Aakash Revision Test 02 PDF

24/03/2022 RM_CODE-A Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Phone : 011-47623456 MM : 720 REVISION TEST SERIES...

24/03/2022 RM_CODE-A Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Phone : 011-47623456 MM : 720 REVISION TEST SERIES Time : 3.00 Hrs. (for NEET-2022) Test – 2 Topics covered : Physics : Current Electricity Chemistry : Alcohols, Phenols and Ethers Botany : Principles of Inheritance and Variations Zoology : Reproductive Health Instructions : (i) There are two sections in each subject, i.e. Section-A & Section-B. You have to attempt all 35 questions from Section-A & only 10 questions from Section-B out of 15. (ii) Each question carries 4 marks. For every wrong response 1 mark shall be deducted from the total score. Unanswered / unattempted questions will be given no marks. (iii) Use blue/black ballpoint pen only to darken the appropriate circle. (iv) Mark should be dark and completely fill the circle. (v) Dark only one circle for each entry. (vi) Dark the circle in the space provided only. (vii) Rough work must not be done on the Answer sheet and do not use white-fluid or any other rubbing material on the Answer sheet. PHYSICS Choose the correct answer: SECTION-A 1. The current (I) voltage (V) graphs for a given ohmic conductor at two different temperatures T1 and T2 are shown in the figure. Choose the correct statement. (R1 and R2 are the resistance of specimen at temperature T1 and T2 respectively) (1) R1 > R2 (2) R2 > R1 (3) T1 = T2 (4) T2 < T1 (1) Revision Test Series for NEET-2022 (XII Passed) Test-2_Code-A 2. Charge stored on the capacitor of capacitance 6. Six equal resistances are connected between 10 F connected in the circuit as shown in figure, points P, Q and R as shown in figure. The net in steady state is resistance will be maximum across the points P Q R (1) P and Q (1) 20 C (2) 15 C (2) Q and R (3) 10 C (4) Zero (3) P and R 3. A circuit consists of a source of emf E and internal resistance r, capacitors each of (4) Between any two points are equal capacitance C and resistors each of resistance R. 7. In the circuit element given here, If the potential Potential drop across any of the capacitor at at point B is zero, then potential of points A and D steady state is can be given as 1A 1.5  2.5  2V C E R A B D C r (1) VA = – 1.5 V, VD = +2 V R (2) VA = + 1.5 V, VD = +2 V ER ER (3) VA = + 1.5 V, VD = +0.5 V (1) (2) 2(R  r ) Rr (4) VA = + 1.5 V, VD = –0.5 V E (R  r ) 8. If the switch S is closed in the circuit shown in (3) (4) Zero figure, how much current will pass through it? 2R 4. The drift velocity of the electrons in a copper wire 20 V 2  4 5V of length 2 m under the application of a potential A B difference 100 V is 0.025 m/s. The mobility of 2 electron (in m2V–1s–1) is S (1) 5 × 102 (2) 2.5 × 10–3 (3) 5 × 10–4 (4) 2.5 × 10–2 (1) 4.5 A (2) 6.0 A 5. A wire with uniform cross-section and resistance (3) 3.0 A (4) Zero 4  is bent to form a circle as shown in the figure. 9. In the circuit shown in figure, if voltage drop The resistance between A and B is across any of 2  resistance is 2 V, then emf of A the cell is 60° B 5 (1)  (2) 4  9 9 2 (1) 25 V (2) 27 V (3)  (4)  5 3 (3) 13 V (4) 30 V (2) Test-2_Code-A Revision Test Series for NEET-2022 (XII Passed) 10. The value of unknown resistance for null 13. On increasing the temperature, the resistivity of deflection in galvanometer, as shown in meter the material (1) Always increases bridge circuit is (2) Always decreases 55  R (3) May increase or decrease (4) Remains same 14. In the circuit shown in figure if power dissipated in G the 9  resistor is 36 W, then potential difference across 2  resistor is 20 cm 9 (1) 220  (2) 110  6 (3) 55  (4) 13.75  11. In the part of circuit shown in the figure, the V 2 potential difference between points G and H (VG – VH) is (1) 5 V (2) 10 V (3) 18 V (4) 20 V G 1A 2A 15. The charge passing through a resistor is varying with time as shown in the graph. The amount of 4 heat generated with time t is best represented as 2 + – charge – + 3V 5V 5C 1 H 1s 2s time 3A 0 (1) 0 V (2) 15 V –5 C (3) 7 V (4) 3 V H 12. All the resistors in given circuit have same resistance and equivalent resistance between A (1) and B is R0. Now keys are closed, then t 0 1s 2s equivalent resistance can be expressed as H k1 (2) B 0 t 1s 2s H A (3) k2 0 t 1s 2s H 7R0 7R0 (1) (2) 3 9 (4) R0 (3) 7R0 (4) t 3 0 1s (3) Revision Test Series for NEET-2022 (XII Passed) Test-2_Code-A 16. Variation of square of current i2 with time t is 20. Consider an infinite ladder network as shown in plotted in the graph shown in figure for a resistor the figure. The effective value of resistance of resistance 10 . Total heat produced in the between point A and B is resistance in time 6 s is (1) 80 J (2) 240 J (1) 4R (2) R (3) 160 J (4) 320 J (3) 2R (4) 8R 17. In the circuit shown in figure, the resistance of voltmeter is 6 k. The voltmeter reading will be 21. Within electric cell, the charge is transported by 10 