Platelet Activation and Hypersensitivity
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Questions and Answers

Which receptor is responsible for ADP-mediated platelet activation?

  • TXA2
  • GpIb
  • P2Y12 (correct)
  • GpIIb/IIIa

What is the primary function of the GpIIb/IIIa receptor?

  • Facilitating platelet adhesion to collagen
  • Initiating the arachidonic acid pathway
  • Binding to von Willebrand factor
  • Promoting platelet aggregation via fibrinogen (correct)

Bernard-Soulier syndrome is caused by a deficiency in which receptor?

  • TXA2
  • GpIIb/IIIa
  • GpIb (correct)
  • P2Y12

Glanzmann thrombasthenia is associated with a deficiency in which of the following?

<p>GpIIb/IIIa (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following drugs inhibits platelet aggregation by blocking the GpIIb/IIIa receptor?

<p>Abciximab (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Aspirin's antiplatelet effect is primarily mediated through the inhibition of which enzyme?

<p>Cyclooxygenase (COX) (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does Ristocetin induce platelet agglutination?

<p>By modifying von Willebrand factor to bind GpIb (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient's lab results show a prolonged Prothrombin Time (PT). Which factor deficiency would NOT explain this result?

<p>Factor VIII (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT typically associated with the granules of basophils?

<p>Tryptase (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Cromolyn sodium is used for asthma prophylaxis because it prevents which of the following?

<p>Mast cell degranulation (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which cell type is most directly involved in type I hypersensitivity reactions?

<p>Mast cells (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient presents with flushing, pruritus, and hypotension. Elevated serum tryptase levels are noted. Which condition is most likely?

<p>Mastocytosis (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following mediators is preformed and released from mast cells during degranulation?

<p>Histamine (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following can elicit mast cell degranulation independent of IgE?

<p>Vancomycin (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary functional distinction between B cells and Natural Killer (NK) cells?

<p>NK cells are part of the innate immune system, while B cells mediate adaptive immunity. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A researcher is investigating the role of eosinophils in a novel immune response. They observe increased levels of a protein that is toxic to helminths and also has neurotoxic properties. Which of the following proteins are they most likely observing?

<p>Eosinophil cationic protein (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which cellular component is MOST abundant in a cell with a "clock-face" chromatin distribution and eccentric nucleus?

<p>Rough endoplasmic reticulum (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Under normal physiological conditions, where are cells with "clock-face" chromatin distribution primarily located?

<p>Bone marrow (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During hemoglobin electrophoresis, which type of hemoglobin migrates the farthest toward the anode?

<p>HbA (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following statements BEST describes the charge of HbS compared to HbA, and provides an accurate explanation?

<p>HbS is more positively charged than HbA due to the replacement of glutamic acid with valine. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient's hemoglobin electrophoresis shows a significant presence of HbF. Which condition is MOST likely indicated by this finding?

<p>Normal newborn (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why does HbC migrate differently from HbA during electrophoresis?

<p>HbC has a different charge than HbA. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A researcher observes that a particular hemoglobin variant migrates slower towards the anode compared to HbA, HbF, HbS and HbC during electrophoresis. What can be inferred about the charge of this variant relative to the others?

<p>It has an overall more positive charge than HbC. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Compared to HbA, estimate the net charge of a theoretical hemoglobin variant where two glutamic acid residues are replaced by two aspartic acid residues, and one lysine is replaced by arginine. (Acidic amino acids: Aspartic acid, Glutamic acid. Basic amino acids: Arginine, Lysine).

<p>The variant has the same net charge as HbA. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary difference in the typical patient populations affected by thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP) and hemolytic-uremic syndrome (HUS)?

<p>TTP typically affects females, while HUS predominantly affects children. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the main underlying mechanism in thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP) that leads to the observed thrombotic events?

<p>Inhibition or deficiency of ADAMTS13, resulting in the accumulation of large von Willebrand factor multimers. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient presents with thrombocytopenia, microangiopathic hemolytic anemia, and acute kidney injury. Which additional symptom would be most indicative of thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP) rather than hemolytic-uremic syndrome (HUS)?

<p>Fever and neurologic symptoms (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In differentiating between thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP), hemolytic-uremic syndrome (HUS), and disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), which laboratory finding is most useful?

<p>Prothrombin time (PT) and partial thromboplastin time (PTT) (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 25-year-old female is suspected of having thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP). Initial labs confirm the presence of thrombocytopenia and microangiopathic hemolytic anemia. Which of the following therapeutic interventions directly addresses the underlying pathophysiology of TTP?

<p>Plasma exchange with fresh frozen plasma (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In a patient with Vitamin K deficiency, what would be the expected activity of coagulation factors?

<p>Decreased activity of factors II, VII, IX, X, protein C, and protein S. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following platelet disorders is characterized by a defect in platelet-to-vWF adhesion?

<p>Bernard-Soulier syndrome (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient's blood smear shows no platelet clumping. Which platelet disorder does this suggest?

<p>Glanzmann thrombasthenia (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary mechanism behind the decreased platelet count in immune thrombocytopenia (ITP)?

<p>Antibody-mediated destruction of platelets by splenic macrophages. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following treatments is LEAST likely to be used in the initial management of immune thrombocytopenia (ITP)?

<p>Splenectomy (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with renal failure exhibits increased bleeding time and normal platelet count. Which mechanism BEST explains this?

<p>Uremic toxins interfering with platelet adhesion and function. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During embryonic development, which site is primarily responsible for erythropoiesis (red blood cell production)?

<p>Yolk sac (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient presents with microhemorrhages and mucous membrane bleeding, but has normal PT, PTT, and fibrinogen levels. Which condition is MOST likely?

<p>Thrombotic microangiopathy (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A researcher is investigating novel therapies for Glanzmann thrombasthenia. Which of the following targets would be MOST promising for restoring platelet aggregation?

<p>Creating a functional mimetic of GpIIb/IIIa that can bind fibrinogen. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which globin chain is characteristic of fetal hemoglobin (HbF)?

<p>Gamma (γ) (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the predominant type of antibody present in the plasma of a person with blood type A?

<p>Anti-B (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

An individual with blood type O can receive red blood cells from which blood type(s)?

<p>O (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What type of antibody is primarily associated with Rh incompatibility and hemolytic disease of the fetus?

<p>IgG (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During which period of development is the epsilon (ε) globin chain most actively synthesized?

<p>Embryo (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which blood type is considered the universal recipient of red blood cells?

<p>AB (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the clinical consequence of a Rh-negative mother carrying a Rh-positive fetus, where Rh incompatibility is not managed?

<p>The fetus may develop erythroblastosis fetalis. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

After birth, what is the approximate percentage of embryonic globins ($\zeta$ and $\epsilon$) in total globin synthesis in a healthy individual?

<p>Approximately 0% (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A researcher discovers a novel mutation leading to the persistent expression of the $\epsilon$ globin chain in adults, at levels comparable to those seen during embryonic development. Assuming no compensatory mechanisms, which of the following hematological abnormalities would be the MOST likely direct consequence of this mutation?

<p>Impaired erythropoiesis due to disruption of the normal globin switching process, potentially leading to anemia. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

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Flashcards

TTP Pathophysiology

Inhibition/deficiency of ADAMTS13, leading to large vWF multimers causing platelet adhesion & aggregation.

HUS Pathophysiology

Shiga toxin-producing E. coli (STEC) infection, causing endothelial dysfunction and microthrombi formation.

TTP/HUS Triad

Thrombocytopenia, microangiopathic hemolytic anemia (MAHA), and acute kidney injury.

TTP Presentation

Thrombocytopenia, microangiopathic hemolytic anemia (MAHA), acute kidney injury, fever, and neurological symptoms.

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HUS Presentation

Thrombocytopenia, microangiopathic hemolytic anemia (MAHA), acute kidney injury and bloody diarrhea.

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Chronic Adrenal Insufficiency

Lack of sufficient hormone production by the adrenal glands.

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Eosinophil Function

Produce histaminase, major basic protein (MBP), eosinophil peroxidase, eosinophil cationic protein, and eosinophil-derived neurotoxin.

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Myeloproliferative Disorders

Disorders involving abnormal proliferation of cells in the bone marrow.

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Eosinophilia Causes

Can be triggered by allergic processes, neoplasia (Hodgkin lymphoma), or eosinophilic granulomatosis with polyangiitis.

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Basophil Function

Mediate allergic reactions. Granules contain heparin and histamine; also synthesize leukotrienes.

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Mast Cell Function

Mediate local tissue allergic reactions; bind IgE. Release histamine, heparin, tryptase & eosinophil chemotactic factors

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Lymphocytes

B cells, T cells and Natural Killer cells. B and T cells mediate adaptive immunity. NK cells are part of the innate immune response.

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Natural Killer (NK) Cells

Important in innate immunity, especially against intracellular pathogens.

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“Clock-face” chromatin distribution

Characterized by a specific pattern of chromatin distribution resembling a clock face, an eccentrically positioned nucleus, abundant rough endoplasmic reticulum (RER), and a well-developed Golgi apparatus.

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Hemoglobin electrophoresis

A lab technique that separates hemoglobins based on their charge and size as they move through a gel.

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HbA

Normal adult hemoglobin; migrates farthest towards the positive anode during electrophoresis.

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HbF

Normal newborn hemoglobin; migrates further than HbS and HbC, but not as far as HbA.

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HbS

Hemoglobin associated with sickle cell trait and disease; migrates slower than HbA due to a neutral valine substitution for negatively charged glutamic acid.

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HbC

Hemoglobin variant; migrates slower than HbA and HbS because of lysine (positive) replaces glutamic acid (negative).

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Sickle cell trait (AS)

Condition where both normal HbA and sickle cell HbS are present.

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Sickle cell disease (SS)

Condition where only sickle cell HbS is present.

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Factor Concentrates

Used to treat coagulation defects, depending on the specific factor deficiency (VIII, IX, XI).

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Vitamin K Deficiency

General coagulation defect, affects factors II, VII, IX, X, protein C, and protein S. Bleeding time normal.

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Increased Bleeding Time (BT)

All platelet disorders typically share this symptom, accompanied by mucous membrane bleeding and microhemorrhages.

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Bernard-Soulier Syndrome

Rare autosomal recessive defect impairs platelet adhesion, specifically lacking GpIb, preventing platelet-to-vWF binding. Characterized by abnormally large platelets.

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Glanzmann Thrombasthenia

Autosomal recessive defect impairs platelet aggregation due to a deficiency in GpIIb/IIIa (integrin αIIbβ3). Blood smear shows no platelet clumping.

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Immune Thrombocytopenia (ITP)

Platelet destruction in the spleen mediated by anti-GpIIb/IIIa antibodies, leading to splenic macrophage phagocytosis of platelets.

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Uremic Platelet Dysfunction

Accumulation of uremic toxins in renal failure patients impairs platelet adhesion causing dysfunction.

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Thrombotic Microangiopathies

These disorders may resemble DIC but lack the consumptive coagulopathy lab findings. Etiology does not involve widespread clotting factor activation.

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Platelet Adhesion

Platelet adhesion to subendothelial collagen is mediated by von Willebrand factor (vWF) binding to platelet GpIb receptor.

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Platelet Activation (ADP related)

Platelet activation is triggered by ADP binding to its P2Y12 Receptor

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Platelet Aggregation

Platelet aggregation is the binding of platelets to each other via fibrinogen.

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GpIIb/IIIa Function

GpIIb/IIIa receptors facilitate platelet aggregation by binding to fibrinogen.

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TXA2 Role

TXA2 is a pro-aggregation factor produced from arachidonic acid by COX.

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PT Test

PT monitors the extrinsic and common pathways of coagulation.

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PTT Test

PTT monitors the intrinsic and common pathways of coagulation.

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Erythropoiesis Site Changes

Site of erythropoiesis shifts during development from yolk sac to liver/spleen, and finally to bone marrow.

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Embryonic Hemoglobin

Embryonic hemoglobins include Gower 1, Gower 2, and Portland, containing zeta (ζ) and epsilon (ε) chains.

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Fetal Hemoglobin (HbF)

Fetal hemoglobin (HbF) is composed of α and γ globin chains. Has higher affinity for oxygen. Predominant from mid-fetal life until shortly after birth.

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Adult Hemoglobin (HbA)

Adult hemoglobin (HbA) is composed of α and β globin chains, and becomes predominant after birth.

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Adult Hemoglobin (HbA2)

Adult hemoglobin A2 (HbA2): α and δ chains. Present in small percentage in adults.

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Blood Type Determination

Blood type is determined by antigens present on RBC surface.

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Type A Blood

Type A blood has A antigens on RBCs and anti-B antibodies in plasma.

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Type B Blood

Type B blood has B antigens on RBCs and anti-A antibodies in plasma.

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Type AB Blood

Type AB blood has both A and B antigens on RBCs and no antibodies in plasma.

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Type O Blood

Type O blood has no antigens on RBCs and both anti-A and anti-B antibodies in plasma.

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Study Notes

Hematology and Oncology

  • Immunology is closely linked to hematology.
  • Types of anemias should be mastered.
  • Blood smears should be interpreted with ease.
  • Focus on mechanisms and adverse effects of oncologic drugs instead of clinical uses.
  • Solid tumors are covered in their respective organ system chapters.

Fetal Erythropoiesis

  • In the yolk sac, fetal erythropoiesis occurs during weeks 3–8.
  • Occurs in the liver from 6 weeks until birth.
  • Spleen: happens between 10–28 weeks.
  • Bone marrow handles it from week 18 until adulthood.
  • Young livers produce blood.

Hemoglobin Development

  • Embryonic hemoglobins: ζ and ɛ.
  • HbF (Fetal hemoglobin) = α2γ2.
  • Adult hemoglobin (HbA₁) = α2β2.
  • HbF has a higher affinity for O₂.
  • There is less avid binding of 2,3-BPG.
  • Oxygen can be extracted from maternal hemoglobin (HbA₁ and HbA₂) across placenta.
  • HbA₂ (α₂δ₂) is a form of adult hemoglobin, but only a small amount is present.
  • Alpha is constant between fetal and adult forms, gamma becomes beta.

Blood Groups

  • Blood groups are classified by ABO classification.
  • Blood groups are classified by Rh classification.
  • The antigens on RBC surface are A, B, A&B, or NONE.
  • The antibodies are Anti-B, Anti-A, Anti-A and Anti-B, or None, or Anti-D
  • Compatible RBC types to receive: A and O can receive from A, B, and O can receive from B, AB, A, B, and O can receive from AB, and O can only receive from O
  • Rh + can receive from Rh
  • To donate to: A can donate to A and AB, B can donate to B and AB, AB can only donate AB, O can to AB, A, B, and O
  • Rh⊕ can donate to Rh⊕ and Rh- can donate to Rh

Hemolytic Disease

  • Hemolytic disease: erythroblastosis fetalis
  • Rh hemolytic happens from Rh negative pregnant patients with a Rh positive fetus.
  • Patient exposed to fetal blood first pregnancy and maternal anti-D IgG forms often during delivery
  • Subesquent pregnancies: hemolysis occurs from Anti-D IgG crossing placenta and attacking fetal and newborn RBCs .
  • Results in hydrops fetalis, jaundice shortly after birth, and kernicterus
  • Given by administration of anti-D IgG to prevent treatment, and is given in the third trimester during pregnancy as well as the early postpartum if the fetus is Rh positive.

ABO hemolytic disease

  • Type O pregnant patient; type A or B fetus.
  • Preexisting pregnant patient anti-A and/or anti-B IgG antibodies cross the placenta.
  • Antibodies attack fetal and newborn RBCs → hemolysis.
  • Causes mild jaundice in the neonate within 24 hours of birth. and can occur in first born unlike Rh hemolytic disease
  • Phototherapy or exchange transfusions

Hematopoiesis

  • Hematopoiesis: The process of forming blood cells from the multipotent stem cell which differentiates into both myeloid stem cells and lymphoid stem cells
  • Erythropoiesis: the development of erythrocytes from erythroblasts
  • Thrombopoiesis: the development of thrombocytes from megakaryoblasts
  • Granulocytopoiesis: the development of granulocytes from myelobasts ending in the granulocytes, eosinophils, basophils, and neutrophils
  • Monocytopoiesis: the development of monocites from monoblasts
  • Lymphopoiesis: the development of lymphocytes from lymphoblasts including B cells, T cells, NK cells, Plasma cells, T-helper cells, T-cytotoxic cells

Neutrophils

  • Neutrophils: Phagocytic, acute inflammatory response cells.
  • Specific granules contain leukocyte alkaline phosphatase (LAP), collagenase, lysozyme, and lactoferrin.
  • Azurophilic granules (lysosomes) contain proteinases, acid phosphatase, myeloperoxidase, and ẞ-glucuronidase.
  • Inflammatory states cause neutrophilia and changes in neutrophil morphology, like left shift, toxic granulation, Döhle bodies, and cytoplasmic vacuoles.
  • Chemoattractants for neutrophils are C5a, IL-8, LTB4, 5-HETE, kallikrein, platelet-activating factor, and N-formylmethionine (bacterial proteins).
  • Hypersegmented neutrophils (nucleus has 6+ lobes): vitamin B₁₂/folate deficiency.
  • Left shift: ↑ neutrophil precursors (eg, band cells, metamyelocytes) in peripheral blood, which results in states of ↑ myeloid proliferation like inflammation, CML)
  • Leukoerythroblastic reaction: left shift and immature RBCs, implying bone marrow infiltration (eg, myelofibrosis, metastasis).

Erythrocytes

  • They carry oxygen and carbon dioxide.
  • Anucleate and lack organelles. Biconcave.
  • Large surface area-to-volume ratio.
  • Life span of ~120 days (adults) or 60-90 days (neonates).
  • Energy source: glucose (90% glycolysis, 10% HMP shunt).
  • Membranes contain Cl-/HCO₃ antiporter.
  • Allows RBCs to export HCO₃.
  • Allows RBCs transport CO₂ from periphery to lungs.
  • Erythro = red and cyte = cell.
  • Erythrocytosis = polycythemia = ↑ Hct.
  • Anisocytosis: varying sizes.
  • Poikilocytosis: varying shapes.
  • Reticulocyte: immature RBC, reflects erythroid proliferation.
  • Bluish color (polychromasia) via Wright-Giemsa stain signifies leftover ribosomal RNA.

Platelets (Thrombocytes)

  • Involved in 1º hemostasis.
  • Anucleate, small cytoplasmic fragments are derived from megakaryocytes.
  • Platelet lifespan is 8–10 days When endothelial injury activates, aggregate with other platelets and interact with fibrinogen to form platelet plug.
  • Contain dense granules (Ca²⁺, ADP, Serotonin, Histamine) and α granules (vWF, fibrinogen, fibronectin, platelet factor 4).
  • Roughly 1/3 of platelet pool is stored in the spleen.
  • Thrombocytopenia or platelet function = petechiae.
  • For vWF, Receptor: GpIb.
  • For Fibrinogen, Receptor: GpIIb/IIIa.
  • Thrombopoietin stimulates megakaryocyte proliferation.
  • Alfa granules contain vWF, fibrinogen, fibronectin, platelet factor four

Monocytes

  • In the blood and differentiate into macrophages in tissues.
  • Large and kidney-shaped.
  • Has an abundance of frosted glass cytoplasm.
  • Mono = one / nucleus; cyte = cell

Macrophages

  • A type of antigen-presenting cell.
  • Phagocytose bacteria, cellular debris, and senescent RBCs.
  • Activated by IFN-γ.
  • Act as antigen-presenting cell via MHC II
  • Engage in antibody-dependent cellular cytotoxicity.
  • Cellular components of granulomas.
  • May fuse to form giant cells.
  • macro = large
  • phage = eater
  • Lipid A binds CD14 on macrophages.

Dendritic Cells

  • Highly phagocytic antigen-presenting cells (APCs), and the link between innate and adaptive immune systems.
  • Express MHC class II and Fc receptors on surface.
  • Can present exogenous antigens on MHC class I.
  • Important for cross-presentation

Eosinophils

  • Defend against helminthic infections (major basic protein).
  • Have a bilobate nucleus.
  • Packed with large eosinophilic granules of uniform size.
  • Produce histaminase, major basic protein (MBP, a helminthotoxin), eosinophil peroxidase, eosinophil cationic protein, and eosinophil-derived neurotoxin.
  • Eosin = pink dye, philic = loving. and parasitic infections

Causes for Eosinophilia include PACMAN Eats

  • Parasites
  • Asthma
  • Chronic adrenal insufficiency
  • Myeloproliferative disorders
  • Allergic processes
  • Neoplasia like Hodgkin Lymphoma and related granulomatosis

Basophils

  • They mediate allergic reaction.
  • Contain heparin (anticoagulant) and histamine (vasodilator).
  • Basophilic-stains readily with basic stains and rare

Mast Cells

  • Mediate allergic reaction in local tissue.
  • Contain basophilic granules.
  • Originate from same precursor as basophils, but are not the same cell type.
  • Can bind the Fc portion of IgE to membrane.
  • Activation from tissue trauma, C3a and C5a, surface IgE cross-linking by antigen
  • Leads to degranulation and release of histamine, heparin, tryptase, eosinophil chemotactic factors.
  • Cromolyn sodium Prevents mast cell degranulation (asthma prophylaxis)

Lymphocytes

  • B cells, T cells, and natural killer (NK) cells
  • B cells and T cells mediate adaptive immunity
  • NK cells are part of the innate immune response.
  • Staining nucleus and cytoplasm.

Natural Killer Cells

  • NK cells especially important in the innate immune response
  • larger than B and T cells, with distinctive cytoplasmic lytic granules (containing perforin and granzymes) NK cells induce apoptosis (natural killer) in cells lacking class I MHC, like virally infected where the molecules are downregulated.

B Cells

  • Mediate a humoral immune response.
  • Originate from stem cells in bone marrow and mature there.
  • Migrate to peripheral lymphoid tissue.
  • When antigen is encountered = Antibodies + memory cells.
  • Function as APC
  • Can differentiate into plasma cells

T Cells

  • Mediate cellular immune response.
  • Originate in bone marrow, mature in thymus.
  • Differentiate to cytotoxic T cells(MHC I), helper T cells(MHC II), regulatory T cells. Costimulatory needed Most circulating lymphocytes are T cells.
  • T = thymus
  • CD4+ helper T cells: primary target of HIV

Plasma Cells

  • Produce great amounts of antibody for all antigens.
  • eccentric nucleus, abundant RER and well-developed Golgi
  • In bone marrow but no circulation in peripheral blood

Hemoglobin Electrophoresis

  • Detect abnormal hemoglobins
  • During gel electrophoresis, hemoglobin migrates from the negatively charged cathode to the positively charged anode.
  • The missense mutations in HbS replaces glutamic acid with valine (neutral) and in HbC replaces glutamic acid with lysine +

The rate of migration is as follows

  • HbA migrates the farthest, followed by HbF, HbS, and HbC.
  • A Fat Santa Claus can't go far.

Antiglobulin Test

  • Coombs test
  • Detects the presence of antibodies vs circulating RBCs.
  • Direct antiglobulin test: anti-human globulin (Coombs reagent) added to patient's RBCs and will agglutinate with with anti-RBC Abs for AIHA diagnosis
  • Can identify AlHA from RBCs via direct test
  • Indirect antiglobulin test: normal RBCs added to patient's serum, presence of serum will be the addition Anti-RBCs with Coombs reagent

Platelet Plug Formation (primary hemostasis)

  • Temporary plug stops bleeding, unstable, and will easily be eroded
  • In coagulation cascade after secondary hemostasis
  • There is both tissue injury and damage
  • Transient Vasoconstriction occurs and then there is platelet adhesion after exposure
  • Platelets undergo change that have fibrinogen and binds
  • Coagulation cascade begins with Von Willebrand binding
  • Pro and anti aggregation factors occur

Thrombogenesis

  • It creates a fibrin mesh insoluble to stop formation and inhibit TXA2
  • If not Von Willebrand then desmopressin
  • Gpllb deficiency vs Gpllla insertion of fibrinogen and platelet coagulation
  • Von Willebrand carries and protects VIII
  • VWF caries and protects factor VIII
  • Factors made gr8 cars (volksWagen)

Coagulation and Kinin Pathways

  • The intrinsic and common pathway are monitored by PT, reflecting activity of factors 1, II, V, VII, and X as 13
  • PTT reflects activity of factors except VII and XIII during common pathways
  • C1 esterase inhibitor is hereditary angioedema

Vitamin K-Dependent Coagulopathy

  • Procoagulation activates reduction Vitamin K that carboxylates factors involved in procoagulation
  • When reduced, there will be Y and carboxyglutamic acid (Vitamin dependent)
  • Anti-procoagulation does the inverse
  • Warfarin inhibits and Vitamin K is depleted
  • Heparin enhances antithrombin action

Red Blood Cell Morphology Review

  • Acanthocytes: spur cells in liver diesase
  • Echinocytes: burr cells
  • Dacrocytes: Teardrop cells due to bone marrow
  • Schistocytes: Fragmented Helmet
  • Degmacytes: Bite cells
  • Elliptocytes: Hereditary

Red Blood Cell Morphology Review Continued

  • Spherocytes: Without central pallor
  • Macro ovalocytes:
  • target cells: Halt
  • Sickle cells for sickle cell anemia

