CorrectedSGFC3

Choose a study mode

Play Quiz
Study Flashcards
Spaced Repetition
Chat to Lesson

Podcast

Play an AI-generated podcast conversation about this lesson

Questions and Answers

What is the first-line treatment for adult Chlamydia infections?

  • Levofloxacin 500 mg PO daily for seven days
  • Amoxicillin 500 mg PO TID for seven days
  • Erythromycin base 500 mg PO QID for seven days
  • Azithromycin 1 g PO single dose (correct)

Which patient population is emphasized for annual screening for Chlamydia?

  • Women over 30 years old
  • Pregnant women in their second trimester
  • Individuals with a history of STIs
  • Individuals under 25 years old (correct)

What should be considered for any child with confirmed Chlamydia after the neonatal period?

  • Increased screening for other STIs
  • Potential sexual abuse (correct)
  • Routine follow-up testing
  • Immediate hospitalization

What is a common symptom of Chlamydia in women?

<p>Mucopurulent cervicitis (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which medication is contraindicated during pregnancy for treating infections?

<p>Doxycycline (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a distinguishing feature of genital herpes?

<p>Characterized by recurring skin lesions (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which testing method has the highest sensitivity for HSV diagnosis?

<p>PCR assays for HSV DNA (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a common symptom of Chlamydia infection in males?

<p>Epididymitis (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary aim of pharmacological treatment in PCOS management?

<p>Manage menstrual disorders and hyperandrogenism (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which method is considered the first-line intervention for an overweight individual with PCOS?

<p>Weight loss (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the role of combined oral contraceptives in managing PCOS?

<p>Inhibits ovulation through negative feedback (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which parameter is monitored annually to assess cardiometabolic risk in PCOS patients?

<p>Blood pressure (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which hormonal measurement might suggest premature ovarian failure?

<p>FSH or LH levels based on age (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does the Dexamethasone suppression test primarily evaluate?

<p>Cortisol excretion (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is included in lab monitoring for an individual diagnosed with PCOS?

<p>Lipid profile (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What mechanism does progesterone use to manage oligomenorrhea in PCOS?

<p>Transforms proliferative endometrium into secretory endometrium (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is one of the primary effects of Metformin in patients with PCOS?

<p>Improves insulin sensitivity (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which combination of symptoms is necessary for the diagnosis of PCOS in adult women?

<p>Hyperandrogenism, acne, and ovulatory dysfunction (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which phase of the menstrual cycle involves the shedding of the uterine lining?

<p>Menses phase (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What could be a physical indicator of hyperandrogenism in women?

<p>Male pattern hair growth (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which hormone primarily causes the thickening of the uterine lining during the follicular phase?

<p>Estrogen (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What type of amenorrhea is defined as the absence of menstrual periods by age 16?

<p>Primary amenorrhea (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a common follow-up test for patients using Metformin?

<p>Hemoglobin A1c every six months (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which condition is the most common cause of secondary amenorrhea?

<p>Polycystic Ovary Syndrome (PCOS) (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What test is the most sensitive and specific for detecting gonorrhea infections?

<p>Nucleic acid amplification test (NAAT) (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which sites should be sampled for the diagnosis of gonorrhea infection?

<p>Rectum, pharynx, cervix, urethra (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In which situation is a test of cure necessary after gonorrhea treatment?

<p>All of the above (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the recommended treatment regimen for gonorrhea in a patient without a cephalosporin allergy?

<p>Ceftriaxone 250 mg IM and Azithromycin 1 g PO (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the main reason for retesting men or women treated for gonorrhea?

<p>To check for new infections (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why should NAAT not be used for certain infections such as those related to sexual assault?

<p>It is not appropriate for diagnosing infections in other body fluids (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What should be the next step if a patient is unable to retest for gonorrhea within 3 months?

<p>Retest at the next medical care visit (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What additional infection is recommended to be tested for at the same time as gonorrhea?

<p>C. Trachomatis (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary focus of preconception counseling for individuals planning to become pregnant?

<p>Optimizing preconception health through lifestyle and medical condition management (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the recommended timing for discussing contraception options postpartum?

<p>Soon after delivery (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following factors should be evaluated in relation to contraceptive methods?

<p>Potential health risks based on medical history (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What screening is typically performed between 24 and 28 weeks of gestation?

