215 Questions
Which of the following is NOT one of the seven essential elements of communication in medical encounters?
Provide closure
What is the goal of maximizing objectivity and precision in medical interviews?
To produce accurate data
Which of the following is NOT a way to show respect to patients during a medical interview?
Using the patient's first name
What is the purpose of using interpreters in medical interviews?
To overcome language barriers
Which of the following is a screening tool for alcohol abuse mentioned in the text?
C.A.G.E
Which step in discussing death and dying involves facilitating open discussion about desired medical care and remaining life goals?
Step 3: Identifying end-of-life goals
What is the purpose of the medical history interview according to the text?
To establish a supportive relationship with the patient and family
What is the main reason for recording the chief complaint in the patient's own words?
To allow the patient freedom to talk
Which assessment is appropriate for new patients in the office or hospital?
Comprehensive Assessment
What is the purpose of a Focused Assessment?
To address focused concerns or symptoms
Which component is included in the Medical History?
Review of Systems
What is the purpose of the Physical Exam?
To develop proficiency in physical examination skills
Which of the following is a goal of contact tracing?
To interrupt ongoing transmission and reduce spread of an infection
Which system is responsible for the production of blood cells?
Hematological system
What is the purpose of asking about travel history in a medical assessment?
To determine if the patient has been exposed to infectious diseases
What is the significance of the GTPAL acronym in obstetrics?
It indicates the number of pregnancies a woman has had
Which of the following is NOT a type of nonverbal cue mentioned in the text?
Eye contact
Which of the following is an example of a closed-ended question?
Where is the pain?
Which of the following is NOT a component of the OPQRST acronym mentioned in the text?
Radiation
Which of the following is NOT a recommended question to ask when interviewing a patient about their symptoms?
Have you tried any home remedies?
Which of the following is a core function of an Electronic Health Record (EHR)?
Results Management
Which of the following is an example of a medical history documentation tool?
SOAP Note
Which of the following is a step in clinical reasoning?
EBM
Which of the following is a function of an Electronic Medical Record (EMR)?
Results Management
Which method is recommended for measuring blood pressure according to the text?
Auscultatory Method
What is the normal range for respiratory rate according to the text?
14-20 breaths/min
What is the term used to describe low blood pressure according to the text?
Hypotension
What is the term used to describe high blood pressure according to the text?
Hypertension
What is the term used to describe blood pressure over 200/120 according to the text?
Accelerated Hypertension
What is the term used to describe a period of diminished or absent Korotkoff sounds during blood pressure measurement according to the text?
Auscultatory Gap
Which of the following is NOT a sign of distress mentioned in the text?
Anxious face
What is the term used to describe a patient who is difficult to arouse, drowsy, and thinking slow but appropriately?
Lethargic
Which of the following is NOT included in the general assessment of a patient's physical appearance?
Sexual development
Which of the following is NOT a component of the general survey in a physical examination?
Odors or body and breath
What is the term used to describe a patient who is comatose and cannot be aroused with any stimuli?
Comatose
Which of the following is NOT a factor observed in the general survey of a patient?
Physical description
Which of the following is a common cause of sinus tachycardia?
Exercise
What is the difference between pulse deficit and palpated pulse?
Pulse deficit occurs when there are fewer pulses than there are heartbeats.
What is the typical heart rate range for sinus bradycardia?
Less than 60 bpm
Which of the following is a common cause of relative hypotension?
Elevated blood pressures
What is the typical respiratory rate range for tachypnea?
Over 20
Which of the following is a characteristic of ataxic breathing?
Unpredictable irregularity
Which of the following is the most common cause of heart rates over 140?
Hypovolemia
What is the danger of heart rates over 150?
Increased risk of stroke
Is a heart rate of 92 considered tachycardic?
Yes
Which type of cardiac rhythm would you expect to find in a patient experiencing an apparent stroke?
Ventricular tachycardia
How would you confirm a higher heart rate in a patient with atrial fibrillation?
Perform an EKG
What is the significance of a drop of more than 10 mm Hg during inspiration in a patient with cardiac tamponade?
It is an important sign of cardiac tamponade
Which of the following is a potential danger of rapid, shallow breathing?
Decreased oxygen supply to the body
Why might a patient be breathing shallow?
All of the above
What is paradoxical breathing and what does it signify?
Paradoxical breathing is when the abdomen moves inward during inhalation
What are the potential dangers of a sudden rise in blood pressure?
All of the above
When is low blood pressure considered a danger?
All of the above
Does a patient with an oral temperature of 100.1 have a fever?
It depends on the patient's baseline temperature
Which of the following is NOT a visible clue of systemic illness in the head and face?
