Physiology and Pathophysiology Quiz

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Questions and Answers

What is the primary cause of respiratory acidosis?

Loss of H+

Loss of bicarbonate

Decreased ventilation (correct)

Hyperventilation

Which condition is associated with metabolic alkalosis?

Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease

Bulimia (correct)

Pneumonia

Diabetes Mellitus

What is the main effect of the macula densa detecting decreased sodium concentration?

Vasoconstriction of the afferent arteriole

Vasodilation of the afferent arteriole (correct)

Decrease in renin release

Increase in filtration rate

In metabolic acidosis, which of the following is a common cause?

Diarrhea Signup and view all the answers

What is the role of renin in blood volume control?

It converts angiotensinogen into angiotensin I Signup and view all the answers

What is the corrective action for respiratory alkalosis?

Slow breathing Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following options correctly describes metabolic alkalosis?

Decreased H+ and CO2 levels Signup and view all the answers

How does the body typically compensate for metabolic acidosis?

Hyperventilation to blow off CO2 Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary function of the muscles that opens and depresses the jaw?

To facilitate jaw movement Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following components is found within the anterior triangle of the neck?

Thyroid gland Signup and view all the answers

What boundaries define the carotid triangle?

SCM, Posterior Digastric, Omohyoid - superior belly Signup and view all the answers

What is the alternate name for the submandibular triangle?

Digastric triangle Signup and view all the answers

Which structure is NOT located in the muscular triangle of the neck?

Submandibular gland Signup and view all the answers

What content would you expect to find in the carotid triangle?

Carotid arteries Signup and view all the answers

Which muscle refers to the 'SCM' mentioned in the boundaries of the triangles?

Sternocleidomastoid Signup and view all the answers

Which nerve is typically associated with the submandibular triangle?

Hypoglossal nerve Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary function of TSH related to the uterus?

Facilitates milk let down and uterine contraction Signup and view all the answers

Which organ is the target of ACTH?

Adrenal cortex Signup and view all the answers

What condition is caused by an excess of ACTH?

Cushing's syndrome Signup and view all the answers

What effect does FSH have in females?

Releases multiple oocytes Signup and view all the answers

What is a potential consequence of FSH deficiency in women?

Infertility Signup and view all the answers

Which symptom is associated with excessive ACTH levels?

Moon face Signup and view all the answers

What does a deficiency of ACTH lead to?

Addison's disease Signup and view all the answers

Which hormone releases cortisol from the adrenal glands?

ACTH Signup and view all the answers

Which enzyme breaks down lactose into glucose and galactose?

Lactase Signup and view all the answers

What is the main consequence of decreased intrinsic factor in the body?

Pernicious anemia Signup and view all the answers

What structure attaches the liver to the diaphragm?

Coronary ligament Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following conditions is associated with myxedema?

Hypothyroidism Signup and view all the answers

Which duct combines with the pancreatic duct to empty into the duodenum?

Common bile duct Signup and view all the answers

What type of edema is primarily caused by increased venous pressure?

Pitting edema Signup and view all the answers

Which enzyme specifically breaks down maltose into two glucose molecules?

Maltase Signup and view all the answers

What causes B12 deficiency due to impaired absorption in the ileum?

Fish tapeworm Signup and view all the answers

What is T3 primarily responsible for maintaining?

Basal metabolic rate (BMR) Signup and view all the answers

What condition is primarily associated with elevated levels of parathyroid hormone?

Osteopenia Signup and view all the answers

Where is calcitonin produced?

Parafollicular cells of the thyroid Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following characteristics is true of the adrenal cortex?

It has a mesodermal origin. Signup and view all the answers

What is a symptom of hypocalcemia due to low calcium levels?

Tetany Signup and view all the answers

Which part of the adrenal gland secretes cortisol?

Zona fasciculata Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary function of parathyroid hormone (PTH)?

To decrease phosphorus in blood Signup and view all the answers

Which type of cells in the adrenal medulla secrete norepinephrine?

Chromaffin cells Signup and view all the answers

Which nerve is responsible for motor function to the latissimus dorsi?

Thoracodorsal nerve Signup and view all the answers

What vertebral levels correspond to the femoral nerve?

L2, 3, 4 Signup and view all the answers

The medial pectoral nerve is associated with which spinal levels?

C8, T1 Signup and view all the answers

Which landmark indicates the external occiput?

EOP Signup and view all the answers

What is the sensory innervation pattern for the lateral thigh?

L2, 3 - Lateral femoral cutaneous nerve Signup and view all the answers

Which muscle is innervated by the inferior gluteal nerve?

