SAR-23 General Knowledge and General Studies Past Paper PDF
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This is a past paper for the SAR-23 General Knowledge and General Studies examination, containing instructions and a variety of general knowledge questions.
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## SAR-23 General Knowledge and General Studies Examination **Number of Pages in Booklet:** 32 **Number of Questions in Booklet:** 150 **Paper Code:** 00 **Subject:** General Knowledge and General Studies **Time:** 3 Hours + 10 Minutes Extra* **Maximum Marks:** 200 *Time given for reading the Ques...
## SAR-23 General Knowledge and General Studies Examination **Number of Pages in Booklet:** 32 **Number of Questions in Booklet:** 150 **Paper Code:** 00 **Subject:** General Knowledge and General Studies **Time:** 3 Hours + 10 Minutes Extra* **Maximum Marks:** 200 *Time given for reading the Question Booklet and filling details on OMR Answer Sheet. **Instructions For Candidates:** 1. It is mandatory to fill one option for each question. 2. All questions carry equal marks. 3. Only one answer is to be given for each question. If more than one answers are marked, it would be treated as wrong answer. 4. The OMR Answer Sheet is inside this Question Booklet. When you are directed to open the Question Booklet, take out the Answer Sheet and fill in the particulars carefully with Blue Ball Point Pen only. Please correctly fill your Roll Number in OMR Answer Sheet. Candidate will themself be responsible for filling wrong Roll No. 5. 1/3 part of the mark(s) of each question will be deducted for each wrong answer. A wrong answer means an incorrect answer or more than one answers for any question. 6. Each question has five options marked as 1, 2, 3, 4, 5. You have to darken only one circle (bubble) indicating the correct answer on the Answer Sheet using BLUE BALL POINT PEN. 7. If you are not attempting a question then you have to darken the circle '5'. If none of the five circles is darkened, one third (1/3) part of the marks of question shall be deducted. 8. *After solving question paper, candidate must ascertain that he/she has darkened one of the circles (bubbles) for each of the questions. Extra time of 10 minutes beyond scheduled time, is provided for this. 9. If a candidate who has not darkened any of the five circles in more than 10% questions shall be disqualified. 10. If there is any sort of ambiguity/mistake either of printing or factual nature then out of Hindi and English Versions of the question, the English Version will be treated as standard. 11. Mobile Phone or any other electronic gadget in the examination hall is strictly prohibited. A candidate found with any of such objectionable material with him/her will be strictly dealt as per rules. 12. Warning: If a candidate is found copying or if any unauthorized material is found in his/her possession, F.I.R. would be lodged against him/her in the Police Station and he/she would liable to be prosecuted under Rajasthan Public Examination (Measures for Prevention of Unfair Means in Recruitment) Act, 2022 & any other laws applicable and Commission's Rules-Regulations. Commission may also debar him/her permanently from all future examinations. **Instructions for Candidates (Hindi)** 1. प्रत्येक प्रश्न के लिये एक विकल्प भरना अनिवार्य है । 2. सभी प्रश्नों के अंक समान हैं । 3. प्रत्येक प्रश्न का मात्र एक ही उत्तर दीजिए। एक से अधिक उत्तर देने की दशा में प्रश्न के उत्तर को गलत माना जाएगा । 4. OMR उत्तर-पत्रक इस प्रश्न-पुस्तिका के अन्दर रखा है। जब आपको प्रश्न-पुस्तिका खोलने को कहा जाए, तो उत्तर-पत्रक निकाल कर ध्यान से केवल नीले बॉल पॉइंट पेन से विवरण भरें । 5. कृपया अपना रोल नम्बर ओ.एम.आर. उत्तर-पत्रक पर सावधानीपूर्वक सही भरें । गलत रोल नम्बर भरने पर परीक्षार्थी स्वयं उत्तरदायी होगा । 6. प्रत्येक गलत उत्तर के लिए प्रश्न अंक का 1/3 भाग काटा जायेगा । गलत उत्तर से तात्पर्य अशुद्ध उत्तर अथवा किसी भी प्रश्न के एक से अधिक उत्तर से है। 7. प्रत्येक प्रश्न के पाँच विकल्प दिये गये हैं, जिन्हें क्रमश: 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 अंकित किया गया है। अभ्यर्थी को सही उत्तर निर्दिष्ट करते हुए उनमें से केवल एक गोले (बबल) को उत्तर-पत्रक पर नीले बॉल पॉइंट पेन से गहरा करना है। 