Enlarged thyroid glands
What percentage of head and neck cancers are associated with poor dental hygiene, tobacco use, exposure to nickel, and alcohol?
90%
Which bone forms the lower jaw in the skull?
Mandible
Which bones form the forehead in the skull?
Frontal bones
Which bones form the anterolateral walls of the brain in the skull?
Temporal bones
Which bone is important in diseases of the ear and is part of the temporal bone?
Temporal bone
Which muscle is responsible for opening and closing the lips?
Orbicularis oris
Which muscle surrounds the eye and closes the lids?
Orbicularis oculi
Which muscle acts to pull the mandible down resulting in a mournful expression?
Platysma
Which nerve carries sensory fibers from the face, oral cavity, teeth, and carries efferent fibers to the muscles of mastication?
Trigeminal nerve
Which muscle divides the neck into anterior and posterior triangles?
Sternocleidomastoid
Which gland is the largest pure endocrine gland in the body?
Thyroid gland
Which of the following lymph nodes is NOT located in the head and neck region?
Axillary
What is the major function of lymph nodes in the head and neck region?
Production of white blood cells
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic used to describe abnormal lymph nodes?
Color
Which of the following is a potential cause of tracheal deviation?
Tension pneumothorax
What is a common symptom related to neck issues?
Neck mass
What is the most common reaction to head and neck disease according to the text?
Depression
Which of the following is a key symptom of exophthalmos?
Protrusion of the eyeballs
What is the medical condition associated with exophthalmos?
Thyroid disorders
What is the primary cause of Graves Disease?
Autoimmune disorder
What is the estimated prevalence of Graves Disease in the United States?
1 in 200 people
Which of the following is a potential complication of untreated Graves Disease?
Heart problems
What are the treatment options for Graves Disease?
Medications, radioactive iodine therapy, and surgery
Which layer of the skin is devoid of blood vessels?
Epidermis
What is the function of sebaceous glands in the skin?
Produce sebum
Which type of hair is short, fine, and unpigmented?
Vellus
What should be assessed when inspecting and palpating the skin?
All of the above
What should be assessed when inspecting the fingernails and toenails?
Color, shape, and lesions
Which of the following is a primary lesion that results from changes in a secondary lesion?
Plaques
Which of the following is a secondary lesion that may arise from previously normal skin?
Patch
Which of the following is a primary lesion that is a superficial area of localized skin edema?
Wheals
Which of the following is a primary lesion that is a fluid-containing lesion greater than 0.5 cm?
Bulla
Which of the following is a loss of skin surface that is a linear crack or deep groove?
Fissure
Which of the following is a characteristic of Cushing's syndrome?
Moon Face with red cheeks
Which of the following is a characteristic of myxedema?
Dull puffy face
Which of the following is a characteristic of Parkinson's disease?
Decreased facial mobility with blunt expression
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of Cushing's syndrome?
Facial skin oily
Which of the following is a characteristic of myxedema?
Dull puffy face
Which of the following is a characteristic of Atopic Dermatitis?
Pruritic inflammation of the epidermis
Which of the following is a symptom of Vulvovaginal Candida?
Acute vulvar pruritis
Which of the following is a type of Tinea infection?
Tinea Corporis
What is the most common type of skin cancer?
Basal Cell Carcinoma
Which of the following is a symptom of Psoriasis?
Silver scales on clearly demarcated red plaques
Which type of cyanosis is caused by a low concentration of arterial oxygen and poor oxygenation in the lungs?
Central Cyanosis
What is the cause of peripheral cyanosis?
Sluggish circulation with increased extraction of oxygen by the tissues
What is the characteristic feature of jaundice?
Yellow color of the skin and sclera caused by deposition of bilirubin
Which condition is characterized by depigmented macules on the face, hands, and feet that may coalesce into extensive areas lacking pigmentation?
Vitiligo
What is the characteristic feature of a spider angioma?
Bright red, pulsatile lesion with central arteriole and slender projections
Which of the following is a characteristic of actinic keratosis?
It can develop into squamous cell carcinoma
Which of the following is a warning sign of melanoma?
Uniform color
Which of the following is a characteristic of seborrheic keratosis?
It is more common in younger individuals
Which of the following is a characteristic of alopecia areata?
It ranges from small circular loss of hair to total loss of hair
Which of the following is a characteristic of onychomycosis?
It is a fungal infection of the nails
Which cranial nerve is responsible for the pupillary reaction to light?
CN II
Which nerve is responsible for the motor function of the near reaction?
CN III
Which nerve is responsible for the motor function of the extraocular muscles?
CN III
Which type of diplopia occurs when the eyes do not move in synchrony with each other?
