NEET 2018 Past Paper PDF - Code KK

Test Booklet Code HLAAC *0KK* This Booklet contains 24 pages. Do not open this Test Booklet until you are asked to do so....

Test Booklet Code HLAAC *0KK* This Booklet contains 24 pages. Do not open this Test Booklet until you are asked to do so. KK Read carefully the Instructions on the Back Cover of this Test Booklet. Important Instructions : 1. The Answer Sheet is inside this Test Booklet. When you are directed to open the Test Booklet, take out the Answer Sheet and fill in the particulars on Side-1 and Side-2 carefully with blue/black ball point pen only. 2. The test is of 3 hours duration and this Test Booklet contains 180 questions. Each question carries 4 marks. For each correct response, the candidate will get 4 marks. For each incorrect response, one mark will be deducted from the total scores. The maximum marks are 720. 3. Use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only for writing particulars on this page/marking responses. 4. Rough work is to be done on the space provided for this purpose in the Test Booklet only. 5. On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator before leaving the Room/Hall. The candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them. 6. The CODE for this Booklet is KK. Make sure that the CODE printed on Side-2 of the Answer Sheet is the same as that on this Test Booklet. In case of discrepancy, the candidate should immediately report the matter to the Invigilator for replacement of both the Test Booklet and the Answer Sheet. 7. The candidates should ensure that the Answer Sheet is not folded. Do not make any stray marks on the Answer Sheet. Do not write your Roll No. anywhere else except in the specified space in the Test Booklet/Answer Sheet. 8. Use of white fluid for correction is not permissible on the Answer Sheet. Name of the Candidate (in Capitals) : _____________________________________________________________________ Roll Number : in figures _________________________________________________________________________________ : in words __________________________________________________________________________________ Centre of Examination (in Capitals) : _____________________________________________________________________ Candidate’s Signature : __________________________ Invigilator’s Signature : ________________________________ Facsimile signature stamp of Centre Superintendent : ______________________________________________________________________________ HLAAC/KK/Page 1 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK English 1. The kinetic energies of a planet in an elliptical 5. A toy car with charge q moves on a frictionless orbit about the Sun, at positions A, B and C are horizontal plane surface under the influence of a KA, KB and KC, respectively. AC is the major uniform electric field E. Due to the force q E , axis and SB is perpendicular to AC at the its velocity increases from 0 to 6 m/s in one position of the Sun S as shown in the figure. second duration. At that instant the direction of Then the field is reversed. The car continues to move for two more seconds under the influence of this field. The average velocity and the average speed of the toy car between 0 to 3 seconds are respectively (1) 1 m/s, 3 m/s (1) KA > KB > K C (2) 1 m/s, 3·5 m/s (2) KB < KA < K C (3) 2 m/s, 4 m/s (4) 1·5 m/s, 3 m/s (3) KA < KB < K C 6. A block of mass m is placed on a smooth inclined wedge ABC of inclination  as shown in the (4) KB > KA > K C figure. The wedge is given an acceleration ‘a’ towards the right. The relation between a and  2. A solid sphere is in rolling motion. In rolling for the block to remain stationary on the wedge motion a body possesses translational kinetic is energy (Kt) as well as rotational kinetic energy (Kr) simultaneously. The ratio Kt : (Kt + Kr) for the sphere is (1) 5:7 (2) 10 : 7 g (3) 7 : 10 (1) a= sin  (4) 2:5 (2) a = g cos  3. A solid sphere is rotating freely about its g symmetry axis in free space. The radius of the (3) a= cosec  sphere is increased keeping its mass same. Which of the following physical quantities would (4) a = g tan  ^ ^ ^ remain constant for the sphere ? 7. The moment of the force, F = 4 i + 5 j – 6 k at (2, 0, – 3), about the point (2, – 2, – 2), is given by (1) Moment of inertia ^ ^ ^ (1) – 4 i – j – 8 k (2) Rotational kinetic energy ^ ^ ^ (3) Angular velocity (2) – 7 i – 8 j – 4 k (4) Angular momentum ^ ^ ^ (3) – 8 i – 4 j – 7 k 4. If the mass of the Sun were ten times smaller ^ ^ ^ (4) – 7 i – 4 j – 8 k and the universal gravitational constant were 8. A student measured the diameter of a small steel ten times larger in magnitude, which of the ball using a screw gauge of least count following is not correct ? 0·001 cm. The main scale reading is 5 mm and zero of circular scale division coincides with (1) Walking on the ground would become more 25 divisions above the reference level. If screw difficult. gauge has a zero error of – 0·004 cm, the correct (2) Time period of a simple pendulum on the diameter of the ball is Earth would decrease. (1) 0·525 cm (2) 0·053 cm (3) Raindrops will fall faster. (3) 0·521 cm (4) ‘g’ on the Earth will not change. (4) 0·529 cm HLAAC/KK/Page 2 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK English 9. The volume (V) of a monatomic gas varies with 13. A carbon resistor of (47  4·7) k is to be marked its temperature (T), as shown in the graph. The with rings of different colours for its ratio of work done by the gas, to the heat identification. The colour code sequence will be absorbed by it, when it undergoes a change from state A to state B, is (1) Yellow – Violet – Orange – Silver (2) Yellow – Green – Violet – Gold (3) Violet – Yellow – Orange – Silver (4) Green – Orange – Violet – Gold 14. A set of ‘n’ equal resistors, of value ‘R’ each, are connected in series to a battery of emf ‘E’ and 2 internal resistance ‘R’. The current drawn