CorrectedSGFC3

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Questions and Answers

What is the first-line treatment for adult Chlamydia infections?

Levofloxacin 500 mg PO daily for seven days

Amoxicillin 500 mg PO TID for seven days

Erythromycin base 500 mg PO QID for seven days

Azithromycin 1 g PO single dose (correct)

Which patient population is emphasized for annual screening for Chlamydia?

Women over 30 years old

Pregnant women in their second trimester

Individuals with a history of STIs

Individuals under 25 years old (correct)

What should be considered for any child with confirmed Chlamydia after the neonatal period?

Increased screening for other STIs

Potential sexual abuse (correct)

Routine follow-up testing

Immediate hospitalization

What is a common symptom of Chlamydia in women?

Mucopurulent cervicitis Signup and view all the answers

Which medication is contraindicated during pregnancy for treating infections?

Doxycycline Signup and view all the answers

What is a distinguishing feature of genital herpes?

Characterized by recurring skin lesions Signup and view all the answers

Which testing method has the highest sensitivity for HSV diagnosis?

PCR assays for HSV DNA Signup and view all the answers

What is a common symptom of Chlamydia infection in males?

Epididymitis Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary aim of pharmacological treatment in PCOS management?

Manage menstrual disorders and hyperandrogenism Signup and view all the answers

Which method is considered the first-line intervention for an overweight individual with PCOS?

Weight loss Signup and view all the answers

What is the role of combined oral contraceptives in managing PCOS?

Inhibits ovulation through negative feedback Signup and view all the answers

Which parameter is monitored annually to assess cardiometabolic risk in PCOS patients?

Blood pressure Signup and view all the answers

Which hormonal measurement might suggest premature ovarian failure?

FSH or LH levels based on age Signup and view all the answers

What does the Dexamethasone suppression test primarily evaluate?

Cortisol excretion Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is included in lab monitoring for an individual diagnosed with PCOS?

Lipid profile Signup and view all the answers

What mechanism does progesterone use to manage oligomenorrhea in PCOS?

Transforms proliferative endometrium into secretory endometrium Signup and view all the answers

What is one of the primary effects of Metformin in patients with PCOS?

Improves insulin sensitivity Signup and view all the answers

Which combination of symptoms is necessary for the diagnosis of PCOS in adult women?

Hyperandrogenism, acne, and ovulatory dysfunction Signup and view all the answers

Which phase of the menstrual cycle involves the shedding of the uterine lining?

Menses phase Signup and view all the answers

What could be a physical indicator of hyperandrogenism in women?

Male pattern hair growth Signup and view all the answers

Which hormone primarily causes the thickening of the uterine lining during the follicular phase?

Estrogen Signup and view all the answers

What type of amenorrhea is defined as the absence of menstrual periods by age 16?

Primary amenorrhea Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a common follow-up test for patients using Metformin?

Hemoglobin A1c every six months Signup and view all the answers

Which condition is the most common cause of secondary amenorrhea?

Polycystic Ovary Syndrome (PCOS) Signup and view all the answers

What test is the most sensitive and specific for detecting gonorrhea infections?

Nucleic acid amplification test (NAAT) Signup and view all the answers

Which sites should be sampled for the diagnosis of gonorrhea infection?

Rectum, pharynx, cervix, urethra Signup and view all the answers

In which situation is a test of cure necessary after gonorrhea treatment?

All of the above Signup and view all the answers

What is the recommended treatment regimen for gonorrhea in a patient without a cephalosporin allergy?

Ceftriaxone 250 mg IM and Azithromycin 1 g PO Signup and view all the answers

What is the main reason for retesting men or women treated for gonorrhea?

To check for new infections Signup and view all the answers

Why should NAAT not be used for certain infections such as those related to sexual assault?

It is not appropriate for diagnosing infections in other body fluids Signup and view all the answers

What should be the next step if a patient is unable to retest for gonorrhea within 3 months?

Retest at the next medical care visit Signup and view all the answers

What additional infection is recommended to be tested for at the same time as gonorrhea?

C. Trachomatis Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary focus of preconception counseling for individuals planning to become pregnant?

Optimizing preconception health through lifestyle and medical condition management Signup and view all the answers

What is the recommended timing for discussing contraception options postpartum?

Soon after delivery Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following factors should be evaluated in relation to contraceptive methods?

Potential health risks based on medical history Signup and view all the answers

What screening is typically performed between 24 and 28 weeks of gestation?

Glucose tolerance test for gestational diabetes Signup and view all the answers

What dietary component is emphasized in the nonpharmacological management of gestational diabetes?

Decrease in refined carbohydrates Signup and view all the answers

For women with a normal BMI, what is the caloric requirement per kilogram per day?

30 to 35 kcal Signup and view all the answers

What is the standard pharmacological therapy for managing gestational diabetes?

Insulin therapy Signup and view all the answers

Which form of exercise is recommended for managing gestational diabetes?

Moderate intensity exercise for 30 to 60 minutes, at least three times per week Signup and view all the answers

What should be performed if there is a concern for placenta previa after a transabdominal sonogram?

A transvaginal sonogram to confirm the placenta's location Signup and view all the answers

What is a significant complication that may necessitate an earlier urgent cesarean section in patients with placenta previa?

Vaginal hemorrhage Signup and view all the answers

Which symptom is NOT associated with pre-eclampsia?

Frequent urination Signup and view all the answers

At what gestational age is amniocentesis typically performed?

15 to 20 weeks Signup and view all the answers

Which symptom might indicate the presence of pre-eclampsia?

Sudden weight gain Signup and view all the answers

What is the reason for timing amniocentesis between 15 and 20 weeks of gestation?

To minimize potential risks associated with performing the procedure too early Signup and view all the answers

What is NOT a risk factor of pre-eclampsia?

Nausea and vomiting early in pregnancy Signup and view all the answers

Which method is superior for identifying low lying and marginal placentas?

Transvaginal sonogram Signup and view all the answers

Study Notes

Men's Health

The USPSTF does not recommend routine prostate screening.
ACS and AUA guidelines recommend an individualized approach.
Most men should begin screening at age 50 with PSA and DRE.
For men at high risk (1st-degree relative with prostate cancer before age 65 or African American ethnicity), consider screening at age 45.
Men with more than one first-degree relative with prostate cancer should begin screening at age 40.
Asymptomatic men with a 10-year life expectancy should not be offered PSA testing.
Routine screening involves PSA testing and digital rectal examination.
PSA levels over 4 ng/mL may warrant further investigation (biopsy or imaging).
Risk factors include age (over 50), family history, African American ethnicity, and a diet high in red meat and low in fruits and vegetables.
Digital rectal exam (DRE): Palpable abnormalities suggest malignancy
Prostate specific antigen (PSA) usually less than 4 ng/mL.
A PSA value over 10 ng/mL generally requires biopsy.
A PSA value of 4-9.9 ng/mL usually requires biopsy, but only 20% of these patients have prostate cancer.

Testicular Cancer

Malignant testicular tumors are categorized into germ cell tumors (90-95%) and non-germ cell tumors (5-10%).
Germ cell tumors include seminoma, teratoma, teratocarcinoma, and embryonal carcinoma.
Non-germ cell tumors include Leydig cell, gonadoblastoma, and adenocarcinoma.
Early detection makes testicular cancer highly curable.
Risk factors include history of cryptorchidism, family history of testicular cancer, testicular atrophy, and White race (rare in Black people).

Inguinal Hernia

A protrusion of viscera or adipose tissue through the inguinal or femoral canal.
Three types: indirect, direct, and femoral
Risk factors include premature birth, age over 60, smoking, and family history of hernia.
Assessment involves feeling for a bulge in the groin, pain with straining or lifting, swelling.
Treatment usually involves surgical repair.

Testicular Torsion

Sudden, severe, unilateral scrotal pain is a key sign.
Often accompanied by scrotal edema, erythema, and a firm, tender mass in the testicle.
Risk factors include history of cryptorchidism, family history of torsion, and testicular atrophy.
Immediate surgical intervention (orchiopexy) is crucial within 6 hours.

Erectile Dysfunction

Inability to achieve or maintain an erection sufficient for sexual performance.
Risk factors include vascular conditions, diabetes, high blood pressure, multiple sclerosis, medications (e.g., antidepressants, antihypertensives).
Treatment includes lifestyle modification and phosphodiesterase type 5 (PDE5) inhibitors such as sildenafil (Viagra) and tadalafil (Cialis).

Sexually Transmitted Infections (STIs)

Gonorrhea involves Neisseria gonorrhoeae.
Testing typically includes nucleic acid amplification test (NAT) to check for urogenital, rectal, or pharyngeal infection.
Treatment is with ceftriaxone and azithromycin.
Follow-up visits and retesting are important.

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Description

This quiz covers the recommendations for prostate cancer screening, including guidelines from the USPSTF, ACS, and AUA. It discusses the importance of individualized approaches based on risk factors, including age and family history. Test your knowledge on when to start screening and the significance of PSA and DRE tests.