Binocular diplopia
Which muscle is responsible for raising the upper eyelid?
Levator palpebrae
What is the function of the tear fluid?
All of the above
Which part of the eye helps regulate the amount of light entering the eye?
Iris
What is the function of the optic nerve?
Carries messages from the retina to the brain
Which of the following is a characteristic feature of diabetic retinopathy?
All of the above
What is the leading cause of blindness in Western countries?
Macular degeneration
Which of the following is a symptom of glaucoma?
Gradual loss of vision with damage to the optic nerve
What is the most common cause of relative hypotension?
Cardiac tamponade
Which of the following is a potential cause of anisocoria?
Loss of power of the ciliary muscles
Which of the following is a potential cause of Marcus Gunn Pupil?
Syphilis
Which of the following is a potential cause of esotropia?
Imbalance in ocular muscle tone
Which of the following is a potential cause of nystagmus?
Lesions, trauma, MS, syphilis
Which of the following structures is responsible for fine central vision in the eye?
Fovea
Which of the following is a characteristic of the optic disc?
All of the above
Which of the following is a correct statement about visual fields?
Each visual field is divided into quadrants
Which of the following is true about the visual pathways?
All of the above
Which condition is characterized by a red, painful, and tender infection in a gland at the margin of the eyelid?
Stye
What is the term used to describe an acute inflammation of the conjunctiva characterized by diffuse dilatation of conjunctival vessels with redness that tends to be maximal peripherally?
Conjunctivitis
What is the most common cause of a red eye with severe, deep pain, decreased vision, dilated and fixed pupil, and steamy, cloudy cornea?
Glaucoma
What is the term used to describe a thin grayish white arc or circle not quite at the edge of the cornea, commonly seen in older individuals and suggests possible hyperlipoproteinemia in young people, especially African-Americans?
Arcus senilis
Which of the following is a risk factor for elevated intraocular pressure (IOP)?
All of the above
What is the main cause of blurry vision in a refractive defect of the eye?
The lens cannot become round enough
What is the difference between presbyopia and a refractive defect of the eye?
Presbyopia is a lack of lens ability to accommodate
Which of the following is a visual acuity test used in eye examinations?
Pocket vision chart
What is the normal size range for pupils?
3-5mm
What does a crescent shadow in the eye suggest during a light examination?
Narrow angle glaucoma
Which of the following is a risk factor for elevated intraocular pressure (IOP)?
Age over 65
What is the main cause of a refractive defect of the eye?
Eyeball is too short
What does it mean if distant objects appear blurry but nearby objects are clear?
Myopia
What is the difference between presbyopia and a refractive defect of the eye?
Presbyopia affects near vision, while refractive defect affects distant vision
What is the purpose of the ophthalmoscopic exam?
To examine the back of the eye
What is the normal size range for pupils?
3-5mm
What does a crescent shadow during a light examination suggest?
Narrow angle glaucoma
What is the definition of visual acuity of 20/200?
The patient can read print at 20 feet that a person with normal vision can read at 200 feet
What is the purpose of testing visual fields?
To evaluate peripheral vision
What is the danger of heart rates over 150?
Arrhythmia
Which part of the ear is responsible for equilibrium?
Inner ear
What are the three parts of the ear?
External ear, middle ear, inner ear
What is the function of the tympanic membrane?
To transmit sound waves to the inner ear
Which part of the ear is surrounded by cartilage and contains glands that produce cerumen?
Auricle
What is the purpose of the semicircular ducts in the inner ear?
To detect rotational or angular acceleration of the head
Where are the hair cells located in the inner ear?
In the ampulla
What is conductive hearing loss?
A problem in the external or middle ear
What is tinnitus?
A musical ringing or buzzing noise in the ear
Which type of hearing loss involves an inner ear disorder and involves the cochlear nerve and neuronal impulse to the brain?
Sensorineural hearing loss
Which of the following is a potential cause of conductive hearing loss?
Foreign body in the ear
Which of the following is a symptom of otitis externa?
Auricular motion pain
Which of the following is a potential complication of untreated cholesteatoma?
Carcinoma
Which of the following bones is NOT part of the ossicles in the ear?
Temporal bone
What is the function of the eustachian tube?
Equalize pressure in the middle ear with the atmospheric pressure
Which fluid-filled compartment in the cochlea is responsible for hearing?
Scala media
What is the function of the hair cells in the organ of Corti?
Trigger an action potential to the auditory areas of the brain
Which of the following is a symptom of vestibular neuritis?
Nausea
Which of the following is a symptom of labyrinthitis?
Hearing loss
Which of the following is a cause of bacterial labyrinthitis?
Invasion by bacteria or toxins
Which of the following is a symptom of Ramsay-Hunt syndrome?
