warm and moist environment (3) Characters are given equal importance (2) Low temperature and anaerobiosis (4) Numbers and codes are assigned to (3) Warm and aerobic environment each character (4) Aerobic and slightly acidic condition 142. Some structures are given below 137. Which one of the following statements is Protonema cell, Prothallus cell of fern, PEN, correct? Gemma of Marchantia (1) In onion, seeds are endospermous Select correct sequence of their respective (2) Placentation in Dianthus is basal ploidy level. (3) Stamens are epipetalous in lily (1) n, n, 3n, n (2) 2n, 2n, 3n, 2n (4) Epigynous flowers are found in mustard (3) n, n, n, n (4) 2n, 2n, n, 2n 138. Fungus with septate mycelium, parasitic to 143. Fill in the blanks correctly. potato crop and can reproduce by asexual (A) Species of (i) provide peat spores only is: (B) Multicelled dominant body of (1) Phytophthora bryophytes is (ii) (2) Alternaria (3) Claviceps (C) (iii) is a microphyllous pteriodphyte. (4) Ustilago (D) Gametophytes do not have an 139. Choose the correct option w.r.t. taxonomic key. independent, free living existence in a. It is a taxonomical aid (iv) (1) (i) Selaginella; (ii) Sporophyte b. Used for identification of plants only c. Contrasting characters are generally in (2) (iii) Selaginella; (ii) Sporophyte (3) (ii) Gametophyte; (iv) Pinus a pair d. Each statement in the key is called (4) (i) Sphagnum; (iii) Dryopteris couplet 144. A pair of leaves aries at each node and lie e. Generally analytical in nature opposite to each other in (1) All are correct (1) Mustard and Sunflower (2) d & e are incorrect (2) Calotropis and Guava (3) b & d are incorrect (3) Alstonia and Chinarose (4) Only b is incorrect (4) Sunflower and Syzygium 140. The lactose operon of E.coli: 145. Find incorrect statement w.r.t. pollens: (1) Consists of one regulatory gene ‘i’ (1) Generally spherical measuring about (2) Consists of five structural genes 25-50 micro meters (3) Is always regulated negatively (2) Germ pore does not have sporopollenin (4) Synthesises lactose from glucose and (3) The vegetative cell is bigger, has galactose abundant food reserve and a large 141. Numerical taxonomy is related to all, except: irregularly shaped nucleus (1) Based on few observable characters (4) Generative cell has abundant cytoplasm and a spindle shape nucleus Page SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK  Vidyamandir Classes 146. Explant used to prepare virus free plants is: (1) Autosomal recessive gene (1) Internodal segment (2) Allosomal dominant gene (2) Apical and axillary meristem (3) Holandric gene (3) Root segment (4) Autosomal dominant gene (4) Fruit 149. Grasshopper is an example of ____ type of 147. Choose the correct option w.r.t IR-8. sex determination. (1) Semi-dwarf wheat variety (1) XX – XY (2) Developed at IARI, New Delhi (2) XX – XO (3) Maize variety developed in Mexico (3) ZZ – ZW (4) Semi-dwarf rice variety (4) ZZ – ZO 148. Inheritance of genetic trait in given pedigree 150. Klinefelter syndrome is related with all, chart is controlled by: except: (1) A chromosomal disorder (2) Karyotype of 44 + XXY (3) Gynaecomastia (4) Fertile males Page SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK  Vidyamandir Classes SECTION - A (ZOOLOGY) 140 MARKS 151. Given below is a diagrammatic 155. Though heart is auto excitable, its rate can representation of glandular epithelium. be moderated by neural and hormonal mechanisms. All of the following increase the heart rate, except: (1) Adrenaline (2) Nor adrenaline (3) Acetylcholine (4) Nicotine 156. Match the following: Column I Column II a. Tidal volume (i) 1100 ml to 1200 ml Which of the following option is a Inspiratory correct set w.r.t. the secretion of the b. (ii) 500 ml reserve volume given gland? Expiratory reserve c. (iii) 2500 ml to 3000 ml (1) Mucus, saliva, earwax, thyroxine volume (2) Saliva, earwax, milk, oil d. Residual volume (iv) 1000 ml to 1100 ml (1) a-(i), b-(ii), c-(iii), d-(iv) (3) Mucus, saliva, earwax, melatonin (4) Maltase, sucrase, secretin, mucus (2) a-(ii), b-(iii), c-(iv), d-(i) (3) a-(i), b-(iii), c-(iv), d-(ii) 152. Read the following statements w.r.t. B- (4) a-(ii), b-(iv), c-(iii), d-(i) DNA. (A) Backbone is formed by the sugar- 157. Given below is a diagrammatic phosphate chain representation of ECG of a patient: (B) The two strands of polynucleotide R T are antiparallel (C) At each step of ascent, the strand Q S turns 36° Which of the following nodal tissue must (D) The rise per base pair would be 34 be damaged in patient’s heart? Å (1) SA node (2) AV node How many statements are correct? (3) Bundle of His (1) One (2) Two (4) Purkinje fibre (3) Three (4) Four 158. Assertion: Proteins are heteropolymers. 