V (1) Free electrons (2) Only positive ions 2 k 3 k (3) Only negative ions (4) Both positive and negative ions V 6 k 22. As shown in figure, two bulbs each 100 W, 220 V (1) 6 V (2) 5 V connected in series. The heat generated per second when connected in series across 400 V (3) 4 V (4) 3 V supply is approximately 18. The value of R for which power across AB is maximum (1) 50 W (2) 100 W (3) 200 W (4) 165 W (1) 6  (2) 9  23. The charge flowing through a resistance of 10  (3) 12  (4) 3  varies with time t as Q = 6t – 3t2. The total heat 19. A 4 V battery with negligible internal resistance is produced is connected across a uniform wire AB of length 2 m. A battery of emf 2 V and internal resistance (1) 60 J (2) 90 J 2  is joined as shown in figure. If galvanometer (3) 30 J (4) 120 J shows no deflection, then 24. A resistance 3R of thermal coefficient of 4V resistivity  is connected in parallel with a resistance 6R having thermal coefficient 2, the x y equivalent thermal coefficient of resistivity is A B G 4 (1) 3 (2) 2V 2 3 (1) xy > 110 cm (2) xy < 100 cm 3 5 (3) (4) (3) xy = 100 cm (4) xy = 110 cm 2 4 (4) Test-2_Code-A Revision Test Series for NEET-2022 (XII Passed) 25. The reading of ammeter in the circuit shown in 29. The value of current i as shown in the following the figure is circuit is R A V R R 2V (1) 4 A (2) 2 A (1) Zero (2) 3R (3) Zero (4) 8 A V V 30. Five identical cells each of internal resistance (3) (4) 3R 2R 0.4  and emf 4 V are connected in series (in 26. The charge on the capacitor in the circuit, as support of each other) with an external resistance shown in the figure, in steady state is 2 . The current through the external resistance is (1) 2 A (2) 10 A (3) 5 A (4) 4 A 31. Consider the following circuit diagram involving a potentiometer. The potential gradient across the potentiometer wire is 2 V/m. Calculate the (1) 4 C (2) 5 C distance AJ, for which the ammeter shows zero deflection. (3) 2 C (4) 1 C 27. Current (i) through a conductor depends on time (t) as i = (5t) A. If the resistance of the conductor is 2  , then the heat dissipated by the conductor in time duration t = 2 s to t = 4 s is approximately (1) 812 J (2) 16 J (1) 0.25 m (2) 0.5 m (3) 1500 J (4) 933 J (3) 1 m (4) None of the above 28. The equivalent resistance between A and B in the following circuit is 32. Which of the following graphs best represents the variation of terminal potential difference across a cell as function of current through it, in case of charging? (1) (2) (1) 20  (2) 3.6  (3) 4  (3) (4) (4) 1.2  (5) Revision Test Series for NEET-2022 (XII Passed) Test-2_Code-A 33. Three identical bulbs are connected in a circuit as (1) 18  (2) 6  shown in figure. Rank the bulbs in decreasing (3) 12  (4) 24  order of brightness. 38. Two bulbs A and B are respectively rated as (25 W – 220 V) and (100 W – 220 V). The ratio of resistance of bulb A to that of bulb B i.e. RA : RB is (1) 1 : 4 (2) 4 : 1 (3) 16 : 1 (4) 1 : 16 39. The current through the load resistance R in the circuit as shown in the figure is (1) B1>B2>B3 (2) B2>B1>B3 (3) B1>B2 = B3 (4) B2 = B3>B1 34. A battery of emf 10 V is connected to resistances as shown in the figure. The potential difference between points A and B is 30 30 (1) A (2) A 13 7 6 7 (3) A (4) A 83 20 (1) 5 V (2) 3 V 40. The relaxation time of electrons in conductors (3) 6 V (4) Zero (1) Decrease with decrease in temperature 35. For a conductor of constant volume, the graph (2) Decrease with increase in temperature between resistance and length of the conductor is (3) Is independent of temperature (1) Parabola (2) Hyperbola (4) First increase then decrease with increase in (3) Ellipse (4) Straight line temperature SECTION-B 41. In a neutral wire carrying electric current density 36. The potential difference between points P and Q J is given by (  is negative charge density, v in the circuit shown in the figure is  is drift velocity) v (1) J  v (2) J    (3) J  (4) Both (2) and (3) v (1) 2 V (2) 10 V (3) 6 V (4) 8 V 42. Equivalent resistivity of two wires of equal radii and of resistivities 1 and  2 and length l1 and l2 37. In the given circuit, the value of resistance of resistor R is respectively joined in series, is 1l1  2 l 2 1l 2  2 l1 (1) (2) l1  l 2 l1  l 2 1l 2  2 l1 1l1  2 l 2 (3) (4) l1  l 2 l1  l 2 (6) Test-2_Code-A Revision Test Series for NEET-2022 (XII Passed) 43. Figure shows a 2.0 V cell connected in a 47. Mobility of free electrons in a conductor, in potentiometer used for determination of internal presence of external electric field E is . If the resistance of 1.5 V cell. The balance point of the external electric field changed to 2E, then mobility cell in open circuit is 76.0 cm. When a resistor of will be 9.0  is used in the external circuit of the cell, the balance point shifts to 72.0 cm length of (1) 2  (2)  potentiometer wire. The internal resistance of the  cell is (3) 3  (4) 2 48. A cell of emf E and internal resistance r is connected in series with an external resistance