is I. (1) 3 Now, the ‘n’ resistors are connected in parallel to 1 the same battery. Then the current drawn from (2) battery becomes 10 I. The value of ‘n’ is 3 2 (1) 11 (3) 5 (2) 20 2 (3) 10 (4) 7 (4) 9 10. The fundamental frequency in an open organ pipe is equal to the third harmonic of a closed 15. A battery consists of a variable number ‘n’ of organ pipe. If the length of the closed organ pipe identical cells (having internal resistance ‘r’ is 20 cm, the length of the open organ pipe is each) which are connected in series. The (1) 8 cm terminals of the battery are short-circuited and (2) 12·5 cm the current I is measured. Which of the graphs (3) 13·2 cm shows the correct relationship between I and n ? (4) 16 cm 11. At what temperature will the rms speed of oxygen molecules become just sufficient for escaping from the Earth’s atmosphere ? (Given : –26 Mass of oxygen molecule (m) = 2·76  10 kg –23 –1 Boltzmann’s constant kB = 1·38  10 JK ) 4 (1) 8·360  10 K 4 (2) 5·016  10 K 4 (3) 2·508  10 K 4 (4) 1·254  10 K 12. The efficiency of an ideal heat engine working between the freezing point and boiling point of water, is (1) 20% (2) 6·25% (3) 26·8% (4) 12·5% HLAAC/KK/Page 3 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK English 16. An em wave is propagating in a medium with a 20. An electron of mass m with an initial velocity ^ velocity V = V i. The instantaneous oscillating ^ V = V0 i (V0 > 0) enters an electric field ^ electric field of this em wave is along +y axis. E = – E0 i (E0 = constant > 0) at t = 0. If 0 is Then the direction of oscillating magnetic field of its de-Broglie wavelength initially, then its the em wave will be along de-Broglie wavelength at time t is (1) + z direction  eE0  (2) – y direction (1) 0  1  t  mV0  (3) – z direction (2) 0 t (4) – x direction 0 (3) 17. The refractive index of the material of a prism is  eE0  1  t 2 and the angle of the prism is 30. One of the  mV0   two refracting surfaces of the prism is made a (4) 0 mirror inwards, by silver coating. A beam of monochromatic light entering the prism from the 21. For a radioactive material, half-life is other face will retrace its path (after reflection 10 minutes. If initially there are 600 number of nuclei, the time taken (in minutes) for the from the silvered surface) if its angle of incidence disintegration of 450 nuclei is on the prism is (1) 10 (1) 45 (2) 30 (2) 30 (3) 20 (3) 60 (4) 15 (4) zero 22. The ratio of kinetic energy to the total energy of an electron in a Bohr orbit of the hydrogen atom, 18. An object is placed at a distance of 40 cm from a is concave mirror of focal length 15 cm. If the object (1) 1:–1 is displaced through a distance of 20 cm towards (2) 2:–1 the mirror, the displacement of the image will be (3) 1:1 (1) 36 cm away from the mirror (4) 1:–2 (2) 30 cm towards the mirror (3) 30 cm away from the mirror 23. When the light of frequency 2v0 (where v0 is threshold frequency), is incident on a metal (4) 36 cm towards the mirror plate, the maximum velocity of electrons emitted 19. The magnetic potential energy stored in a certain is v1. When the frequency of the incident radiation is increased to 5v0, the maximum inductor is 25 mJ, when the current in the velocity of electrons emitted from the same plate inductor is 60 mA. This inductor is of inductance is v2. The ratio of v1 to v2 is (1) 138·88 H (1) 1:4 (2) 1·389 H (2) 4:1 (3) 0·138 H (3) 1:2 (4) 13·89 H (4) 2:1 HLAAC/KK/Page 4 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK English 24. Unpolarised light is incident from air on a plane 27. In the circuit shown in the figure, the input surface of a material of refractive index ‘’. At a voltage Vi is 20 V, VBE = 0 and VCE = 0. The particular angle of incidence ‘i’, it is found that values of IB, IC and  are given by the reflected and refracted rays are perpendicular to each other. Which of the following options is correct for this situation ? (1) Reflected light is polarised with its electric vector perpendicular to the plane of incidence –1  1  (2) i = sin    (3) Reflected light is polarised with its electric (1) IB = 25 A, IC = 5 mA,  = 200 vector parallel to the plane of incidence (2) IB = 20 A, IC = 5 mA,  = 250 –1  1  (4) i = tan    (3) IB = 40 A, IC = 10 mA,  = 250 (4) IB = 40 A, IC = 5 mA,  = 125 25. An astronomical refracting telescope will have 28. In a p-n junction diode, change in temperature large angular magnification and high angular due to heating resolution, when it has an objective lens of (1) affects only forward resistance (1) large focal length and small diameter (2) does not affect resistance of p-n junction (2) large focal length and large diameter (3) affects only reverse resistance (3) small focal length and large diameter (4) affects the overall V – I characteristics of (4) small focal length and small diameter p-n junction 29. In the combination of the following gates the 26. In Young’s double slit experiment the separation output Y can be written in terms of inputs A and d between the slits is 2 mm, the wavelength  of B as the light used is 5896 Å and distance D between the screen and slits is 100 cm. It is found that the angular width of the fringes is 0·20. To increase the fringe angular width to 0·21 (with same  and D) the separation between the slits needs to be changed to – – (1) A. B + A.B (1) 1·9 mm (2) A.B +A.B (2) 2·1 mm (3) 1·8 mm (3) A.B (4) 1·7 mm (4) AB HLAAC/KK/Page 5 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK English 30. A tuning fork is used to produce resonance in a 34. A metallic rod of mass per unit length glass tube. The length of the air column in this –1 0·5 kg m is lying horizontally on a smooth tube can be adjusted by a variable piston. At inclined plane which makes an angle of 30 with room temperature of 27C two successive resonances are produced at 20 cm and 73 cm of the horizontal. The rod is not allowed to slide column length. If the frequency of the