153. Monascus purpureus is a yeast used Reason: Dietary proteins are the source of commercially in the production of: nonessential amino acids. (1) Ethanol (2) Streptokinase for removing clots (1) If both Assertion and Reason are from the blood vessels true and Reason is the correct (3) Citric acid explanation of Assertion. (4) Blood cholesterol lowering statins (2) If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct 154. Mark the odd one w.r.t. composition of explanation of Assertion. succus entericus: (3) If Assertion is true but Reason is (1) Dipeptidases false. (2) Lipases (3) Nucleosidases (4) If both Assertion and Reason are (4) Amylases false. Page SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK  Vidyamandir Classes 159. Given below is a diagrammatic (3) Size of cell/blastomere representation of right pectoral girdle and (4) Metabolism upper arm. 163. Statement I: The cardiac output of an athlete Scapula and of an ordinary man is the same. Statement II: It is impossible to alter the stroke volume as well as heart rate. (1) If both Statement I and Statement II are true. Clavicle (2) If both Statement I and Statement II Humerus are false. (3) If Statement I is true but Statement Radius II is false. Ulna (4) If Statement I is false but Statement II is true. Carpals 164. The assisted reproductive technology, in Metacarpals which embryo is formed by in-vivo Phalanges fertilisation, is: (1) ZIFT (2) IVF-ET Choose the correct option which includes (3) IUT (4) GIFT incorrectly labelled bone? (1) Radius and ulna 165. In which of the following diseases, Aedes (2) Carpals and metacarpals mosquito acts as vector/carrier? (3) Scapula and clavicle (1) Malaria, dengue and filaria (4) Humerus and carpals (2) Dengue, chikungunya and yellow fever 160. All the following structures are found in (3) Dengue, kala-azar and sleeping an electrical synapse, except: sickness (1) Gap junction (4) Diphtheria, tetanus and pertussis (2) Synaptic vesicles (3) Pre-synaptic membrane 166. Choose the incorrect option w.r.t. origin (4) Post-synaptic membrane and evolution of life. (1) The first cellular form of life were 161. Given below is a list of hormonal disorders: probably chemo-heterotrophic (a) Acromegaly prokaryotes (b) Myxedema (2) Charles Darwin concluded that (c) Addison’s disease existing living forms share (d) Diabetes mellitus similarities to varying degrees not How many of them is/are the disorders only among themselves but also due to hyper secretion? with life forms that existed millions (1) One (2) Two of years ago (3) Three (4) Four (3) According to Darwin variations are 162. During cleavage all of the following small and directionless increase, except: (4) Evolution for Darwin was gradual (1) Number of cells while de-Vries believed mutation (2) Nuclear cytoplasmic ratio caused speciation Page SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK  Vidyamandir Classes 167. Which of the following are most suitable 172. Antidiuretic hormone does not deal with: indicators of SO2 pollution in the (1) Vasoconstriction of blood vessels environment? (2) Prevention of diuresis (1) Algae (2) Fungi (3) Excitation of osmoreceptors on (3) Lichens (4) Conifers detecting increase in body fluid volume 168. Given below are four statements (I-IV) (4) Increase in water reabsorption from regarding human blood circulatory system: DCT and collecting duct (I) Veins possess thick walls and a 173. In which one of the following the genus narrow lumen name, its two characters and its (II) In the treatment of angina NO and nitro-glycerine is recommended class/phylum are correctly matched? (III) Duration of cardiac cycle can be Options: Genus name Two characters Class/phylum altered depending on metabolic (1) Pteropus (a) Body covered by hair Reptiles needs of a person (b) Oviparous (IV) Heart failure can be treated with the (2) Chameleon (a) Pentadactyl limbs Reptiles help of pacemakers (b) Prehensile tail (3) Torpedo (a) Electric organs Chondrichthyes How many of the above are correct (b) Four pairs of gill slits statements? (4) Scoliodon (a) Lateral line system Osteichthyes (1) I only (2) II & III (b) Ampulla of Lorenzini (3) III & IV (4) I & IV 174. One amongst the following hormones in 169. Diacetyl morphine is commonly called: excess is considered as diabetogenic (1) Smack (2) Crack hormones: (3) Coke (4) Speed ball (1) Insulin 170. In a standard ECG, the T wave denotes: (2) Cortisol (1) Depolarisation of atria (3) Thyroxine (2) Depolarisation of AV node (4) Aldosterone (3) Repolarisation of ventricles 175. Humoral immune response of body: (4) Start of atrial systole (1) deals with cellular immune response 171. Assertion: Alcohol along with other (2) is Antibody mediated response stimulants or narcotic drugs is extremely (3) is mainly responsible for Graft harmful. rejection Reason: Alcohol damages digestive (4) promotes the increased activity of system only. neutrophils (1) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct 176. Pineal gland secretes a hormone explanation of Assertion. melatonin, plays a very important role in (2) If both Assertion and Reason are the following, except: true but Reason is not the correct (1) Regulate diurnal rhythm of our body explanation of Assertion. (2) Regulate body temperature (3) If Assertion is true but Reason is (3) Deal with skin pigmentation false. (4) Stimulate gonadal function (4) If both Assertion and Reason are false. Page SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK  Vidyamandir Classes 177. The process of formation of a mature 181. Select the correct statement from the female gamete is called oogenesis, for following regarding cell membrane: which one amongst the following (1) Na+ and K+ ions move across cell statements is incorrect. membrane by passive transport. (1) A primary follicle carries primary (2) Proteins make up 60 to 70% of the oocyte that has entered meiosis I cell membrane (2) The primary follicle surrounded by (3) Lipids are arranged in a bilayer many layers of granulosa cells and with polar heads towards the inner a new theca is called secondary part. follicle (4) Fluid mosaic model of cell (3) At puberty about 60,000–80,000 membrane was proposed by Singer primary follicles are lost by atresia and Nicolson. (4) Within the tertiary follicle the 182. Which valve is present at the opening of primary oocyte completes its first coronary sinus? meiotic division (1) Mitral value 178. One amongst the following may not be (2) Eustachian value considered as the outcome of an (3) Thebesian value undetected STD: (4) Tricuspid value (1) Pelvic inflammatory diseases 183. Peptide synthesis inside a cell takes place (2) Ectopic pregnancies in: (3) Abortions and still births (1) Chloroplast (2) Mitochondria (4) Lactational amenorrhoea (3) Chromoplast (4) Ribosomes 179. Following examples show analogy, except: 184. Use of IUDs within 72 hours of coitus, as (1) Eye of Octopus and eye of mammal emergency contraceptive is mainly aimed (2) Flippers of penguins and dolphins at: (3) Sweet potato and potato (1) Preventing sperm ascent (4) Thorn of Bougainvillea and tendril (2) Preventing mating of sperm and of Cucurbita ovum (3) Preventing implantation 180. Adaptive radiation of a species in an (4) Killing of sperms isolated geographical area is possible when: 185. In response to decrease in blood volume (1) Biotic potential of the species is and blood pressure which of the following limited does not occur? (2) The resource is unlimited and (1) Increase in level of Aldosterone superior competitors are absent (2) Increase in the level of ADH (3) Reproductive fitness of all the (3) Increase in level of Renin resident species is comparable (4) Increase in the level of ANF (4) Nature is favourable to one extreme of a trait in an array of phenotypes Page SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK  Vidyamandir Classes SECTION - B (ZOOLOGY) 40 MARKS 186. Find the mismatch: 191. Mark the correct combination of drugs (1) Joint between carpal and which quickly reduce the symptoms of metacarpal of thumb– Gliding