nr. The terminal potential difference across the cell will be E E (1) (2) n 1 n (n  1)E  n  (3) (4)  E n  n  1 (1) 0.2  (2) 0.3  49. The equivalent resistance between points A and (3) 1.7  (4) 0.5  B in the infinite ladder circuit is 44. A cell has an emf of 4 V and internal resistance 0.6 . The maximum power which it can deliver to any external resistor is (1) 2.86 W (2) 6.67 W (3) 4.87 W (4) 4.13 W 45. A galvanometer of resistance G = 50  is connected to a battery 3 V along a resistance of 2950  in series. A full scale deflection of 5 1 5 1 30 divisions is obtained in the galvanometer. In (1)  (2)  2 2 order to reduce this deflection to 20 divisions, the resistance R that should be connected in series (3) 3  (4) 5 with G will be 50. Effective temperature coefficient of series (1) 4450  (2) 5050  combination of two resistors with respective (3) 5550  (4) 6050  temperature coefficient of resistance 1 and  2 is 46. Value of current i in the following circuit is (The resistance of two conductors at 0°C is same) (1) 2(1  2 ) 1 2 (2) 1   2 4 1   2 (1) A (2) 16 A (3) 43 2 6 40 1   2 (3) A (4) A (4) 91 19 2 (7) Revision Test Series for NEET-2022 (XII Passed) Test-2_Code-A CHEMISTRY SECTION-A 56. Which of the reactants given below is/are suitable 51. Epoxyethane reacts with ethylmagnesium for the preparation of 1-methoxy-2-nitrobenzene? bromide, followed by hydrolysis, the compound NO2 formed is (1) Isopropyl alcohol (2) n-butyl alcohol x : NO2 Br + CH3ONa (3) Tert butyl alcohol (4) n-propyl alcohol NO2 OH NO2 Fe 52. + Br2 ? y: ONa + CH3Br (Major product) OH Major product is (1) Only x (2) Only y OH OH (3) Both x and y (4) Neither x nor y Br 57. Most acidic compound among the following is (1) (2) OH OH OH Br OH (1) (2) OH (3) (4) Br OH Br (3) (4) + H 53. + CH3OH A.(A) is O (major) 58. Which of the following will be dehydrated most OCH3 easily in acidic medium? (1) (2) OH OH O OCH3 O OCH3 (1) (2) OCH 3 (3) (4) CH2OH O CH3 OH O (3) (4) 54. When C2H5MgI is made to react with acetone and the addition product is hydrolysed, we get 59. Choose the incorrect match. (1) A primary alcohol OH (2) A secondary alcohol (3) A tertiary alcohol (1) : 4-Methylcyclohex-3-en-1-ol (4) An ether CH3 55. Which among the following is resorcinol? H3C Cl (2) C C : 4-Chloro-3-methylpent-3-en-5-ol CH3CH2 CH2OH OH (1) (2) Cl H3C (3) : 4-Chlorobut-3-en-2-ol H H OH (3) (4) (4) : Cyclohex-2-en-1-ol (8) Test-2_Code-A Revision Test Series for NEET-2022 (XII Passed) 64. Identify the chemical reaction in which tert-butylmethylether is formed as the major product. 60. (1) CH3O Na  (CH3 )3 C  Br  Dry ether  (2) (CH3 )2 CH  OK   CH3  Br  Dry ether  (3) (CH3 )3 C  OK   H3C  Br  Dry ether  Dry ether (4) CH3CH2  O Na  (CH3 )2 CH  Br  Product A and B are related as 65. Identify the most stable carbocation involved in (1) Chain isomers (2) Stereoisomers following conversion (3) Functional isomers (4) Position isomers OH OH O CH3 + H3C – C – C – CH3 H3C – C – C – CH3 + H2O H 61. In which of the following, product will be racemic mixture? CH3 CH3 CH3 O OH CH3 OH + C (1) H3C – C – C – CH3 (2) H3C – C – C – CH3 H NaBH4 + (1)  Alcohol CH3 CH3 CH3 O OH CH3 + + (2) CH – C – CH CH  NaBH 4 (3) H3C – C – C – CH3 (4) HO – C – C – C2H5 3 2 3 Alcohol O CH3 OH OH CH3 C H Ni-H 2 66. (3)  (Raney nickel) Which of the following will not form in the above NaBH4 (4) CH3CHO  Alcohol reaction? (1) (2) H2O2 /OH 62.  A B BH3 THF (3) (4) Identify the compound B. 67. Given reaction, C2H5Br + NaOH C2H5OH + CH3 CH3 NaBr is called H H (1) Electrophilic substitution (1) (2) (2) Nucleophilic substitution OH H H OH (3) Electrophilic addition CH3 H (4) Nucleophilic addition OH CH3 68. How many isomers of C5H11OH will be primary alcohol? (excluding stereoisomers) (3) (4) H OH (1) 2 (2) 3 H H (3) 4 (4) 5 63. (i) O3 (2 equivalents) KMnO4  69. HI reacts fastest with  X  + Y  Z (ii) Zn, H2O H (major) (1) 2-methyl propan-2-ol Z is (2) Propan-2-ol (1) CH3CHO (2) CH3COOH (3) Propan-1-ol (3) C2H5CHO (4) C2H5COOH (4) 2-methyl propan-1-ol (9) Revision Test Series for NEET-2022 (XII Passed) Test-2_Code-A 70. The compound which will react with aqueous 74. Which among the following compounds does not KOH at fastest rate is liberate hydrogen gas on reaction with sodium? OH OH OH (1) (2) (1) (2) OH CH2 – OH (3) (4) (3) (4) 75. The compound which will give iodoform test is 71. Which among the following compounds is most (1) Methanol (2) Ethanol easily dehydrated in acidic medium? (3) Propan-1-ol (4) 2-methylpropan-2-ol O O 76. The incorrect statement for methoxymethane (X) OH and ethanol (Y) is (1) (2) (1) X and Y are functional isomers OH (2) X and Y have same boiling point O O (3) X is polar aprotic solvent (3) (4) (4) Y shows intermolecular H-bonding 77. Benzenediazonium chloride on warming with OH OH water gives 72. Consider the following reaction OH (1) (2) (i) NaOH (ii) PhCH2Br P (Major) OH (3) (4) Product P is 78. Fermentation of glucose in presence of Zymase OH O Ph gives (1) (2) (1) CH3OH (2) CH3OCH3 