tuning fork down by flowing a current through it when a is 320 Hz, the velocity of sound in air at 27C is magnetic field of induction 0·25 T is acting on it (1) 339 m/s in the vertical direction. The current flowing in (2) 350 m/s the rod to keep it stationary is (1) 5·98 A (3) 330 m/s (2) 14·76 A (4) 300 m/s (3) 7·14 A 31. The electrostatic force between the metal plates (4) 11·32 A of an isolated parallel plate capacitor C having a charge Q and area A, is 35. Current sensitivity of a moving coil galvanometer (1) linearly proportional to the distance is 5 div/mA and its voltage sensitivity (angular between the plates. deflection per unit voltage applied) is 20 div/V. (2) proportional to the square root of the The resistance of the galvanometer is distance between the plates. (1) 25  (3) independent of the distance between the (2) 250  plates. (3) 40  (4) inversely proportional to the distance between the plates. (4) 500  32. An electron falls from rest through a vertical 36. A thin diamagnetic rod is placed vertically distance h in a uniform and vertically upward between the poles of an electromagnet. When the directed electric field E. The direction of electric current in the electromagnet is switched on, then field is now reversed, keeping its magnitude the the diamagnetic rod is pushed up, out of the same. A proton is allowed to fall from rest in it horizontal magnetic field. Hence the rod gains through the same vertical distance h. The time of gravitational potential energy. The work fall of the electron, in comparison to the time of fall of the proton is required to do this comes from (1) 5 times greater (1) the magnetic field (2) 10 times greater (2) the lattice structure of the material of the rod (3) smaller (3) the current source (4) equal (4) the induced electric field due to the 33. A pendulum is hung from the roof of a changing magnetic field sufficiently high building and is moving freely to and fro like a simple harmonic oscillator. The 37. An inductor 20 mH, a capacitor 100 F and a acceleration of the bob of the pendulum is resistor 50  are connected in series across a 2 source of emf, V = 10 sin 314 t. The power loss in 20 m/s at a distance of 5 m from the mean position. The time period of oscillation is the circuit is (1) s (1) 0·43 W (2) 2s (2) 2·74 W (3) 2 s (3) 0·79 W (4) 1s (4) 1·13 W HLAAC/KK/Page 6 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK English 38. The power radiated by a black body is P and it 42. A body initially at rest and sliding along a frictionless track from a height h (as shown in radiates maximum energy at wavelength, 0. If the figure) just completes a vertical circle of the temperature of the black body is now diameter AB = D. The height h is equal to changed so that it radiates maximum energy at 3 wavelength  , the power radiated by it 4 0 becomes nP. The value of n is 4 (1) 3 (1) D 256 7 (2) (2) D 81 5 3 3 (3) (3) D 4 2 81 5 (4) (4) D 256 4 39. Two wires are made of the same material and 43. Three objects, A : (a solid sphere), B : (a thin have the same volume. The first wire has circular disk) and C : (a circular ring), each have cross-sectional area A and the second wire has the same mass M and radius R. They all spin cross-sectional area 3A. If the length of the first with the same angular speed  about their own wire is increased by  l on applying a force F, symmetry axes. The amounts of work (W) how much force is needed to stretch the second required to bring them to rest, would satisfy the wire by the same amount ? relation (1) 6 F (1) WA > WB > WC (2) 4 F (2) WB > WA > WC (3) 9 F (3) WC > WB > WA (4) F 40. A small sphere of radius ‘r’ falls from rest in a (4) WA > WC > WB viscous liquid. As a result, heat is produced due 44. A moving block having mass m, collides with to viscous force. The rate of production of heat another stationary block having mass 4m. The when the sphere attains its terminal velocity, is lighter block comes to rest after collision. When proportional to the initial velocity of the lighter block is v, then (1) r 2 the value of coefficient of restitution (e) will be 5 (1) 0·25 (2) r 3 (2) 0·8 (3) r 4 (3) 0·5 (4) r (4) 0·4 41. A sample of 0·1 g of water at 100C and normal 45. Which one of the following statements is 5 –2 pressure (1·013  10 Nm ) requires 54 cal of incorrect ? heat energy to convert to steam at 100C. If the (1) Limiting value of static friction is directly volume of the steam produced is 167·1 cc, the proportional to normal reaction. change in internal energy of the sample, is (2) Frictional force opposes the relative motion. (1) 208·7 J (3) Rolling friction is smaller than sliding (2) 42·2 J friction. (3) 104·3 J (4) Coefficient of sliding friction has (4) 84·5 J dimensions of length. HLAAC/KK/Page 7 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK English 46. Match the metal ions given in Column I with the 51. A mixture of 2·3 g formic acid and 4·5 g oxalic spin magnetic moments of the ions given in acid is treated with conc. H2SO4. The evolved Column II and assign the correct code : gaseous mixture is passed through KOH pellets. Column I Column II Weight (in g) of the remaining product at STP 3+ will be a. Co i. 8 B.M. 3+ (1) 3·0 b. Cr ii. 35 B.M. (2) 2·8 3+ c. Fe iii. 3 B.M. (3) 1·4 2+ d. Ni iv. 24 B.M. (4) 4·4 v. 15 B.M. 52. The difference between amylose and amylopectin is a b c d (1) Amylose have 14 -linkage and (1) i ii iii iv 1 6 -linkage (2) iv i ii iii (2) Amylopectin have 1 4 -linkage and (3) iv v ii i 1 6 -linkage (3) Amylopectin have 1 4 -linkage and (4) iii v i ii 1 6 -linkage 47. Iron carbonyl, Fe(CO)5 is (4) Amylose is made up of glucose and (1) mononuclear galactose (2) trinuclear 53. Regarding cross-linked or network polymers, (3) tetranuclear which of the following statements is incorrect ? (4) dinuclear (1) They are formed from bi- and tri-functional monomers. 