8. यदि आप प्रश्न का उत्तर नहीं देना चाहते हैं तो उत्तर-पत्रक में पाँचवें (5) विकल्प को गहरा करें। यदि पाँच में से कोई भी गोला गहरा नहीं किया जाता है, तो ऐसे प्रश्न के लिये प्रश्न अंक का 1/3 भाग काटा जायेगा । 9.* प्रश्न-पत्र हल करने के उपरांत अभ्यर्थी अनिवार्य रूप से ओ.एम.आर. उत्तर-पत्रक जाँच लें कि समस्त प्रश्नों के लिये एक विकल्प (गोला) भर दिया गया है। इसके लिये ही निर्धारित समय से 10 मिनट का अतिरिक्त समय दिया गया है। 10. यदि अभ्यर्थी 10% से अधिक प्रश्नों में पाँच विकल्पों में से कोई भी विकल्प अंकित नहीं करता है तो उसको अयोग्य माना जायेगा । 11. यदि किसी प्रश्न में किसी प्रकार की कोई मुद्रण या तथ्यात्मक प्रकार की त्रुटि हो तो प्रश्न के हिन्दी तथा अंग्रेजी रूपान्तरों में से अंग्रेजी रूपान्तर मान्य होगा । 12. मोबाइल फोन अथवा अन्य किसी इलेक्ट्रोनिक यंत्र का परीक्षा हॉल में प्रयोग पूर्णतया वर्जित है । यदि किसी अभ्यर्थी के पास ऐसी कोई वर्जित सामग्री मिलती है तो उसके विरुद्ध आयोग द्वारा नियमानुसार कार्यवाही की जायेगी । **Warning:** अगर कोई अभ्यर्थी नकल करते पकड़ा जाता है या उसके पास से कोई अनधिकृत सामग्री पाई जाती है, तो उस अभ्यर्थी के विरुद्ध पुलिस में प्राथमिकी दर्ज कराते हुए राजस्थान सार्वजनिक परीक्षा (भर्ती में अनुचित साधनों की रोकथाम अध्युपाय) अधिनियम, 2022 तथा अन्य प्रभावी कानून एवं आयोग के नियमों-प्रावधानों के तहत कार्यवाही की जाएगी। साथ ही आयोग ऐसे अभ्यर्थी को भविष्य में होने वाली आयोग की समस्त परीक्षाओं से विवर्जित कर सकता है। **Questions:** 1. The East-West Corridor connects _______. - Imphal to Ahmedabad - Dimapur to Vadodara - Silchar to Porbandar - Guwahati to Kandla Port - Question not attempted 2. Which is the incorrect pair? - Satur - Central Aravalli - Katada - Southern Aravalli - Dur-Marayaji - Central Aravalli - Mahoharpura - Northern Aravalli - Question not attempted 3. Which of the following group of districts are correctly arranged in descending order as per the amount of monsoon rainfall they receive? - Dholpur, Rajsamand, Jalore - Bhilwara, Baran, Sikar - Rajsamand, Jalore, Dholpur - Pali, Jaipur, Bharatpur - Question not attempted 4. Which three rivers of the following form 'Triveni' Sangam? - Banas, Mainal, Bedach - Gambhiri, Mansi, Dhundh - Kothari, Khori, Bedach - Som, Aahu, Bandi - Question not attempted 5. As per the India State of Forest Report 2021, the forest cover in terms of vegetation cover is 16,654 square km, it is ______ percent of Rajasthan's geographical area. - 6.74 - 7.48 - 8.47 - 4..87 - Question not attempted 6. Which are the largest Bauxite and Mica producing States in India? - Madhya Pradesh - Maharashtra - Chhattisgarh - Odisha - Odisha - Andhra Pradesh - Jharkhand - Rajasthan - Question not attempted 7. The first sugar industry based on beet-root was established at - - Sri Ganganagar - Bhopalsagar - Keshoraypatan - Udaipur - Question not attempted 8. The Mahi Bajaj Sagar Project is a joint venture of - - Rajasthan, Punjab and Gujarat - Gujarat and Rajasthan - Rajasthan, Gujarat and Madhya Pradesh - Madhya Pradesh and Rajasthan - Question not attempted 9. Choose the district of Rajasthan which had the lowest decadal population growth rate between 2001-2011. - Barmer - Sri Ganganagar - Pali - Bundi - Question not attempted 10. Kalakhuta, Leelwani, Nardiya, Timmamori are producing regions of which mineral in Rajasthan? - Manganese - Tungsten - Copper - Iron ore - Question not attempted 11. Kalisindh Super Thermal Power Station is located at - - Baran - Jhalawar - Dungarpur - Banswara - Question not attempted 12. Which is not a correct match? - Shergarh - Bundi - Bassi - Chittorgarh - Ramsagar Van Vihar - Dholpur - Sitamata - Pratapgarh - Question not attempted 13. Mahi Kanchan and RCB 911 are hybrid variety of - - Maize and Barley respectively - Maize and Rice respectively - Maize and Bajra respectively - Bajra and Maize respectively - Question not attempted 14. Consider the following statements regarding the Constituent Assembly of India: - The final session of the Constituent Assembly was held on 24th January, 1950. - Dr. Rajendra Prasad was declared to be duly elected to the office of President of India in this final session. - Neither (i) nor (ii) is correct. - Both (i) and (ii) are correct. - Only (ii) is correct. - Only (i) is correct. - Question not attempted 15. Which of the following schedule of the