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PHARM EXAM 1

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184 Questions

What is the primary purpose of preclinical research?

To discover toxicity

What is the goal of Phase 1 clinical trials?

To determine safety and dosage

What is the purpose of Good Laboratory Practices (GLP) requirements?

To address various aspects of study conduct and quality assurance

How many participants are typically involved in Phase 3 clinical trials?

300-3,000

What type of information is required for an Investigational New Drug (IND) application?

Toxicity data from animal studies, manufacturing information, human studies, and investigator information

Who can researchers ask for assistance from during the clinical research process?

A variety of FDA experts, including a Medical Officer, Statistician, and Pharmacologist

How long does the FDA review team have to review the original IND submission?

30 days

What is the primary goal of Phase 4 clinical trials?

To monitor safety and efficacy

What is the primary goal of careful observation of a patient's response to treatment?

To confirm efficacy and prevent adverse effects

What is the guiding principle of pharmacotherapy that suggests using a medication at the lowest dosage and for the shortest duration?

Medications should be used at the lowest dosage and for the shortest duration

When should a newly approved medication be used, according to the guiding principles of pharmacotherapy?

When there are clear advantages over older medications

What is the primary consideration when selecting a medication regimen?

Evidence obtained from controlled clinical trials

Why is it important to consider the timing of drug administration?

To consider the influence on drug efficacy and interactions

What is the principle of pharmacotherapy that suggests making lifestyle modifications before using medication?

Lifestyle modifications should be made before medication use

What is the primary purpose of the FDA's protection of volunteers in clinical trials?

To protect volunteers from unreasonable and significant risk

Why is it important to recognize that a medication may cause a disease or abnormal laboratory test?

To initiate a drug regimen with full recognition of potential risks

What is the purpose of the New Drug Application (NDA)?

To demonstrate that a drug is safe and effective for its intended use

What is the primary advantage of using a medication by mouth when possible?

It is just as effective and safe as injection

What happens if the FDA review team decides that the NDA is not complete?

The review team will refuse to file the NDA

What is the purpose of FDA Advisory Committees?

To provide independent, expert advice and permit public comment

Why might the FDA place a clinical hold on a clinical trial?

Participants are exposed to unreasonable or significant risk

What is included in the New Drug Application (NDA)?

All information from preclinical data to Phase 3 trial data

What is the purpose of finalizing the labeling of a drug?

To accurately and objectively describe the basis for approval and how best to use the drug

How long does the FDA review team have to make a decision on a complete NDA?

6 to 10 months

What is pharmacokinetics concerned with?

The movement of drugs through the body

What type of diffusion requires energy?

Active transport

What factor influences absorption and is affected by the concentration of hydrogen ions?

pH

What is the effect of P-glycoprotein on drug absorption?

It decreases drug absorption

What is the purpose of the Henderson-Hasselbalch equation?

To determine the pKa of a drug

What is the difference between bioavailability and bioequivalence?

Bioavailability is the ratio of IV to oral administration, while bioequivalence is the comparison of two different formulations

What type of transport is carrier-mediated, energy-dependent, and can be saturated?

Active transport

What is the term for the process by which a drug is transported across a cell membrane without the use of energy?

Passive diffusion

What is the primary direction of molecule movement according to Fick's Law?

down its concentration gradient

What is the relationship between pKa and pH when [B] = [BH+]?

pKa = pH

What is the effect of a lower pH relative to the pKa on the fraction of protonated drug?

The fraction of protonated drug increases

What is the characteristic of the protonated form of an acid?

It is uncharged

What is the primary determinant of drug mobility in the diffusion path?

Permeability coefficient

Why is a weak acid at acid pH more lipid-soluble?

Because it is uncharged and moves more readily through a lipid environment

What is the relationship between the concentration of a drug and its movement according to Fick's Law?

The drug moves from a higher concentration to a lower concentration

What is the characteristic of the protonated form of a base?

It is charged

What is the primary function of receptors in drug-receptor interactions?

To detect signals from drugs and produce a measurable response

What is the effect of an agonist on a receptor?

It converts an inactive receptor to an active receptor, producing a measurable response

What is the definition of a receptor in pharmacodynamics?

A biological molecule that binds to a drug and produces a measurable response

What is the term for the study of the movement of drugs through the body?

Pharmacokinetics

What is the effect of an antagonist on a receptor?

It blocks the receptor, keeping it in an inactive state and preventing it from binding to a drug

What is the relationship between the number of drug-receptor complexes and the cellular response?

The magnitude of the cellular response is proportional to the number of drug-receptor complexes

What is the primary function of a second messenger in signal transduction?

To amplify the signal

What happens to receptors during desensitization and down-regulation?

They are internalized within the cell

What is the characteristic of activated G proteins?

They persist for a longer duration

What is the primary function of enzyme-linked receptors?

To initiates a signal cascade

What is the difference between a full agonist and a partial agonist?

A partial agonist activates fewer receptors

Which type of receptor is Insulin an example of?

Enzyme-linked receptors

What is the result of repeated stimulation of a receptor?

Decreased response

What is the purpose of signal amplification in signal transduction?

To amplify the signal intensity

What determines the magnitude of the drug effect?

Both the receptor sensitivity to the drug and the drug concentration at the receptor site

What is the concentration of drug producing 50% of the maximum effect used to determine?

Potency

What is the term for the magnitude of response a drug causes when it interacts with a receptor?

Efficacy

What is the relationship between the concentration of free drug and the concentration of bound drug?

[D] = [Rt] - [DR]

What is the law applied to drug concentration and response, providing certain assumptions are met?

Law of mass action

What is the primary factor that influences the efficacy of a drug?

Both the number of drug-receptor complexes formed and the intrinsic activity of the drug

What is the maximum effect of a drug represented by?

Emax

What is the term for the measure of the amount of drug necessary to produce an effect?

Potency

What is the main characteristic of a full agonist?

It binds to a receptor and produces a maximal biologic response.

What type of antagonist binds to a receptor with high affinity but has zero intrinsic activity?

Competitive antagonist

What is the effect of an inverse agonist on the receptor?

It reverses the activation state of receptors.

What is the result of an irreversible antagonist binding to a receptor?

It decreases the Emax of a full agonist.

What is the therapeutic index (TI) calculated as?

TD50 / ED50

What is the primary difference between a partial agonist and a full agonist?

A partial agonist has an intrinsic activity less than one.

What is the effect of a competitive antagonist on the EC50 of a full agonist?

It increases the EC50.

What is the term for the binding of a molecule to a receptor that produces a response?

Agonism

What is the main goal of pharmacogenomics?

To predict how an individual may respond to a drug based on their genetics

What is a SNP?

A single nucleotide polymorphism

What is the primary focus of precision medicine?

To provide personalized treatment to patients

What is the role of CPIC in pharmacogenomics?

To implement pharmacogenomics into clinical practice

What is the relationship between genotype and phenotype in pharmacogenomics?

Genotype predicts phenotype

What is the term for the study of how genes affect health?

Genomic medicine

How many drugs have been identified with pharmacogenomic implications?

Over 250

What is the goal of evaluating individual alleles and interpreting functional status?

To predict the phenotype

What percentage of the East Asian population is characterized as a poor metabolizer?

47%

What is the recommendation for treating a rapid metabolizer with voriconazole?

Initiate at a higher dose for prophylaxis or treatment

What is the characteristic of ultrarapid metabolizers?

At risk of non-response or small probability of attaining therapeutic concentrations

What percentage of the Caucasian population is characterized as a normal metabolizer?

39%

What is the recommendation for treating a poor metabolizer?

Consider alternative agents, such as isavuconazole

What is the characteristic of normal metabolizers?

No increase in risk

What is the percentage of East Asians who are poor metabolizers of voriconazole?

15%

What is the risk associated with ultrarapid metabolizers of voriconazole?

Subtherapeutic levels and decreased efficacy

What is the recommended course of action for poor metabolizers considering voriconazole therapy?

Consider alternative agent

What is the characteristic of intermediate metabolizers of voriconazole?

Higher trough concentrations

What is the risk associated with poor metabolizers of voriconazole?

Supratherapeutic troughs and adverse events

What is the recommended course of action for intermediate metabolizers considering voriconazole therapy?

Initiate standard of care dosing

What percentage of the Caucasian population are poor metabolizers of voriconazole?

3%

What is the risk associated with supratherapeutic troughs of voriconazole?

Adverse events such as hepatotoxicity and central nervous system effects

What is the potential consequence of UMs metabolizing paroxetine more quickly?

Pharmacotherapy failure

What is the effect of UMs on tramadol and codeine metabolism?

Increased metabolism to active compounds

What is the recommendation for opioid use in PMs according to CPIC guidelines?

Reduce dosing by 25-50%

What is the enzyme responsible for metabolizing warfarin?

CYP2C9

What is the effect of decreased CYP2C9 enzyme activity on warfarin dosing?

Lower dose required

What is the recommendation for NSAID use in PMs according to CPIC guidelines?

Reduce dosing by 25-50%

What is the primary enzyme responsible for metabolizing voriconazole?

CYP2C19

What is the effect of genetic variations on CYP2C19 activity?

Decreased activity

What is the potential consequence of PMs receiving standard dosing of opioids?

Increased risk of toxicity

What is the purpose of CPIC guidelines for genetic variations in drug metabolism?

To provide dosing recommendations based on genotype

What is the primary function of membrane-bound proteins that move drugs across biologic membranes?

To promote influx or efflux of drug molecules

What is the name of the most widely studied ATP-binding cassette transporter?