O Ph OH (3) CH3COOH (4) CH3CH2OH OH OH 79. The decreasing order of boiling point of the following compounds is (3) OH (4) Ph OH (I) Butan-1-ol Ph (II) Tert-butyl alcohol (III) Diethyl ether 73. When anisole is treated with one equivalent HI, the products formed are (1) II > I > III (2) I > III > II CH3 I (3) I > II > III (4) III > I > II 80. Glycerol reacts with KHSO4 to produce (1) and CH3OH (2) and CH3OH (1) Dihydroxy glycerine OH I (2) Acrolein (3) Glyceraldehyde (3) and CH3I (4) and C2H5OH (4) Formic acid (10) Test-2_Code-A Revision Test Series for NEET-2022 (XII Passed) H2SO4 85. The products formed in the reaction are 81. Product(s), Major product  CH2OH is (1) (1) (2) OH (2) (3) (3) (4) (4) 82. Phenol on reaction with CCl4 in presence of NaOH will produce SECTION-B (1) Picric acid (2) Salicylaldehyde 86. In the reaction (3) Salicylic acid (4) Benzoic acid OH OH OH 83. O2N NO2 The electrophile involved is NO2 (A) (B) (C) (1) CO2 The order of the C–O bond lengths among these (2) CO compounds is (3) H+ (1) (A) > (B) > (C) (2) (C) > (B) > (A) + (4) COOH (3) (B) > (A) > (C) (4) (C) > (A) > (B) 87. The heating of benzyl methyl ether with HI 84. produces majorly (1) Benzyl iodide and methanol (2) Benzyl alcohol and iodomethane A and B respectively are (3) Benzyl alcohol and methanol (4) Benzyl iodide and methane (1) 88. In a given reaction (2) Which of the following is correct option about (3) (A)? (1) (A) contains 5 membered ring (2) (A) does not show tautomerism (3) (A) is carboxylic acid (4) (4) (A) is an aromatic compound (11) Revision Test Series for NEET-2022 (XII Passed) Test-2_Code-A 89. Consider the reactions. 96. All of the following are correct/valid for ethers, except a. CH3 –CH=CH2  (i) BH3 /THF (ii) H O /OH– A PCC (in CH Cl ) B 2 2 2 2 (1) They generally have low boiling points b. CH3 –CH=CH2  (i) Hg (OAc)2 (ii) NaBH , OH C PCC (in CH Cl ) D (2) They are less soluble in water 4 2 2 Product B and D are related as (3) The R-O-R bond angle in ethers is large (>110°) (1) Functional isomers (2) Positional isomers (3) Chain isomers (4) Metamers (4) Solubility of ethers in water increases with increase in molar mass 90. Ethanol with acetic anhydride gives 97. Neutral FeCl3 gives purple colour with (1) Methyl acetate (2) Methyl propionate (1) CH3OH (2) CH3CH2OH (3) Ethyl propionate (4) Ethyl acetate 91. Which among the following alcohols will give red colour in Victor Meyer test? (3) (4) (1) (CH3)2CHOH (2) (CH3)3COH (3) C6H5OH (4) CH3CH2OH 98. Consider the reaction 92. Which of the following compounds reacts with CrO —H SO CH3 (CH2 )8 CH2OH 3 A 2 4 sodium bicarbonate? (1) Phenol (2) Ethanol A is (3) Acetylene (4) Picric acid (1) CH3(CH2)8CHO (2) CH3(CH2)8COOH 93. The reaction of Lucas reagent is fastest with (3) CH3CO(CH2)7CH3 (4) HOOC(CH2)8COOH (1) CH3—OH (2) CH3CH2OH 99. Which of the following is not the possible product (3) (CH3)2CHOH (4) (CH3)3COH 94. The order of reactivity of following alcohols with of dehydration of in acidic medium? acetic acid in the presence of H+ ion towards ester formation is (1) (i) (2) (ii) (iii) (3) (1) (ii) > (i) > (iii) (2) (ii) > (iii) > (i) (3) (iii) > (ii) > (i) (4) (i) > (iii) > (ii) (4) 95. The correct IUPAC name of the following 100. Consider the following reaction sequence compound is (1) 1-Ethoxy-2,2-dimethylcyclohexane (2) 2-Ethoxy-1,1-dimethylcyclohexane product Z is (3) 1-Ethoxy-6,6-dimethylcyclohexane (1) CH3CH2COOH (2) CH3CH2CH2OH (4) 6-Ethoxy-1,1-dimethylcyclohexane (3) CH3CH2OCH3 (4) CH3CH(OH)CH3 (12) Test-2_Code-A Revision Test Series for NEET-2022 (XII Passed) BOTANY SECTION-A 107. In which of the following organisms, sperm will 101. Due to non-disjunction, an extra copy of a decide the sex of progenies? chromosome is observed in an individual. It is (1) Drosophila (2) Birds (1) Monosomy (2) Nullisomy (3) Moths (4) Butterfly (3) Trisomy (4) Tetrasomy 108. Chromosome complement of an individual 102. Sickle cell anaemia inflicted with Klinefelter’s syndrome is a. Is an example of transversion mutation. (1) 45 + XY (2) 44 + XXY b. Is caused by mutation of the gene which (3) 44 + XO (4) 45 + XO synthesise the  chain of haemoglobin. 109. Graphical representation to calculate the c. Involves replacement of amino acid valine by probability of all possible genotypes of offsprings glutamic acid. in a genetic cross was given by The correct ones are (1) R.C. Punnett (2) G.J. Mendel (1) All a, b and c (2) a and c (3) Bateson (4) Johannsen (3) a and b (4) b and c 103. Identify the disorder on the basis of given 110. In grasshopper, the male sex in progeny is features of a male decided by a. Development of breast (1) Ova with (A + X) genotype b. Small testes (2) Sperm with (A + X) genotype c. Sterility (3) Sperm with (A + O) genotype d. Feminine piched voice (4) Sperm with (A + Z) genotype (1) Turner’s syndrome 111. Mark the incorrect pair (2) Haemophilia (1) Sickle cell – Autosomal recessive (3) Klinefelter’s syndrome anaemia trait (4) Myotonic dystrophy (2) Colourblindness – X-linked recessive trait 104. A woman with normal vision marries a man who is colourblind. If their son is with normal vision (3) Phenylketonuria – Autosomal recessive then what percentage of their daughter will be trait colourblind? (1) 100% (2) 0% (4) Thalassemia – Shows criss-cross inheritance (3) 75% (4) 25% 105. Which one is a physical mutagen? 