48. The type of isomerism shown by the complex (2) Examples are bakelite and melamine. [CoCl2(en)2] is (3) They contain covalent bonds between (1) Coordination isomerism various linear polymer chains. (2) Ionization isomerism (4) They contain strong covalent bonds in their (3) Geometrical isomerism polymer chains. (4) Linkage isomerism 54. Nitration of aniline in strong acidic medium also 49. Which one of the following ions exhibits gives m-nitroaniline because d-d transition and paramagnetism as well ? (1) In electrophilic substitution reactions 2– amino group is meta directive. (1) Cr2O7 (2) In absence of substituents nitro group – (2) MnO 4 always goes to m-position. 2– (3) In spite of substituents nitro group always (3) CrO 4 goes to only m-position. 2– (4) In acidic (strong) medium aniline is present (4) MnO 4 as anilinium ion. 50. The geometry and magnetic behaviour of the 55. Which of the following oxides is most acidic in complex [Ni(CO)4] are nature ? (1) tetrahedral geometry and diamagnetic (1) BeO (2) square planar geometry and paramagnetic (2) BaO (3) square planar geometry and diamagnetic (3) MgO (4) tetrahedral geometry and paramagnetic (4) CaO HLAAC/KK/Page 8 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK English 56. In the reaction 59. The compound A on treatment with Na gives B, and with PCl5 gives C. B and C react together to give diethyl ether. A, B and C are in the order (1) C2H5OH, C2H5Cl, C2H5ONa the electrophile involved is (2) C2H5Cl, C2H6, C2H5OH  (1) formyl cation ( CHO ) (3) C2H5OH, C2H6, C2H5Cl (2) dichloromethyl anion ( ) (4) C2H5OH, C2H5ONa, C2H5Cl  (3) dichloromethyl cation ( CHCl 2 ) 60. Which oxide of nitrogen is not a common pollutant introduced into the atmosphere both (4) dichlorocarbene (:CCl2) due to natural and human activity ? (1) NO2 57. Carboxylic acids have higher boiling points than (2) N2O aldehydes, ketones and even alcohols of comparable molecular mass. It is due to their (3) N2O5 (1) formation of carboxylate ion (4) NO (2) more extensive association of carboxylic acid via van der Waals force of attraction 61. Hydrocarbon (A) reacts with bromine by (3) formation of intramolecular H-bonding substitution to form an alkyl bromide which by (4) formation of intermolecular H-bonding Wurtz reaction is converted to gaseous hydrocarbon containing less than four carbon atoms. (A) is 58. Compound A, C8H10O, is found to react with (1) CH2 = CH2 NaOI (produced by reacting Y with NaOH) and yields a yellow precipitate with characteristic (2) CH3 – CH3 smell. A and Y are respectively (3) CH  CH (4) CH4 62. The compound C7H8 undergoes the following reactions : The product ‘C’ is (1) o-bromotoluene (2) 3-bromo-2,4,6-trichlorotoluene (3) m-bromotoluene (4) p-bromotoluene HLAAC/KK/Page 9 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK English 63. Which of the following carbocations is expected to 66. Identify the major products P, Q and R in the be most stable ? following sequence of reactions : 64. Which of the following is correct with respect to – I effect of the substituents ? (R = alkyl) (1) – NR2 < – OR < – F (2) – NH2 > – OR > – F (3) – NH2 < – OR < – F (4) – NR2 > – OR > – F 67. Which of the following compounds can form a 65. Which of the following molecules represents the zwitterion ? 2 2 order of hybridisation sp , sp , sp, sp from left to right atoms ? (1) Acetanilide (1) CH2 = CH – C  CH (2) Benzoic acid (2) CH2 = CH – CH = CH2 (3) Aniline (3) HC  C – C  CH (4) Glycine (4) CH3 – CH = CH – CH3 HLAAC/KK/Page 10 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK English 68. Following solutions were prepared by mixing 72. The bond dissociation energies of X2, Y2 and XY different volumes of NaOH and HCl of different are in the ratio of 1 : 0·5 : 1. H for the formation concentrations : –1 of XY is – 200 kJ mol. The bond dissociation M M energy of X2 will be a. 60 mL HCl + 40 mL NaOH 10 10 –1 (1) 100 kJ mol M M b. 55 mL HCl + 45 mL NaOH –1 10 10 (2) 800 kJ mol –1 M M (3) 200 kJ mol c. 75 mL HCl + 25 mL NaOH 5 5 (4) 400 kJ mol –1 M M d. 100 mL HCl + 100 mL NaOH 10 10 73. When initial concentration of the reactant is pH of which one of them will be equal to 1 ? doubled, the half-life period of a zero order reaction (1) a (1) is doubled (2) d (2) is tripled (3) b (3) is halved (4) c (4) remains unchanged 69. On which of the following properties does the coagulating power of an ion depend ? 74. For the redox reaction (1) Size of the ion alone – + 2+ Mn O 4– + C2 O42 + H  Mn + CO2 + H2O (2) Both magnitude and sign of the charge on the correct coefficients of the reactants for the the ion balanced equation are (3) The magnitude of the charge on the ion + alone Mn O 4– C 2O 2 – H 4 (4) The sign of charge on the ion alone (1) 2 5 16 70. Given van der Waals constant for NH3, H2, O2 (2) 2 16 5 and CO2 are respectively 4·17, 0·244, 1·36 and (3) 16 5 2 3·59, which one of the following gases is most (4) 5 16 2 easily liquefied ? 75. Which one of the following conditions will favour (1) H2 maximum formation of the product in the (2) O2 reaction, (3) NH3 A2 (g) + B2 (g)  X2 (g) rH = – X kJ ? (1) Low temperature and low pressure (4) CO2 (2) High temperature and high pressure 71. The solubility of BaSO4 in water is (3) Low temperature and high pressure 2·42  10 –3 gL –1 at 298 K. The value of its (4) High temperature and low pressure solubility product (Ksp) will be 76. The correction factor ‘a’ to the ideal gas equation –1 corresponds to (Given molar mass of BaSO4 = 233 g mol ) –12 2 –2 (1) volume of the gas molecules (1) 1·08  10 mol L (2) electric field present between the gas –14 2 –2 molecules (2) 1·08  10 mol L –10 2 –2 (3) density of the gas molecules (3) 1·08  10 mol L (4) forces of attraction between the gas –8 2 –2 molecules (4) 1·08  10 mol L HLAAC/KK/Page 11 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK English 77. The correct order of N-compounds in its 83. The correct difference between first- and decreasing order of oxidation states is