ELSIETHREE

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Questions and Answers

What is the recommended timing for taking Sildenafil for optimal effectiveness?

Take immediately before intercourse

Take two hours before intercourse

Take one hour before intercourse (correct)

Take three hours before intercourse

Which form of prostatitis is most commonly seen in individuals aged 40–70 years?

Acute bacterial prostatitis

Chronic bacterial prostatitis (correct)

Asymptomatic inflammatory prostatitis

Acute non-bacterial prostatitis

Which of the following symptoms is typically associated with acute bacterial prostatitis?

Nontender prostate on examination

Intermittent urinary symptoms

Perineal discomfort without urgency

Fever and chills (correct)

What is one of the major reasons you should not massage the prostate if acute prostatitis is suspected?

It can lead to sepsis Signup and view all the answers

Which bacterium is most commonly associated with prostatitis in men over the age of 35?

E. coli Signup and view all the answers

What is the most common vascular cause of erectile dysfunction?

Atherosclerosis of cavernous arteries Signup and view all the answers

Which medication class is first-line treatment for erectile dysfunction?

Phosphodiesterase inhibitors Signup and view all the answers

What is a primary risk factor for developing erectile dysfunction?

Age Signup and view all the answers

Which condition may lead to veno-occlusive dysfunction contributing to erectile dysfunction?

Sickle cell disease Signup and view all the answers

What effect do antihypertensive medications have in the context of erectile dysfunction?

They may indirectly lower intracavernosal pressure Signup and view all the answers

What lab test should be ordered if hypogonadism is suspected in a patient with erectile dysfunction?

Serum testosterone levels Signup and view all the answers

If nocturnal penile tumescence is normal, what is the likely cause of erectile dysfunction?

Psychogenic cause Signup and view all the answers

What should be done to manage atherosclerotic risk factors in patients with erectile dysfunction?

Encourage smoking cessation Signup and view all the answers

What is a primary characteristic of a varicocele?

Formation of a venous varicosity within the spermatic vein Signup and view all the answers

Which symptom is NOT typically associated with benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH)?

Severe abdominal pain Signup and view all the answers

What factor can lead to acute urinary retention in patients with BPH?

Exposure to cold temperatures Signup and view all the answers

In the context of varicocele management, when is surgical repair typically indicated?

When the varicocele is painful or potentially causes infertility Signup and view all the answers

What should be avoided in men with benign prostatic hyperplasia during treatment?

Anticholinergics and opioids Signup and view all the answers

What are the common methods used to close an opening after surgery?

Sutures, staples, and surgical glue Signup and view all the answers

Which anesthesia is required for minimally invasive hernia repair?

General anesthesia Signup and view all the answers

What advantage does minimally invasive hernia surgery have over traditional methods?

Avoidance of scar tissue from previous repairs Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a symptom commonly associated with gonorrhea in men?

Dysuria Signup and view all the answers

What is the recommended treatment for gonorrhea?

Ceftriaxone 250mg IM x1 + Azithromycin 1g PO x1 Signup and view all the answers

Which testing method is used for diagnosing gonorrhea?

NAATs Signup and view all the answers

What characteristic of HPV makes it often undetected in infected individuals?

Lesions are often asymptomatic Signup and view all the answers

What activity is suggested for patients after undergoing hernia surgery?

Start moving around as soon as possible Signup and view all the answers

What is the recommended application frequency for Podofilox 0.5% solution or gel?

Applied twice daily three times per week until resolved Signup and view all the answers

Imiquimod cream is applied at bedtime for how many weeks?

16 weeks Signup and view all the answers

What type of lesions are identified as external warts?

Flat, papular, or pedunculated lesions Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is not a provider-administered treatment for external warts?

Podofilox solution application Signup and view all the answers

What is the purpose of the NAAT test for Chlamydia?

To identify asymptomatic infections Signup and view all the answers

Which antibiotic can be prescribed for Chlamydia infection?

Azithromycin 1g PO x1 Signup and view all the answers

What symptoms may females report due to a Chlamydia infection?

Dysuria and mucopurulent vaginal discharge Signup and view all the answers

How often is cryotherapy typically repeated for the treatment of external warts?

Every 1-2 weeks Signup and view all the answers

What is the appropriate action for managing fasting blood glucose levels greater than 105 mg/dL?

Start insulin therapy Signup and view all the answers

Which blood glucose level indicates good glucose control after a 2-hour glucose tolerance test during pregnancy?

150 mg/dL or lower Signup and view all the answers

What is the recommended management for severe hypertension during pregnancy when BP exceeds 180/110 mmHg?

Administer labetalol or nifedipine Signup and view all the answers

What is considered chronic hypertension during pregnancy?

BP > 140/90 before 20 weeks of gestation that persists postpartum Signup and view all the answers

When should delivery be considered for a macrosomic child?

By c-section at 38 weeks of gestation Signup and view all the answers

Study Notes

Risk Factors for Prostate Screening

Family history, especially in first-degree relatives
Increasing age (70% of men over 80, 40% over 50)
Obesity
Black or Jamaican ethnicity

Assessment Findings

Asymptomatic
Elevated PSA
Nocturia, hematuria
Abnormal prostate examination (palpable nodules, hardened prostate, asymmetry)
Acute urinary retention
Urinary frequency, hesitancy, dysuria (LUTS)
Urinary tract infection
Anemia
Weight loss, lethargy, constipation, rectal pain
Back or hip pain radiating to testicles
Lymphedema
Lymphadenopathy

Diagnostic Studies

PSA usually >4 ng/mL, but can be normal
Evaluate PSA velocity change
Use DRE in conjunction with PSA
Prostate cancer antigen 3 (PCA3)
TMPRSS2-ERG gene fusion
Prostate health index (PHI)
Used as adjunct tests with PSA
Alkaline phosphatase (elevated with metastasis)
Testosterone and liver function tests (if androgen deprivation suspected)
Transrectal ultrasound (TRUS) guided prostate biopsy (for cancer)
CT scan (for prostate size, pelvic lymph node involvement)
MRI and bone scan (if nodal involvement, PSA >20, or Gleason score >8)

Prevention

Prostate screening recommendations vary.
USPSTF recommends against routine screening.
ACS and AUA guidelines recommend an individualized approach with shared decision-making regarding DRE and PSA screening.

Referral

Refer to urologist and/or oncologist

Follow-Up

Clinical examination with PSA every 6 months for 5 years, then annually; DRE annually
Active surveillance requires repeat prostate biopsies annually
Androgen deprivation therapy (ADT) patients need CVD evaluation and prevention.
Screen for urinary tract dysfunction, sexual dysfunction, depression, anxiety, and caregiver distress.

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Description

This quiz covers essential risk factors for prostate screening, important assessment findings, and diagnostic studies related to prostate health. It is aimed at helping learners understand the indicators and tests necessary for prostate cancer assessment. Perfect for medical students or healthcare professionals.