Gluteus maximus Signup and view all the answers

What nerve roots provide motor innervation for the upper extremity?

C5 - T1 Signup and view all the answers

The genitofemoral nerve is associated with which vertebral levels?

L1, 2 Signup and view all the answers

Which spinal segment corresponds to the umbilicus dermatome?

T10 Signup and view all the answers

What is the role of the pudenal nerve?

Erection and bowel/bladder control Signup and view all the answers

Which nerve splits into the tibial and common peroneal nerves?

Sciatic nerve Signup and view all the answers

The muscle innervated by the long thoracic nerve is responsible for?

Scapular protraction Signup and view all the answers

Where does the cricoid cartilage correspond in terms of vertebral level?

C5 Signup and view all the answers

What is the innervation for the muscle that depresses the last four ribs during exhalation?

T9 - T12 Thoracic nerves Signup and view all the answers

Study Notes

Physiology Study Notes

Blood enters the heart via the superior vena cava (SVC) and inferior vena cava (IVC), with the exception of the azygos vein which enters the SVC.
80% of blood flows passively into the right ventricle. 20% requires atrial contraction.
The right atrium receives blood from the upper body, and the right ventricle blood from the lower body.
After the blood passes through the tricuspid valve, it goes into the right ventricle. Blood then gets pumped through the pulmonary artery and into the lungs
The pulmonary artery carries deoxygenated blood, while the pulmonary veins carry oxygenated blood. In the fetus, the umbilical counterparts are used
The left atrium receives oxygenated blood from the lungs via the pulmonary veins.
80% of blood passively flows into the left ventricle. 20% requires atrial contraction
Blood leaves the left ventricle via the aortic valve.
End diastolic volume (EDV) = 120ml
End systolic volume (ESV) = 50ml
Stroke volume (SV) = 70ml
Cardiac output (CO) = SV x heart rate (HR)
The SA node initiates atrial depolarization and atrial contraction (P wave on ECG).
The AV node conducts the impulse down the bundle of His and Purkinje fibers to cause ventricular depolarization and contraction (QRS wave on ECG).
The T wave on an ECG represents ventricular repolarization.
Blood is oxygenated in the lungs.

EKG Study Notes

P wave = atrial depolarization (contraction)
PR interval = time for impulse to travel to ventricles
QRS complex = ventricular depolarization (contraction)
T wave = ventricular repolarization.
A P-R interval with delayed conduction time, possibly due to a block of the AV node
An abnormal QRS complex and/or inverted T wave might indicate myocardial infarction (MI)

Heart Pathologies Study Notes

Tetralogy of Fallot (DRIP) is a congenital heart defect with four main features
Marfan's syndrome is a genetic disorder affecting connective tissue.
Mitral valve disorders can lead to mitral regurgitation or stenosis
Aortic valve disorders can lead to aortic regurgitation or stenosis

Blood Vessels Study Notes

The tunica intima is the innermost layer of a blood vessel.
The tunica media is the middle layer of a blood vessel, composed mostly of smooth muscle.
The tunica adventitia is the outermost layer of a blood vessel, composed mostly of connective tissue.

Laws of Physiology Study Notes

Bell-Magendie Law: Sensory/posterior spinal roots receive nerve impulses, and motor/anterior spinal roots transmit the electrical impulse.
Hering-Breuer reflex: This reflex stops you from over-inflating your lungs
Laplace's Law: the pressure within an artery is directly proportional to the tension(measured in dynes per cm) and inversely proportional to the radius of the artery
Starling's Law: the cardiac output is equal to the venous return. If venous return exceeds the cardiac out, Congestive Heart Failure (CHF) occurs.

Respiratory System Study Notes

Tidal volume (TV) = normal breathing
Inspiratory reserve volume (IRV) = forced inspiration
Expiratory reserve volume (ERV) = forced expiration
Residual volume (RV)
Inspiratory capacity (IC) = IRV + TV
Functional reserve capacity (FRC) = ERV + RV
Vital capacity (VC) = IRV + TV + ERV
Total lung capacity (TLC) = VC + RV
Lung pressures are slightly negative under typical conditions
Alveolar pressure is the pressure inside alveoli
Inhaling increases, while Exhalation decreases alveolar pressure.
Pleural pressure = pressure inside the pleural space
Transpulmonary pressure = difference between alveolar pressure & pleural pressure, and reflects elastic forces of the lungs.
Compliance = change in lung volume/change in transpulmonary pressure Reflects ease with which the lungs expand.
A decrease in Surface tension = increase compliance.

Lung Histology Notes

Type I pneumocytes: gas exchange
Type II pneumocytes: produce surfactant
Dust cells: macrophages.

Acid-Base Balance Study Notes

Acidosis: Increased [H+] or decreased [HCO3-]
Alkalosis: Decreased [H+] or Increased [HCO3-]
Respiratory acidosis: Decreased ventilation, increased CO2
Respiratory alkalosis: Increased ventilation, decreased CO2
Metabolic acidosis: Loss of bicarbonate (diarrhea).
Metabolic alkalosis: Loss of H+ (vomiting)

Kidney Study Notes

Juxtaglomerular cells release renin in response to low sodium levels.
Renin converts angiotensinogen to angiotensin I.
Angiotensin I becomes angiotensin II, via ACE in the lungs
Angiotensin II causes vasoconstriction of the efferent arteriole.
Aldosterone in the distal tubule conserves sodium.
Antidiuretic Hormone (ADH) increases water reabsorption in collecting tubules • Urine passes from the renal pelvis through the ureters to the bladder and exits the body via urethra. • Urine formation: glomerular filtration, tubular reabsorption, and tubular secretion.

Renal Physiology Study Notes

In the absence of ADH, urine production will be increased.
In the presence of ADH, urine production will be decreased • Urine passes through the minor calyx to the major calyx, passing through an opening called the renal sinus to the renal pelvis
Fluid will leave the renal pyramids via the ureter and into the posterior bladder

Urinary System Study Notes

The renal pyramids are part of the medulla
The cortex contains the nephrons
The renal pelvis is part of the the renal sinus
The renal pyramids contain the collecting ducts
The renal columns occur between the renal pyramids • Urine drainage: minor calyx → major calyx → renal pelvis → ureter → bladder → urethra

Hormones & Glands

Posterior pituitary hormones = antidiuretic hormone (ADH) and oxytocin
Anterior pituitary hormones = adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH), follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH), growth hormone (GH) , luteinizing hormone (LH), melanocyte-stimulating hormone (MSH), prolactin, thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH).
Location of pituitary is sella turcica of sphenoid bone

Reproductive System Study Notes

Uterus = pear-shaped, muscular organ in the female pelvis
fallopian tube delivers the ovum to the uterus, and is joined to the ovary.
Ovary = female gonads, responsible for producing ovum, estrogen and progesterone.
The uterine tubes extend laterally from the uterus.
The uterine body is the major portion of the uterus.
The cervix is the neck of the uterus, connecting to the vagina.
Vulva is the outer structures of the female external genitalia includes the labia, clitoris, and openings of the urethra & vagina.
The vagina is the female organ of copulation.
The ovaries are anchored at the sides of the pelvic cavity by the suspensory ligaments.

Muscles of Mastication Study Notes

Masseter = elevates mandible
Temporalis = elevates and retracts mandible
Medial pterygoid = elevates mandible & moves it laterally
Lateral pterygoid = depresses the mandible, moves it laterally

Cardiovascular System Study Notes

The primary artery of the heart (derived from the aorta) is the Coronary artery, which bifurcates into a superior branch (right) and an inferior branch (left).
The Heart: Drained by the Great cardiac vein (superior aspect), Middle cardiac vein (Inferior aspect) & Small Cardiac vein (coronary groove). All drain into the Coronary Sinus to the Right Atrium.

Respiratory system, pulmonary tree, trachea study notes

The trachea begins at C6 and extends to T4, where it bifurcates into the right and left principal bronchi.
Main Function: Air conduction & gas exchange
Hyaline cartilage support the trachea.
The trachea divides at T4 in the Carina, into left and right secondary (lobar) bronchi.
The Right principal bronchus is more vertical and shorter than the left
The trachea is continuous with the terminal bronchioles.
Small bronchioles lack cartilage & don’t have goblet cells
Alveolar ducts → Alveolar sacs → Alveoli
The lungs and pleura are enclosed in the thoracic cavity, with 3 major divisions.
The oblique fissure divides each lung into superior & inferior lobes.
The right lung has an additional horizontal fissure creating superior, middle & inferior lobes.
The lungs contact each corresponding region using a pleural membrane.

Brain Study Notes

The brain is divided into four lobes (frontal, parietal, temporal, and occipital) and several other regions, like the brainstem and cerebellum.
The four lobes are responsible for various vital functions, and are interconnected by different nerve pathways within the brain.
The central Sulcus separates the front and parietal lobe, and the Wernicke's area for speech and language comprehension is located in the posterior language area of the temporal lobe.
The brainstem is important for autonomic function, and the cerebellum affects movement control and balance.

Sensory Organs, Eye Study Notes

The eye has an anterior and posterior cavity; the anterior cavity is filled with aqueous humor, while the posterior cavity is filled with vitreous humor.
The cornea is the transparent outer layer, the sclera is the white of eye.
The iris controls the amount of light entering the pupil.
The lens focuses light onto the retina (photoreceptors).
The retina converts light into neural signals that are sent to the brain via the optic nerve.
Optic nerve tracts cross at the optic chiasm
The blind spot is where the optic nerve leaves the eye
The macular (central) region is the area of sharpest vision
The pupil can dilate and contract, affected by the sympathetic or parasympathetic nervous system.

Sensory Organs, Ear Study Notes

Outer ear (pinna, external auditory canal, tympanic membrane) → Middle ear (malleus, incus, stapes, oval window) → Inner ear (cochlea, semicircular canals, vestibule)
The middle ear contains three tiny bones – malleus, incus, and stapes – that transmit vibrations from the eardrum to the inner ear
The inner ear has the cochlea (hearing) and semicircular canals (balance)
The auditory nerve carries signals from the inner ear to the brain
The cochlea is filled with fluid and contains hair cells that convert vibrations into electrical signals • The semicircular canals are filled with fluid and are responsible for detecting rotational movements and maintaining balance

Muscle Study Notes

Muscle tissues are composed of specialized cells called muscle fibers. These muscle fibers are responsible for movement in the human body.
Myosin: Pulls on the actin, and with hydrolysis of ATP changes shape causing filaments to slide
Actin: A thin protein filament
Skeletal muscles control voluntary movement, smooth muscles control involuntary movement, and cardiac muscles control the heart
Skeletal muscles: controlled by somatic motor neurons
Smooth muscles: controlled by autonomic motor neurons
Cardiac muscles: spontaneously contracts but is also regulated by some autonomic motor neurons.

Skeletal System Study Notes

The skeletal system is composed of bones and cartilage.
There are 206 bones in the adult human body.
Some important structures of the skeletal system include ligaments and tendons.
Bone cells (osteocytes) come from a mesenchymal origin.
Bone tissue includes: osteocytes, osteoblasts, and osteoclasts.
Two types of ossification: endochondral and intramembranous.
Cartilage, cartilage cells, and fibrous tissue are associated with a large number of various body parts. • Joints can be classified by a) the material connecting the bones (Fibrous, cartilaginous, or synovial); and/or (b) movement the joint allows (synarthrotic, amphiarthrotic or diarthrotic)
The Axial skeleton includes the skull, vertebral column, and ribs.
The Appendicular skeleton includes the pectoral girdle, upper limbs, pelvic girdle, & lower limbs.
Different classifications exist for different types of joints including Plane, Hinge, Pivot, Condyloid, Saddle, & Ball and Socket.

Immunology Study Notes

Makes own antibodies = active immunity
Receives antibodies = passive immunity
Natural active = exposed to pathogens and produces antibodies
Artificial active = vaccination
Natural passive = antibodies cross placenta to fetus; antibodies gained via breast feeding
Artificial passive = injection of antibodies from another individual
There are multiple types of Hypersensitivity reactions from Type 1 (allergic, immediate) to Type 4 (delayed hypersensitivity)

Biochemistry Study Notes

There are 20 amino acids in protein
R Group (side Chain) determines AA function
Most amino acids are both an Acid and a Base, called Amphoteric. • 3 Major Factors that affect the reaction velocity of an enzyme:

Substrate concentration
Temperature
pH

The most common types of Enzyme Inhibitors are: □ Competitive □ Noncompetitive □ Allosteric
Gibb's Free Energy is a measure of the amount of energy available to determine if a reaction is energetically possible.
A G =0= Equilibrium
A G(+) = non-spontaneous/unfavorable;
A G(-)= spontaneous/favorable;
Exergonic reaction= energy released;
Endergonic reaction= energy needed.

Metabolic Pathways Study Notes

Glycolysis is a metabolic pathway that breaks down glucose into pyruvate
Anaerobic conditions (lack of oxygen) will result in lactate being formed.
Aerobic conditions (presence of oxygen) will result in pyruvate entering the citric acid cycle
Gluconeogenesis is the metabolic pathway by which glucose is synthesized from noncarbohydrate precursors. This process reverses glycolysis
The HMP shunt (pentose phosphate pathway) is an alternative metabolic pathway for glucose
The primary precursors for gluconeogenesis: glycerol, lactate & amino acids from dietary proteins.

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Description

Test your knowledge on respiratory and metabolic conditions, including acidosis and alkalosis, along with anatomical components related to the neck. This quiz covers key physiological concepts and their implications on human health. Challenge yourself to identify functions, structures, and compensatory mechanisms in the body.