second-order reactions is that (1) HNO3, NO, NH4Cl, N2 (1) the half-life of a first-order reaction does not depend on [A]0; the half-life of a (2) HNO3, NH4Cl, NO, N2 second-order reaction does depend on [A] 0 (3) HNO3, NO, N2, NH4Cl (2) a first-order reaction can be catalyzed; a (4) NH4Cl, N2, NO, HNO3 second-order reaction cannot be catalyzed (3) the rate of a first-order reaction does not 78. Which one of the following elements is unable to depend on reactant concentrations; the rate 3– of a second-order reaction does depend on form MF6 ion ? reactant concentrations (1) Al (4) the rate of a first-order reaction does (2) B depend on reactant concentrations; the rate of a second-order reaction does not depend (3) Ga on reactant concentrations (4) In 84. Among CaH2, BeH2, BaH2, the order of ionic 79. Considering Ellingham diagram, which of the character is following metals can be used to reduce alumina ? (1) CaH2 < BeH2 < BaH2 (1) Zn (2) BeH2 < BaH2 < CaH2 (2) Mg (3) BeH2 < CaH2 < BaH2 (3) Fe (4) BaH2 < BeH2 < CaH2 (4) Cu 85. In which case is the number of molecules of water 80. The correct order of atomic radii in group 13 maximum ? elements is (1) 0·18 g of water (1) B < Al < Ga < In < Tl (2) 0·00224 L of water vapours at 1 atm and (2) B < Ga < Al < Tl < In 273 K (3) B < Al < In < Ga < Tl (3) 18 mL of water –3 (4) B < Ga < Al < In < Tl (4) 10 mol of water 81. Which of the following statements is not true for 86. Consider the change in oxidation state of halogens ? Bromine corresponding to different emf values as (1) All are oxidizing agents. shown in the diagram below : (2) All but fluorine show positive oxidation states. (3) All form monobasic oxyacids. (4) Chlorine has the highest electron-gain enthalpy. Then the species undergoing disproportionation 82. In the structure of ClF3, the number of lone pairs is of electrons on central atom ‘Cl’ is (1) Br O 4– (1) two (2) Br2 (2) four (3) one (3) Br O 3– (4) three (4) HBrO HLAAC/KK/Page 12 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK English 87. Consider the following species : 91. Pollen grains can be stored for several years in + – liquid nitrogen having a temperature of CN , CN , NO and CN (1) – 80C Which one of these will have the highest bond order ? (2) – 196C (1) CN – (3) – 120C + (4) – 160C (2) CN (3) NO 92. Oxygen is not produced during photosynthesis by (1) Nostoc (4) CN (2) Cycas 88. Which one is a wrong statement ? (3) Green sulphur bacteria (1) An orbital is designated by three quantum (4) Chara numbers while an electron in an atom is + designated by four quantum numbers. 93. What is the role of NAD in cellular respiration ? (2) The electronic configuration of N atom is (1) It functions as an electron carrier. (2) It is a nucleotide source for ATP synthesis. (3) It functions as an enzyme. (4) It is the final electron acceptor for anaerobic (3) Total orbital angular momentum of electron respiration. in ‘s’ orbital is equal to zero. (4) The value of m for d z 2 is zero. 94. Which of the following elements is responsible for maintaining turgor in cells ? (1) Sodium 89. Iron exhibits bcc structure at room temperature. Above 900C, it transforms to fcc structure. The (2) Potassium ratio of density of iron at room temperature to (3) Magnesium that at 900C (assuming molar mass and atomic (4) Calcium radii of iron remains constant with temperature) 95. Which one of the following plants shows a very is close relationship with a species of moth, where 4 3 none of the two can complete its life cycle without (1) the other ? 3 2 (1) Yucca 3 3 (2) Banana (2) 4 2 (3) Hydrilla (4) Viola 3 (3) 2 96. In which of the following forms is iron absorbed by plants ? 1 (4) (1) Ferrous 2 (2) Free element 90. Magnesium reacts with an element (X) to form an (3) Ferric ionic compound. If the ground state electronic (4) Both ferric and ferrous 2 2 3 configuration of (X) is 1s 2s 2p , the simplest 97. Double fertilization is formula for this compound is (1) Fusion of one male gamete with two polar (1) MgX2 nuclei (2) Mg2X (2) Fusion of two male gametes with one egg (3) Fusion of two male gametes of a pollen tube (3) Mg2X3 with two different eggs (4) Mg3X2 (4) Syngamy and triple fusion HLAAC/KK/Page 13 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK English 98. A ‘new’ variety of rice was patented by a foreign 104. Niche is company, though such varieties have been (1) the physical space where an organism lives present in India for a long time. This is related to (2) the range of temperature that the organism (1) Sharbati Sonora needs to live (2) Lerma Rojo (3) all the biological factors in the organism’s (3) Co-667 environment (4) Basmati (4) the functional role played by the organism where it lives 99. In India, the organisation responsible for assessing the safety of introducing genetically 105. Which of the following is a secondary pollutant ? modified organisms for public use is (1) CO2 (1) Council for Scientific and Industrial (2) SO2 Research (CSIR) (2) Research Committee on Genetic (3) CO Manipulation (RCGM) (4) O3 (3) Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR) 106. Natality refers to (4) Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee (1) Birth rate (GEAC) (2) Number of individuals leaving the habitat 100. Which of the following is commonly used as a (3) Death rate vector for introducing a DNA fragment in human (4) Number of individuals entering a habitat lymphocytes ? (1) Ti plasmid 107. World Ozone Day is celebrated on (2)  phage st (1) 21 April (3) Retrovirus th (2) 16 September (4) pBR 322 th 101. Use of bioresources by multinational companies (3) 5 June and organisations without authorisation from the (4) 22 nd April concerned country and its people is called (1) Biopiracy 108. What type of ecological pyramid would be obtained with the following data ? (2) Biodegradation Secondary consumer : 120 g (3) Bio-infringement Primary consumer : 60 g (4) Bioexploitation