112. Most frequent skin colour seen in a human (1) Nitrous acid (2) Acridine population is (3) X-rays (4) 5-Bromouracil (1) Dark 106. Mendel experimented on garden pea for (2) Fairly light (1) Six years (2) Fourteen years (3) Very light (3) Ten years (4) Seven years (4) Intermediate skin colour (13) Revision Test Series for NEET-2022 (XII Passed) Test-2_Code-A 113. Trisomy cannot be associated with 121. One of the reasons for adopting garden pea for experiment by Mendel was (1) Increase in number of chromosomes (1) Flowers show cross pollination naturally (2) Non-disjunction of chromosomes (2) It is a leguminous plant (3) Triple fusion (3) It is a dicot plant (4) Aneuploidy (4) It has many distinct alternative traits 114. What percentage of offsprings would have 122. Study the given pedigree chart and select the genotype AabbCcDd if parents are AaBbccDd statement which is true for this family. and AAbbCcDD? (1) 25 (2) 6.25 (3) 12.5 (4) 0.625 115. Term recombination was proposed by (1) Morgan (2) Sturtevant (3) Mendel (4) Hugo de Vries 116. A classical example of point mutation in human is (1) The trait is X–linked recessive (1) Colourblindness (2) Sickle cell anaemia (2) All the unaffected individuals in generation Q (3) Phenylketonuria (4) Haemophilia are heterozygous for that trait 117. Total number of different phenotypes in F2 (3) This pedigree chart can explain the generation in a typical Mendelian dihybrid cross inheritance of myotonic dystrophy is (4) The trait in this pedigree chart is Y-linked (1) 8 (2) 16 123. How many different types of gametes will be produced by the organism with genotype (3) 3 (4) 4 PpQQrrssTt? 118. Select the wrong statement regarding mutations. (1) 8 (2) 4 (1) Frame-shift mutation may be due to deletion (3) 32 (4) 9 or insertion of one or more bases in a 124. Term ‘X-body’ was given by nucleotide chain (1) Henking (2) Stevens (2) When a purine base is substituted by another (3) Carl Correns (4) A.H. Sturtevant purine base then it is transition mutation 125. Select the option in which the combination will (3) Transfer of gene segment during crossing result Turner’s Syndrome over between homologous chromosome (1) Egg (22 + 0) × sperm (22 + 0) results in chromosomal aberration (2) Egg (21 + X) × sperm (22 + Y) (4) Many chemical and physical factors can be (3) Egg (22 + XX) × sperm (22 + 0) mutagens (4) Egg (22 + X) × sperm (22 + 0) 119. In human beings, which of the following disorders 126. Some feature of Drosophila are given below occur due to the dominant allele? (a) Males are smaller than females (1) Sickle cell anaemia (2) Cystic fibrosis (b) It has a short life cycle (3) Myotonic dystrophy (4) Haemophilia (c) It has smaller number of morphologically 120. Which of the following traits is expressed only in distinct chromosomes homozygous condition in pea plant? (d) It is found over ripe fruits. (1) Tall height Which features are considered suitable for (2) Violet flower experimental genetics? (3) Green pod (1) (a), (c) and (d) (2) (b) and (c) (4) Terminal flower position (3) (b), (c) and (d) (4) (a) and (c) (14) Test-2_Code-A Revision Test Series for NEET-2022 (XII Passed) 127. In honey bee males are 133. Genes responsible for eye and body colour in (1) Diploid Drosophila are present on (2) Infertile (1) Two different autosomes (3) Parthenogenetically produced (2) The same chromosome (4) Produced by worker bees (3) An autosome and a X-chromosome respectively 128. In garden pea, gene controlling starch synthesis is related to all of the given phenomenon, except (4) Both X and Y-chromosomes (1) Pleiotropy 134. Butterfly is different from grasshopper as each (2) Incomplete dominance somatic cell of the former has (3) Codominance (1) Only one sex chromosome in male individual (4) Complete dominance (2) Two sex chromosomes in female individual 129. Which one is a test cross? (3) Only one sex chromosome in female individual (1) TT x TT (2) tt x tt (4) Only autosomes in male individual (3) Tt x TT (4) Tt x tt 135. Which one of the following Mendelian disorders is 130. Mark the statement incorrect for chromosomal theory of inheritance. concerned with below given pedigree chart? (1) Both chromosomes and genes retain their number and individuality throughout the life of an organism (2) Chromosomes are carriers of Mendelian factors which segregate and assort independently during meiosis (3) The two alleles of a gene pair are located on homologous sites of non-homologous (1) Colour blindness (2) Haemophilia chromosomes (3) Cystic fibrosis (4) Myotonic dystrophy (4) A gamete carries only one chromosome of a SECTION-B type and one of two alleles of a gene 136. Select the odd one w.r.t. dominant traits of pea. 131. A woman has AB blood group. She marries to a (1) Green pod colour man with blood group B whose mother had blood group O. Calculate the probability of their child to (2) Green seed colour be with blood group AB. (3) Inflated pod shape 1 1 (4) Round seed shape (1) (2) 2 4 137. How many true-breeding pea plant varieties were 1 1 selected by Mendel? (3) (4) 8 16 (1) 7 (2) 36 132. Which of the following symptoms is not in a (3) 14 (4) 24 person suffering with Down’s syndrome? 