<p>Glucose tolerance test for gestational diabetes (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What dietary component is emphasized in the nonpharmacological management of gestational diabetes?

<p>Decrease in refined carbohydrates (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

For women with a normal BMI, what is the caloric requirement per kilogram per day?

<p>30 to 35 kcal (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the standard pharmacological therapy for managing gestational diabetes?

<p>Insulin therapy (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which form of exercise is recommended for managing gestational diabetes?

<p>Moderate intensity exercise for 30 to 60 minutes, at least three times per week (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What should be performed if there is a concern for placenta previa after a transabdominal sonogram?

<p>A transvaginal sonogram to confirm the placenta's location (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a significant complication that may necessitate an earlier urgent cesarean section in patients with placenta previa?

<p>Vaginal hemorrhage (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which symptom is NOT associated with pre-eclampsia?

<p>Frequent urination (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

At what gestational age is amniocentesis typically performed?

<p>15 to 20 weeks (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which symptom might indicate the presence of pre-eclampsia?

<p>Sudden weight gain (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the reason for timing amniocentesis between 15 and 20 weeks of gestation?

<p>To minimize potential risks associated with performing the procedure too early (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is NOT a risk factor of pre-eclampsia?

<p>Nausea and vomiting early in pregnancy (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which method is superior for identifying low lying and marginal placentas?

<p>Transvaginal sonogram (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Flashcards

Gonorrhea Testing

Gonorrhea is diagnosed using a nucleic acid amplification test (NAT) for urogenital,rectal or pharyngeal infection. Self-collected samples are acceptable. Testing should focus on specific sites (rectum, pharynx, cervix, urethra, eye or scalp wound).

Gonorrhea Treatment (Standard)

Ceftriaxone 250mg IM plus Azithromycin 1g PO for one dose.

Gonorrhea Treatment (Alternative)

Cefixime 400 mg orally plus Azithromycin 1g PO for one dose. This is used when Cefixime works.

Gonorrhea Treatment (Cephalosporin Allergy)

Gemifloxacin 320mg orally plus Azithromycin 2g PO for one dose if the patient has a Cephalosporin allergy.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Retesting Gonorrhea

People treated for Gonorrhea should be retested 3 months after treatment, regardless of partner treatment status. Schedule follow-up visit during initial treatment.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Testing Sex Partners

All sex partners in the last 60 days should be tested for Gonorrhea. If no partners in the last 60 days, the most recent partner should be tested.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Test of Cure Gonorrhea

Retesting with NAAT and AST 7-14 days after treatment to check effectiveness of Gonorrhea treatment. Not typically needed, except for special cases (treatment failure, pregnancy, antibiotic-resistant organisms.)

Signup and view all the flashcards

Gonorrhea Complications

Untreated gonorrhea can lead to significant complications. Testing and treatment should be pursued promptly.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Chlamydia Treatment (Adult)

First-line treatment for adult chlamydia is azithromycin 1g PO single dose, or doxycycline 100mg orally twice daily for 7 days, or doxycycline 10-14 days if epididymitis or pelvic inflammatory disease. Second-line options include levofloxacin or ofloxacin. Erythromycin may be used if doxycycline is contraindicated.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Chlamydia Pregnancy Treatment

Amoxicillin 500 mg PO three times a day for seven days is used to treat chlamydia in pregnancy.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Chlamydia Screening

Screening for chlamydia is recommended for women at risk, including those under 25, with recent new sexual partners, or multiple sexual partners. Screening during the third trimester is recommended for high-risk women.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Chlamydia Symptoms

Chlamydia often has no symptoms. If symptoms exist, they may include burning upon urination, pain during sex, lower belly pain, abnormal or smelly discharge, and bleeding between periods.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Chlamydia Partner Treatment

All sexual partners within the past 60 days should be tested and treated for chlamydia.

Signup and view all the flashcards

High-Risk Chlamydia Populations

Individuals under 25, those with multiple sexual partners, or those who have a new sexual partner are at increased risk of chlamydia infection. Pregnant women in these categories will need closer monitoring and faster treatment.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Chlamydia in Children

Sexual abuse should be considered in any child with confirmed chlamydia after the neonatal period.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Contraindicated Drugs (Chlamydia)

Tetracycline and quinolones are not used in pregnant women due to potential harm to the fetus/baby.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Free testosterone

A measure of testosterone not bound to proteins in the blood, directly reflecting active testosterone levels.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Bioavailable testosterone

The total amount of testosterone in the body that is biologically active.