Constitution of India was added to the Constitution by the first Constitutional Amendment? - Sixth - Tenth - Ninth - Seventh - Question not attempted 16. Identify the incorrect statement regarding Judicial Interpretation of Article 21 after Supreme Court's verdict in Maneka Gandhi Case, 1978. - The burden lies on the petitioner to prove that the procedure established by law which deprives him of his life or personal liberty is arbitrary. - 'Procedure established by law' is by and large synonymous with the 'Procedural due process' as prevalent in the U.S.A. - Articles 21, 19 and 14 are not mutually exclusive. - 'The Right to Life' includes 'The Right to Live with Dignity'. - Question not attempted 17. Nathmal Ji Ki Haveli is located in - Barmer - Bikaner - Jodhpur - Jaisalmer - Question not attempted 18. Identify the incorrect statement regarding Council of States (Rajya Sabha). - Dr. S. Radhakrishnan is the only Chairman of Rajya Sabha for two consecutive terms. - For the first constitutional amendment, ratification of the Rajya Sabha was not taken. - Currently eight members are elected to Rajya Sabha from the Union Territories. - There have been three occasions, when joint sitting of Rajya Sabha and Lok Sabha was held. - Question not attempted 19. Which one of the following statement is not correct regarding "No-Confidence Motion"? - 27 No-Confidence Motions, 9 Confidence Motions have been moved till 15th August, 2023. - Lal Bahadur Shastri faced the most No-Confidence Motions per office year. - The member who wants to move No-Confidence Motion give notice to the speaker of the Lok Sabha in writing. - No-Confidence Motion can be moved only in Lok Sabha. - Question not attempted 20. Match the following List - P (Directive Principles) with List – R (Articles): - Equal justice and free legal aid - Article 48 A - Protection of the environment - Article 39 A - Right to Work - Article 41 - Protection of Monuments - Article 49 - I III IV II - II I III IV - III I IV II - II III I IV - Question not attempted 21. Which of the following sections of the Right to Information Act is not related to the functions and powers of the Central Information Commission? - 25 - 19 - 18 - 12 - Question not attempted 22. Which one of the following Commission did recommend the establishment of an Inter-Government Council in place of Inter-State Council? - Rajmannar Commission - Punchhi Commission - Administrative Reforms Commission, 1969 - Sarkaria Commission - Question not attempted 23. Consider the following statements: - The Lok Sabha Elections of 1989 marked the end of, what Political Scientists have called, the 'Congress System'. - Indian National Congress emerged as the single largest party in the 1989 Lok Sabha Elections. - Neither (i) nor (ii) is correct. - Both (i) and (ii) are correct. - Only (ii) is correct. - Only (i) is correct. - Question not attempted 24. Match the following List-P (CAG) with List-R (Articles): - Appointment of CAG - Article 148 - Duties and Powers of CAG - Form of Accounts of the Union - Article 149 - Audit Reports - Article 150 - I III IV II - II III I IV - III I IV II - II III IV I - Question not attempted 25. Which of the following statement is not correct regarding the Chief Minister of Rajasthan? - Mohanlal Sukhadia took oath as Chief Minister four times. - The Chief Minister at the time of Emergency of 1975 was Haridev Joshi. - Barkatullah Khan remained the Chief Minister for the shortest period. - C.S. Venkatachari was not the elected Chief Minister. - Question not attempted 26. What can be the minimum strength of Rajasthan's Council of Ministers? - 12 - 10 - 08 - 05 - Question not attempted 27. In the Presidential Election, 2022, the vote value of each member of Rajasthan Legislative Assembly was - - 149 - 132 - 129 - 116 - Question not attempted 28. According to Article 217(1) of the Constitution, a Judge other than the Chief Justice of Rajasthan High Court is appointed by the President after consultation with - - Chief Justice of Rajasthan High Court, Attorney General of India and Governor of Rajasthan. - Governor of Rajasthan, Chief Justice of India and Chief Justice of Rajasthan High Court. - Union Law and Justice Minister and