COPY: Preoperative Care Overview
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Questions and Answers

Which stage of general anesthesia involves the patient being susceptible to external stimuli?

  • Stage I: Beginning/Induction
  • Stage II: Excitement (correct)
  • Stage III: Surgical Anesthesia
  • Stage IV: Danger
  • Stage IV of general anesthesia is characterized by too little anesthesia being administered.

    False (B)

    What is the primary nursing care during Stage I of general anesthesia?

    Assist during induction, close OR doors, keep OR quiet.

    In Stage III of general anesthesia, the surgical procedure is _____ once the most reflexes are lost.

    <p>started</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the following stages of general anesthesia with their primary characteristics:

    <p>Stage I = Beginning/Induction; administration of anesthetic agent to the loss of consciousness Stage II = Excitement; loss of consciousness to relaxation Stage III = Surgical Anesthesia; relaxation to loss of most reflexes Stage IV = Danger; respiratory &amp; cardiac failure due to excessive anesthesia</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is NOT an objective of general anesthesia?

    <p>Increased heart rate (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    During Stage II, nursing care requires that the patient is completely restrained.

    <p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a nursing priority in Stage IV of general anesthesia?

    <p>Discontinue anesthesia and prepare for CPR.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which procedure is associated with rapid onset of action?

    <p>Spinal anesthesia (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Epidural anesthesia typically has a faster onset time than spinal anesthesia.

    <p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What technique is used to identify the epidural space?

    <p>Loss of resistance technique</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Absorption of spinal anesthetic is becoming 'fixed' due to _____ in the cerebrospinal fluid.

    <p>blood supply</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the following regional anesthesia types with their characteristics:

    <p>Spinal = Identified by appearance of CSF Epidural = Identified through loss of resistance technique</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a type of procedure where spinal anesthesia is commonly used?

    <p>Pelvic surgery (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Post-operative pain management can be achieved through epidural anesthesia.

    <p>True (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What position is typically recommended for patients receiving spinal or epidural anesthesia?

    <p>Knee-chest or sitting position</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following blocks is used for anesthesia in the lower abdomen and perineum?

    <p>Transsacral block (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Epidural anesthesia involves the injection of the anesthetic agent into the subarachnoid space.

    <p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary site for spinal anesthesia?

    <p>Subarachnoid space</p> Signup and view all the answers

    A ______ block is performed at the elbow or wrist area.

    <p>radial or ulnar</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the following regional anesthesia procedures with their corresponding sites:

    <p>Brachial plexus block = Arm Paravertebral anesthesia = Chest &amp; abdominal wall Radial block = Elbow Penile block = Perineum &amp; lower abdomen</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is NOT a nerve block technique?

    <p>Appendectomy block (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    A small catheter is left in place after the spinal injection to allow for continuous medication administration.

    <p>True (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What type of block would you use for anesthesia of the arm?

    <p>Brachial plexus block</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which surgical position is recommended for mastectomy?

    <p>Supine (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    The lithotomy position involves the patient lying on their back with legs straight.

    <p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the main purpose of strapping patients during surgery?

    <p>To prevent falls</p> Signup and view all the answers

    The __________ position has the head positioned downward, useful for abdominal surgeries.

    <p>Trendelenburg</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the following surgical positions with their descriptions:

    <p>Supine = Back-lying position recommended for abdominal surgeries Lithotomy = Supine with legs flexed and supported on stirrups Trendelenburg = Head positioned downward for gynecological surgery Prone = Lying face down, often used for back surgeries</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What should be avoided when positioning a client for surgery?

    <p>Undue pressure on body parts (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Maintaining good body alignment is not important during surgery.

    <p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a key consideration for maintaining the client's well-being during surgery?

    <p>Maintaining adequate respiratory and circulatory function</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does preoperative care involve?

    <p>The time from decision for surgery to transfer to the operating table. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Informed consent is solely a document that must be signed by the patient.

    <p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the legal age required to give informed consent?

    <p>18</p> Signup and view all the answers

    The nurse's role in relation to informed consent includes witnessing the patient's ______ and clarifying the provided information.

    <p>signature</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the type of consent with its description:

    <p>General Consent = Signed on admission to authorize routine care Informed Consent = Process of explaining risks and benefits to the patient Validation of Consent = Ensuring consent is voluntary and legally valid Nurse's Role = Witnessing the signature and clarifying information</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is NOT a requirement for the validation of consent?

    <p>Patient must be a legal resident of the state (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    A surgeon is required to explain the benefits and risks of a procedure before obtaining informed consent.

    <p>True (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the main responsibility of a surgeon regarding informed consent?

    <p>To explain benefits, risks, and alternatives clearly to the patient.</p> Signup and view all the answers

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