Motivation & Emotion Quiz

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Questions and Answers

How do negative emotions generally affect cognitive functioning?

  • They enhance memory recall.
  • They broaden attention.
  • They narrow attention. (correct)
  • They eliminate cognitive load.

What role does culture play in the expression of emotions?

  • Culture establishes universal emotional responses.
  • Culture has no impact on emotional display.
  • Culture eliminates all emotional expressions.
  • Culture influences the display rules for emotions. (correct)

According to the content, when do self-conscious emotions begin to develop?

  • During early adolescence.
  • Immediately after birth.
  • Within the first nine months of life. (correct)
  • Before birth.

What are basic emotions primarily considered to be?

<p>Adaptive reactions to specific stimuli. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following best describes the evolutionary perspective on emotions proposed by Charles Darwin?

<p>Emotions serve specific purposes to regulate behavior in recurring situations. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which aspect of motivation does NOT vary between individuals?

<p>The underlying biological factors (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

According to the outlined content, which brain region is primarily responsible for governing homeostasis?

<p>Hypothalamus (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary function of instincts in motivation according to the content?

<p>They are essential for the survival of a species (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following best defines motivation as presented in the outline?

<p>An internal state that sets direction and activates thoughts (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement about psychological motives is accurate based on the content?

<p>They arise from learned behaviors and individual experiences. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does the James-Lange Theory suggest about the relationship between physiological reactions and emotions?

<p>Physiological reactions precede and lead to the experience of emotions. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

According to the Cannon-Bard Theory, what happens when an emotional stimulus is presented?

<p>Both physiological arousal and emotional experience occur simultaneously and independently. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which component of the brain is primarily associated with fear and anger, according to the content?

<p>Limbic System (Amygdala) (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In Cognitive Appraisal Theories, what role does cognitive appraisal play in emotional experience?

<p>It assesses and identifies the type of emotion experienced after physiological arousal. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How do the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions of the Autonomic Nervous System differ in their response to emotions?

<p>Sympathetic is more active during mild unpleasant emotions, and parasympathetic is more active during mild pleasant emotions. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is indicated by the left hemisphere of the cerebral cortex concerning emotions?

<p>It is more involved in positive emotions. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What primary factor distinguishes the Cannon-Bard and James-Lange theories of emotion?

<p>The temporal order of physiological reaction and emotional experience. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a characteristic of the autonomic nervous system's response to emergencies?

<p>Sympathetic division mobilizes the body for immediate action. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement best explains the primary focus of Clark Hull’s Drive Theory?

<p>Internal drives arise in response to biological needs and maintain homeostasis. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does expectancy in Expectancy Theory primarily refer to?

<p>The perceived connection between effort and performance. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In Maslow's hierarchy of needs, what must occur before higher-level needs become active?

<p>Lower needs must be satisfied. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement about motives is least accurate?

<p>All motives are directly related to biological survival. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a key characteristic of achievement motivation according to Henry Murray?

<p>It varies in strength among different people and influences performance evaluation. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does Self-Determination Theory view the role of choice in motivation?

<p>Choice is a critical element in deciding actions and motivation. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which concept describes external stimuli or rewards that motivate behavior, separate from biological needs?

<p>Incentives (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What role does reinforcement play according to the discussed theories of motivation?

<p>It enhances the understanding of both internal and external motivations. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does a high need for achievement (n Ach) indicate about an individual's task selection?

<p>They tend to select tasks of intermediate difficulty. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following best describes mastery orientation in achievement motivation?

<p>Emphasis on personal improvement and skill development. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are mastery avoidance goals primarily concerned with?

<p>Preventing the development of inadequate knowledge. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the context of emotions, what distinguishes affect from emotions?

<p>Affect refers to observable behaviors associated with emotions. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What aspect does performance approach goals prioritize?

<p>Outperforming others in academic performance. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How is emotional arousal best defined in the context of emotions?

<p>Physiological changes paired with cognitive processes. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement most accurately describes motivational conflict?

<p>It refers to a situation where multiple goals oppose each other. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is an essential feature of emotions compared to feelings?

<p>Emotions are complex patterns that include behavioral expressions. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a key characteristic of longitudinal design in studying development?

<p>It involves repeated observation of the same individuals over time. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following best describes the concept of normative investigations?

<p>They outline characteristics observed in specific age groups or stages. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a potential drawback of cross-sectional design when studying human development?

<p>It can confuse age-related changes with societal variations. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How is development often conceptualized over the lifespan?

<p>As gains and losses resembling debits and credits. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why might a sequential design be beneficial in developmental research?

<p>It incorporates both longitudinal and cross-sectional elements. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement accurately reflects the concept of stage theories of development?

<p>Individuals must complete all earlier stages before advancing to the next. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a significant limitation of longitudinal design in studying development?

<p>It can be time-consuming and may not yield immediate results. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a primary focus of developmental psychology?

<p>To study the changes in physical and psychological functioning over time. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What factor is NOT considered a primary aspect of temperament?

<p>Cognitive processing styles (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which attachment style is most commonly associated with secure relationships according to the Strange Situation Test?

<p>Secure (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which scenario best illustrates the concept of imprinting as described in attachment theory?

<p>A newborn immediately following the first moving object it sees (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What aspect of parenting styles primarily influences a child's socialization goals?

<p>Cultural beliefs surrounding child-rearing (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which theory posits that a child's attachment style predicts their future interpersonal behavior?

<p>Bowlby's Internal Working Model (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In Kohlberg's theory of moral development, what is primarily evaluated through moral dilemmas?

<p>The intentions behind moral choices (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which type of attachment is characterized by avoidance and a lack of emotional connection?

<p>Insecure-avoidant attachment (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What developmental aspect is linked to a lack of consistency in caregiving as noted in attachment studies?

<p>Physical and social deficits (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary role of assimilation in Piaget's cognitive development theory?

<p>To modify existing knowledge to incorporate new information without altering the original schema. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During which stage of cognitive development does a child first demonstrate the understanding of object permanence?

<p>Sensorimotor stage (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does the process of accommodation involve in Piaget’s cognitive development framework?

<p>Restructuring one's existing knowledge to include new information. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which aspect of cognitive development is indicated by the concept of conservation?

<p>Understanding that quantity remains the same despite changes in shape or appearance. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In Vygotsky's theory, what does the Zone of Proximal Development refer to?

<p>The gap between what a child can do independently and what they can do with assistance. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a key characteristic of the formal operations stage in Piaget's cognitive development theory?

<p>Development of the ability to think abstractly and engage in hypothetical reasoning. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement is true about the preoperational stage of cognitive development?

<p>Children begin using symbols and language, yet exhibit non-reversible thinking. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary aim of socialization in an individual's development?

<p>To shape behavior patterns to align with societal values and expectations. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What aspect of cognitive development is highlighted by the 'Violation of Expectation' experiments conducted by Renée Baillargeon?

<p>The premature understanding of object permanence at an earlier age than Piaget proposed. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following best defines Erikson's psychosocial stages?

<p>They represent a series of conflicts or crises across the individual’s lifespan. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary emotional conflict experienced during adolescence?

<p>Identity vs. Role Confusion (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which factor can lead to feelings of inferiority in children?

<p>Difficulty in transitioning between home and peer environments (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a critical component for a positive outcome during adolescence?

<p>Conscious search for identity (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What outcome may result from unresolved conflicts from earlier developmental stages?

<p>Increased role confusion (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How is intimacy defined in the context of young adulthood?

<p>Deep personal connections with others (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT an element that can lead to a positive outcome in childhood?

<p>Being overly dependent on adults (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What can hinder an adolescent's ability to establish their identity?

<p>Inability to make deliberate choices (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following statements best captures a negative outcome in young adulthood?

<p>Fear of commitment can lead to isolation (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What can lead to a long-lasting lack of confidence in children during the locomotor stage?

<p>Parents failing to reinforce the child's efforts (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary conflict children face during the locomotor stage of development?

<p>Initiative vs. Guilt (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which element is necessary for a positive outcome in the initiative vs. guilt stage?

<p>Children should be allowed to play adult roles without guilt (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What negative outcome may occur if children are not allowed to take initiative?

<p>They may feel guilty about their desires (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What outcome is associated with an infant who forms a trusting relationship with their caregiver?

<p>Development of a strong sense of competence (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During which stage do children primarily learn the relationship between perseverance and the satisfaction of completing tasks?

<p>Latency (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a negative outcome of a lack of responsiveness from caregivers during infancy?

<p>Development of mistrust in relationships (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is considered an important event that influences child development during the latency stage?

<p>Interaction with peers at school (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary conflict faced by toddlers in Erikson's second stage of development?

<p>Autonomy vs. Shame and Doubt (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following statements best captures a significant aspect of the locomotor stage?

<p>Children engage in hero worship as a form of initiative. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How can parental behavior negatively influence a toddler's development of autonomy?

<p>By being overly protective and restricting activities (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of these behaviors is indicative of a healthy development during the initiative vs. guilt stage?

<p>A child eagerly participating in imaginative play (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What impact does achieving a positive outcome in the trust vs. mistrust stage have on future psychosocial development?

<p>It enhances emotional intelligence and relationship-building skills (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following describes a key element that must be present for a positive outcome in the muscular-anal stage?

<p>The child must begin taking responsibility for their self-care (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a characteristic of toddlers who lack autonomy due to overprotective parenting?

<p>Increased feelings of shame (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is likely to happen to a child who faces excessive doubt during the autonomy vs. shame and doubt stage?

<p>They may avoid taking on new challenges later in life (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary conflict during the stage of middle adulthood?

<p>Generativity vs. Stagnation (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following best defines generativity in the context of adulthood?

<p>Caring for and guiding the next generation (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a potential negative outcome for individuals who do not resolve their issues during middle adulthood?

<p>Emotional isolation and stagnation (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During which stage do individuals primarily reflect on and accept their life's experiences?

<p>Late Adulthood (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is essential for achieving true intimacy in relationships?

<p>Personal commitment and openness (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT an element leading to a positive outcome in intimacy development?

<p>Retreating into emotional isolation (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

According to Erikson, what should a person focus on during middle adulthood to achieve satisfaction?

<p>Nurturing children or future generations (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does the concept of integrity imply during late adulthood?

<p>Acceptance and organization of one's life experiences (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What defines dissociative amnesia?

<p>Forgetting important personal experiences without organic dysfunction (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement describes a typical symptom of schizophrenia?

<p>Hallucinations and delusions (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How do positive symptoms of schizophrenia differ from negative symptoms?

<p>Positive symptoms are characterized by the presence of unusual thoughts or perceptions (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a primary feature of dissociative identity disorder (DID)?

<p>Multiple distinct personalities coexisting within an individual (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In what manner does schizophrenia typically manifest?

<p>Younger men often experiencing sudden breaks (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does the term 'dissociative fugue' refer to?

<p>A wandering period that includes memory loss and identity change (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following best encapsulates hallucinations?

<p>False perceptual experiences distorting reality (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What type of symptoms associated with schizophrenia would be characterized as 'flat affect'?

<p>Complete and lack of emotional responsiveness (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What explains the higher rate of depression in women compared to men?

<p>Increased likelihood of negative experiences such as poverty (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which best describes the relationship between rumination and learned helplessness in depression?

<p>Rumination can lead to learned helplessness (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary feature of Somatic Symptom Disorder?

<p>Numerous physical complaints without a medical explanation (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which demographic is most at risk for suicide among Canadian youth?

<p>Youth aged 15-24 in northern provinces (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which characteristic defines Anxiety Illness Disorder?

<p>Belief in being physically ill despite medical reassurances (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following symptoms is characteristic of Generalized Anxiety Disorder?

<p>Feelings of anxiety and worry most of the time without specific threats (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which disorder is characterized by the presence of obsessive thoughts followed by compulsive actions?

<p>Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What distinguishes social phobias from other types of phobias?

<p>Fear of being observed in public situations (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which theory posits that anxiety disorders may stem from distorted perceptions of danger?

<p>Cognitive Theory (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What type of mood disorder is characterized by alternating periods of severe depression and manic episodes?

<p>Bipolar Disorder (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the context of mood disorders, what aspect is primarily associated with the psychodynamic approach?

<p>Unconscious conflicts from childhood (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following describes the cognitive triad in relation to mood disorders?

<p>Negative views of self, the world, and future (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What common symptom is exhibited in both anxiety and mood disorders?

<p>Impairment of cognitive functioning (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which component is NOT typically linked to biological causes of mood disorders?

<p>Learned behaviors from childhood (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does Panic Disorder primarily manifest?

<p>Unexpected severe panic attacks (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement best reflects the continuity hypothesis in understanding mental disorders?

<p>Mental disorders are better understood as a fluctuating spectrum. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a key reason for ensuring objectivity in mental health judgments?

<p>Content and context must be considered without bias. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How might improper labeling as 'abnormal' adversely affect individuals?

<p>It may result in stigmatization and misinterpretation of behavior. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which behavior is most likely to be classified as abnormal based on the provided criteria?

<p>An elderly woman kicking others in a public setting. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What role does the 'discontinuity hypothesis' play in the classification of abnormal behavior?

<p>It underscores the importance of strong terms in describing severe cases. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What common misconception about mental disorders could be inferred from the content?

<p>Mental disorders are unique to specific individuals and cultures. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following statements is most aligned with Thomas Szasz's perspective on mental illness?

<p>Psychotherapy is effective in providing insight rather than treating illness. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following accurately represents a potential ethical issue in labeling individuals as 'abnormal'?

<p>Once labeled, individuals may face long-lasting stigma and prejudice. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following best describes the role of the diathesis-stress model in the development of psychological disorders?

<p>It requires both vulnerability and environmental stressors to manifest disorders. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What was a significant shift in understanding psychological disorders as suggested by Freud's contributions?

<p>Unconscious conflicts play a crucial role in mental health. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In what way did Philippe Pinel influence the classification of psychological disorders?

<p>He classified disorders according to patterns of symptoms. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is one of the primary purposes of psychological diagnosis in the context of classifying disorders?

<p>To create a common language for understanding and treating mental health issues. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following statements about the DSM-5 is incorrect?

<p>It was published in 1980. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What do the biological approaches to psychological disorders primarily focus on?

<p>Structural abnormalities and biochemical processes. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a common misconception regarding the causes of psychological disorders?

<p>They can arise purely from environmental stressors. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What was a historical consequence of supernatural theories on psychological disorders?

<p>The association of mental illness with moral failure and evil. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does comorbidity refer to in the context of psychological disorders?

<p>The co-occurrence of multiple psychological disorders. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following factors is NOT specifically identified in the content as a contributor to the etiology of psychological disorders?

<p>Spiritual beliefs and practices. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a primary goal of therapy in the therapeutic context?

<p>Reaching a diagnosis about impairments (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following best describes psychotherapies?

<p>They target changing learned faulty behaviors. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In what context are individuals referred to as clients rather than patients?

<p>When dealing with life and social problems (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What ethical consideration ensures the therapist-client relationship is in the best interest of both parties?

<p>Maintaining therapist-client confidentiality (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which professional is specifically trained to focus on psychiatric disorders and can prescribe medication?

<p>Psychiatrist (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Effective therapy is most dependent on which of the following?

<p>The therapeutic alliance between client and therapist (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a common feature of biomedical therapies?

<p>They alter mechanisms within the central nervous system. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which ethical standard must be upheld to validate the goals of therapy?

<p>Treatment options must be discussed considering alternative approaches. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary goal of psychodynamic therapies?

<p>To establish inner peace and understanding of conflicts (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which psychodynamic technique involves analyzing a person's dreams to uncover motivations?

<p>Dream Analysis (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does resistance in psychodynamic therapy typically indicate?

<p>The client is unwilling to delve into certain issues (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In behavior therapies, which of the following is a key technique intended to replace a maladaptive response?

<p>Counterconditioning (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the fundamental focus of behavior therapy?

<p>Observing and modifying overt behaviors (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does catharsis refer to in the context of psychodynamic therapy?

<p>The release of repressed emotions (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following best describes transference?

<p>The client's projection of feelings toward the therapist related to past individuals (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement best captures the goal of behavior modification?

<p>To systematically change problematic behaviors (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary goal of systematic desensitization in counterconditioning?

<p>To reduce anxiety by gradually confronting fear stimuli (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which therapy specifically focuses on transforming irrational beliefs to alter emotional reactions?

<p>Rational-emotive therapy (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In contingency management, what best describes positive reinforcement strategies?

<p>Increasing the frequency of favorable responses to replace negative behavior (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does flooding involve in the context of exposure therapy?

<p>Intensive exposure to a phobic situation all at once (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What key concept do cognitive therapies primarily target to change client behavior?

<p>Cognitive content and processes (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary characteristic of aversion therapy?

<p>Pairing pleasant stimuli with negative outcomes (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following steps is NOT part of systematic desensitization?

<p>Intensive confrontation with phobic stimuli (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In cognitive therapy according to Beck, what is evaluated to challenge a client’s thought patterns?

<p>Evidence for the accuracy of those thoughts (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Flashcards

Basic Emotions

Emotions that are innate and evolved to help us handle situations adaptively. They are not random but tied to specific situations.

Emotional Motivation

Emotions trigger actions and keep us motivated to reach goals.

Social Functions of Emotion

Emotions help us interact with others, and support prosocial or beneficial behaviors.

Cognitive Appraisal and Culture

Our thoughts and beliefs about a situation shape how we experience and express emotions, which can vary by culture.

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Self-Conscious Emotions

Emotions like pride, shame, guilt, and embarrassment develop later in life and are influenced by others.

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James-Lange Theory

Emotion arises from physiological responses to a stimulus.

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Cannon-Bard Theory

Emotional experience and physiological response happen simultaneously.

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Two-Factor Theory (Schachter)

Emotions are a combination of physiological arousal and cognitive interpretation.

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Autonomic Nervous System (ANS)

Part of the nervous system that controls automatic functions like heart rate.

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Sympathetic Division

Part of ANS, involved in the 'fight or flight' response.

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Parasympathetic Division

Part of ANS, calming effect.

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Amygdala's role

Processes fear and anger; part of the limbic system; it processes information about emotions.

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Cerebral Cortex's role

Provides meaning to emotions; links emotions to memories and experiences.

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Motivation

An internal state that starts, directs, and keeps physical and mental activities going.

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Primary Motives

Basic needs like food, water, warmth, and love that are essential for survival and growth.

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Hypothalamus

A part of the brain that controls basic bodily functions like hunger, thirst, and sleep.

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Instincts

Automatic, pre-programmed tendencies that help us survive.

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Homeostasis

The body's ability to maintain a stable internal environment.

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Drive Theory

A theory in which internal drives (like hunger or thirst) motivate behavior to maintain a balanced state.

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Incentives

External factors that motivate us, even if they're not directly related to survival needs.

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Psychological Motives

Motives that are not directly linked to survival needs but are learned, like achievement or affiliation.

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Expectancy Theory

A theory suggesting that our motivation depends on how likely we think we'll succeed and how much we care about the rewards.

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Maslow's Hierarchy of Needs

A pyramid-like system of human needs, where basic physiological needs must be met before higher levels can be addressed.

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Self-Determination Theory

The idea that humans are motivated by autonomy (choice), competence (feeling capable), and relatedness (connection).

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Need for Achievement (n Ach)

A personality trait reflecting the importance people place on achieving goals, especially challenging ones. They are more focused on personal achievement than competing with others.

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Mastery Orientation

Focusing on personal learning and improvement, aiming to understand and master a topic, regardless of how others perform.

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Performance Orientation

Focusing on comparing one's performance to others, aiming to outperform and be seen as better.

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Mastery Approach Goals

Goals driven by the motivation to learn and improve, aiming to gain maximum knowledge and understanding.

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Performance Approach Goals

Goals driven by the motivation to outperform others, aiming to be seen as more competent or skilled.

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Emotions

Complex reactions to situations involving physiological changes, thoughts, expressions, and behaviors. They are generally positive or negative.

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Mood

A long-lasting emotional state that influences your overall view of the world. It is more general than an emotion.

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Affect

The observable behaviors associated with emotions, like your facial expressions, voice tone, and posture.

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Developmental Psychology

The study of how and why people change over time, from conception to death. It's about the physical, psychological, and social aspects of development.

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Stages of Development

Distinct periods in development characterized by abrupt changes. It's the idea that we move through steps with different qualities in each phase.

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Longitudinal Design

A research method where the same individuals are repeatedly observed and tested over time to study the course of development.

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Cross-Sectional Design

A research method where people of different ages are compared at the same time to study age-related differences.

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Normative Investigations

Studies that describe the typical characteristics of a specific age or developmental stage, focusing on averages and norms.

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Sequential Design

A research method that combines both longitudinal and cross-sectional approaches to study age changes across different generations.

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Studying Development: Gains & Losses

Development is a long process with both gains and losses. We acquire new skills, but older capabilities may decline.

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Developmental Psychology: Importance

Understanding developmental psychology helps us understand human growth and behavior at all ages, supporting healthier development and effective interventions.

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Piaget's Stages

Piaget proposed four stages of cognitive development: sensorimotor, preoperational, concrete operational, and formal operational. Each stage involves different ways of thinking and understanding the world.

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Assimilation

Assimilation is when we fit new information into existing mental structures or schemes. It's like fitting a new puzzle piece into an existing puzzle.

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Accommodation

Accommodation is when we adjust our existing mental structures to accommodate new information. It's like changing the puzzle to fit the new piece.

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Object Permanence

Object permanence is the understanding that objects continue to exist even when we can't see them. This develops around 2 years old.

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Egocentrism

Egocentrism is the inability to see things from another person's perspective. It's common in young children.

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Conservation

Conservation is the understanding that the amount of something stays the same even if its appearance changes. This develops in the concrete operational stage.

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Zone of Proximal Development

The Zone of Proximal Development (ZPD) is the gap between what a learner can do independently and with help. This is where effective learning takes place.

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Theory of Mind

Theory of Mind is the ability to understand that others have different thoughts, beliefs, and perspectives than our own.

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Socialization

Socialization is the lifelong process of learning the values, behaviors, and norms of our culture. It's how we become part of society.

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Erikson's Psychosocial Stages

Erikson identified eight stages of psychosocial development, each with a unique crisis or conflict individuals must navigate throughout their lives.

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Temperament

A person's biologically based way of responding emotionally and behaviorally to the environment. It's how easily we get excited, how calm or anxious we tend to be.

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Attachment

A strong emotional bond between a child and their primary caregiver, providing a sense of security and comfort.

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Imprinting

A rapid and irreversible learning process in some species, where a young animal forms a strong attachment to the first moving object they see.

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Internal Working Model

A mental representation of how relationships work, based on early attachment experiences. It influences how we interact with others later in life.

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Contact Comfort

The physical closeness and touch experienced in the attachment relationship, providing a sense of safety and security.

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Strange Situation Test

A research method used to assess attachment styles in infants, where a child's behavior is observed in a controlled setting with their caregiver, a stranger, and separations.

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Secure Attachment

A healthy attachment style where a child feels safe and secure with their caregiver, allowing them to explore and learn independently.

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Parenting Styles

Different approaches to raising children, ranging on a spectrum of demandingness (setting rules) and responsiveness (being warm and supportive).

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Trust vs. Mistrust

The first stage of Erikson's psychosocial development, occurring during infancy (birth to 1 year), where infants learn to trust others based on consistent care and responsiveness. If their needs aren't met regularly, they may develop mistrust.

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Autonomy vs. Doubt

Erikson's second stage, during toddlerhood (1 to 2 years), where children strive for independence and self-confidence by learning to do things on their own, like toilet training. Overprotective parenting can lead to doubts and insecurity.

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Oral-Sensory Stage

The first stage of Erikson's theory, focusing on the development of trust or mistrust based on the infant's experience with feeding and care.

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Muscular-Anal Stage

The second stage of Erikson's theory, focused on toddlers developing autonomy and self-control through learning to manage tasks like toilet training and dressing themselves.

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Erikson's Stages

Eight distinct stages of psychosocial development, each marked by a specific crisis or conflict individuals face. Successfully navigating these conflicts builds healthy personality development.

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What's the importance of consistent care in the Oral-Sensory stage?

Consistent care and responsiveness are essential for infants to build trust. Babies who aren't consistently cared for may develop mistrust, impacting their future relationships and social skills.

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How does overprotection impact the Muscular-Anal stage?

Overprotection by parents can inhibit toddlers from developing autonomy and self-confidence. They might feel less capable and exhibit more doubt in their abilities later in life.

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What is the potential consequence of experiencing too much doubt in the Muscular-Anal stage?

Children who experience a lot of doubt during this stage may develop a lack of confidence in their abilities later in life. They might be less likely to take risks or try new things.

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Industry vs. Inferiority

This stage, from 6 to 12 years old, involves children developing a sense of competence through school and social activities. They are learning to be productive and succeed. If they struggle, they can develop feelings of inadequacy.

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Positive Outcome: Industry

Children successfully navigate this stage by experiencing pleasure in productive work and feeling capable of completing tasks. They develop a sense of confidence in their abilities.

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Negative Outcome: Inferiority

If children struggle with academic or social challenges in this stage, they may develop feelings of inadequacy and inferiority, believing they are not good enough.

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Identity vs. Role Confusion

During adolescence (12-18 years old), individuals try to figure out who they are and what their place is in the world. They are searching for their identity by exploring different roles and values.

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Positive Outcome: Identity

By successfully navigating this stage, adolescents develop a strong sense of self, knowing who they are and what they stand for. This helps them make deliberate decisions about their future.

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Negative Outcome: Role Confusion

If adolescents struggle to define their identity and make choices about their future, they may experience role confusion, feeling lost and unclear about their purpose in life.

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Intimacy vs. Isolation

This stage, from 19 to 40 years old, focuses on establishing close and meaningful relationships with others. It's about finding a sense of connection and deep intimacy, which requires a sense of trust and vulnerability.

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Positive Outcome: Intimacy

Individuals who successfully navigate this stage develop the ability to form deep and lasting connections with others. They are capable of loving and being loved, sharing their lives with others.

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Intimacy

A deep and meaningful connection with another person, involving emotional closeness, trust, and commitment.

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Generativity vs. Stagnation

The psychosocial crisis of middle adulthood, where individuals strive to contribute to society and guide future generations or become stagnant and self-absorbed.

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Integrity vs. Despair

The psychosocial crisis of late adulthood, where individuals reflect on their lives, seeking meaning and acceptance or experiencing regret and despair.

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What is the key difference between intimacy and physical closeness?

While physical closeness can be a component of intimacy, intimacy requires emotional vulnerability, trust, and shared experiences. It goes beyond mere physical contact.

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How does parenting relate to generativity?

Parenting is a primary example of generativity, as it involves nurturing and guiding the next generation. However, generativity encompasses a broader meaning, including contributing to society in any meaningful way.

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What is the ultimate goal of achieving integrity in late adulthood?

It involves accepting one's life, both the good and the bad, and finding meaning in it. It's about living a life with purpose and accepting mortality peacefully.

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How does the concept of generativity connect to Erikson's ideas on death?

Erikson believed that embracing generativity helps us cope with death. By focusing on leaving a positive impact on the world, we can find meaning beyond our own mortality.

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What are the main elements for a positive outcome in each stage of adult development?

In each stage, achieving positive outcomes involves successfully navigating the psychosocial crisis by embracing growth, connection, and contributing to society. This leads to a sense of fulfillment and meaning.

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Initiative vs. Guilt

The conflict faced in early childhood (2-6 years) where children explore their independence and take initiative, but can develop guilt if their actions are constantly met with disapproval.

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Importance of Play in Stage 3

Play and hero worship are crucial ways for children in this stage to express their initiative and explore different roles.

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Important Event in Stage 4

School is where children in this stage develop industry, learn to work with others, and experience the value of perseverance.

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Negative Outcome in Stage 3

If children are not allowed to take initiative and experiment with their own ideas, they may develop a sense of guilt and doubt their own abilities.

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Negative Outcome in Stage 4

If children are not able to experience success and see the value of their work, they may develop a sense of inferiority and feel inadequate.

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Positive Outcome in Stage 3

Children need to be reassured that their initiative is accepted and encouraged, even if it's small. They should also understand that some things are not allowed.

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Positive Outcome in Stage 4

Children need to be helped to understand the link between effort and achievement. They need to see that their work is valued and that they are capable of success.

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Conversion Disorder

A psychological condition where a person experiences physical symptoms like paralysis or blindness, but there's no underlying medical reason. It's thought to be a way of dealing with emotional stress.

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Dissociative Amnesia

A condition where someone forgets important personal events due to psychological stress, not physical injury. It's like the brain shields itself from trauma.

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Dissociative Fuge

A state where a person 'wanders' with amnesia and a new identity. They don't remember who they are and might move to a different location.

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Dissociative Identity Disorder (DID)

A condition where two or more distinct personalities exist within one person, with unique behaviors and memories. It's often a result of severe trauma.

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Schizophrenia

A severe mental illness causing fragmented thoughts, distorted perceptions, and unusual emotions. Hallucinations and delusions are common.

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Delusions in Schizophrenia

False beliefs that distort reality, held firmly despite evidence to the contrary. They can be about persecution, grandeur, or other themes.

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Hallucinations in Schizophrenia

False sensory experiences like seeing or hearing things that don't exist. They can be visual, auditory, or involve other senses.