Governor of Rajasthan - Chief Justice of India and Governor of Rajasthan - Question not attempted 29. Which of the following recommended the post of Rajpramukh to be abolished in Rajasthan and the arrangement of the Governor was made instead? - State Legislative Assembly - Constituent Assembly - State Reorganization Commission - State Administrative Reforms Commission - Question not attempted 30. Which one of the following is not a part of Rajasthan Urban Drinking Water Sewerage and Infrastructure Corporation Limited? - Rajasthan Urban Infrastructure Finance and Development Corporation Limited - Rajasthan Avas Vikas Infrastructure Limited - Rajasthan Housing Board - Rajasthan Urban Infrastructure Development Project - Question not attempted 31. Through which Amendment Act, the existing, "Village Level Workers' has been substituted by the 'Gram Vikas Adhikari'? - The Rajasthan Panchayati Raj (Amendment) Act, 2015 - The Rajasthan Panchayati Raj (Amendment) Act, 2017 - The Rajasthan Panchayati Raj (Amendment) Act, 2019 - The Rajasthan Panchayati Raj (Amendment) Act, 2021 - Question not attempted 32. Consider the following statements regarding Rajasthan Public Service Commission: - The chairman and members of the commission are appointed by the Governor of Rajasthan. - The chairman or any other member of the commission shall only be removed from his office, by order of the President. - Neither (i) nor (ii) is correct. - Both (i) and (ii) are correct - Only (ii) is correct. - Only (i) is correct. - Question not attempted 33. Tehsildar is appointed by - - The Union Public Service Commission - The Staff Selection Commission - Rajasthan Public Service Commission - The Board of Revenue - Question not attempted 34. A Committee constituted in 2014 under the Chairmanship of Narpat Mal Lodha is related to which of the following subjects? - Panchayati Raj - Human Rights - Governor - Lokayukta - Question not attempted 35. Consider the following statements regarding State Election Commission, Rajasthan: - It was constituted in July, 1994 under Article 243 K of the Constitution of India. - It is a single member commission headed by the State Election Commissioner. - Neither (i) nor (ii) is correct. - Both (i) and (ii) are correct. - Only (ii) is correct. - Only (i) is correct. - Question not attempted 36. In April, 2023, a Bench of Rajasthan State Information Commission is approved by State Government to be established at which city? - Ajmer - Kota - Jodhpur - Udaipur - Question not attempted 37. Which of the following scheme is associated with slogan "Koi Bhukha Na Soye" ? - Balgopal Scheme - Indira Gandhi Rojgar Guarantee Scheme - Annpurna Food Packet Scheme - Indira Rasoi Yojana - Question not attempted 38. Consider the following statements regarding Rajasthan State Human Rights Commission: - Commission has one chairperson and four members in accordance with the provisions of The Protection of Human Rights (Amendment) Act, 2006. - At present, Justice Gopal Krishna Vyas is its chairperson. - Neither (i) nor (ii) is correct. - Both (i) and (ii) are correct. - Only (ii) is correct. - Only (i) is correct. - Question not attempted 39. Which of the following expression shows the formula of Gross Fiscal Deficit? - Gross Fiscal Deficit = Primary Deficit + Net borrowing from abroad - Gross Fiscal Deficit = Total Expenditure - Revenue Receipts - Gross Fiscal Deficit = Revenue Deficit + Capital Expenditure - Gross Fiscal Deficit = Net borrowing at home + Borrowing from RBI + Borrowing from abroad - Question not attempted 40. Which of the following is NOT a Public good? - Government Administration - National Defence - Cars - Roads - Question not attempted 41. Consider the following statements regarding inflation: - Statement (A): Head-line inflation refers to the rate of change in the Consumer Price Index Number, a measure of the average price of a standard basket of goods and services consumed by a typical family. - Statement (B): Core inflation measures the change in average consumer prices after excluding from the Consumer Price Index certain items of volatile prices such as food and fuel. - Neither (A) nor (B) is correct. - Both (A) and (B) are correct - Only (B) is