138. In a dihybrid cross of Mendel’s experiment, what (1) Furrowed tongue will be the proportion of plants which are (2) Short stature homozygous only for one trait in F2 generation? (3) Palm crease (1) 1/4 (2) 1/2 (4) Gynaecomastia (3) 1/16 (4) 1/8 (15) Revision Test Series for NEET-2022 (XII Passed) Test-2_Code-A 139. According to the concept of dominance, the 146. Proportion of recombinant phenotypes in F 2 modified allele is equivalent to the unmodified generation in Mendelian dihybrid cross is allele when 6 3 (1) It produces normal enzyme (1) (2) 16 16 (2) It produces the same phenotype 9 10 (3) It produces non-functional enzyme (3) (4) 16 16 (4) Both (1) and (2) 147. In Mendel’s hybridization experiment, Rr × rr 140. Mark the odd one w.r.t. pleiotropy. gives rise to the progeny in the genotypic ratio of (1) It is due to effect of the gene on two or more (1) 2 : 1 (2) 1 : 1 inter-related metabolic pathways (3) 3 : 1 (4) 1 : 2 :1 (2) In humans, its example is phenylketonuria 148. In the following statements (3) It occurs in human beings only Statement-A : Dominance is not an autonomous (4) Pleiotropic gene affects several characters feature of gene simultaneously Statement-B : Mendelian dihybrid test cross will 141. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t incomplete dominance. have same genotypic and phenotypic ratio (1) Genotypic and phenotypic ratios are the (1) Statement A is incorrect same in F2 generation (2) Statement B is incorrect (2) Test cross can produce two phenotypes (3) Statements A and B both are correct (3) Phenotype of F1 hybrid resembles both the (4) Statements A and B both are incorrect parents 149. When a cross is made between red flowered and (4) Flower colour in Antirrhinum majus is the white flowered snapdragon plants, the example of this phenomenon percentage of offsprings having pink and white 142. Choose the example of codominance flowers respectively in F2 generation will be (1) Phenylketonuria (1) 25% and 50% (2) 50% and 25% (2) Flower colour in 4O’ clock plant (3) 50% and 0% (4) 25% and 0% (3) AB blood group in human 150. Match the column I with column II and choose the (4) Skin colour in human correct option. 143. Which of the given crosses will produce Column I Column II maximum possible phenotypes in offsprings? a. Alleles (i) A single gene (1) AABb × aabb (2) AABB × aabb exhibiting more than (3) AaBb × aabb (4) AaBB × aabb one phenotypic 144. Which of the following can express themselves in expression. both F1 and F2 generation in a monohybrid cross? b. Genes (ii) The units of inheritance (1) Green seeds (2) Violet flower colour c. Pleiotropy (iii) Forms of a gene which (3) Terminal flowers (4) Yellow pods codes for a pair of 145. Relationship between Mendelian factors and contrasting traits. chromosomes was found by (1) Sutton and Boveri d. Multiple (iv) Presence of more than allelism two alleles for a gene (2) Morgan and Sturtevant (3) Bateson and Punnett (1) a(iii), b(ii), c(i), d(iv) (2) a(iii), b(ii), c(iv), d(i) (4) Johannsen (3) a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(iv) (4) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i) (16) Test-2_Code-A Revision Test Series for NEET-2022 (XII Passed) ZOOLOGY SECTION-A 158. In which method of contraception, does the couple abstain from coitus during fertile period 151. Which of the following statements is ‘incorrect’ about ‘Saheli’? (1) IUDs (2) Coitus interruptus (1) It is once a week pill (3) Periodic abstinence (2) It is non-steroidal preparation (4) Lactational amenorrhea (3) It checks ovulation 159. Oral contraceptive pills generally contain (4) Its chemical compound is centchroman combination of two hormones. Which of the following factors are affected by them? 152. If a person is suffering from male infertility due to very few sperms in the ejaculate, the technique a. Secretion of gonadotropins adopted for assistance in reproduction is b. Follicular development and ovulation (1) ZIFT (2) GIFT c. Quality of cervical mucus Select the correct option. (3) AI (4) IVF (1) a only (2) a and b only 153. Medical termination of pregnancy is considered (3) b and c only (4) a, b and c safe up to how many weeks of pregnancy? 