Podcast
Questions and Answers
Which receptor is responsible for ADP-mediated platelet activation?
Which receptor is responsible for ADP-mediated platelet activation?
- TXA2
- GpIb
- P2Y12 (correct)
- GpIIb/IIIa
What is the primary function of the GpIIb/IIIa receptor?
What is the primary function of the GpIIb/IIIa receptor?
- Facilitating platelet adhesion to collagen
- Initiating the arachidonic acid pathway
- Binding to von Willebrand factor
- Promoting platelet aggregation via fibrinogen (correct)
Bernard-Soulier syndrome is caused by a deficiency in which receptor?
Bernard-Soulier syndrome is caused by a deficiency in which receptor?
- TXA2
- GpIIb/IIIa
- GpIb (correct)
- P2Y12
Glanzmann thrombasthenia is associated with a deficiency in which of the following?
Glanzmann thrombasthenia is associated with a deficiency in which of the following?
Which of the following drugs inhibits platelet aggregation by blocking the GpIIb/IIIa receptor?
Which of the following drugs inhibits platelet aggregation by blocking the GpIIb/IIIa receptor?
Aspirin's antiplatelet effect is primarily mediated through the inhibition of which enzyme?
Aspirin's antiplatelet effect is primarily mediated through the inhibition of which enzyme?
How does Ristocetin induce platelet agglutination?
How does Ristocetin induce platelet agglutination?
A patient's lab results show a prolonged Prothrombin Time (PT). Which factor deficiency would NOT explain this result?
A patient's lab results show a prolonged Prothrombin Time (PT). Which factor deficiency would NOT explain this result?
Which of the following is NOT typically associated with the granules of basophils?
Which of the following is NOT typically associated with the granules of basophils?
Cromolyn sodium is used for asthma prophylaxis because it prevents which of the following?
Cromolyn sodium is used for asthma prophylaxis because it prevents which of the following?
Which cell type is most directly involved in type I hypersensitivity reactions?
Which cell type is most directly involved in type I hypersensitivity reactions?
A patient presents with flushing, pruritus, and hypotension. Elevated serum tryptase levels are noted. Which condition is most likely?
A patient presents with flushing, pruritus, and hypotension. Elevated serum tryptase levels are noted. Which condition is most likely?
Which of the following mediators is preformed and released from mast cells during degranulation?
Which of the following mediators is preformed and released from mast cells during degranulation?
Which of the following can elicit mast cell degranulation independent of IgE?
Which of the following can elicit mast cell degranulation independent of IgE?
What is the primary functional distinction between B cells and Natural Killer (NK) cells?
What is the primary functional distinction between B cells and Natural Killer (NK) cells?
A researcher is investigating the role of eosinophils in a novel immune response. They observe increased levels of a protein that is toxic to helminths and also has neurotoxic properties. Which of the following proteins are they most likely observing?
A researcher is investigating the role of eosinophils in a novel immune response. They observe increased levels of a protein that is toxic to helminths and also has neurotoxic properties. Which of the following proteins are they most likely observing?
Which cellular component is MOST abundant in a cell with a "clock-face" chromatin distribution and eccentric nucleus?
Which cellular component is MOST abundant in a cell with a "clock-face" chromatin distribution and eccentric nucleus?
Under normal physiological conditions, where are cells with "clock-face" chromatin distribution primarily located?
Under normal physiological conditions, where are cells with "clock-face" chromatin distribution primarily located?
During hemoglobin electrophoresis, which type of hemoglobin migrates the farthest toward the anode?
During hemoglobin electrophoresis, which type of hemoglobin migrates the farthest toward the anode?
Which of the following statements BEST describes the charge of HbS compared to HbA, and provides an accurate explanation?
Which of the following statements BEST describes the charge of HbS compared to HbA, and provides an accurate explanation?
A patient's hemoglobin electrophoresis shows a significant presence of HbF. Which condition is MOST likely indicated by this finding?
A patient's hemoglobin electrophoresis shows a significant presence of HbF. Which condition is MOST likely indicated by this finding?
Why does HbC migrate differently from HbA during electrophoresis?
Why does HbC migrate differently from HbA during electrophoresis?
A researcher observes that a particular hemoglobin variant migrates slower towards the anode compared to HbA, HbF, HbS and HbC during electrophoresis. What can be inferred about the charge of this variant relative to the others?
A researcher observes that a particular hemoglobin variant migrates slower towards the anode compared to HbA, HbF, HbS and HbC during electrophoresis. What can be inferred about the charge of this variant relative to the others?
Compared to HbA, estimate the net charge of a theoretical hemoglobin variant where two glutamic acid residues are replaced by two aspartic acid residues, and one lysine is replaced by arginine. (Acidic amino acids: Aspartic acid, Glutamic acid. Basic amino acids: Arginine, Lysine).
Compared to HbA, estimate the net charge of a theoretical hemoglobin variant where two glutamic acid residues are replaced by two aspartic acid residues, and one lysine is replaced by arginine. (Acidic amino acids: Aspartic acid, Glutamic acid. Basic amino acids: Arginine, Lysine).
What is the primary difference in the typical patient populations affected by thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP) and hemolytic-uremic syndrome (HUS)?
What is the primary difference in the typical patient populations affected by thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP) and hemolytic-uremic syndrome (HUS)?
What is the main underlying mechanism in thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP) that leads to the observed thrombotic events?
What is the main underlying mechanism in thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP) that leads to the observed thrombotic events?
A patient presents with thrombocytopenia, microangiopathic hemolytic anemia, and acute kidney injury. Which additional symptom would be most indicative of thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP) rather than hemolytic-uremic syndrome (HUS)?
A patient presents with thrombocytopenia, microangiopathic hemolytic anemia, and acute kidney injury. Which additional symptom would be most indicative of thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP) rather than hemolytic-uremic syndrome (HUS)?
In differentiating between thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP), hemolytic-uremic syndrome (HUS), and disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), which laboratory finding is most useful?
In differentiating between thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP), hemolytic-uremic syndrome (HUS), and disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), which laboratory finding is most useful?
A 25-year-old female is suspected of having thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP). Initial labs confirm the presence of thrombocytopenia and microangiopathic hemolytic anemia. Which of the following therapeutic interventions directly addresses the underlying pathophysiology of TTP?
A 25-year-old female is suspected of having thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP). Initial labs confirm the presence of thrombocytopenia and microangiopathic hemolytic anemia. Which of the following therapeutic interventions directly addresses the underlying pathophysiology of TTP?
In a patient with Vitamin K deficiency, what would be the expected activity of coagulation factors?
In a patient with Vitamin K deficiency, what would be the expected activity of coagulation factors?
Which of the following platelet disorders is characterized by a defect in platelet-to-vWF adhesion?
Which of the following platelet disorders is characterized by a defect in platelet-to-vWF adhesion?
A patient's blood smear shows no platelet clumping. Which platelet disorder does this suggest?
A patient's blood smear shows no platelet clumping. Which platelet disorder does this suggest?
What is the primary mechanism behind the decreased platelet count in immune thrombocytopenia (ITP)?
What is the primary mechanism behind the decreased platelet count in immune thrombocytopenia (ITP)?
Which of the following treatments is LEAST likely to be used in the initial management of immune thrombocytopenia (ITP)?
Which of the following treatments is LEAST likely to be used in the initial management of immune thrombocytopenia (ITP)?
A patient with renal failure exhibits increased bleeding time and normal platelet count. Which mechanism BEST explains this?
A patient with renal failure exhibits increased bleeding time and normal platelet count. Which mechanism BEST explains this?
During embryonic development, which site is primarily responsible for erythropoiesis (red blood cell production)?
During embryonic development, which site is primarily responsible for erythropoiesis (red blood cell production)?
A patient presents with microhemorrhages and mucous membrane bleeding, but has normal PT, PTT, and fibrinogen levels. Which condition is MOST likely?
A patient presents with microhemorrhages and mucous membrane bleeding, but has normal PT, PTT, and fibrinogen levels. Which condition is MOST likely?
A researcher is investigating novel therapies for Glanzmann thrombasthenia. Which of the following targets would be MOST promising for restoring platelet aggregation?
A researcher is investigating novel therapies for Glanzmann thrombasthenia. Which of the following targets would be MOST promising for restoring platelet aggregation?
Which globin chain is characteristic of fetal hemoglobin (HbF)?
Which globin chain is characteristic of fetal hemoglobin (HbF)?
What is the predominant type of antibody present in the plasma of a person with blood type A?
What is the predominant type of antibody present in the plasma of a person with blood type A?
An individual with blood type O can receive red blood cells from which blood type(s)?
An individual with blood type O can receive red blood cells from which blood type(s)?
What type of antibody is primarily associated with Rh incompatibility and hemolytic disease of the fetus?
What type of antibody is primarily associated with Rh incompatibility and hemolytic disease of the fetus?
During which period of development is the epsilon (ε) globin chain most actively synthesized?
During which period of development is the epsilon (ε) globin chain most actively synthesized?
Which blood type is considered the universal recipient of red blood cells?
Which blood type is considered the universal recipient of red blood cells?
What is the clinical consequence of a Rh-negative mother carrying a Rh-positive fetus, where Rh incompatibility is not managed?
What is the clinical consequence of a Rh-negative mother carrying a Rh-positive fetus, where Rh incompatibility is not managed?
After birth, what is the approximate percentage of embryonic globins ($\zeta$ and $\epsilon$) in total globin synthesis in a healthy individual?
After birth, what is the approximate percentage of embryonic globins ($\zeta$ and $\epsilon$) in total globin synthesis in a healthy individual?
A researcher discovers a novel mutation leading to the persistent expression of the $\epsilon$ globin chain in adults, at levels comparable to those seen during embryonic development. Assuming no compensatory mechanisms, which of the following hematological abnormalities would be the MOST likely direct consequence of this mutation?
A researcher discovers a novel mutation leading to the persistent expression of the $\epsilon$ globin chain in adults, at levels comparable to those seen during embryonic development. Assuming no compensatory mechanisms, which of the following hematological abnormalities would be the MOST likely direct consequence of this mutation?
Flashcards
TTP Pathophysiology
TTP Pathophysiology
Inhibition/deficiency of ADAMTS13, leading to large vWF multimers causing platelet adhesion & aggregation.
HUS Pathophysiology
HUS Pathophysiology
Shiga toxin-producing E. coli (STEC) infection, causing endothelial dysfunction and microthrombi formation.
TTP/HUS Triad
TTP/HUS Triad
Thrombocytopenia, microangiopathic hemolytic anemia (MAHA), and acute kidney injury.
TTP Presentation
TTP Presentation
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HUS Presentation
HUS Presentation
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Chronic Adrenal Insufficiency
Chronic Adrenal Insufficiency
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Eosinophil Function
Eosinophil Function
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Myeloproliferative Disorders
Myeloproliferative Disorders
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Eosinophilia Causes
Eosinophilia Causes
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Basophil Function
Basophil Function
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Mast Cell Function
Mast Cell Function
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Lymphocytes
Lymphocytes
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Natural Killer (NK) Cells
Natural Killer (NK) Cells
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“Clock-face” chromatin distribution
“Clock-face” chromatin distribution
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Hemoglobin electrophoresis
Hemoglobin electrophoresis
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HbA
HbA
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HbF
HbF
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HbS
HbS
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HbC
HbC
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Sickle cell trait (AS)
Sickle cell trait (AS)
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Sickle cell disease (SS)
Sickle cell disease (SS)
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Factor Concentrates
Factor Concentrates
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Vitamin K Deficiency
Vitamin K Deficiency
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Increased Bleeding Time (BT)
Increased Bleeding Time (BT)
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Bernard-Soulier Syndrome
Bernard-Soulier Syndrome
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Glanzmann Thrombasthenia
Glanzmann Thrombasthenia
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Immune Thrombocytopenia (ITP)
Immune Thrombocytopenia (ITP)
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Uremic Platelet Dysfunction
Uremic Platelet Dysfunction
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Thrombotic Microangiopathies
Thrombotic Microangiopathies
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Platelet Adhesion
Platelet Adhesion
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Platelet Activation (ADP related)
Platelet Activation (ADP related)
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Platelet Aggregation
Platelet Aggregation
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GpIIb/IIIa Function
GpIIb/IIIa Function
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TXA2 Role
TXA2 Role
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PT Test
PT Test
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PTT Test
PTT Test
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Erythropoiesis Site Changes
Erythropoiesis Site Changes
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Embryonic Hemoglobin
Embryonic Hemoglobin
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Fetal Hemoglobin (HbF)
Fetal Hemoglobin (HbF)
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Adult Hemoglobin (HbA)
Adult Hemoglobin (HbA)
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Adult Hemoglobin (HbA2)
Adult Hemoglobin (HbA2)
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Blood Type Determination
Blood Type Determination
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Type A Blood
Type A Blood
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Type B Blood
Type B Blood
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Type AB Blood
Type AB Blood
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Type O Blood
Type O Blood
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Study Notes
Hematology and Oncology
- Immunology is closely linked to hematology.
- Types of anemias should be mastered.
- Blood smears should be interpreted with ease.
- Focus on mechanisms and adverse effects of oncologic drugs instead of clinical uses.
- Solid tumors are covered in their respective organ system chapters.
Fetal Erythropoiesis
- In the yolk sac, fetal erythropoiesis occurs during weeks 3–8.
- Occurs in the liver from 6 weeks until birth.
- Spleen: happens between 10–28 weeks.
- Bone marrow handles it from week 18 until adulthood.
- Young livers produce blood.
Hemoglobin Development
- Embryonic hemoglobins: ζ and ɛ.
- HbF (Fetal hemoglobin) = α2γ2.
- Adult hemoglobin (HbA₁) = α2β2.
- HbF has a higher affinity for O₂.
- There is less avid binding of 2,3-BPG.
- Oxygen can be extracted from maternal hemoglobin (HbA₁ and HbA₂) across placenta.
- HbA₂ (α₂δ₂) is a form of adult hemoglobin, but only a small amount is present.
- Alpha is constant between fetal and adult forms, gamma becomes beta.
Blood Groups
- Blood groups are classified by ABO classification.
- Blood groups are classified by Rh classification.
- The antigens on RBC surface are A, B, A&B, or NONE.
- The antibodies are Anti-B, Anti-A, Anti-A and Anti-B, or None, or Anti-D
- Compatible RBC types to receive: A and O can receive from A, B, and O can receive from B, AB, A, B, and O can receive from AB, and O can only receive from O
- Rh + can receive from Rh
- To donate to: A can donate to A and AB, B can donate to B and AB, AB can only donate AB, O can to AB, A, B, and O
- Rh⊕ can donate to Rh⊕ and Rh- can donate to Rh
Hemolytic Disease
- Hemolytic disease: erythroblastosis fetalis
- Rh hemolytic happens from Rh negative pregnant patients with a Rh positive fetus.
- Patient exposed to fetal blood first pregnancy and maternal anti-D IgG forms often during delivery
- Subesquent pregnancies: hemolysis occurs from Anti-D IgG crossing placenta and attacking fetal and newborn RBCs .
- Results in hydrops fetalis, jaundice shortly after birth, and kernicterus
- Given by administration of anti-D IgG to prevent treatment, and is given in the third trimester during pregnancy as well as the early postpartum if the fetus is Rh positive.
ABO hemolytic disease
- Type O pregnant patient; type A or B fetus.
- Preexisting pregnant patient anti-A and/or anti-B IgG antibodies cross the placenta.
- Antibodies attack fetal and newborn RBCs → hemolysis.
- Causes mild jaundice in the neonate within 24 hours of birth. and can occur in first born unlike Rh hemolytic disease
- Phototherapy or exchange transfusions
Hematopoiesis
- Hematopoiesis: The process of forming blood cells from the multipotent stem cell which differentiates into both myeloid stem cells and lymphoid stem cells
- Erythropoiesis: the development of erythrocytes from erythroblasts
- Thrombopoiesis: the development of thrombocytes from megakaryoblasts
- Granulocytopoiesis: the development of granulocytes from myelobasts ending in the granulocytes, eosinophils, basophils, and neutrophils
- Monocytopoiesis: the development of monocites from monoblasts
- Lymphopoiesis: the development of lymphocytes from lymphoblasts including B cells, T cells, NK cells, Plasma cells, T-helper cells, T-cytotoxic cells
Neutrophils
- Neutrophils: Phagocytic, acute inflammatory response cells.
- Specific granules contain leukocyte alkaline phosphatase (LAP), collagenase, lysozyme, and lactoferrin.
- Azurophilic granules (lysosomes) contain proteinases, acid phosphatase, myeloperoxidase, and ẞ-glucuronidase.
- Inflammatory states cause neutrophilia and changes in neutrophil morphology, like left shift, toxic granulation, Döhle bodies, and cytoplasmic vacuoles.
- Chemoattractants for neutrophils are C5a, IL-8, LTB4, 5-HETE, kallikrein, platelet-activating factor, and N-formylmethionine (bacterial proteins).
- Hypersegmented neutrophils (nucleus has 6+ lobes): vitamin B₁₂/folate deficiency.
- Left shift: ↑ neutrophil precursors (eg, band cells, metamyelocytes) in peripheral blood, which results in states of ↑ myeloid proliferation like inflammation, CML)
- Leukoerythroblastic reaction: left shift and immature RBCs, implying bone marrow infiltration (eg, myelofibrosis, metastasis).
Erythrocytes
- They carry oxygen and carbon dioxide.
- Anucleate and lack organelles. Biconcave.
- Large surface area-to-volume ratio.
- Life span of ~120 days (adults) or 60-90 days (neonates).
- Energy source: glucose (90% glycolysis, 10% HMP shunt).
- Membranes contain Cl-/HCO₃ antiporter.
- Allows RBCs to export HCO₃.
- Allows RBCs transport CO₂ from periphery to lungs.
- Erythro = red and cyte = cell.
- Erythrocytosis = polycythemia = ↑ Hct.
- Anisocytosis: varying sizes.
- Poikilocytosis: varying shapes.
- Reticulocyte: immature RBC, reflects erythroid proliferation.
- Bluish color (polychromasia) via Wright-Giemsa stain signifies leftover ribosomal RNA.
Platelets (Thrombocytes)
- Involved in 1º hemostasis.
- Anucleate, small cytoplasmic fragments are derived from megakaryocytes.
- Platelet lifespan is 8–10 days When endothelial injury activates, aggregate with other platelets and interact with fibrinogen to form platelet plug.
- Contain dense granules (Ca²⁺, ADP, Serotonin, Histamine) and α granules (vWF, fibrinogen, fibronectin, platelet factor 4).
- Roughly 1/3 of platelet pool is stored in the spleen.
- Thrombocytopenia or platelet function = petechiae.
- For vWF, Receptor: GpIb.
- For Fibrinogen, Receptor: GpIIb/IIIa.
- Thrombopoietin stimulates megakaryocyte proliferation.
- Alfa granules contain vWF, fibrinogen, fibronectin, platelet factor four
Monocytes
- In the blood and differentiate into macrophages in tissues.
- Large and kidney-shaped.
- Has an abundance of frosted glass cytoplasm.
- Mono = one / nucleus; cyte = cell
Macrophages
- A type of antigen-presenting cell.
- Phagocytose bacteria, cellular debris, and senescent RBCs.
- Activated by IFN-γ.
- Act as antigen-presenting cell via MHC II
- Engage in antibody-dependent cellular cytotoxicity.
- Cellular components of granulomas.
- May fuse to form giant cells.
- macro = large
- phage = eater
- Lipid A binds CD14 on macrophages.
Dendritic Cells
- Highly phagocytic antigen-presenting cells (APCs), and the link between innate and adaptive immune systems.
- Express MHC class II and Fc receptors on surface.
- Can present exogenous antigens on MHC class I.
- Important for cross-presentation
Eosinophils
- Defend against helminthic infections (major basic protein).
- Have a bilobate nucleus.
- Packed with large eosinophilic granules of uniform size.
- Produce histaminase, major basic protein (MBP, a helminthotoxin), eosinophil peroxidase, eosinophil cationic protein, and eosinophil-derived neurotoxin.
- Eosin = pink dye, philic = loving. and parasitic infections
Causes for Eosinophilia include PACMAN Eats
- Parasites
- Asthma
- Chronic adrenal insufficiency
- Myeloproliferative disorders
- Allergic processes
- Neoplasia like Hodgkin Lymphoma and related granulomatosis
Basophils
- They mediate allergic reaction.
- Contain heparin (anticoagulant) and histamine (vasodilator).
- Basophilic-stains readily with basic stains and rare
Mast Cells
- Mediate allergic reaction in local tissue.
- Contain basophilic granules.
- Originate from same precursor as basophils, but are not the same cell type.
- Can bind the Fc portion of IgE to membrane.
- Activation from tissue trauma, C3a and C5a, surface IgE cross-linking by antigen
- Leads to degranulation and release of histamine, heparin, tryptase, eosinophil chemotactic factors.
- Cromolyn sodium Prevents mast cell degranulation (asthma prophylaxis)
Lymphocytes
- B cells, T cells, and natural killer (NK) cells
- B cells and T cells mediate adaptive immunity
- NK cells are part of the innate immune response.
- Staining nucleus and cytoplasm.
Natural Killer Cells
- NK cells especially important in the innate immune response
- larger than B and T cells, with distinctive cytoplasmic lytic granules (containing perforin and granzymes) NK cells induce apoptosis (natural killer) in cells lacking class I MHC, like virally infected where the molecules are downregulated.
B Cells
- Mediate a humoral immune response.
- Originate from stem cells in bone marrow and mature there.
- Migrate to peripheral lymphoid tissue.
- When antigen is encountered = Antibodies + memory cells.
- Function as APC
- Can differentiate into plasma cells
T Cells
- Mediate cellular immune response.
- Originate in bone marrow, mature in thymus.
- Differentiate to cytotoxic T cells(MHC I), helper T cells(MHC II), regulatory T cells. Costimulatory needed Most circulating lymphocytes are T cells.
- T = thymus
- CD4+ helper T cells: primary target of HIV
Plasma Cells
- Produce great amounts of antibody for all antigens.
- eccentric nucleus, abundant RER and well-developed Golgi
- In bone marrow but no circulation in peripheral blood
Hemoglobin Electrophoresis
- Detect abnormal hemoglobins
- During gel electrophoresis, hemoglobin migrates from the negatively charged cathode to the positively charged anode.
- The missense mutations in HbS replaces glutamic acid with valine (neutral) and in HbC replaces glutamic acid with lysine +
The rate of migration is as follows
- HbA migrates the farthest, followed by HbF, HbS, and HbC.
- A Fat Santa Claus can't go far.
Antiglobulin Test
- Coombs test
- Detects the presence of antibodies vs circulating RBCs.
- Direct antiglobulin test: anti-human globulin (Coombs reagent) added to patient's RBCs and will agglutinate with with anti-RBC Abs for AIHA diagnosis
- Can identify AlHA from RBCs via direct test
- Indirect antiglobulin test: normal RBCs added to patient's serum, presence of serum will be the addition Anti-RBCs with Coombs reagent
Platelet Plug Formation (primary hemostasis)
- Temporary plug stops bleeding, unstable, and will easily be eroded
- In coagulation cascade after secondary hemostasis
- There is both tissue injury and damage
- Transient Vasoconstriction occurs and then there is platelet adhesion after exposure
- Platelets undergo change that have fibrinogen and binds
- Coagulation cascade begins with Von Willebrand binding
- Pro and anti aggregation factors occur
Thrombogenesis
- It creates a fibrin mesh insoluble to stop formation and inhibit TXA2
- If not Von Willebrand then desmopressin
- Gpllb deficiency vs Gpllla insertion of fibrinogen and platelet coagulation
- Von Willebrand carries and protects VIII
- VWF caries and protects factor VIII
- Factors made gr8 cars (volksWagen)
Coagulation and Kinin Pathways
- The intrinsic and common pathway are monitored by PT, reflecting activity of factors 1, II, V, VII, and X as 13
- PTT reflects activity of factors except VII and XIII during common pathways
- C1 esterase inhibitor is hereditary angioedema
Vitamin K-Dependent Coagulopathy
- Procoagulation activates reduction Vitamin K that carboxylates factors involved in procoagulation
- When reduced, there will be Y and carboxyglutamic acid (Vitamin dependent)
- Anti-procoagulation does the inverse
- Warfarin inhibits and Vitamin K is depleted
- Heparin enhances antithrombin action
Red Blood Cell Morphology Review
- Acanthocytes: spur cells in liver diesase
- Echinocytes: burr cells
- Dacrocytes: Teardrop cells due to bone marrow
- Schistocytes: Fragmented Helmet
- Degmacytes: Bite cells
- Elliptocytes: Hereditary
Red Blood Cell Morphology Review Continued
- Spherocytes: Without central pallor
- Macro ovalocytes:
- target cells: Halt
- Sickle cells for sickle cell anemia
RBC Inclusions
- Bone marrow iron granules
- basophilic stippling
- howell jolly bodies
- Hinz bodies
Anemias
- Microcytic: MCH less than
- Normocytic: MCH 80-100
- Macrocytic: MCH greater than 100
- There is no defective goblin chain
- Iron deficiency is major
Microcytic Hypochromic Anemias
- MCV < 80 fL due to malnutrition, absorption disorders, and lead poisoning
- Can result in fatigue, the Plummer vision syndrome, Spoon nails and glossitis if extreme
- A Thalassemia can be a silent carrier if not fatal
Microcytic, hypochromic anemias (continued)
- Beta globin synthesis requires chromosome 11 with defects that create synthesis
- Symptoms include anemia, cells being targeted, and other globin chains causing sickness
- Lead inhibits ALAD and causes synthesis
Macrocytic Anemias
- Impairs both the nucleus and cytoplasm
- Vitamin deficiency, and medications (eg, hydroxyurea, phenytoin, methotrexate, sulfa drugs)
- Folate vs cobalamin
- Orotic aciduria
- Non Megaloblastic Anemia
Normocytic, Normochromic Anemias
- Blood vessels carry intrinsic and extravascular
- Anemia or chronic diseases
- Aplastic crisis which is when volume is reduced from radiation
Intrinsic Hemolytic Anemias
- Hereditary is a cause of spherocytosis
- paroxysmal nocturnal from stemcell
- G6PD deficiency with oxidative stress
- sickel cell is abnormal, and HbC has has hemolysis due to its acid form
Extrinsic Hemolytic Anemias
- auto immune caused drug induced problems
- TTP, DIC, and others of RBCS become damaged
- infections from parasites
Leukopenias from Neutropenia
- Reduced count from Sepsis, drugs, radiation/genetics
- Lymphopenia reduced from Di George, AIDS and radiation
- Eosinopenia from glucocorticoids
Heme Synthesis
- Acute and chronic lead poisoning
- Porphobilinogen =ALA
Lead Poisioning
- Ferrochelatase and aminolevulinate leads to substrate buildup and the rest of porphyrins
- Can cause anemia, GI issues, mental deteroriation and peripheral neuropathy.
- Chelation is best for treatment,
- Most high in old houses as a occupational risk and to children
Hemophilia
- Involves bleeding after trauma or surgery which includes the easy bruising to joint areas
- General coagulation defects and the bleeding is normal
- This is mostly from vitamin deificiancy from factors and protein S
- bleeding
Platelet Disorders
- Platelet Disorders often cause microhemorhages that can lead to bleeding time
- Bernard-Soulier is reduced at Gplb and is autosomally recessive with Big Platelets and is reduces VWF
- Glanzmann causes autsomal reduction
- thrombocytopenia causes increased destruction by Macrophages , with increased megakarocytes
- uermic dysfuction has increased toxins
Mixed ThromboPhilias
- Von willebrand
- Disseminated
Polycythemia
- Relative, appropriate absolute, and Inappropriate
- In relative there is red cell mass in polycythemia vera
Chromosomal Translocations
- The Ig heavy chain genes on chromosome 14 are constitutively expressed.
- When other genes (eg, c-myc and BCL-2) are translocated
- next to this heavy chain gene region, they are
- overexpressed.
Cancer
- Treatment comes with a variety of agents
- Cancer therapy cell cylce is always in interphase
Key Chemotoxicities
- Cisplatin is ototoxic
- Vincristine, vinca alloids cause paresthesia neuropathies
- Bleomycin and Busulfan cause pulmonary fibrosis, due to free radical
- DOXOs, ruby/anthracyclines cause cardiotoxicity
- Trastuzumab affects HRT2,
Nonspecific common toxicities of cytotoxic chemos
- Immunosupression Neutropenia
- Anemia
- Thrombocytopenida
- G.I effects, Nausea , vomitting, mucositis , and Alopecia.
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Description
Explore platelet activation pathways, receptor functions (ADP, GpIIb/IIIa), and related disorders like Bernard-Soulier syndrome and Glanzmann thrombasthenia. Understand drug mechanisms (aspirin) and hypersensitivity reactions involving basophils and mast cells.