correct. - Only (A) is correct. - Question not attempted 42. Consider the following statements regarding Indira Gandhi Urban Employment Guarantee Scheme: - It guarantees per year 125 days’ employment for families residing in Urban Areas. - After registration, the eligible candidate has to be provided employment in 30 days. - Neither (i) nor (ii) is correct. - Both (i) and (ii) are correct. - Only (ii) is correct. - Only (i) is correct. - Question not attempted 43. Which of the following is not a measure of selective credit control? - Change in lending margins - Sale of government securities - Credit rationing - Moral suasion - Question not attempted 44. Which of the following statement, related to Pharmaceutical sector is not correct? - India has 80 percent market share of global vaccine manufacturing. - India is the largest provider of generic medicines globally. - India is ranked 14th worldwide in the production of pharma products by value. - India is ranked 3rd worldwide in the production of pharma products by volume. - Question not attempted 45. The rank of India in Global Happiness Index 2023 is - - 115 - 118 - 126 - 136 - Question not attempted 46. Which of the following statement related to automobile sector is not correct? - It generated direct and indirect employment of 5.3 crore at the end of 2021. - It contributes 7.1 percent to India’s GDP. - In 2021, India was World’s fourth largest manufacturer of passenger cars. - In 2021, India was the largest manufacturer of two wheeler and three wheeler vehicles in the World. - Question not attempted 47. Which of the following is NOT a tool of fiscal policy? - Public expenditure - Interest rate - Deficit financing - Taxation - Question not attempted 48. As per the advance estimates of the year 2022-23, what percent share is Rajasthan’s GSDP estimated to contribute in India’s nominal Gross Domestic Product (GDP)? - 6.54 percent - 5.18 percent - 4.86 percent - 3.78 percent - Question not attempted 49. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true for Atal Bhujal Scheme in Rajasthan? - (a) Atal Bhujal Scheme has been running by Government of Rajasthan with the Financial assistance of Govt. of India. - (b) The focus of this scheme is on better management of ground water as well as to prevent its reducing level. - Neither (a) nor (b) - Only (b) - Only (a) - Both (a) and (b) - Question not attempted 50. Which of the following fact is not correct about Mukhya Mantri Laghu Udhyog Protsahan Yojana (MLUPY) of Rajasthan? - Under this scheme, 4 percent interest subsidy on loans upto 15 crore is being provided to small scale entrepreneurs. - Under this scheme, 5 percent interest subsidy on loans upto 10 crore is being provided to small scale entrepreneurs. - Under this scheme, 6 percent interest subsidy on loans upto 5 crore is being provided to small scale entrepreneurs. - Under this scheme, 8 percent interest subsidy on loans upto 25 lakh is being provided to small scale entrepreneurs. - Question not attempted 51. In the year 2022-23, contribution of which sub-sector in Gross State Value Added (GSVA) at current prices of service sector of Rajasthan was maximum? - Transport, Storage & Communication - Trade, Hotels and Restaurants - Real Estate, Ownership of dwellings & professional services - Financial Services - Question not attempted 52. Which sector is likely to show highest increase in the real GSVA (Gross State Value Added) at constant basic prices (2011-12) in the year 2022-23 over previous year? - None of these - Service sector - Industry sector - Agriculture sector - Question not attempted 53. Which agency is funding upgradation of 801 km of 11 state highways in Rajasthan State Highways Development Program-II project? - NABARD - National Highway Authority of India - World Bank - Asian Development Bank - Question not attempted 54. In Rajasthan, which agency is entrusted with the responsibility of implementation of PM-KUSUM Yojana (component A) i.e. installation of small solar power plants of 0.5 MW to 2 MW capacity? - Bureau of Energy Efficiency - Rajasthan Renewable Energy Corporation Limited - Rajasthan Rajya Vidyut Utpadan Nigam Limited - Rajasthan Vidyut Prasaran Nigam - Question