P-glycoprotein

What is the function of OATP1B1?

To move drugs from the blood into the hepatocyte

What is the effect of decreased expression of OATP1B1?

Increased plasma concentrations and increased adverse effects

What is the function of OATP1A2?

To move drugs from the intestine into the blood

What is the effect of genetic polymorphisms that result in decreased OATP1A2 activity?

Decreased drug absorption and lower drug concentrations

What are the two main families of transporters?

Solute carrier and ATP-binding cassette

What is the characteristic of ATP-binding cassette transporters?

They require ATP to transport molecules

What is the name of the transporter that is responsible for moving statins from the blood into the hepatocyte?

OATP1B1

What is the recommendation for patients with poor SLCO1B1 function?

Lower simvastatin dose or alternative agents

What is the term for a group of inherited variations?

Haplotype

What is the primary role of drug-metabolizing enzymes?

To transform compounds into more hydrophilic, polar entities

What is the term for a variant form of a gene?

Allele

What is the result of amplification in signal transduction?

Only a fraction of receptors need to be occupied to elicit maximal response

What is the term for an individual's collection of genes?

Genotype

What is tachyphylaxis?

A type of desensitization due to phosphorylation

What is the term for an observable trait?

Phenotype

What is the term for the maximum response a drug can produce?

Emax

What is the term for a single nucleotide polymorphism?

SNP

What is the purpose of the EC50 value?

To determine the potency of a drug

What is the result of repeated exposure of a receptor to an antagonist?

Up-regulation of receptors

What is the formula to measure the safety of a drug?

TI = TD50 / ED50

What is the term for the process by which receptors become unresponsive to an agonist?

Desensitization

Which drug has a small therapeutic index?

Warfarin

What is the term for the number of receptors available for agonist interaction after repeated exposure to an antagonist?

Receptor reserve

What is pharmacogenomics concerned with?

How genes affect drug response

What is the term for the characteristic of a drug that produces a maximal response?

Efficacy

What is the role of CPIC?

Publishes peer-reviewed clinical guidelines

What is the purpose of the 'table of pharmacogenetic associations' by FDA?

Lists gene-pairs for therapeutic management

What is the purpose of PharmacGKB?

Provides information on genetic variation and drug response

What is the primary goal of precision medicine?

To customize drug therapy to the individual

What is the significance of a larger therapeutic index?

The drug is safer

What is the effect of inhibiting P-glycoprotein on drug intracellular levels?

Increase drug intracellular levels

Which of the following medications is metabolized by MDR1?

All of the above

What is the characteristic of a drug transporter with a 'Poor Function' phenotype?

Little to no transport function

What is the primary location where drug transporters are most important?

Liver, kidney, and BBB

What is the effect of St. John's Wort on CYP450?

Induction

What is the effect of decreased expression of influx transporters?

Drugs accumulate in the extracellular fluid

Which of the following is a CYP450 inhibitor?

Grapefruit juice

What is the function of OATP1B1?

Moves drug into the hepatocyte

What is the effect of P-glycoprotein on drug absorption?

Decreases drug absorption

Which of the following is a CYP450 inducer?

Rifampin

What is the characteristic of SLC transporters?

Do not require ATP

What is the effect of decreased expression of efflux transporters?

Drugs accumulate in the cell

What is the name of the transporters involved in influx and efflux?

OCT and OATP

What can impact transporter expression and affect efficacy or toxicity?

Genetic factors

What is the primary goal of selecting a medication in pharmacotherapy?

To achieve the desired outcome with the lowest health care cost

Why is careful observation of a patient's response to treatment necessary?

All of the above

What should be considered when selecting a medication?

The patient's perception of illness and risk-benefit assessment

Why should a medication not be given by injection when it can be given orally?

To enhance patient adherence

What should be made before using medications, when indicated?

Lifestyle modifications

Under what circumstances can the FDA place a hold on a clinical trial?

If the investigators are not qualified

What is the primary purpose of the New Drug Application (NDA)?

To demonstrate that a drug is safe and effective for its intended use in the population studied

What is the primary function of FDA Advisory Committees?

To provide independent, expert advice and to permit the public to make comments

What type of evidence is considered the highest level of evidence in drug studies?

Meta analysis

What happens after the FDA approves a drug?

The drug's labeling is finalized and it may require additional studies prior to approval for marketing

What is the primary effect of a lower pH relative to the pKa on the fraction of protonated drug?

Increased fraction of protonated drug

What is the primary function of P-glycoprotein in the intestine?

To decrease drug absorption

What is the primary mechanism of absorption for most drugs?

Passive diffusion

What is the term for the movement of molecules from an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration?

Diffusion

What is the primary difference between IV and oral administration of a drug?

Percentage of bioavailability

What is the primary reason why a weak acid at acid pH is more lipid-soluble?