Primary producer : 10 g 102. The correct order of steps in Polymerase Chain (1) Pyramid of energy Reaction (PCR) is (2) Upright pyramid of numbers (1) Annealing, Extension, Denaturation (3) Inverted pyramid of biomass (2) Denaturation, Extension, Annealing (4) Upright pyramid of biomass (3) Extension, Denaturation, Annealing (4) Denaturation, Annealing, Extension 109. In stratosphere, which of the following elements acts as a catalyst in degradation of ozone and 103. Select the correct match : release of molecular oxygen ? (1) F2  Recessive parent – Dihybrid cross (1) Cl (2) T.H. Morgan – Transduction (2) Fe (3) Ribozyme – Nucleic acid (3) Carbon (4) G. Mendel – Transformation (4) Oxygen HLAAC/KK/Page 14 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK English 110. Which of the following pairs is wrongly 117. Secondary xylem and phloem in dicot stem are matched ? produced by (1) ABO blood grouping : Co-dominance (1) Vascular cambium (2) XO type sex : Grasshopper (2) Phellogen determination (3) Apical meristems (3) Starch synthesis in pea : Multiple alleles (4) Axillary meristems (4) T.H. Morgan : Linkage 118. Plants having little or no secondary growth are 111. Select the correct statement : (1) Deciduous angiosperms (1) Punnett square was developed by a British (2) Conifers scientist. (3) Grasses (2) Spliceosomes take part in translation. (4) Cycads (3) Franklin Stahl coined the term ‘‘linkage’’. 119. Sweet potato is a modified (4) Transduction was discovered by S. Altman. (1) Adventitious root 112. The experimental proof for semiconservative (2) Tap root replication of DNA was first shown in a (1) Bacterium (3) Stem (2) Plant (4) Rhizome (3) Fungus 120. Pneumatophores occur in (4) Virus (1) Free-floating hydrophytes 113. Select the correct match : (2) Carnivorous plants (1) Alfred Hershey and – TMV (3) Halophytes Martha Chase (4) Submerged hydrophytes (2) Matthew Meselson – Pisum sativum and F. Stahl 121. Casparian strips occur in (3) Alec Jeffreys – Streptococcus (1) Pericycle pneumoniae (2) Cortex (4) Francois Jacob and – Lac operon (3) Epidermis Jacques Monod (4) Endodermis 114. Offsets are produced by 122. Which of the following statements is correct ? (1) Mitotic divisions (1) Selaginella is heterosporous, while Salvinia (2) Parthenocarpy is homosporous. (3) Meiotic divisions (2) Horsetails are gymnosperms. (4) Parthenogenesis (3) Ovules are not enclosed by ovary wall in 115. Which of the following flowers only once in its gymnosperms. life-time ? (4) Stems are usually unbranched in both (1) Jackfruit Cycas and Cedrus. (2) Mango (3) Bamboo species 123. Select the wrong statement : (4) Papaya (1) Mushrooms belong to Basidiomycetes. 116. Which of the following has proved helpful in (2) Pseudopodia are locomotory and feeding preserving pollen as fossils ? structures in Sporozoans. (1) Cellulosic intine (3) Cell wall is present in members of Fungi (2) Oil content and Plantae. (3) Pollenkitt (4) Mitochondria are the powerhouse of the cell (4) Sporopollenin in all kingdoms except Monera. HLAAC/KK/Page 15 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK English 124. Match the items given in Column I with those in 128. The two functional groups characteristic of Column II and select the correct option given sugars are below : (1) carbonyl and methyl Column I Column II (2) carbonyl and phosphate a. Herbarium i. It is a place having a (3) hydroxyl and methyl collection of preserved (4) carbonyl and hydroxyl plants and animals. 129. Which of the following is not a product of light reaction of photosynthesis ? b. Key ii. A list that enumerates (1) NADH methodically all the (2) NADPH species found in an area with brief description (3) ATP aiding identification. (4) Oxygen 130. Which among the following is not a prokaryote ? c. Museum iii.Is a place where dried and (1) Mycobacterium pressed plant specimens mounted on sheets are (2) Nostoc kept. (3) Saccharomyces d. Catalogue iv. A booklet containing a list (4) Oscillatoria of characters and their 131. Stomatal movement is not affected by alternates which are (1) Light helpful in identification of (2) O2 concentration various taxa. (3) Temperature a b c d (4) CO2 concentration (1) iii ii i iv 132. The Golgi complex participates in (2) ii iv iii i (1) Formation of secretory vesicles (3) i iv iii ii (2) Respiration in bacteria (4) iii iv i ii (3) Fatty acid breakdown (4) Activation of amino acid 125. After karyogamy followed by meiosis, spores are 133. Which of the following is true for nucleolus ? produced exogenously in (1) It is a membrane-bound structure. (1) Alternaria (2) Agaricus (2) It takes part in spindle formation. (3) Neurospora (3) Larger nucleoli are present in dividing cells. (4) Saccharomyces (4) It is a site for active ribosomal RNA synthesis. 126. Winged pollen grains are present in 134. The stage during which separation of the paired (1) Cycas homologous chromosomes begins is (2) Mango (1) Diplotene (3) Mustard (2) Diakinesis (4) Pinus (3) Pachytene (4) Zygotene 127. Which one is wrongly matched ? 135. Stomata in grass leaf are (1) Biflagellate zoospores – Brown algae (1) Kidney shaped (2) Gemma cups – Marchantia (2) Rectangular (3) Uniflagellate gametes – Polysiphonia (3) Dumb-bell shaped (4) Unicellular organism – Chlorella (4) Barrel shaped HLAAC/KK/Page 16 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK English 136. Nissl bodies are mainly composed of 142. All of the following are part of an operon except (1) DNA and RNA (1) structural genes (2) Nucleic acids and SER (2) an enhancer (3) Proteins and lipids (3) an operator (4) Free ribosomes and RER (4) a promoter 137. Which of these statements is incorrect ? 143. A woman has an X-linked condition on one of her (1) Glycolysis occurs in cytosol. X chromosomes. This chromosome can be (2) Glycolysis operates as long as it is supplied inherited by with NAD that can pick up hydrogen atoms. (1) Only sons (3) Enzymes of TCA cycle are present in (2) Only grandchildren mitochondrial matrix. (3) Only daughters (4) Oxidative phosphorylation takes place in (4) Both sons and daughters outer mitochondrial membrane. 