joint allergy: (2) Joint between humerus and pectoral (1) Histamine, serotonin, heparin girdle –Ball and Socket joint (2) Antihistamine, adrenaline, steroids (3) Hinge joint – Elbow joint (3) Adrenaline, nor adrenaline, histamine (4) Joint between Atlas and Axis – (4) Interferon, adrenaline, steroids Pivot joint 192. In ‘S’ phase of the cell cycle: 187. Hepatic portal system carries: (1) Amount of DNA doubles in each (1) Oxygenated blood from liver to intestine cell (2) Deoxygenated blood from liver to (2) Amount of DNA remains same in intestine each cell (3) Oxygenated blood from intestine to (3) Chromosome number is increased liver (4) Amount of DNA is reduced to half (4) Deoxygenated blood from intestine in each cell to liver 193. Change of frequency of alleles in a 188. Damage of suspensory ligaments of eye population would be expected if it: will affect: (1) shows no genetic drift (1) Ability to see colours (2) shows no selection (2) Ability to absorb dazzling effect of (3) is evolving light (4) shows no gene flow (3) Accommodation of eye 194. The complex formed by a pair of (4) The texture of lens synapsed homologous chromosomes is 189. Type of antibody that remains attached to called: mucus membranes of body is: (1) Bivalent (1) IgA (2) IgM (2) Axoneme (3) IgD (4) IgG (3) Equatorial plate 190. Mark the correct option for tissue, (4) Kinetochore location and function: 195. The common ancestors of seed ferns and Tissue Location Function pro-gymnosperms are __(A)__ that (1) Reticular tissue Spleen Provides high tensile strength appeared towards the end of ___(B)____ (2) Brush bordered PCT Absorption period. cuboidal Select the correct matching for (A) and epithelium (3) Neurosensory Taste buds Conversion of all (B) from he given options: Epithelium and cornea types of stimuli (1) Chlorophyta, Devonian to electrical stimuli (2) Psilophyton, Silurian (4) Glandular Lining of To handle blood (3) Sphenopsids, Carboniferous Epithelium blood pressure vessels (4) Zosterophyllum, Jurassic Page SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK  Vidyamandir Classes 196. In striped muscles, cross bridges rapidly Phylum Distinctive feature dissociates when: (1) Echinodermata Endoskeleton is of calcareous ossicles. All are (1) ADP and inorganic phosphate marine and have water separates from myosin head vascular system. Excretory (2) ATP attaches to myosin head system is well developed. (2) Hemichordata Worm like marine animals. (3) Calcium binds to tropomyosin Circulatory system is of (4) Troponin tropomyosin complex closed type. masks the active binding sites for Respiration by gills and excretion by proboscis myosin on the actin filaments gland. (3) Annelida May be aquatic or 197. The blood group in which both antigens terrestrial, free living and (A and B) present on the surface of RBC sometimes parasitic. All is: possess lateral appendages, parapodia which help in (1) A swimming. (2) B (4) Aschelminthes They are bilaterally (3) O symmetrical, triploblastic and pseudocoelomate. Sexes (4) AB are separate. Fertilisation is 198. Assertion: A shark can stay at a desired internal and development may be direct or indirect. level in water without swimming. 200. Statement I: Association areas are Reason: It has a buoyancy-regulating neither clearly sensory nor motor in organ called as the swim bladder. function. (1) If both Assertion and Reason are Statement II: Association areas are true and Reason is the correct responsible for complex functions like explanation of Assertion intersensory associations, memory and (2) If both Assertion and Reason are communication. true but Reason is not the correct (1) If both Statement I and Statement II explanation of Assertion are true (3) If Assertion is true but Reason is (2) If both Statement I and Statement II false are false (4) If both Assertion and Reason are (3) If Statement I is true but Statement false II is false 199. Which of the following is correct match (4) If Statement I is false but Statement of phylum and its distinctive feature? II is true Page SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK  Vidyamandir Classes    End of (VPTS-10) VMC MEDICAL PRACTICE TEST SERIES -10B | NEET-2023    Page SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK