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Preoperative Care Overview
40 Questions
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Preoperative Care Overview

Created by
@RapturousHeptagon

Questions and Answers

Which stage of general anesthesia involves the patient being susceptible to external stimuli?

  • Stage I: Beginning/Induction
  • Stage II: Excitement (correct)
  • Stage III: Surgical Anesthesia
  • Stage IV: Danger

    • Stage IV of general anesthesia is characterized by too little anesthesia being administered.

    False

    What is the primary nursing care during Stage I of general anesthesia?

    Assist during induction, close OR doors, keep OR quiet.

    In Stage III of general anesthesia, the surgical procedure is _____ once the most reflexes are lost.

    <p>started</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the following stages of general anesthesia with their primary characteristics:

    <p>Stage I = Beginning/Induction; administration of anesthetic agent to the loss of consciousness Stage II = Excitement; loss of consciousness to relaxation Stage III = Surgical Anesthesia; relaxation to loss of most reflexes Stage IV = Danger; respiratory &amp; cardiac failure due to excessive anesthesia</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is NOT an objective of general anesthesia?

    <p>Increased heart rate</p> Signup and view all the answers

    During Stage II, nursing care requires that the patient is completely restrained.

    <p>False</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a nursing priority in Stage IV of general anesthesia?

    <p>Discontinue anesthesia and prepare for CPR.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which procedure is associated with rapid onset of action?

    <p>Spinal anesthesia</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Epidural anesthesia typically has a faster onset time than spinal anesthesia.

    <p>False</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What technique is used to identify the epidural space?

    <p>Loss of resistance technique</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Absorption of spinal anesthetic is becoming 'fixed' due to _____ in the cerebrospinal fluid.

    <p>blood supply</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the following regional anesthesia types with their characteristics:

    <p>Spinal = Identified by appearance of CSF Epidural = Identified through loss of resistance technique</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a type of procedure where spinal anesthesia is commonly used?

    <p>Pelvic surgery</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Post-operative pain management can be achieved through epidural anesthesia.

    <p>True</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What position is typically recommended for patients receiving spinal or epidural anesthesia?

    <p>Knee-chest or sitting position</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following blocks is used for anesthesia in the lower abdomen and perineum?

    <p>Transsacral block</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Epidural anesthesia involves the injection of the anesthetic agent into the subarachnoid space.

    <p>False</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary site for spinal anesthesia?

    <p>Subarachnoid space</p> Signup and view all the answers

    A ______ block is performed at the elbow or wrist area.

    <p>radial or ulnar</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the following regional anesthesia procedures with their corresponding sites:

    <p>Brachial plexus block = Arm Paravertebral anesthesia = Chest &amp; abdominal wall Radial block = Elbow Penile block = Perineum &amp; lower abdomen</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is NOT a nerve block technique?

    <p>Appendectomy block</p> Signup and view all the answers

    A small catheter is left in place after the spinal injection to allow for continuous medication administration.

    <p>True</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What type of block would you use for anesthesia of the arm?

    <p>Brachial plexus block</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which surgical position is recommended for mastectomy?

    <p>Supine</p> Signup and view all the answers

    The lithotomy position involves the patient lying on their back with legs straight.

    <p>False</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the main purpose of strapping patients during surgery?

    <p>To prevent falls</p> Signup and view all the answers

    The __________ position has the head positioned downward, useful for abdominal surgeries.

    <p>Trendelenburg</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the following surgical positions with their descriptions:

    <p>Supine = Back-lying position recommended for abdominal surgeries Lithotomy = Supine with legs flexed and supported on stirrups Trendelenburg = Head positioned downward for gynecological surgery Prone = Lying face down, often used for back surgeries</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What should be avoided when positioning a client for surgery?

    <p>Undue pressure on body parts</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Maintaining good body alignment is not important during surgery.

    <p>False</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a key consideration for maintaining the client's well-being during surgery?

    <p>Maintaining adequate respiratory and circulatory function</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does preoperative care involve?

    <p>The time from decision for surgery to transfer to the operating table.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Informed consent is solely a document that must be signed by the patient.

    <p>False</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the legal age required to give informed consent?

    <p>18</p> Signup and view all the answers

    The nurse's role in relation to informed consent includes witnessing the patient's ______ and clarifying the provided information.

    <p>signature</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the type of consent with its description:

    <p>General Consent = Signed on admission to authorize routine care Informed Consent = Process of explaining risks and benefits to the patient Validation of Consent = Ensuring consent is voluntary and legally valid Nurse's Role = Witnessing the signature and clarifying information</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is NOT a requirement for the validation of consent?

    <p>Patient must be a legal resident of the state</p> Signup and view all the answers

    A surgeon is required to explain the benefits and risks of a procedure before obtaining informed consent.

    <p>True</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the main responsibility of a surgeon regarding informed consent?

    <p>To explain benefits, risks, and alternatives clearly to the patient.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Study Notes

    Preoperative Phase

    • Begins upon decision for surgical intervention.
    • Ends when the patient is transferred to the operating table.
    • General consent is required from the patient or their legal guardian upon admission.
    • Allows healthcare team to provide routine care and treatment.
    • Informed Consent: A process involving explanation of benefits, risks, alternative therapies, and potential complications by the surgeon.
    • Nurse's role includes witnessing signature and clarifying information provided to the patient.
    • Validation of Consent: Must be voluntary, informed, from a legally competent individual (18+), and conducted before anesthesia or surgery.

    Stages of General Anesthesia

    • Stage I: Beginning/Induction: From anesthetic administration to loss of consciousness; nursing care includes maintaining a calm environment.
    • Stage II: Excitement: Loss of consciousness to relaxation; patient may react to stimuli; nursing care involves monitoring and being ready to assist.
    • Stage III: Surgical Anesthesia: Relaxation to near total reflex loss; surgery begins; nursing responsibilities include positioning and preparing the patient.
    • Stage IV: Danger: Excess anesthesia leading to respiratory and cardiac failure; nursing intervention includes discontinuing anesthesia and preparing for resuscitation.

    Objectives of General Anesthesia

    • Oxygenation, unconsciousness, analgesia, muscle relaxation, and control of autonomic reflexes.

    Regional Anesthesia

    • Nerve Block Examples: Paravertebral, radial, ulnar, brachial plexus, and penile blocks.
    • Spinal Anesthesia: Injection at the subarachnoid space, typically between L4-5; rapid onset (2-5 minutes).
    • Epidural Anesthesia: Injection at the epidural space; slower onset (15-20 minutes) and prolonged effects.

    Administration Techniques

    • Spinal: CSF absorption indicates correct placement; rapid effect due to proximity to central nervous system.
    • Epidural: Based on loss of resistance technique; catheter can remain in place post-procedure for pain management.

    Positioning the Client for Surgery

    • Purpose of the position should be explained to the patient.
    • Ensure no undue pressure on body parts and proper body alignment.
    • Use straps to prevent falls and maintain adequate respiratory and circulatory functions.

    Types of Surgical Positions

    • Supine Position: Recommended for mastectomy, herniorrhaphy, and abdominal surgeries.
    • Lithotomy Position: Supine with legs flexed; used for D&C and vaginal procedures.
    • Trendelenburg Position: Head-down tilt; often used in abdominal and gynecological surgery.

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    Description

    This quiz focuses on the essential aspects of preoperative care, outlining the process from surgical decision-making to the transfer to the operating table. It is crucial for healthcare professionals to understand these key stages to ensure patient safety and readiness for surgery.

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