160. Select the hormone releasing IUDs. (1) 6 weeks (2) 12 weeks (1) CuT (2) Cu7 (3) 20 weeks (4) 8 weeks (3) Progestasert (4) Multiload 375 154. The most effective contraceptive method in 161. Voluntary termination of pregnancy males is (1) Is relatively unsafe before first trimester than (1) IUDs after 2nd trimester (2) Oral contraceptive pills (2) Is to get rid of unwanted pregnancies due to unprotected intercourse. (3) Vasectomy (3) Is always surgical and is effective only within (4) Periodic abstinence 72 hours of coitus 155. Contraceptive method that is generally advised (4) Requires confirmation by two qualified for the females as a terminal method to prevent registered medical practitioner before three any more pregnancies is months 162. Match the following and choose the correct (1) Vasectomy (2) Tubectomy option. (3) Oophorectomy (4) Hysterectomy Column-I Column-II 156. IUD is an effective and popular contraceptive a. ZIFT (i) Transferring of ovum and method. Select the option which is an example of sperm into oviduct of female non-medicated IUD? b. IUT (ii) Early embryo (up to (1) LNG-20 (2) Lippes loop 8-blastomeres) is transferred (3) Multiload 375 (4) Cu7 into fallopian tube 157. Amniocentesis is the insertion of a needle c. GIFT (iii) Embryo with more than eight through the abdominal and uterine walls into the blastomeres is transferred amniotic cavity to withdraw fluid for the into uterus examination of certain defects. Which of the d. ICSI (iv) Sperm directly injected into following cannot be diagnosed by this method? the ovum (1) Turner’s syndrome (2) Cleft lip (1) a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(iv) (2) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i) (3) Klinefelter syndrome (4) Cystic fibrosis (3) a(ii), b(i), c(iii), d(iv) (4) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii) (17) Revision Test Series for NEET-2022 (XII Passed) Test-2_Code-A 163. Which one is not applicable for Multiload 375? 168. Action of which hormone is blocked by the use of (1) Suppresses sperm motility mifepristone? (2) Promotes phagocytosis of sperms within (1) hCG (2) Progesterone uterus (3) FSH (4) LH (3) Copper ions reduce the fertilizing capacity of 169. All of the following STIs are curable if detected sperms early and treated properly, except (4) Inhibits ovulation (1) Genital warts (2) Chlamydia 164. Select the incorrect statement. (3) Chancroid (4) Genital herpes (1) Infertility is a condition in which female is unable to conceive even after two years of 170. Choose the correct match. unprotected sexual cohabitation (1) Syphilis – Haemophilus ducrei 1 (2) Genital warts – Treponema pallidum (2) of all pregnancies i.e. 45–50 million 5 (3) AIDS – Human Papilloma Virus pregnancies are aborted per year all over the world (4) Malaria – Plasmodium vivax (3) Trichomoniasis is a fungal STI 171. In case of a female who suffers from anovulation (4) In IVF-ET, embryo upto 8-celled stage is but has normal physiological conditions suitable transferred into fallopian tube for carrying out fertilization and embryonic 165. Factor which did not contribute to increase in development; the preferred ART should be population size of India during last few decades (1) ZIFT (2) GIFT is (3) ET (4) ICSI (1) Decline in death rate 172. Lactational amenorrhoea is due to the high level (2) Increase in maternal mortality rate (MMR) of (3) Decline in infant mortality rate (IMR) (1) Follicle stimulating hormone (4) Increase in number of people in reproducible group (2) Luteinizing hormone 166. Select the mismatch w.r.t. function of (3) Prolactin contraceptives. (4) Progesterone (1) Oral contraceptive – Prevent ovulation 173. Syphilis, a bacterial STI, is pills (1) Preventable by using non-medicated IUDs (2) Barrier methods – Prevent physical (2) Communicable from an infected mother to meeting of gametes the developing foetus across the placenta (3) Lactational – Prevents lactation (3) Characterized by painful chancres on amenorrhoea external genitals which have necrotic basis (4) Vasectomy – Prevents gamete (4) Incurable at all stages in an affected human transport 174. Steroidal oral contraceptive pills are consumed 167. In-vitro fertilization and ET is a technique that by females involves transfer of which one of the following into the fallopian tube? (1) Only on the day of ovulation (1) Only embryo up to eight-celled stage (2) Continuously for 21 days starting within 1st five days of menstruation (2) Zygote or early embryo up to eight celled stage (3) Only during follicular phase of menstrual (3) Only zygote cycle (4) Only embryo more than 32 celled stage (4) Once a week for first 4 months (18) Test-2_Code-A Revision Test Series for NEET-2022 (XII Passed) 175. In an ART, the ova collected from a donor is 180. If vas deferens of both sides are cut and ligated transferred into the fallopian tube. This technique in a mature human male, then all of the following is X and the fertilisation is then taking place may be observed except Y. (1) Continuation of male sex hormone secretion Choose the correct option w.r.t. ‘X’ and ‘Y’ (2) Semen is without sperms X Y (3) Transport of sperms to ejaculatory duct is (1) ZIFT; in vitro