144. According to Hugo de Vries, the mechanism of 138. Which of the following terms describe human evolution is dentition ? (1) Saltation (1) Thecodont, Diphyodont, Heterodont (2) Phenotypic variations (2) Pleurodont, Monophyodont, Homodont (3) Multiple step mutations (3) Thecodont, Diphyodont, Homodont (4) Minor mutations (4) Pleurodont, Diphyodont, Heterodont 145. AGGTATCGCAT is a sequence from the coding 139. Select the incorrect match : strand of a gene. What will be the corresponding (1) Allosomes – Sex chromosomes sequence of the transcribed mRNA ? (2) Submetacentric – L-shaped chromososmes chromosomes (1) UGGTUTCGCAT (3) Lampbrush – Diplotene bivalents (2) ACCUAUGCGAU chromosomes (3) AGGUAUCGCAU (4) Polytene – Oocytes of amphibians (4) UCCAUAGCGUA chromosomes 146. Match the items given in Column I with those in 140. Which of the following events does not occur in Column II and select the correct option given rough endoplasmic reticulum ? below : (1) Protein glycosylation Column I Column II (2) Cleavage of signal peptide a. Proliferative Phase i. Breakdown of (3) Protein folding endometrial lining (4) Phospholipid synthesis b. Secretory Phase ii. Follicular Phase 141. Many ribosomes may associate with a single c. Menstruation iii. Luteal Phase mRNA to form multiple copies of a polypeptide simultaneously. Such strings of ribosomes are a b c termed as (1) i iii ii (1) Polyhedral bodies (2) ii iii i (2) Plastidome (3) iii ii i (3) Polysome (4) iii i ii (4) Nucleosome HLAAC/KK/Page 17 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK English 147. Which one of the following population 152. Among the following sets of examples for interactions is widely used in medical science for divergent evolution, select the incorrect option : the production of antibiotics ? (1) Heart of bat, man and cheetah (1) Mutualism (2) Brain of bat, man and cheetah (2) Parasitism (3) Forelimbs of man, bat and cheetah (3) Commensalism (4) Eye of octopus, bat and man (4) Amensalism 153. Which of the following is not an autoimmune 148. All of the following are included in ‘Ex-situ disease ? conservation’ except (1) Rheumatoid arthritis (1) Sacred groves (2) Alzheimer’s disease (2) Botanical gardens (3) Psoriasis (3) Wildlife safari parks (4) Vitiligo (4) Seed banks 154. In which disease does mosquito transmitted pathogen cause chronic inflammation of 149. Match the items given in Column I with those in lymphatic vessels ? Column II and select the correct option given below : (1) Ascariasis Column I Column II (2) Ringworm disease a. Eutrophication i. UV-B radiation (3) Elephantiasis b. Sanitary landfill ii. Deforestation (4) Amoebiasis c. Snow blindness iii. Nutrient 155. Conversion of milk to curd improves its enrichment nutritional value by increasing the amount of d. Jhum cultivation iv. Waste disposal (1) Vitamin A a b c d (2) Vitamin B12 (1) i iii iv ii (3) Vitamin D (2) iii iv i ii (4) Vitamin E (3) ii i iii iv 156. The similarity of bone structure in the forelimbs (4) i ii iv iii of many vertebrates is an example of (1) Analogy 150. In a growing population of a country, (2) Convergent evolution (1) reproductive individuals are less than the post-reproductive individuals. (3) Homology (2) reproductive and pre-reproductive (4) Adaptive radiation individuals are equal in number. 157. Which of the following characteristics represent ‘Inheritance of blood groups’ in humans ? (3) pre-reproductive individuals are more than the reproductive individuals. a. Dominance (4) pre-reproductive individuals are less than b. Co-dominance the reproductive individuals. c. Multiple allele d. Incomplete dominance 151. Which part of poppy plant is used to obtain the drug ‘‘Smack’’ ? e. Polygenic inheritance (1) Latex (1) a, b and c (2) Roots (2) b, d and e (3) Flowers (3) b, c and e (4) Leaves (4) a, c and e HLAAC/KK/Page 18 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK English 158. Hormones secreted by the placenta to maintain 162. Which of the following is an amino acid derived pregnancy are hormone ? (1) hCG, hPL, estrogens, relaxin, oxytocin (1) Ecdysone (2) hCG, hPL, progestogens, estrogens (2) Estradiol (3) hCG, hPL, progestogens, prolactin (3) Epinephrine (4) hCG, progestogens, estrogens, (4) Estriol glucocorticoids 163. Which of the following structures or regions is 159. The contraceptive ‘SAHELI’ incorrectly paired with its function ? (1) increases the concentration of estrogen and (1) Limbic system : consists of fibre prevents ovulation in females. tracts that (2) is an IUD. interconnect (3) blocks estrogen receptors in the uterus, different regions of brain; controls preventing eggs from getting implanted. movement. (4) is a post-coital contraceptive. (2) Hypothalamus : production of releasing hormones 160. The amnion of mammalian embryo is derived and regulation of from temperature, hunger and thirst. (1) endoderm and mesoderm (2) mesoderm and trophoblast (3) Medulla oblongata : controls respiration and cardiovascular (3) ectoderm and mesoderm reflexes. (4) ectoderm and endoderm (4) Corpus callosum : band of fibers connecting left and 161. The difference between spermiogenesis and right cerebral spermiation is hemispheres. (1) In spermiogenesis spermatozoa are formed, 164. The transparent lens in the human eye is held in while in spermiation spermatids are its place by formed. (1) ligaments attached to the iris (2) In spermiogenesis spermatozoa from sertoli (2) smooth muscles attached to the iris cells are released into the cavity of seminiferous tubules, while in spermiation (3) ligaments attached to the ciliary body spermatozoa are formed. (4) smooth muscles attached to the ciliary body (3) In spermiogenesis spermatids are formed, while in spermiation