Because it is uncharged

What is the purpose of carrier proteins in facilitated diffusion?

To facilitate the passage of large molecules

What is the effect of a lower pH relative to the pKa on the fraction of protonated drug?

It increases the fraction of protonated drug

What is the term for the study of the movement of drugs through the body?

Pharmacokinetics

What is the primary determinant of drug mobility in the diffusion path?

Partition coefficient

What is the primary effect of first-pass metabolism on oral drug administration?

Decreases bioavailability

What is the primary reason why very hydrophilic drugs are poorly absorbed?

Because they are unable to cross lipid-rich membranes

What is the term for the study of the movement of drugs through the body?

Pharmacokinetics

What is the primary function of the Henderson-Hasselbalch equation?

To determine the pKa of an acid

What is the characteristic of the protonated form of an acid?

It is more lipid-soluble

What is the primary direction of molecule movement according to Fick's Law?

From an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration

What is the primary purpose of protein binding in pharmacokinetics?

To act as a drug reservoir and maintain a steady concentration of free drug

Which type of kinetics is characterized by a constant amount of drug being metabolized per unit of time?

Zero-order kinetics

What is the primary function of the P450 system in drug metabolism?

To convert prodrugs to active forms

What is the effect of a large volume of distribution on the half-life of a drug?

It increases the half-life of a drug

What is the primary mechanism of drug transport across the blood-brain barrier?

Lipid solubility through the endothelial membrane

What is the effect of CYP inhibitors on drug metabolism?

It decreases the metabolism of a drug

What is the primary purpose of glucuronidation in Phase II metabolism?

To prepare the drug for elimination by making it more water-soluble

What is the effect of a high protein binding on the distribution of a drug?

It decreases the distribution of a drug to specific tissues

What is the primary route of elimination for most drugs?

Renal elimination through the kidneys

What is the effect of a low molecular weight on the distribution of a drug?

It increases the distribution of a drug to specific tissues

Study Notes

Guiding Principles of Pharmacotherapy

  • Every medication should have a justifiable and documented indication for its use.
  • Medications should be used at the lowest dosage and for the shortest duration to achieve the desired outcome.
  • Monotherapy is preferred when a patient is adequately treated with a single drug.
  • Newly approved medications should only be used if they have clear advantages over older medications.
  • Lifestyle modifications should be made before using medications, when indicated.
  • The selection of a medication regimen should be based on evidence from controlled clinical trials.
  • The timing of drug administration should be considered as a possible influence on drug efficacy, adverse effects, and interactions with other drugs.

Preclinical Research

  • Purpose: to discover toxicity
  • Involves In Vitro and In Vivo studies
  • Required to follow Good Laboratory Practices (GLP) requirements
  • GLP requirements address study conduct, personnel, facilities, equipment, written protocols, operating procedures, study reports, and quality assurance oversight.

Clinical Research

  • Involves designing clinical trials with protocols, inclusion/exclusion criteria, control groups, drug regimens, and data collection and analysis methods.
  • Clinical research phase studies include:
    • Phase 1: Safety and dosage (20-100 participants)
    • Phase 2: Efficacy and side effects (up to several hundred participants)
    • Phase 3: Efficacy and monitoring of adverse reactions (300-3,000 participants)
    • Phase 4: Safety and efficacy (several thousand participants)

The Investigational New Drug Process

  • Involves submitting toxicity data from animal studies, manufacturing information, human studies, and investigator information to the FDA.
  • Researchers can ask for FDA assistance at any point in the process.

FDA Review

  • The FDA review team has 30 days to review the original IND submission.
  • The FDA responds to IND applications in one of two ways: approval to begin clinical trials or clinical hold to delay or stop the investigation.
  • The FDA can place a clinical hold for specific reasons, including unreasonable or significant risk to participants, unqualified investigators, misleading materials, and inadequate information about the trial's risks.

New Drug Application

  • Purpose: to demonstrate that a drug is safe and effective for its intended use in the population studied.
  • Includes all information from preclinical data to Phase 3 trial data, as well as reports on all studies, data, and analyses.
  • Also includes proposed labeling, safety updates, drug abuse information, patent information, and directions for use.

FDA Approval

  • The FDA review team decides if the NDA is complete and then reviews it within 6 to 10 months.
  • Once approved, the FDA finalizes labeling, which accurately and objectively describes the basis for approval and how best to use the drug.
  • May require additional studies prior to approval for marketing.

Pharmacokinetics

  • The movement of drugs through the body.
  • Involves administration, absorption, distribution, metabolism, and excretion (ADME).
  • Administration routes include enteral, parenteral, and other routes.

Absorption

  • Factors influencing absorption: pH, blood flow, total surface area, contact time, and expression of P-glycoprotein.
  • Bioavailability: IV vs oral (%), first pass hepatic metabolism, solubility, chemical instability, and nature of drug formulation.
  • Bioequivalence vs. therapeutic equivalence (generics).

Absorption from the GI Tract

  • Passive diffusion: no energy required, can be saturated, may be inhibited by competing compounds.
  • Facilitated diffusion: carrier proteins, energy dependent, can be saturated, may be inhibited by competing compounds.
  • Active transport: energy dependent, can move against concentration gradient, can be saturated, may be inhibited by competing compounds.
  • Endocytosis: transport of exceptionally large molecules.

Permeation and Flux

  • Fick's Law: describes passive movement of molecules down their concentration gradient.
  • Flux (J) = (C1 - C2) · (Area · Permeability coefficient) / Thickness.

pH and Drug Absorption

  • Henderson-Hasselbalch equation: log (protonated)/(unprotonated) = pKa - pH.
  • For acids: pKa = pH + log (concentration [HA]/concentration [A-]).
  • For bases: pKa = pH + log (concentration [BH+]/concentration [B]).
  • The protonated form of an acid is uncharged, while the protonated form of a base is charged.
  • Weak acids at acid pH will be more lipid-soluble because they are uncharged.

Drug-Receptor Interactions and Pharmacodynamics

  • Pharmacokinetics: the movement of drugs through the body
  • Pharmacodynamics: the body's biological response to drugs

Drug-Receptor Interactions:

  • Drugs act as signals, receptors are signal detectors
  • The magnitude of the cellular response is proportional to the number of drug-receptor complexes
  • Not all drugs exert effects by interacting with a receptor
  • Receptor: any biologic molecule to which a drug binds and produces a measurable response (e.g. enzymes, nucleic acids, structural proteins)

Agonist, Antagonist, and Partial Agonist:

  • Agonist: converts an inactive receptor to an active receptor, produces a measurable response
  • Antagonist: blocks the receptor, keeping it in an inactive state and preventing it from binding and being converted to an active state
  • Partial Agonist: similar to agonist, but with fewer activated receptors

Signal Transduction:

  • The drug-receptor complex triggers a response
  • Major receptor families:
    • Transmembrane ligand-gated ion channels
    • Transmembrane G protein-coupled receptors
    • Enzyme-linked receptors
    • Intracellular receptors
  • Characteristics of signal transduction:
    • Signal amplification
    • Desensitization and down-regulation of receptors

Signal Transduction Receptor Families:

  • Examples:
    • Acetylcholine, Nicotine, Chantix (transmembrane ligand-gated ion channels)
    • Dopamine, Epinephrine (transmembrane G protein-coupled receptors)
    • Insulin (enzyme-linked receptors)
    • Estrogen, Glucocorticoids, Paclitaxel, Trimethoprim, Erythromycin (intracellular receptors)

Dose-Response Relationships:

  • Graded dose-response relationship
  • Magnitude of the drug effect determined by:
    • Receptor sensitivity to the drug
    • Drug concentration at the receptor site
    • Dose of drug administered
    • Pharmacokinetic profile (absorption, distribution, metabolism, elimination)

Potency and Efficacy:

  • Potency: a measure of the amount of drug necessary to produce an effect (EC50)
  • Efficacy: the magnitude of response a drug causes when it interacts with a receptor, dependent on the number of drug-receptor complexes formed and the intrinsic activity of the drug

Intrinsic Activity:

  • Full agonist: binds to a receptor and produces a maximal biologic response
  • Partial agonist: has intrinsic activity greater than zero but less than one, cannot produce the same Emax as a full agonist
  • Inverse agonist: has intrinsic activity less than zero, reverses the activation state of receptors
  • Antagonist: binds to a receptor with high affinity but has zero intrinsic activity
    • Competitive antagonist: binds at the same site as the agonist in a reversible manner
    • Irreversible antagonist: binds covalently at the receptor, permanent binding
    • Allosteric antagonist: binds to a different site to prevent activation by agonist
    • Functional antagonist: action at a different receptor to create effects that are functionally opposite

Quantal Dose-Response Relationships:

  • Therapeutic index (TI): the ratio of the dose that produces toxicity in half the population (TD50) to the dose that produces a clinically desired or effective response (ED50)

Pharmacogenomics

  • Aims to predict how an individual may respond to a drug based on their genetics
  • Over 250 drugs have been identified with pharmacogenomic implications, and over 40 are rated with the highest level of evidence (level A) for changing prescribing

Genotype and Phenotype

  • Alleles: variant forms of genes, denoted with *
  • SNP: single nucleotide polymorphism
  • Haplotype: a group of inherited variations
  • Genotype: an individual's collection of genes
  • Phenotype: an observable trait
  • Pharmacogenomics uses genotype results to predict a phenotype