blocked (2) IUT; in vitro (4) Increase in sperm count (3) AI; in vivo 181. Though all persons are vulnerable to STls but (4) GIFT; in vivo their incidences are reported to be very high 176. Which of the following oral contraceptive pill is among persons of age group progesterone only pill? (1) 40-50 years (2) 15-24 years (1) Mala D (2) Saheli (3) 35-40 years (4) 5-10 years (3) POPs (4) Orthonovum 182. According to 2011 census report, the population 177. Which of the following statement is wrong about growth rate in India was ______ percent. test tube baby? (1) More than 3 (2) More than 6 (1) Fusion of sperm and ovum is done outside the body of female (3) Less than 2 (4) More than 4 (2) The zygote or early embryo up to eight 183. Which of the following is possibly the most widely blastomeres is transferred into the fallopian accepted method of contraception in India? tube (1) IUDs (2) Femidoms (3) The embryo more than eight blastomeres is (3) Coitus interruptus (4) Rhythm method transferred into the uterus (4) Gamete Intra Fallopian Transfer is one of the 184. Among the given contraceptives, which one has method included in this programme minimum average failure rate? 178. Select the correct pair among the following given (1) Calendar method (2) Barrier method options w.r.t. methods of contraception. (3) Withdrawal method (4) Oral contraceptive (1) Natural methods – Periodic 185. A correct statement regarding the type of birth abstinence, coitus control called implant interruptus (1) Allows ovulation but does not allow (2) Barrier methods – Multiload 375, vault fertilisation (3) Intra uterine device – Implants, Lippes’ (2) Makes cervical mucus thin in consistency loop (3) Effective only for short duration i.e., few (4) Sterilization – Castration, months methods vasectomy (4) Retards entry of sperms in female genital 179. A alone or in combination with B can be tract used by females as injections or small silicon SECTION-B devices under the skin as effective 186. The family planning programme in India was contraceptives. Choose the option that fill the initiated in year blanks correctly. (1) 1972 (1) A-FSH, B-LH (2) 1951 (2) A-Estrogen, B-LH (3) A-Progestogen, B-Estrogen (3) 1964 (4) A-LH, B-Inhibin (4) 1981 (19) Revision Test Series for NEET-2022 (XII Passed) Test-2_Code-A 187. Population growth can be controlled by all except 192. Select the incorrect match. (1) Encouraging couples to use contraceptive (1) RTIs – Reproductive tract infections methods (2) ART – Assisted reproductive technologies (2) Giving incentives to couples with smaller (3) PID – Pelvic inflammatory diseases families (4) RCH – Regional child health care (3) Raising the marriageable age of males and 193. Condoms are not females (1) Easy to use (4) Promoting unprotected sexual co-habitation (2) Reusable 188. Read the given statements and select the correct (3) Made up of thin rubber option. (4) Available for females Statement-A : As long as the mother breast 194. Hormonal intra uterine device does not suppress feeds the child fully, chances of conception are (1) Implantation of blastocyst almost nil but this is effective only upto six (2) Sperm motility through cervix months following parturition. (3) Fertilising capacity of sperms Statement-B : Natural methods of contraception (4) Spermatogenesis work on the principle of non-formation of 195. When did the medical termination of pregnancy gametes. act in India got legalised? (1) Both statements A and B are correct (1) 1984 (2) 1951 (2) Both statements A and B are incorrect (3) 2002 (4) 1971 (3) Only statement A is correct 196. Opinion of how many registered medical practitioners are required for MTP, if the (4) Only statement B is correct pregnancy has lasted more than 12 weeks, but 189. Which of the following is not used effectively as fewer than 24 weeks? emergency contraception after coitus? (1) One (2) Three (1) IUDs (3) Two (4) Four (2) Only progestogen pills 197. All of the following contraceptive methods inhibit ovulation except (3) Combined pills (1) Saheli (2) Norplant (4) Only estrogen pills (3) Mala-D (4) Injectable 190. How many of the contraceptives given in the box 198. If a female menstrual cycle is of 40 days, then below does not require expert/nurse intervention the fertile period in which a couple should avoid for their use or placement? coitus is from Norplant, Injections, Femidom, Nirodh, Foams (1) 10th – 17th day (2) 22nd – 29th day (3) 40th – 47th day (4) 30th – 37th day (1) Two (2) Three 199. The technique that involves fertilisation of egg (3) Five (4) Four outside the female body, followed by its insertion into oviduct is 191. Which one of the following groups include all venereal diseases? (1) GIFT (2) ZIFT (3) Al (4) IUI (1) AIDS, Genital warts, Cholera 200. Which of the following is used as male (2) HIV, Malaria, Chlamydiasis contraceptive? (3) Gonorrhoea, AIDS, Chlamydiasis (1) Diaphragm (2) Vault (4) Haemophilia, Hepatitis, AIDS (3) Lippes’ loop (4) Nirodh  (20)