Herpes zoster oticus
Which of the following is a potential cause of conductive hearing loss?
Rhinoscopy
Which of the following is a characteristic of rosacea?
Skin thickens and has a bumpy texture
Which of the following is a potential cause of allergic shiners?
Allergic conjunctivitis
Which of the following is a characteristic of a normal ear exam?
Intact pearly grey tympanic membranes
Which of the following is a characteristic of a patient with erythema and swelling in the external ear?
Fever, ST, and worsening L ear pain for 2 days
What could the weber and rinne test show in an 84-year-old patient with right-sided hearing loss for 3 weeks?
Conductive hearing loss in the right ear
What could be the cause of dizziness in a 36-year-old female?
Unknown cause
What is the most likely diagnosis for a 65-year-old male with a history of diabetes mellitus type II and erythema, swelling, and discharge in the external ear?
External otitis
What could the weber and rinne test show in a 7-year-old child with fever, sore throat, and worsening left ear pain for 2 days?
Normal results
What could be the cause of right-sided hearing loss in an 84-year-old patient for 3 weeks?
Unknown cause
Which of the following is NOT a structure of the oral cavity mentioned in the text?
Epiglottis
What forms the floor of the mouth?
Tongue
Which of the following is a normal color of the gingiva?
Coral pink
Which duct opens into the buccal mucosa near the upper 2nd molar?
Stensen's duct
What is the term for the shallow space between the gums and each tooth?
Gingival sulcus
Which of the following is a characteristic of periodontal disease?
Resorption of gingiva
Which of the following structures forms the hard and soft palates?
Gingiva
Which of the following is a potential risk factor for oral cancer according to the text?
Tobacco product use
What is the most common symptom of oral cancer mentioned in the text?
Ulceration
Which of the following is NOT a potential sign of oral disease mentioned in the text?
Snoring
Which of the following is a potential cause of sore throat and difficulty swallowing according to the text?
Periodontal disease
What is the most common type of cancer in the mouth according to the text?
Squamous cell carcinoma
Which of the following is a potential risk factor for oral cancer mentioned in the text?
Chewing betel nuts
What is the most common age group affected by oral cancer according to the text?
Adults over age 65
Which of the following is a characteristic of Osler-Weber-Rendu Syndrome?
Multiple telangiectasias throughout the gastrointestinal tract
Which of the following is a characteristic of herpes simplex virus (HSV) infection?
Cluster of vesicles on an erythematous base, which later ooze and crust
Which of the following is a characteristic of primary syphilitic lesion?
Firm and ulcerates
Which of the following is a characteristic of gingivitis?
Gingival margins are reddened and swollen, interdental papillae are blunted, swollen, and red
Which of the following is a characteristic of candidiasis?
Thick, white plaques adherent to underlying mucosa
Which of the following is a characteristic of Kaposi's sarcoma?
Deep purple lesions seen in AIDS
Which of the following is a characteristic of torus mandibularis?
Midline bony growth of the hard palate
Which of the following is a characteristic of leukoplakia?
Thickened white patch that is pre-cancerous
Which of the following is a characteristic of glossitis?
Seen with deficiency of riboflavin, niacin, folic acid, vitamin B12, iron, pyridoxine, chemotherapy
Which of the following is the most highly calcified tissue in the body?
Enamel
Which of the following is the main organ of taste?
Tongue
Which of the following cranial nerves supplies the pulp of the tooth?
CN V (Trigeminal)
Which of the following is the correct number of deciduous teeth?
20
Which of the following is the correct number of permanent teeth?
32
Which of the following is the correct cranial nerve responsible for supplying taste to the anterior two-thirds of the tongue?
CN VII (Facial)
Which of the following is the correct cranial nerve responsible for supplying taste to the posterior one-third of the tongue?
CN IX (Glossopharyngeal)
Which of the following is the most highly calcified tissue in the body?
Enamel
Which of the following is the main organ of taste?
Tongue
Which cranial nerve supplies the taste buds in the anterior 2/3 of the tongue?
CN VII (Facial)
Which of the following is a potential cause of a hardened nodule in the oral floor?
Sialolith
Which of the following is the largest salivary gland?
Parotid Gland
Which cranial nerve supplies the submandibular and sublingual glands?
CN VII (Facial)
What is the term used to describe a thin grayish white arc or circle not quite at the edge of the cornea?
Arcus Senilis
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"Sexual Dysfunction and Travel History: Assessing Concerns and Risks" - This quiz explores the potential underlying causes of sexual dysfunction and the importance of travel history in assessing risks of infectious diseases. Find out if you have any concerns about sexual functioning and learn about the impact of travel on your health.
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