Genotype-Phenotype

  • Must evaluate individual alleles and interpret functional status
  • Functional status is based on the level of activity associated with the allele:
    • Increased
    • Normal
    • Decreased
    • No
  • The combination of alleles is used to predict the overall phenotype based on standardized translations

CYP2D6

  • Metabolizes opioids, including codeine, tramadol, hydrocodone, and oxycodone
  • Ultrarapid metabolizers (UMs) have higher concentrations of tramadol metabolite (O-desmethyltramadol) and codeine metabolite (morphine) than normal metabolizers (NMs), which may lead to increased risk of toxicity
  • CPIC guidelines recommend against tramadol or codeine use in UMs
  • Poor metabolizers (PMs) have significantly reduced metabolism to active compounds, which leads to decreased efficacy
  • CPIC guidelines recommend against use in PMs

CYP2C9

  • Metabolizes ~15% of drugs, including warfarin and NSAIDs
  • 6 alleles are defined as Tier 1 (must test) variants
  • A scoring system is used to determine the total activity score and to translate the genotype to phenotype
  • Clinically relevant differences in allele frequencies exist between African Americans and Europeans

Warfarin

  • Consists of S-enantiomer (more active) and R-enantiomer
  • S-enantiomer is metabolized to inactive metabolite
  • If decreased enzyme activity occurs, a lower dose is needed to achieve target effects
  • Also affected by VKORC1 genetic polymorphisms- can also allow a lower dosage if allele is present
  • CPIC guidelines include a dosing algorithm for genotype-based recommendations rather than phenotype-based recommendations

NSAIDs

  • Metabolized to inactive metabolites
  • Intermediate metabolizers (IMs) and PMs have higher exposure to NSAID concentrations, which may or may not be clinically significant for association to adverse effects
  • CPIC guidelines recommend PMs receive 25% to 50% of the lowest starting dose and IMs receive the lowest starting dose
  • Alternative agents or dose reduction may be recommended for certain NSAIDs

METABOLISM-REACTIONS-P450

  • Voriconazole-CYP2C19 genotype interaction
  • Genetic variations influence the activity of CYP2C19, the primary enzyme responsible for metabolizing voriconazole
  • Ultrarapid metabolizers are at increased risk of subtherapeutic levels and decreased efficacy
  • Poor metabolizers are at increased risk of supratherapeutic troughs, which may cause adverse events

Drug Transporters

  • Membrane-bound proteins that move drugs across biologic membranes
  • Located throughout the body, but the most important locations include the liver, kidney, intestine, and BBB
  • Promote influx or efflux of drug molecules
  • Genetic factors can impact transporter expression and affect efficacy and toxicity of a drug

ATP-Binding Cassette Transporters

  • These transporters bind adenosine triphosphate (ATP) and use the energy to drive the transport of molecules across the membrane
  • P-glycoprotein is the most widely studied, but there are no clinical recommendations for PGP variation

Solute Carrier Transporters

  • There are ~350 known solute carriers (SLC) transporters
  • SLC transporters do not require ATP to transport molecules across the membrane
  • The three most common types are OATPs, OCTs, and OATs

OATP1B1

  • Hepatic transporter that moves drugs from the blood into the hepatocyte, particularly statins
  • Decreased expression of OATP1B1 prevents drugs from entering the cell and results in increased plasma concentrations and increased adverse effects
  • CPIC guidelines recommend lower simvastatin doses or alternative agents in patients with poor SLCO1B1 function

OATP1A2

  • Intestinal influx transporter that moves drug molecules from the intestinal lumen into the endothelial cells of the intestine, which then allows the drug to get into the blood and be absorbed
  • Genetic polymorphisms that result in decreased activity reduce the ability of the drug to get through the intestine to the blood and result in decreased absorption and lower drug concentrations
  • In addition to genetic polymorphisms, other substances can inhibit transporters and cause a similar effect

Signal Transduction Characteristics

  • Signal amplification allows for a maximal response with only a fraction of total receptors occupied, due to "spare receptors".

  • Desensitization and downregulation of receptors occur due to prolonged agonist stimulation, resulting in diminished response.

    • Tachyphylaxis: phosphorylation renders receptors unresponsive to the agonist.
    • Downregulation: receptors are internalized within the cell and unable to interact with the agonist, requiring a finite time before they can be activated again (refractory).
  • Repeated exposure to an antagonist can lead to upregulation, where receptor reserves are inserted into the membrane, increasing the number of available receptors.

Dose-Response Relationships

  • Graded dose-response relationship: the effect of a drug increases as the concentration increases, until all receptors are occupied.
  • Potency: the amount of drug necessary to produce an effect, measured by EC50 (the concentration producing 50% of the maximum effect).
    • A smaller EC50 indicates a more potent drug.
  • Efficacy: the magnitude of response a drug causes when interacting with a receptor, dependent on the number of drug-receptor complexes formed and intrinsic activity.
    • Emax: the maximum efficacy, assuming the drug occupies all receptors.
  • Therapeutic Index (TI): the ratio of the dose producing toxicity in half the population (TD50) to the dose producing a clinically desired response (ED50), measuring the safety of a drug.
    • A larger TI indicates a wider safety margin.

Clinical Usefulness of TI

  • Warfarin: a small TI, with bioavailability critically altering therapeutic effects.
  • Penicillin: a large TI, with bioavailability not critically altering therapeutic effects.

Pharmacogenomics

  • Pharmacogenomics: the study of how genetic variation affects drug response, allowing for personalized medicine.
  • Genomic medicine: the study of how genes affect health.

Pharmacogenomics Implementation

  • CPIC: the Clinical Pharmacogenomics Implementation Consortium, providing peer-reviewed, evidence-based clinical guidelines.
  • PharmGKB: a database providing information on the impact of genetic variation on drug response.
  • AMP: the Association for Molecular Pathology, publishing recommendations on variations to include in testing panels.
  • FDA: providing a "table of pharmacogenetic associations" for genetic variations affecting drug response.

Pharmacogenomics Terminology

  • Alleles: variant forms of genes, denoted with *.
  • SNP: single nucleotide polymorphism.
  • Haplotype: a group of inherited variations.
  • Genotype: an individual's collection of genes, often used to predict a phenotype.
  • Phenotype: an observable trait.

Genotype-Phenotype

  • Evaluating individual alleles and interpreting functional status.
  • Functional status is based on the level of activity associated with the allele: increased, normal, decreased, no, or unknown.

Drug Metabolizing Enzymes

  • Metabolizing a wide variety of xenobiotic chemicals, including drugs, pollutants, and endogenous chemicals.
  • Primary role: transforming compounds into more hydrophilic, polar entities to enhance elimination from the body.
  • Can result in active or inactive metabolites, and are affected by gene polymorphisms.

Drug Transporters

  • Membrane-bound proteins that move drugs across biologic membranes.
  • Most important in the liver, kidney, and blood-brain barrier.
  • Influx and efflux of drug molecules, with genetic factors impacting transporter expression and affecting efficacy or toxicity.
  • Two general families: solute carrier (SLC) transporters and ATP-binding cassette (ABC) transporters.
  • OATP1B1: moves drugs from blood to hepatocyte, with decreased expression preventing drugs from entering cells and increasing plasma concentrations.

CYP450 Inducers and Inhibitors

  • CYP450 inducers: increasing the expression of CYP450 enzymes, such as PARC GPS.
  • CYP450 inhibitors: decreasing the expression of CYP450 enzymes, such as PACMAN-G.

Guiding Principles of Pharmacology

  • A justifiable and documented indication is necessary for every medication.

Rationale for Medication Use

  • Medication should be used at the lowest dosage for the shortest duration of time to achieve the desired outcome.
  • Monotherapy is preferred when adequate.
  • Newly approved medications should be used only if there is a clear advantage over older medications.

Evidence-Based Medicine

  • The selection of medication should be based on evidence obtained from controlled clinical trials when possible.

Drug Administration and Efficacy

  • The timing of drug administration can influence drug efficacy, adverse effects, and interactions with other drugs and food.
  • Medication regimens should be simplified as much as possible to enhance patient adherence.

Patient Factors and Adherence

  • A patient's perception of illness or the risk and benefits of therapy can affect adherence and treatment outcomes.
  • Careful observation of a patient's response to treatment is necessary to confirm its efficacy, prevent, detect, or manage adverse effects, assess compliance, and determine the need for drug dosage adjustments or discontinuation of drug therapy.

Medication Selection and Lifestyle Modifications

  • Medication should not be given by injection when giving it by mouth would be just as effective and safe.
  • Lifestyle modifications should be made, when indicated, before medications are used.
  • Medication can cause a disease, sign, symptom, syndrome, or abnormal lab tests.

Cost-Effective and Convenient Care

  • When a variety of drugs are equally effective and safe, the drug that results in the lowest healthcare cost or is more convenient for the patient should be chosen.
  • Patients' societal effects should be considered.

Addressing Failure of Medication

  • Possible reasons for failure of medication include:
    • Inappropriate drug selection
    • Poor adherence
    • Improper drug dose or interval
    • Misdiagnosis
    • Concurrent illness
    • Interaction with food or drugs
    • Environmental factors
    • Genetic factors

Drug Development Process

  • The drug development process involves five steps: discovery and development, preclinical research, clinical research, FDA review, and post-market drug safety monitoring.

Step 1: Discovery and Development

  • Examines molecular compounds.

Step 2: Preclinical Research

  • Aims to discover toxicity in vitro (outside the body) and in vivo (in people or animals).
  • Required to follow Good Laboratory Practices (GLP) requirements.