RBC Inclusions

  • Bone marrow iron granules
  • basophilic stippling
  • howell jolly bodies
  • Hinz bodies

Anemias

  • Microcytic: MCH less than
  • Normocytic: MCH 80-100
  • Macrocytic: MCH greater than 100
  • There is no defective goblin chain
  • Iron deficiency is major

Microcytic Hypochromic Anemias

  • MCV < 80 fL due to malnutrition, absorption disorders, and lead poisoning
  • Can result in fatigue, the Plummer vision syndrome, Spoon nails and glossitis if extreme
  • A Thalassemia can be a silent carrier if not fatal

Microcytic, hypochromic anemias (continued)

  • Beta globin synthesis requires chromosome 11 with defects that create synthesis
  • Symptoms include anemia, cells being targeted, and other globin chains causing sickness
  • Lead inhibits ALAD and causes synthesis

Macrocytic Anemias

  • Impairs both the nucleus and cytoplasm
  • Vitamin deficiency, and medications (eg, hydroxyurea, phenytoin, methotrexate, sulfa drugs)
  • Folate vs cobalamin
  • Orotic aciduria
  • Non Megaloblastic Anemia

Normocytic, Normochromic Anemias

  • Blood vessels carry intrinsic and extravascular
  • Anemia or chronic diseases
  • Aplastic crisis which is when volume is reduced from radiation

Intrinsic Hemolytic Anemias

  • Hereditary is a cause of spherocytosis
  • paroxysmal nocturnal from stemcell
  • G6PD deficiency with oxidative stress
  • sickel cell is abnormal, and HbC has has hemolysis due to its acid form

Extrinsic Hemolytic Anemias

  • auto immune caused drug induced problems
  • TTP, DIC, and others of RBCS become damaged
  • infections from parasites

Leukopenias from Neutropenia

  • Reduced count from Sepsis, drugs, radiation/genetics
  • Lymphopenia reduced from Di George, AIDS and radiation
  • Eosinopenia from glucocorticoids

Heme Synthesis

  • Acute and chronic lead poisoning
  • Porphobilinogen =ALA

Lead Poisioning

  • Ferrochelatase and aminolevulinate leads to substrate buildup and the rest of porphyrins
  • Can cause anemia, GI issues, mental deteroriation and peripheral neuropathy.
  • Chelation is best for treatment,
  • Most high in old houses as a occupational risk and to children

Hemophilia

  • Involves bleeding after trauma or surgery which includes the easy bruising to joint areas
  • General coagulation defects and the bleeding is normal
  • This is mostly from vitamin deificiancy from factors and protein S
  • bleeding

Platelet Disorders

  • Platelet Disorders often cause microhemorhages that can lead to bleeding time
  • Bernard-Soulier is reduced at Gplb and is autosomally recessive with Big Platelets and is reduces VWF
  • Glanzmann causes autsomal reduction
  • thrombocytopenia causes increased destruction by Macrophages , with increased megakarocytes
  • uermic dysfuction has increased toxins

Mixed ThromboPhilias

  • Von willebrand
  • Disseminated

Polycythemia

  • Relative, appropriate absolute, and Inappropriate
  • In relative there is red cell mass in polycythemia vera

Chromosomal Translocations

  • The Ig heavy chain genes on chromosome 14 are constitutively expressed.
  • When other genes (eg, c-myc and BCL-2) are translocated
  • next to this heavy chain gene region, they are
  • overexpressed.

Cancer

  • Treatment comes with a variety of agents
  • Cancer therapy cell cylce is always in interphase

Key Chemotoxicities

  • Cisplatin is ototoxic
  • Vincristine, vinca alloids cause paresthesia neuropathies
  • Bleomycin and Busulfan cause pulmonary fibrosis, due to free radical
  • DOXOs, ruby/anthracyclines cause cardiotoxicity
  • Trastuzumab affects HRT2,

Nonspecific common toxicities of cytotoxic chemos

  • Immunosupression Neutropenia
  • Anemia
  • Thrombocytopenida
  • G.I effects, Nausea , vomitting, mucositis , and Alopecia.

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Explore platelet activation pathways, receptor functions (ADP, GpIIb/IIIa), and related disorders like Bernard-Soulier syndrome and Glanzmann thrombasthenia. Understand drug mechanisms (aspirin) and hypersensitivity reactions involving basophils and mast cells.

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