spermatozoa are 165. Which of the following hormones can play a significant role in osteoporosis ? formed. (1) Progesterone and Aldosterone (4) In spermiogenesis spermatozoa are formed, (2) Estrogen and Parathyroid hormone while in spermiation spermatozoa are released from sertoli cells into the cavity of (3) Aldosterone and Prolactin seminiferous tubules. (4) Parathyroid hormone and Prolactin HLAAC/KK/Page 19 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK English 166. Which of the following options correctly 169. Which of the following gastric cells indirectly represents the lung conditions in asthma and emphysema, respectively ? help in erythropoiesis ? (1) Increased number of bronchioles; Increased (1) Mucous cells respiratory surface (2) Goblet cells (2) Increased respiratory surface; Inflammation of bronchioles (3) Chief cells (3) Inflammation of bronchioles; Decreased (4) Parietal cells respiratory surface (4) Decreased respiratory surface; 170. Match the items given in Column I with those in Inflammation of bronchioles Column II and select the correct option given 167. Match the items given in Column I with those in below : Column II and select the correct option given Column I Column II below : Column I Column II a. Fibrinogen i. Osmotic balance a. Tricuspid valve i. Between left atrium b. Globulin ii. Blood clotting and left ventricle c. Albumin iii. Defence mechanism b. Bicuspid valve ii. Between right ventricle and a b c pulmonary artery (1) i ii iii c. Semilunar valve iii. Between right (2) i iii ii atrium and right ventricle (3) iii ii i a b c (4) ii iii i (1) i iii ii 171. Which of the following is an occupational (2) i ii iii respiratory disorder ? (3) iii i ii (4) ii i iii (1) Silicosis 168. Match the items given in Column I with those in (2) Botulism Column II and select the correct option given (3) Anthracis below : (4) Emphysema Column I Column II a. Tidal volume i. 2500 – 3000 mL 172. Calcium is important in skeletal muscle b. Inspiratory Reserve ii. 1100 – 1200 mL contraction because it volume (1) activates the myosin ATPase by binding to c. Expiratory Reserve iii. 500 – 550 mL it. volume (2) detaches the myosin head from the actin d. Residual volume iv. 1000 – 1100 mL filament. a b c d (3) binds to troponin to remove the masking of (1) iii i iv ii active sites on actin for myosin. (2) i iv ii iii (4) prevents the formation of bonds between (3) iii ii i iv the myosin cross bridges and the actin (4) iv iii ii i filament. HLAAC/KK/Page 20 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK English 173. Match the items given in Column I with those in 175. Which of the following features is used to identify a male cockroach from a female cockroach ? Column II and select the correct option given below : (1) Presence of caudal styles (2) Forewings with darker tegmina Column I Column II (3) Presence of a boat shaped sternum on the a. Glycosuria i. Accumulation of uric 9 th abdominal segment acid in joints (4) Presence of anal cerci b. Gout ii. Mass of crystallised salts within the kidney 176. Identify the vertebrate group of animals characterized by crop and gizzard in its digestive c. Renal calculi iii. Inflammation in system. glomeruli (1) Reptilia d. Glomerular iv. Presence of glucose in (2) Aves nephritis urine (3) Amphibia a b c d (4) Osteichthyes (1) i ii iii iv 177. Which one of these animals is not a (2) ii iii i iv homeotherm ? (3) iii ii iv i (1) Chelone (4) iv i ii iii (2) Camelus 174. Match the items given in Column I with those in (3) Macropus Column II and select the correct option given (4) Psittacula below : 178. Which of the following organisms are known as Column I Column II chief producers in the oceans ? (Function) (Part of Excretory (1) Diatoms System) (2) Cyanobacteria a. Ultrafiltration i. Henle’s loop (3) Dinoflagellates b. Concentration ii. Ureter (4) Euglenoids of urine 179. Which of the following animals does not undergo c. Transport of iii. Urinary bladder metamorphosis ? urine (1) Tunicate d. Storage of urine iv. Malpighian (2) Moth corpuscle (3) Earthworm v. Proximal (4) Starfish convoluted tubule a b c d 180. Ciliates differ from all other protozoans in (1) having a contractile vacuole for removing (1) iv i ii iii excess water (2) v iv i ii (2) using pseudopodia for capturing prey (3) iv v ii iii (3) using flagella for locomotion (4) v iv i iii (4) having two types of nuclei HLAAC/KK/Page 21 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK English  SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK HLAAC/KK/Page 22 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK English  SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK HLAAC/KK/Page 23 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK English  Read carefully the following instructions : 1. Each candidate must show on demand his/her Admit Card to the Invigilator. 2. No candidate, without special permission of the Superintendent or Invigilator, would leave his/her seat. 3. The candidates should not leave the Examination Hall without handing over their Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on duty and sign the Attendance Sheet twice. Cases where a candidate has not signed the Attendance Sheet second time will be deemed not to have handed over the Answer Sheet and dealt with as an unfair means case. 4. Use of Electronic/Manual Calculator is prohibited. 5. The candidates are governed by all Rules and Regulations of the examination with regard to their conduct in the Examination Hall. All cases of unfair means will be dealt with as per Rules and Regulations of this examination. 6. No part of the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet shall be detached under any circumstances. 7. The candidates will write the Correct Test Booklet Code as given in the Test Booklet/Answer Sheet in the Attendance Sheet. HLAAC/KK/Page 24 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK English