Podcast
Questions and Answers
What is the first-line treatment for adult Chlamydia infections?
What is the first-line treatment for adult Chlamydia infections?
- Levofloxacin 500 mg PO daily for seven days
- Amoxicillin 500 mg PO TID for seven days
- Erythromycin base 500 mg PO QID for seven days
- Azithromycin 1 g PO single dose (correct)
Which patient population is emphasized for annual screening for Chlamydia?
Which patient population is emphasized for annual screening for Chlamydia?
- Women over 30 years old
- Pregnant women in their second trimester
- Individuals with a history of STIs
- Individuals under 25 years old (correct)
What should be considered for any child with confirmed Chlamydia after the neonatal period?
What should be considered for any child with confirmed Chlamydia after the neonatal period?
- Increased screening for other STIs
- Potential sexual abuse (correct)
- Routine follow-up testing
- Immediate hospitalization
What is a common symptom of Chlamydia in women?
What is a common symptom of Chlamydia in women?
Which medication is contraindicated during pregnancy for treating infections?
Which medication is contraindicated during pregnancy for treating infections?
What is a distinguishing feature of genital herpes?
What is a distinguishing feature of genital herpes?
Which testing method has the highest sensitivity for HSV diagnosis?
Which testing method has the highest sensitivity for HSV diagnosis?
What is a common symptom of Chlamydia infection in males?
What is a common symptom of Chlamydia infection in males?
What is the primary aim of pharmacological treatment in PCOS management?
What is the primary aim of pharmacological treatment in PCOS management?
Which method is considered the first-line intervention for an overweight individual with PCOS?
Which method is considered the first-line intervention for an overweight individual with PCOS?
What is the role of combined oral contraceptives in managing PCOS?
What is the role of combined oral contraceptives in managing PCOS?
Which parameter is monitored annually to assess cardiometabolic risk in PCOS patients?
Which parameter is monitored annually to assess cardiometabolic risk in PCOS patients?
Which hormonal measurement might suggest premature ovarian failure?
Which hormonal measurement might suggest premature ovarian failure?
What does the Dexamethasone suppression test primarily evaluate?
What does the Dexamethasone suppression test primarily evaluate?
Which of the following is included in lab monitoring for an individual diagnosed with PCOS?
Which of the following is included in lab monitoring for an individual diagnosed with PCOS?
What mechanism does progesterone use to manage oligomenorrhea in PCOS?
What mechanism does progesterone use to manage oligomenorrhea in PCOS?
What is one of the primary effects of Metformin in patients with PCOS?
What is one of the primary effects of Metformin in patients with PCOS?
Which combination of symptoms is necessary for the diagnosis of PCOS in adult women?
Which combination of symptoms is necessary for the diagnosis of PCOS in adult women?
Which phase of the menstrual cycle involves the shedding of the uterine lining?
Which phase of the menstrual cycle involves the shedding of the uterine lining?
What could be a physical indicator of hyperandrogenism in women?
What could be a physical indicator of hyperandrogenism in women?
Which hormone primarily causes the thickening of the uterine lining during the follicular phase?
Which hormone primarily causes the thickening of the uterine lining during the follicular phase?
What type of amenorrhea is defined as the absence of menstrual periods by age 16?
What type of amenorrhea is defined as the absence of menstrual periods by age 16?
Which of the following is a common follow-up test for patients using Metformin?
Which of the following is a common follow-up test for patients using Metformin?
Which condition is the most common cause of secondary amenorrhea?
Which condition is the most common cause of secondary amenorrhea?
What test is the most sensitive and specific for detecting gonorrhea infections?
What test is the most sensitive and specific for detecting gonorrhea infections?
Which sites should be sampled for the diagnosis of gonorrhea infection?
Which sites should be sampled for the diagnosis of gonorrhea infection?
In which situation is a test of cure necessary after gonorrhea treatment?
In which situation is a test of cure necessary after gonorrhea treatment?
What is the recommended treatment regimen for gonorrhea in a patient without a cephalosporin allergy?
What is the recommended treatment regimen for gonorrhea in a patient without a cephalosporin allergy?
What is the main reason for retesting men or women treated for gonorrhea?
What is the main reason for retesting men or women treated for gonorrhea?
Why should NAAT not be used for certain infections such as those related to sexual assault?
Why should NAAT not be used for certain infections such as those related to sexual assault?
What should be the next step if a patient is unable to retest for gonorrhea within 3 months?
What should be the next step if a patient is unable to retest for gonorrhea within 3 months?
What additional infection is recommended to be tested for at the same time as gonorrhea?
What additional infection is recommended to be tested for at the same time as gonorrhea?
What is the primary focus of preconception counseling for individuals planning to become pregnant?
What is the primary focus of preconception counseling for individuals planning to become pregnant?
What is the recommended timing for discussing contraception options postpartum?
What is the recommended timing for discussing contraception options postpartum?
Which of the following factors should be evaluated in relation to contraceptive methods?
Which of the following factors should be evaluated in relation to contraceptive methods?
What screening is typically performed between 24 and 28 weeks of gestation?
What screening is typically performed between 24 and 28 weeks of gestation?
What dietary component is emphasized in the nonpharmacological management of gestational diabetes?
What dietary component is emphasized in the nonpharmacological management of gestational diabetes?
For women with a normal BMI, what is the caloric requirement per kilogram per day?
For women with a normal BMI, what is the caloric requirement per kilogram per day?
What is the standard pharmacological therapy for managing gestational diabetes?
What is the standard pharmacological therapy for managing gestational diabetes?
Which form of exercise is recommended for managing gestational diabetes?
Which form of exercise is recommended for managing gestational diabetes?
What should be performed if there is a concern for placenta previa after a transabdominal sonogram?
What should be performed if there is a concern for placenta previa after a transabdominal sonogram?
What is a significant complication that may necessitate an earlier urgent cesarean section in patients with placenta previa?
What is a significant complication that may necessitate an earlier urgent cesarean section in patients with placenta previa?
Which symptom is NOT associated with pre-eclampsia?
Which symptom is NOT associated with pre-eclampsia?
At what gestational age is amniocentesis typically performed?
At what gestational age is amniocentesis typically performed?
Which symptom might indicate the presence of pre-eclampsia?
Which symptom might indicate the presence of pre-eclampsia?
What is the reason for timing amniocentesis between 15 and 20 weeks of gestation?
What is the reason for timing amniocentesis between 15 and 20 weeks of gestation?
What is NOT a risk factor of pre-eclampsia?
What is NOT a risk factor of pre-eclampsia?
Which method is superior for identifying low lying and marginal placentas?
Which method is superior for identifying low lying and marginal placentas?
Flashcards
Gonorrhea Testing
Gonorrhea Testing
Gonorrhea is diagnosed using a nucleic acid amplification test (NAT) for urogenital,rectal or pharyngeal infection. Self-collected samples are acceptable. Testing should focus on specific sites (rectum, pharynx, cervix, urethra, eye or scalp wound).
Gonorrhea Treatment (Standard)
Gonorrhea Treatment (Standard)
Ceftriaxone 250mg IM plus Azithromycin 1g PO for one dose.
Gonorrhea Treatment (Alternative)
Gonorrhea Treatment (Alternative)
Cefixime 400 mg orally plus Azithromycin 1g PO for one dose. This is used when Cefixime works.
Gonorrhea Treatment (Cephalosporin Allergy)
Gonorrhea Treatment (Cephalosporin Allergy)
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Retesting Gonorrhea
Retesting Gonorrhea
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Testing Sex Partners
Testing Sex Partners
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Test of Cure Gonorrhea
Test of Cure Gonorrhea
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Gonorrhea Complications
Gonorrhea Complications
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Chlamydia Treatment (Adult)
Chlamydia Treatment (Adult)
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Chlamydia Pregnancy Treatment
Chlamydia Pregnancy Treatment
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Chlamydia Screening
Chlamydia Screening
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Chlamydia Symptoms
Chlamydia Symptoms
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Chlamydia Partner Treatment
Chlamydia Partner Treatment
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High-Risk Chlamydia Populations
High-Risk Chlamydia Populations
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Chlamydia in Children
Chlamydia in Children
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Contraindicated Drugs (Chlamydia)
Contraindicated Drugs (Chlamydia)
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Free testosterone
Free testosterone
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Bioavailable testosterone
Bioavailable testosterone
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PCOS treatment: Combined oral contraceptive
PCOS treatment: Combined oral contraceptive
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PCOS treatment: Progesterone-only methods
PCOS treatment: Progesterone-only methods
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PCOS non-pharmacological treatment: Weight loss
PCOS non-pharmacological treatment: Weight loss
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PCOS diagnostic lab tests
PCOS diagnostic lab tests
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Cardiometabolic risk monitoring
Cardiometabolic risk monitoring
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PCOS diagnostic screening
PCOS diagnostic screening
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Preconception Counseling
Preconception Counseling
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Postpartum Family Planning
Postpartum Family Planning
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Gestational Diabetes
Gestational Diabetes
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Gestational Diabetes Screening
Gestational Diabetes Screening
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Gestational Diabetes Management (Non-Pharmacological)
Gestational Diabetes Management (Non-Pharmacological)
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Caloric Requirements (Gestational Diabetes)
Caloric Requirements (Gestational Diabetes)
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Contraceptive Method Considerations
Contraceptive Method Considerations
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Screening Tests (Pregnancy)
Screening Tests (Pregnancy)
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Placenta Previa
Placenta Previa
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Transvaginal Sonogram
Transvaginal Sonogram
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Low-Lying Placenta
Low-Lying Placenta
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Marginal Placenta
Marginal Placenta
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Pre-Eclampsia
Pre-Eclampsia
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Amniocentesis
Amniocentesis
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Standard Stage for Amniocentesis
Standard Stage for Amniocentesis
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Reasoning for Timing of Amniocentesis
Reasoning for Timing of Amniocentesis
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PCOS Mechanism of Metformin
PCOS Mechanism of Metformin
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PCOS Diagnosis Criteria (Women)
PCOS Diagnosis Criteria (Women)
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Primary Amenorrhea
Primary Amenorrhea
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Secondary Amenorrhea
Secondary Amenorrhea
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Menstrual Cycle Phases
Menstrual Cycle Phases
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Menses Phase
Menses Phase
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Follicular Phase
Follicular Phase
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Monitoring for PCOS Treatment
Monitoring for PCOS Treatment
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Study Notes
Men's Health
- The USPSTF does not recommend routine prostate screening.
- ACS and AUA guidelines recommend an individualized approach.
- Most men should begin screening at age 50 with PSA and DRE.
- For men at high risk (1st-degree relative with prostate cancer before age 65 or African American ethnicity), consider screening at age 45.
- Men with more than one first-degree relative with prostate cancer should begin screening at age 40.
- Asymptomatic men with a 10-year life expectancy should not be offered PSA testing.
- Routine screening involves PSA testing and digital rectal examination.
- PSA levels over 4 ng/mL may warrant further investigation (biopsy or imaging).
- Risk factors include age (over 50), family history, African American ethnicity, and a diet high in red meat and low in fruits and vegetables.
- Digital rectal exam (DRE): Palpable abnormalities suggest malignancy
- Prostate specific antigen (PSA) usually less than 4 ng/mL.
- A PSA value over 10 ng/mL generally requires biopsy.
- A PSA value of 4-9.9 ng/mL usually requires biopsy, but only 20% of these patients have prostate cancer.
Testicular Cancer
- Malignant testicular tumors are categorized into germ cell tumors (90-95%) and non-germ cell tumors (5-10%).
- Germ cell tumors include seminoma, teratoma, teratocarcinoma, and embryonal carcinoma.
- Non-germ cell tumors include Leydig cell, gonadoblastoma, and adenocarcinoma.
- Early detection makes testicular cancer highly curable.
- Risk factors include history of cryptorchidism, family history of testicular cancer, testicular atrophy, and White race (rare in Black people).
Inguinal Hernia
- A protrusion of viscera or adipose tissue through the inguinal or femoral canal.
- Three types: indirect, direct, and femoral
- Risk factors include premature birth, age over 60, smoking, and family history of hernia.
- Assessment involves feeling for a bulge in the groin, pain with straining or lifting, swelling.
- Treatment usually involves surgical repair.
Testicular Torsion
- Sudden, severe, unilateral scrotal pain is a key sign.
- Often accompanied by scrotal edema, erythema, and a firm, tender mass in the testicle.
- Risk factors include history of cryptorchidism, family history of torsion, and testicular atrophy.
- Immediate surgical intervention (orchiopexy) is crucial within 6 hours.
Erectile Dysfunction
- Inability to achieve or maintain an erection sufficient for sexual performance.
- Risk factors include vascular conditions, diabetes, high blood pressure, multiple sclerosis, medications (e.g., antidepressants, antihypertensives).
- Treatment includes lifestyle modification and phosphodiesterase type 5 (PDE5) inhibitors such as sildenafil (Viagra) and tadalafil (Cialis).
Sexually Transmitted Infections (STIs)
- Gonorrhea involves Neisseria gonorrhoeae.
- Testing typically includes nucleic acid amplification test (NAT) to check for urogenital, rectal, or pharyngeal infection.
- Treatment is with ceftriaxone and azithromycin.
- Follow-up visits and retesting are important.
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