Step 3: Clinical Research

  • Researchers can ask for FDA assistance at any point in the process.
  • FDA IND review team consists of:
    • Project Manager: Coordinates the team's activities and is the primary contact for the sponsor.
    • Medical Officer: Reviews clinical study information and data.
    • Statistician: Interprets clinical trial designs and data.
    • Pharmacologist: Reviews preclinical studies.
    • Pharmakineticist: Focuses on the drug's absorption, distribution, metabolism, and excretion processes.
    • Chemist: Evaluates a drug's chemical compounds.
    • Microbiologist: Reviews data for antimicrobial products.

FDA Approval

  • FDA review team has 30 days to review the original IND submission.
  • The process protects volunteers who participated in clinical trials from unreasonable and significant risk.
  • FDA responds to IND application in one of two ways:
    • Approval to begin clinical trial.
    • Clinical hold to delay or stop investigation.

Step 4: FDA Review

  • New drug application (NDA) purpose is to demonstrate that a drug is safe and effective for its intended use in the population studied.
  • NDA includes:
    • Preclinical data to Phase 3 trial data.
    • Reports on all studies, data, and analyses.
    • Proposed labeling.
    • Safety updates.
    • Drug abuse information.
    • Patent information.
    • Data from studies conducted outside the United States.
    • Institutional review board compliance information.
    • Directions for use.
  • FDA review: complete or not complete; if complete, 6-10 months to make a decision.

FDA Approval

  • Finalize labeling.
  • May require additional studies prior to approval for marketing.

FDA Advisory Committees

  • Provide independent, expert advice and permit public comments.
  • Includes a patient representative providing input from the patient perspective.

Step 5: Post-Market Drug Safety Monitoring

  • Supplemental applications.
  • INDs for marked drugs.
  • Manufacture inspection.
  • Drug advertising.
  • Generic drugs.
  • Reporting problems.
  • Surveillance.

Drug Studies Evidence Levels

  • Top 3:
    • Meta-analysis.
    • Systematic review.
    • Randomized controlled trials.

Pharmacokinetics: "ADME"

Absorption

  • Entry of a drug from the site of administration into the plasma (input)
  • Types of absorption:
    • Passive diffusion: no carrier, not saturable, low structural specificity, applies to most drugs
    • Facilitated diffusion: specialized transmembrane carrier proteins, no energy required, can be saturated
    • Active transport: carrier proteins, energy-dependent, can be saturated, selective
    • Endocytosis: for transport of exceptionally large molecules (e.g. B12)

Factors Influencing Absorption

  • pH: most drugs are weak acids or weak bases, affect drug absorption
  • pKa: measure of the strength of the interaction of a compound with a proton
    • Lower pKa = more acidic
    • Higher pKa = more basic
  • Henderson-Hasselbalch equation: describes how protonated and non-protonated molecules move
  • Blood flow to absorption site: higher blood flow = greater absorption
  • Total surface area: greater surface area = greater absorption
  • Contact time: longer contact time = greater absorption
  • Expression of P-glycoprotein: a transmembrane transporter protein that reduces drug absorption

Distribution

  • Leaves the bloodstream and is distributed to specific tissues and interstitial fluids
  • Factors affecting distribution:
    • Blood flow
    • Capillary permeability
    • Liver capillary: large fenestrations allow drugs to move between blood and interstitium
    • Brain capillary: tight junctions prevent many substances from entering
  • Protein binding: albumin is the major drug-binding protein, affects drug distribution and half-life
  • Lipophilicity: affects drug distribution into the brain and other tissues

Metabolism

  • Transformation of a drug by the liver or other tissues, changes the plasma concentration of the drug
  • Kinetics of metabolism:
    • First-order kinetics: constant fraction of drug is metabolized per unit of time
    • Michaelis-Menten kinetics: rate of metabolism depends on the concentration of the drug
  • Reactions of drug metabolism:
    • Phase I: usually involve reduction, oxidation, or hydrolysis
    • Phase II: most often glucuronidation, prepares the drug for elimination
  • Enzymes involved in metabolism:
    • Cytochrome P450 system: heme-containing proteins, located primarily in liver and GI
    • Genetic variability: affects drug metabolism and response

Elimination

  • Removal of a drug from the body (output)
  • Routes of elimination:
    • Renal: kidneys are the primary source of elimination
    • Hepatic: bile is the primary route of elimination
    • Other: lungs, breast milk, sweat, tears, hair, and skin
  • Factors affecting elimination:
    • Diminished renal or hepatic blood flow
    • Decreased ability to extract blood from plasma
    • Decreased metabolism
    • Drug interactions or hepatic impairment

This quiz covers the fundamental principles of pharmacology and pharmacokinetics, including the guiding principles of pharmacotherapy. It explores the importance of justifiable indications for medication use and careful observation of patient responses.

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