not attempted 55. In Rajasthan, the Energy Conservation Day is celebrated on - - 14th December - 5th June - 22nd April - 21st March - Question not attempted 56. Government of Rajasthan enacted the Rajasthan Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management (FRBM) Act in year - 2008 - 200 - 2003 - 2001 - Question not attempted 57. In which of the following scheme, the main objective is to promote the use of appropriate methods, care and services during pregnancy, safe delivery and lactation period to improve the health and nutritional status of pregnant and lactating women and their infants (0-6 months)? - Pradhan Mantri Matrutva Vandana Yojana - Indira Gandhi Matrutva Poshan Yojana - Mission Vatsalya Yojana - Palanhar Yojana - Question not attempted 58. Which of the following options indicate one of the important objectives of (Indira Mahila) Shakti Udaan Scheme? - Empowering women self-help groups. - Generating awareness about menstrual health and hygiene management. - Vocational training of women. - Improvement in education status of girls. - Question not attempted 59. Which among the following is a Narcotic analgesic drug? - Morphine - Arsphenamine - Aspirin - Paracetamol - Question not attempted 60. Myopia and Hypermetropia can be respectively corrected by - Plano-concave and Cylindrical lens - Convex and Concave lens - Concave and Convex lens - Concave and Cylindrical lens - Question not attempted 61. Which of the following scheme is an attempt to make rural areas socially, economically and physically sustainable regions? - Shyama Prasad Mukherji Rurban Mission (SPMRM) - Mahatma Gandhi Jan-bhagidari Vikas Yojana (MGJVY) - Dang Area Development Programme - Sansad Adarsh Gram Yojana (SAGY) - Frage not attempted 62. Arrange the following units of measure for digital information into correct order, starting with the smallest unit first and going to the largest unit: - Kilobyte - Byte - Megabyte - Terabyte - Gigabyte - Bit - bfadce - fbaced - fbadec - bfacde - Question not attempted 63. On 23rd August 2023, LCA (Light Combat Aircraft) Tejas successfully test fired ASTRA missile, this missile is - Beyond Visual Range Surface to Air Missile - Beyond Visual Range Air to Air Missile - Within Visual Range Air to Air Missile - Within Visual Range Surface to Air Missile - Question not attempted 64. Satellites TELEOS-2 and Lumelite-4 were launched in April 23 from Sriharikota by the launcher - - SSLV-D2 - LVM3 - M4 - PSLV - C55 - GSLV – F12 - Question not attempted 65. If in a material one dimension is reduced to the Nano range while the other two dimensions remain large, the structure so obtained is known as - - Quantum step - Quantum well - Quantum dot - Quantum wire - Question not attempted 66. Which of the following file format is not a video file format? - .MP3 - .MP4 - .MOV - .AVI - Question not attempted 67. Choose wrong statement regarding proteins: - We obtain proteins from both animals and plants. - Proteins are made of amino acids. - About 30 percent of our body weight comes from proteins. - Proteins are called building block of our body. - Question not attempted 68. The Red Blood cells of a person with Blood group 'O' contains Agglutinogen: - A and B both - Only B - Neither A nor B - Only A - Question not attempted 69. Which one of the following diseases is not a bacterial disease? - Diphtheria - Plague - Pneumonia - Dengue - Question not attempted 70. Species of Plasmodium which causes Malignant Malaria: - Vivax - Falciparum - Ovale - Malarial - Question not attempted 71. NTU is the unit for measuring - Pressure of water - Temperature of water - Acidity of water - Turbidity of water - Question not attempted 72. Which of the following do not grow in polluted area? - Pseudomonas - Algae - Lichen - Gymnosperms - Question not attempted 73. Rajiv Gandhi Centre for Biotechnology is situated at - Thiruvananthapuram - Faridabad - Jodhpur - New Delhi - Question not attempted 74. Out of total Oxygen present in the earth’s atmosphere, the estimated production of oxygen. by Amazon forest through photosynthesis is - 40 percent - 50 percent - 70 percent - 20 percent - Question not attempted 75. National Research Centre on camel is located at - Jodhpur - Avikanagar - Bikaner - Ajmer - Question not attempted 76. Which one of the following is a group of millet crops? - Bajra, Maize, Kodo, Sorghum - Ragi, Bajra, Kodo, Moong - Kodo, Bajra, Maize, Kangani - Sorghum, Kodo, Kangani, Ragi - Question not attempted 77. Which of these companies is established by Government of Rajasthan with the aim to regulate developing needs of Information Technology skills in 21st century? - Rajasthan Knowledge Company Ltd. - Rajasthan Technology Pvt. Ltd. - Rajasthan Knowledge Corporation Ltd. - Rajasthan Technology Corporation Ltd. - Question not attempted 78. A bill was passed by Rajasthan Assembly in 2023 to establish second Rajasthan Veterinary and Animal Sciences University at - Ganganagar - Jobner - Ajmer - Jodhpur - Question not attempted 79. Which of these natural resources is considered as non-renewable resource? - Timber - Fossil Fuels - Solar Energy - Wind Energy - Question not attempted 80. A statement is followed by two arguments I and II. Choose which of the argument/s is/are strong: - **Statement:** Should all diesel engines be replaced by electric engines in trains? - **Arguments:** - I. Yes, diesel engine causes a lot of pollution. - II. No, India does not produce enough electricity to fulfil even the domestic needs. - Neither argument I nor argument II is strong. - Both of the arguments are strong. - Only argument II is strong. - Only argument I is strong. - Question not attempted 81. A statement is followed by two assumptions I and II. Consider the statement and the following assumptions and decide which of the assumption/s is/are implicit in the given statement: - **Statement:** If it does not rain throughout this month, most of the farmers would be in trouble this year. - **Assumptions:** - I. Timely rain is essential for farming. - II. Most of the farmers are generally dependent on rain. - Neither assumption I nor assumption II is implicit. - Both of the assumptions are implicit. - Only assumption II is implicit. - Only assumption I is implicit. - Question not attempted 82. Study the given statement then decide which of the suggested course of action follows logically: - **Statement:** The meteorological department has issued a notification forecasting less rainfall during next year's monsoon. - **Course of Action:** - I. The government should make arguments to provide water to the affected areas. - II. The farmers should be advised to be ready for the eventuality. - Neither I nor II follows. - Both I and II follow. - Only II follows. - Only I follows. - Question not attempted. 83. A statement is followed by two conclusions I and II. You have to assume everything in the statement to be true, then consider the two conclusions and decide which of them logically follows: - **Statement:** After joining, Municipal Commissioner told to people of city "A" - "My first and foremost task is to beautify this city like Indore." - **Conclusions:** - I. The people of city "A" are not aware about the present condition of the city. - II. The Commissioner has worked in Indore and has good experience of beautifying cities. - Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows. - Both of the conclusions follow - Only conclusion II follows. - Only conclusion I follows. - Question not attempted 84. Next term of the following sequence is: - A3/2 B2, C9/2 F18, E15/2 J50, G21/2 N98, ? - H29/2 S172 - H27/2 R-182 - 127/2 R162 - 129/2 R172 - Question not attempted 85. In a certain code language, ABONDONMENT is written as DNOBAOTNEMN and ESTABLISHED is written as BATSELDEHSI. Then in the same code language, GERMINATION will be written as? - NMEGRONTIAG - GOERGONITAN - IMERGNONITA - IMREGNNOITA - Question not attempted 86. A family has eight members. E is the mother of F and G. A is the son-in-law of E. C is the daughter of G. D is the maternal grandfather of C. D has one son and one daughter. H is the sister-in-law of G. B is the niece of F. How is F related to A? - Sister-in-law - Sister - Brother-in-law - Brother - Question not attempted 87. Five girls are standing in a ground at a certain distance. Rekha and Beena are 18 m apart from each other. Veena is standing somewhere in the mid of Rekha and Beena