Signup and view all the flashcards

PCOS treatment: Combined oral contraceptive

A first-line treatment for PCOS management, especially oligomenorrhea (irregular periods), inhibiting ovulation through pituitary feedback.

Signup and view all the flashcards

PCOS treatment: Progesterone-only methods

Used to manage irregular periods (oligomenorrhea) in women with PCOS by transforming uterine lining and reducing pituitary hormones.

Signup and view all the flashcards

PCOS non-pharmacological treatment: Weight loss

The first-line non-pharmaceutical intervention for PCOS, improving insulin sensitivity.

Signup and view all the flashcards

PCOS diagnostic lab tests

Evaluating thyroid function (TSH), prolactin, 7-hydroxyprogesterone, FSH/LH for ovarian function, and cortisol levels, as well as glucose tolerance and lipid profiles.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Cardiometabolic risk monitoring

Essential for PCOS, including blood pressure, waist circumference, BMI, and lipid/glucose tests, monitored annually or more frequently if needed.

Signup and view all the flashcards

PCOS diagnostic screening

Includes evaluating for conditions such as premature ovarian failure and Cushing syndrome.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Preconception Counseling

Advising individuals planning pregnancy on optimizing health before conception, including folic acid, lifestyle habits, and medical conditions.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Postpartum Family Planning

Discussing birth control options after childbirth to ensure timely initiation if desired.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Gestational Diabetes

Pregnancy-related metabolic disorder with insulin resistance, higher blood glucose levels, typically diagnosed between weeks 24-28.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Gestational Diabetes Screening

Screening protocols at 24-28 weeks, including a glucose tolerance test.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Gestational Diabetes Management (Non-Pharmacological)

Patient education on diet, exercise, and blood glucose monitoring to control blood sugar.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Caloric Requirements (Gestational Diabetes)

Caloric needs vary based on BMI, with higher needs for higher BMIs. Low carbohydrate, high fiber, complex carbohydrates.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Contraceptive Method Considerations

Evaluating potential risks associated with contraceptive methods based on medical history (e.g., hypertension, breastfeeding, smoking).

Signup and view all the flashcards

Screening Tests (Pregnancy)

Tests performed at various stages of pregnancy, based on gestational age (e.g., first-trimester screening, cell-free DNA, Group B strep).

Signup and view all the flashcards

Placenta Previa

A condition where the placenta partially or completely covers the cervix.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Transvaginal Sonogram

An ultrasound performed using a probe inserted into the vagina to get a clearer view of the uterus and placenta.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Low-Lying Placenta

A placenta that is located close to the cervix, but not completely covering it.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Marginal Placenta

A placenta that is located at the edge of the cervix, with its edge just reaching the cervical opening.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Pre-Eclampsia

A serious complication of pregnancy characterized by high blood pressure, protein in the urine, and swelling.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Amniocentesis

A procedure that involves extracting amniotic fluid from the uterus using a needle.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Standard Stage for Amniocentesis

Typically performed between 15 and 20 weeks of gestation, during the second trimester.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Reasoning for Timing of Amniocentesis

Performed in the second trimester to ensure enough amniotic fluid for sampling, while minimizing risks of early pregnancy procedures.

Signup and view all the flashcards

PCOS Mechanism of Metformin

Metformin reduces hepatic glucose production, intestinal glucose absorption, improves insulin sensitivity, and reduces hyperinsulinemia and serum testosterone in PCOS, increasing pregnancy rates and improving metabolic syndrome symptoms. It's a common treatment for PCOS.

Signup and view all the flashcards

PCOS Diagnosis Criteria (Women)

Two of three must be present in adult women for PCOS diagnosis: Hyperandrogenism (acne, hair statism, thinning/alopecia, clitoral hypertrophy, deepening voice), ovulatory dysfunction (oligoovulation/anovulation, amenorrhea/oligomenorrhea, ovarian cysts), or weight gain.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Primary Amenorrhea

Absence of menstruation by age 16 in someone with normal sexual development.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Secondary Amenorrhea

Sudden cessation of menstruation for several months in someone with previously regular cycles.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Menstrual Cycle Phases

Four phases: menses (period), follicular (estrogen rise, follicle growth), ovulatory (ovulation), and luteal (hormonal shifts).

