Practice test #1 PDF

Practice test #1 Study online at https://quizlet.com/_fezehl 1. ___________ is very similar to mitosis and Meiosis II involves chromosomes lining up individually in metaphase 2. In metaphase II, _____________ randomly line Sister chromatids up single-file at the met...

Practice test #1 Study online at https://quizlet.com/_fezehl 1. ___________ is very similar to mitosis and Meiosis II involves chromosomes lining up individually in metaphase 2. In metaphase II, _____________ randomly line Sister chromatids up single-file at the metaphase plate just like in mitosis 3. Meiosis II and mitosis Sister chromatids sepa- rate 4. Meiosis I Homologous chromo- somes separate 5. Mitotic metaphase is similar to meiotic Single-file line of chromo- metaphase II because both stages involve somes comprising 2 sis- ter chromatids along the metaphase plate 6. During DNA replication _______ joins DNA DNA ligase fragments together, creating continuous phosphodiester bonds between them 7. Enzyme that "unzips" the wound DNA dou- DNA helicase ble helix by breaking the hydrogen bonds be- tween complementary nitrogenous bases 8. Creates small nicks within the DNA double Topoisomerase helix in order to relieve the tension 1 / 28  Practice test #1 Study online at https://quizlet.com/_fezehl 9. Epinephrine (adrenaline) is a "fight-or-flight" Sympathetic NS hormone released via 10. Hormone that can both constrict blood ves- Epinephrine sels and also dilate bronchioles 11. Adrenaline Epinephrine 12. Epinephrine release has what effect on the Dilates pupils eyes? 13. Epinephrine release results in: Bronchodilation Stimulating ______________ to help the body get more oxygen 14. Epinephrine release results in: Constriction ________ of certain blood vessels to reduce 2 / 28  Practice test #1 Study online at https://quizlet.com/_fezehl blood flow (ex. blood vessels leading to the digestive system) 15. Epinephrine release results in: Dilation __________ of certain blood vessels to in- crease blood flow (ex. blood vessels in skeletal muscle, which is essential during fight-or-flight) 16. Released when the body senses that it has Ang II lower blood pressure or blood volume 17. Ang II is a potent vaso_______ Constrictor, helps raise blood pressure 18. Ang II stimulates _______ release from the Aldosterone, helps retain adrenal gland water and increase blood volume 19. Ang II increases __________ from the proxi- Na+ reabsorption, helps mal tubule retain water and increase blood volume 3 / 28  Practice test #1 Study online at https://quizlet.com/_fezehl 20. Ang II ____________ thirst Increases 21. Nitric oxide relaxes smooth muscles Vasodilation surrounding blood vessels, leading to ______________ 22. Inhibits osteoclasts from breaking down bone Calcitonin and stimulates calcium excretion via the kid- neys 23. Epinephrine stimulates broncho__________ Dilation 24. When two species indirectly compete for the Exploitation competition same limited resource, as 1 species or individ- ual consumes more of the resource, less re- mains available for others, leading to reduced fitness for competitors 25. Type of indirect competition that occurs when Exploitation competition a shared resource like territory, prey, or food is depleted 26. An increase in leopards depletes the Exploitation warthogs that tigers eat. This leads to ________________ competition, where the 4 / 28  Practice test #1 Study online at https://quizlet.com/_fezehl leopards are indirectly competing with the tigers via mutual consumption of the same food resource 27. Type of indirect competition, where the growth Apparent competition of 1 species leads to a decline in another be- cause of a shared predator 28. What type of indirect interaction is occurring Apparent competition between the beetles and spiders? *****this is bc if the beetle If owls hunted both spiders and beetles and population increases, the the beetle population suddenly increased, a owl population may also subsequent rise in the owl population can be increase because there is expected. More owls mean greater consump- more food available tion of spiders, decreasing the spider popula- tion. More owls mean more spi- ders are being eaten, as a result, the spider popula- tion decreases Even though beetles and spiders don't directly af- fect each other, the in- crease in beetles indirect- ly causes a decrease in spiders because of the shared predator (owls) 29. Occurs when different organisms or species Resource partitioning live in the same habitat but can coexist by occupying different niches 5 / 28  Practice test #1 Study online at https://quizlet.com/_fezehl 30. What is this an example of? Resource partitioning Two species of fish that can occupy the same habitat live at different depths, and thus avoid competition with each other. 31. What type of competition occurs when mem- Intraspecific bers of the same species compete for limited resources (food, mates, etc.), which can lead to increased competition and potential con- flicts among them? 32. What is this an example of? Intraspecific competition A gardener plants 2 basil plants in a small pot. During the dry summer, both plants compete for a limited water and nutrient supply, disrupt- ing their potential growth. 33. Exploitation and apparent are examples of Indirect what type of competition? 34. In prokaryotes, the pyruvate manipulations Cytosol and Krebs cycle occur in the __________ 35. What organelle is involved in modifying and Golgi packaging proteins and lipids? 6 / 28  Practice test #1 Study online at https://quizlet.com/_fezehl 36. Site of DNA replication and transcription in Nucleus eukaryotes 37. In eukaryotes, after glycolysis, the pyruvate Mitochondrial matrix manipulations and Krebs cycle occur in the 38. In eukaryotes, after glycolysis, the electron Inner mitochondrial mem- transport chain occurs across the brane 39. What is this an example of? Induction A cell from a sheep embryo's spine was re- moved and then placed onto its leg region. This results in the surrounding stem cells of that region differentiating into a vertebral col- umn. 40. Embryonic process in which one group of Induction cells influences the differentiation of neigh- boring immature cells 41. Cells capable of directing the developmental Organizers fate of neighboring embryonic cells 7 / 28  Practice test #1 Study online at https://quizlet.com/_fezehl 42. Organizers prompt nearby cells to differenti- Induction ate into specific cell types 43. What stimulates parietal and chief cells to re- Gastrin lease digestive enzymes? 44. Gastrin stimulates parietal cells to release HCl/gastric juice (making stomach acidic) 45. Gastrin also stimulates chief cells to release Gastric lipase and pepsinogen 46. Gastric lipase released by chief cells does Break down fats what? 8 / 28  Practice test #1 Study online at https://quizlet.com/_fezehl 47. When a food bolus reaches the stomach, the Gastrin resulting distension stimulates G cells to re- lease 48. Pepsinogen released by chief cells does It gets converted into what? pepsin by the HCl (from parietal cells) and then will go on to cleave peptide bonds (proteins ’ amino acids) 49. Hormone released by the small intestine in Secretin response to the presence of chyme 50. Stimulates the pancreas to secrete bicarbon- Secretin ate ions, which helps neutralize acidic chyme in the duodenum 51. Gets activated into chymotrypsin by trypsin in Chymotrypsinogen the small intestine 52. Cholecystokinin (CCK) 9 / 28  Practice test #1 Study online at https://quizlet.com/_fezehl Produced by the small intestine and stimu- lates the gallbladder to release bile and the pancreas to secrete digestive enzymes 53. Digestive hormone that breaks down carbohy- Amylase drates like starch into simpler sugars 54. Become cancerous via a 2-hit, loss-of-func- Tumor-suppressor (haplo- tion mutation sufficient) 55. Become cancerous via a 1-hit, gain-of-func- Proto-oncogenes (hap- tion mutation loinsufficient) 56. Responsible for generating proteins that reg- Proto-oncogenes ulate the cell cycle 57. Major forces that hold the lipid bilayer togeth- Hydrophobic interactions er and van der waals forces *****major force driving the formation of the phospholipid bilayer is hydrophobic interactions, but once the phospholipid bilayer has formed, van der Waals forces, a type of 10 / 28  Practice test #1 Study online at https://quizlet.com/_fezehl intermolecular force, help to maintain this structure 58. Phosphate head groups are ____________; Tails = phobic fatty acid tails are ______________ Head = philic 59. Simplest form of an instinct Fixed action pattern 60. Inherited behavioral sequence that continues Fixed action pattern to completion in response to a specific stimu- lus 61. Goose rolling egg back into nest and male Fixed action pattern insects attacking red bellied males are both examples of 62. Sign stimulus, specific external stimulus that Releaser triggers an innate behavioral response known as a fixed action pattern, and "cue" that starts the behavior 11 / 28  Practice test #1 Study online at https://quizlet.com/_fezehl 63. What is the releaser? Red coloring in the belly region of another stickle- Red-bellied male stickleback fish exhibit a se- back ries of innate, aggressive behaviors to protect their property against other red-bellied stick- lebacks. Once initiated, this behavior contin- ues until complete. 64. Is a fixed action pattern inherited or learned? Inherited (innate) 65. Competitive inhibitor Km = ‘ Vmax = same 66. A man with blood type AB- received a blood Immune system doesn't transfusion with type A- blood, what happens respond after? ******this is bc the im- mune system attacks for- eign blood antigens and blood type AB- would only produce antibodies 12 / 28  Practice test #1 Study online at https://quizlet.com/_fezehl against (+) blood transfu- sions 67. Blood type AB- would only produce antibod- (+) blood transfusions ies against 68. An individual with ___________ blood type AB possesses both A and B antigens on their RBCs, allowing them to receive transfusions of A, B, or AB blood types w/out provoking an immune reaction 69. What does it mean if a blood transfusion is (-)? Theres no Rh factor 70. Can receive from: O- Type O- Can donate to: All blood types (universal donor) 71. Can receive from: O+, O- Type O+ Can donate to: O+, A+, B+, AB+ 72. Can receive from: AB-, A-, B-, O- Type AB- Can donate to: AB-, AB+ 73. Can receive from: All blood types (universal Type AB+ recipient) Can donate to: AB+ 13 / 28  Practice test #1 Study online at https://quizlet.com/_fezehl 74. Can receive from: B-, O- Type B- Can donate to: B-, B+, AB-, AB+ 75. Can receive from: B+, B-, O+, O- Type B+ Can donate to: B+, AB+ 76. Can receive from: A-, O- Type A- Can donate to: A-, A+, AB-, AB+ 77. Can receive from: A+, A-, O+, O- Type A+ Can donate to: A+, AB+ 78. Parent ’ daughter strand = Antiparallel and comple- mentary base pairing 79. Histone acetylation forms Euchromatin (‘ gene ex- pression) 80. More genetic diversity External fertilization 14 / 28  Practice test #1 Study online at https://quizlet.com/_fezehl 81. What is this? Genomic library construc- tion A researcher extracts DNA from a host cell, restriction enzymes are used to cut the DNA into fragments and integrate it into plasmids, the plasmids are taken up by bacteria, and the genome is analyzed. 82. Genetic identification tool using restriction DNA fingerprinting fragment length polymorphisms (RFLPs) and short tandem repeats (STRs) 83. Collection of the total genomic DNA from a Genomic library (DNA li- single organism brary) 84. Type of gel electrophoresis that separates SDS-PAGE proteins according to size and charge 85. ELISA looks for a particular Antigen 15 / 28  Practice test #1 Study online at https://quizlet.com/_fezehl 86. Synthesizes mRNA from a DNA template dur- RNA polymerase ing transcription 87. DNA replication DNA polymerase 88. DNA transcription RNA polymerase 89. These are steps for what process? DNA transcription 1. Initiation: Promoter sequence next to the gene attracts RNA polymerase to transcribe the gene 2. Elongation: Transcription bubble forms; RNA polymerase synthesizes mRNA in the 5' ’ 3' direction 3. Termination: Termination sequence (termi- nator) signals RNA polymerase to stop tran- scribing the gene 90. In which part of the circulatory system would Pulmonary artery the most deoxygenated blood be found? 91. In which part of the circulatory system would Pulmonary veins the most oxygenated blood be found? 92. Pulmonary vv. Most oxygenated 16 / 28  Practice test #1 Study online at https://quizlet.com/_fezehl 93. Pulmonary aa. Most deoxygenated 94. In which part of the circulatory system is Aorta blood pressure the highest? 95. Left atrium ’ bicuspid/mitral valve ’ left ventricleSystemic circulation, mov- ’ aortic semilunar valve ’ aorta ’ body tissues ing oxygen-rich blood to (enters systemic circulation) the body's tissues, which use the oxygen and nutri- ents provided by the blood 96. Deoxygenated blood enters the vena cava ’ Pulmonary circulation, right atrium ’ tricuspid valve ’ right ventricle ’ moving oxygen-poor pulmonary semilunar valve ’ pulmonary arter- blood to the lungs, where ies ’ lungs (blood picks up oxygen, drops off it becomes oxygen-rich carbon dioxide) ’ pulmonary veins ’ left atrium 97. Final vessels before blood reaches the lungs Pulmonary aa. and is reoxygenated 17 / 28  Practice test #1 Study online at https://quizlet.com/_fezehl 98. Vessels that blood travels through directly af- Pulmonary vv. ter the lungs 99. Produce antibodies as part of antibody-medi- B cells ated (humoral) immunity 100. Responsible for cell-mediated immunity T cells 101. Differentiated forms of B cells that produce Plasma cells and secrete antibodies 102. Leukocyte that releases histamine Mast cell 103. Histamines 2 functions when released by 1. Dilate nearby capillaries mast cells ’ blood flow increases 2. Make capillary walls more permeable ’ fluid and immune cells leak out of blood vessels and into the site of injury 104. Antigen presentation by MHC II CD4 T cells 18 / 28  Practice test #1 Study online at https://quizlet.com/_fezehl 105. Antigen presentation by MHC I CD8 T cells 106. After monocytes cross into the infected tissue Macrophages through diapedesis they mature into phago- cytic 107. 1st leukocytes to respond to inflammation Neutrophil 108. Cell wouldn't be able to cleave if _________ Actin microfilaments were inhibited from forming 109. Contractile ring composed of actin microfila- Cleavage furrow ments and myosin motors 110. If ____________ were inhibited from forming Diffusion or carrier pro- then the cell would be unable to absorb nutri- teins ents 111. Actin microfilaments work with myosin to Cleavage furrow form the _____________ during cell division 112. If nondisjunction occurs during the first mei- 45, 47 otic division of a human oocyte, what are the possible number of chromosomes in the re- sulting zygote after this oocyte is fertilized? 19 / 28  Practice test #1 Study online at https://quizlet.com/_fezehl 113. When nondisjunction occurs in meiosis I, n+1 or n-1 the gametes affected will end up with either __________ chromosomes 114. If nondisjunction occurs during the second 45, 46, 47 meiotic division of a human oocyte, what are the possible number of chromosomes in the resulting zygote after this oocyte is fertilized? 115. Nondisjunction in _____________ results in: Mitosis 1 diploid cell: 2n-1 (45 chromosomes) 1 diploid cell: 2n+1 (47 chromosomes) 116. Nondisjunction in _____________ results in: Meiosis I - 2 haploid cells: n-1 (22 chromosomes) Fertil- ized = 2 (2n-1) Ò 45 - 2 haploid cells: n+1 (24 chromosomes) Fer- tilized = 2 (2n+1) Ò 47 117. Nondisjunction in _____________ results in: Meiosis II - 1 haploid cell: n-1 (22 chromosomes) Fertil- ized = 2n-1 Ò 45 - 2 haploid cells: n (23 chromosomes) Fertil- ized = 2 (2n) Ò 46 - 1 haploid cell: n+1 (24 chromosomes) Fertil- ized = 2n+1 Ò 47 20 / 28  Practice test #1 Study online at https://quizlet.com/_fezehl 118. What will happen if toxins (e.g., snake ven- Postsynaptic cell will fail to om) irreversibly bind to and inactivate acetyl- depolarize and contract choline? 119. How to you solve this? 1. Find q q² = homo rec A population is in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium q² = 9% =.09 for alleles B (dominant) and b (recessive). If q = 0.3 9% of the population is homozygous reces- sive for the allele, what percentage of the pop- 2. Find p by plugging q in ulation is heterozygous for that allele? for the allele formula p+q=1 p + 0.3 = 1 p = 0.7 ***** Rem Genotype freq: 3. Find 2pq by plugging p p² + 2pq + q² = 1 and q in p² = homo dom. hetero = 2pq 2pq = hetereo hetero = 2(0.7 x 0.3) q² = homo rec hetero = 0.42 Allele freq: p+q=1 p = dom allele q = rec allele 120. Human arm and a bat's wing contain the same Divergent evolution bones, but in different sizes and shapes. It's hypothesized both evolved from a single an- cestor that shared these bones, this is an ex- ample of ____________ 121. Occurs when 2 species evolve similar traits Parallel evolution independently of each other after diverging 21 / 28  Practice test #1 Study online at https://quizlet.com/_fezehl from a common ancestor (ex. sunbirds and hummingbirds) 122. Occurs when unrelated organisms develop Convergent evolution similar structures (analogous structures), the (bats and dragonflies) opposite of divergent evolution 123. Occurs when 2 species with a common ances- Divergent evolution tor evolve different traits, often in response to different environmental conditions or niches (ex. human arms and bat wings) 124. Occurs when species diverge from a common Divergent evolution ancestor and begin taking on unique traits with different functions 125. Structures share a common ancestry but Homologous structures may not serve the same function in different species 126. Structures serve similar functions but do not Analogous structures have a common evolutionary origin 127. Homologous structures Divergent evolution 22 / 28  Practice test #1 Study online at https://quizlet.com/_fezehl 128. Analogous structures Convergent evolution 129. Occurs when two or more species mutually Coevolution influence each other's evolutionary pathway through selective pressures 130. Type of natural selection where an extreme Directional selection phenotype is favored, eventually shifting the population's trait distribution toward the ex- treme phenotype. Example: A bacterial population exposed to an antibiotic gradually becomes dominated by resistant strains as the susceptible bacteria are killed off. 131. True-breeding organisms are _________ for Homozygous all the genes of interest related to a given phenotype and when crossed will produce all heterozygous offspring *** ex. true-breeding dom- inant and recessive par- ents would be RR and rr, respectively. When crossed, all of the F1 gen- eration is Rr. 132. What level of the ecological pyramid has the Primary producer highest biomass? 23 / 28  Practice test #1 Study online at https://quizlet.com/_fezehl 133. Only __________ of the energy stored as bio- 10% mass is passed on from one trophic level to the next 134. What level of the ecological pyramid has the Apex predator lowest biomass? 135. Depolarization is caused by Na+ influx 136. Repolarization is caused by K+ efflux 137. What happens when a stimulus causes the Depolarization (Na+ chan- threshold potential to be reached? nels open/Na+ influx) and repolarization (Na+ chan- nels close, K+ channels open/K+ efflux) 24 / 28  Practice test #1 Study online at https://quizlet.com/_fezehl 138. Product of beta-oxidation Acetyl-CoA 139. Beta oxidation reactants: Fatty acids and coenzyme A (CoA) 140. Beta oxidation products: Acetyl CoA, NADH, FADH2 141. Breaks fatty acids into acetyl-CoA molecules Beta-oxidation that can enter the Krebs cycle, while generat- ing NADH and FADH2 142. Beta-oxidation takes place in the Mitochondrial matrix 25 / 28  Practice test #1 Study online at https://quizlet.com/_fezehl 143. Which of the following is most likely found RNA free-floating in the cytosol of eukaryotes? ******this is bc when mRNA is transcribed in the nucleus, it is then ex- ported to the cytosol 144. When mRNA is transcribed in the nucleus, it is Cytosol then exported to the _____________ 145. Histamine increases blood flow to an area by Dilating capillaries 146. Where does filtration take place in the excre- Glomerulus and Bow- tory system? man's capsule 26 / 28  Practice test #1 Study online at https://quizlet.com/_fezehl 147. Part of the nephron that reabsorbs salts, glu- Proximal tubule cose, amino acids and secretes H+ 148. Part of the nephron that is responsible for the Descending limb reabsorption of water 149. Part of the nephron that reabsorbs water, se- Distal tubule cretes K+, and excretes urine to the bladder 150. Part of the loop of henle that reabsorbs Ascending limb solutes 151. Which of the following occurs during the Follicle develops into the luteal phase of the ovarian cycle? corpus luteum 152. In which structure will nitrogen fixation be ob- Root nodules served? 27 / 28 Practice test #1 Study online at https://quizlet.com/_fezehl 28 / 28