Signup and view all the flashcards

Menses Phase

The phase of the menstrual cycle where the uterine lining is shed if pregnancy doesn't occur. Usually lasts 3-7 days.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Follicular Phase

The phase of the menstrual cycle beginning with the period and leading to ovulation. Estrogen levels increase, and follicles in the ovaries prepare to release an egg.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Monitoring for PCOS Treatment

Regular monitoring of hemoglobin A1c (at least every six months), complete blood count (CBC), renal function (at least annually), and vitamin B12 (every three years) is crucial for PCOS treatment, specifically with Metformin.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Study Notes

Men's Health

  • The USPSTF does not recommend routine prostate screening.
  • ACS and AUA guidelines recommend an individualized approach.
  • Most men should begin screening at age 50 with PSA and DRE.
  • For men at high risk (1st-degree relative with prostate cancer before age 65 or African American ethnicity), consider screening at age 45.
  • Men with more than one first-degree relative with prostate cancer should begin screening at age 40.
  • Asymptomatic men with a 10-year life expectancy should not be offered PSA testing.
  • Routine screening involves PSA testing and digital rectal examination.
  • PSA levels over 4 ng/mL may warrant further investigation (biopsy or imaging).
  • Risk factors include age (over 50), family history, African American ethnicity, and a diet high in red meat and low in fruits and vegetables.
  • Digital rectal exam (DRE): Palpable abnormalities suggest malignancy
  • Prostate specific antigen (PSA) usually less than 4 ng/mL.
  • A PSA value over 10 ng/mL generally requires biopsy.
  • A PSA value of 4-9.9 ng/mL usually requires biopsy, but only 20% of these patients have prostate cancer.

Testicular Cancer

  • Malignant testicular tumors are categorized into germ cell tumors (90-95%) and non-germ cell tumors (5-10%).
  • Germ cell tumors include seminoma, teratoma, teratocarcinoma, and embryonal carcinoma.
  • Non-germ cell tumors include Leydig cell, gonadoblastoma, and adenocarcinoma.
  • Early detection makes testicular cancer highly curable.
  • Risk factors include history of cryptorchidism, family history of testicular cancer, testicular atrophy, and White race (rare in Black people).

Inguinal Hernia

  • A protrusion of viscera or adipose tissue through the inguinal or femoral canal.
  • Three types: indirect, direct, and femoral
  • Risk factors include premature birth, age over 60, smoking, and family history of hernia.
  • Assessment involves feeling for a bulge in the groin, pain with straining or lifting, swelling.
  • Treatment usually involves surgical repair.

Testicular Torsion

  • Sudden, severe, unilateral scrotal pain is a key sign.
  • Often accompanied by scrotal edema, erythema, and a firm, tender mass in the testicle.
  • Risk factors include history of cryptorchidism, family history of torsion, and testicular atrophy.
  • Immediate surgical intervention (orchiopexy) is crucial within 6 hours.

Erectile Dysfunction

  • Inability to achieve or maintain an erection sufficient for sexual performance.
  • Risk factors include vascular conditions, diabetes, high blood pressure, multiple sclerosis, medications (e.g., antidepressants, antihypertensives).
  • Treatment includes lifestyle modification and phosphodiesterase type 5 (PDE5) inhibitors such as sildenafil (Viagra) and tadalafil (Cialis).

Sexually Transmitted Infections (STIs)

  • Gonorrhea involves Neisseria gonorrhoeae.
  • Testing typically includes nucleic acid amplification test (NAT) to check for urogenital, rectal, or pharyngeal infection.
  • Treatment is with ceftriaxone and azithromycin.
  • Follow-up visits and retesting are important.

Studying That Suits You

Use AI to generate personalized quizzes and flashcards to suit your learning preferences.

Quiz Team

Related Documents

More Like This

Prostate Cancer Screening Trials
6 questions
Prostate Screening Guidelines Overview
45 questions
FinalTHREESG
88 questions

FinalTHREESG

UnmatchedPluto5846 avatar
UnmatchedPluto5846
Use Quizgecko on...
Browser
Browser