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Types of Schizophrenia Symptoms

Schizophrenia has both positive and negative symptoms. Positive symptoms are added behaviors like hallucinations, while negative symptoms are a lack of normal behaviors like emotions.

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Anxiety Disorders

A group of mental health conditions characterized by excessive fear, worry, and anxiety that interferes with daily life.

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Generalized Anxiety Disorder (GAD)

An anxiety disorder where individuals experience persistent and excessive worry, often about everyday issues, for at least 6 months.

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Panic Disorder

A disorder marked by sudden, unexpected panic attacks, characterized by intense physical and psychological symptoms.

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Phobias

An irrational and persistent fear of a specific object, activity, or situation.

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Social Phobia

A type of phobia where individuals fear social situations involving potential scrutiny or judgement from others.

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Specific Phobias

A type of phobia focusing on a particular object or situation, such as spiders, heights, or blood.

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Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder (OCD)

A disorder characterized by intrusive, unwanted thoughts (obsessions) that lead to repetitive behaviors (compulsions) to reduce anxiety.

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Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD)

A disorder developing after a traumatic event, characterized by intrusive memories, nightmares, emotional distress, and avoidance behaviors.

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Major Depressive Disorder

A mood disorder characterized by persistent feelings of sadness, hopelessness, and loss of interest in activities, impacting daily functioning.

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Bipolar Disorder

A mood disorder characterized by alternating episodes of mania (elevated mood) and depression.

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Abnormal Psychology

The study of mental disorders, focusing on their nature, causes, and treatments. It helps us understand how people think, feel, and behave when they're struggling.

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Diathesis-Stress Model

This model explains that psychological disorders arise from a combination of a predisposing vulnerability (diathesis) and a triggering stressor. It's like a weak dam that breaks when flooded.

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What are some examples of stressors?

Stressors are events or situations that can trigger a disorder. Examples include job loss, divorce, death in the family, or even being stuck in traffic. These events can be challenging for anyone.

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Freud's Model of Unconscious Conflicts

Freud believed that psychological disorders arise from conflicts between the id (basic instincts), ego (reality), and superego (morality) in the unconscious mind.

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Supernatural Theories of Psychological Disorders

Early beliefs linked mental illness to evil spirits or demonic possession, leading to treatments like exorcism and trephining (drilling holes in the skull).

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What are the four humors of the body in ancient Greece?

Ancient Greeks believed that health and behavior depended on four humors: blood, phlegm, yellow bile, and black bile. An imbalance was thought to cause illness.

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Emil Kraepelin's Contributions

Kraepelin classified disorders based on patterns of symptoms, paving the way for modern diagnostic systems and effective drug therapies.

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Etiology of Disorders

The study of the factors that cause or contribute to the development of mental disorders. It helps us understand the origins of illness.

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Psychological Diagnosis

The process of identifying and classifying a mental disorder based on symptoms, behaviors, and patterns. It's like labeling a condition for better understanding and treatment.

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DSM-5

The Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders, published by the American Psychiatric Association, is a widely used system for classifying and diagnosing mental disorders.

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Depression Rate in Women

Women are twice as likely to experience depression compared to men. This is due to factors like higher rates of negative experiences, such as sexual abuse, poverty, and single parenthood, as well as a tendency towards internal, global explanatory styles and rumination.

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Somatoform Disorders

These are disorders characterized by physical symptoms, such as pain or fatigue, that cannot be fully explained by medical conditions. Individuals with these disorders may experience excessive worry about their health or believe they are seriously ill, despite medical reassurances.

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Hypochondriasis

A type of somatoform disorder where individuals have a persistent fear of illness and are preoccupied with the belief that they are physically ill or will become ill, despite medical reassurances.

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Somatic Symptom Disorder

A type of somatoform disorder characterized by a long history of physical complaints that are not medically explained. Individuals may experience a variety of symptoms across different medical categories, including pain, gastrointestinal issues, sexual symptoms, and neurological symptoms.

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Suicide Rates

While women attempt suicide more often, men are more likely to succeed. Suicide rates are highest among Canadian youth aged 15-24, especially in northern regions.

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Mental Disorder

A condition that significantly affects a person's thoughts, emotions, or behaviors, causing distress and difficulty functioning in daily life. It is often characterized by symptoms that disrupt normal mental processes.

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Continuity Hypothesis

The idea that mental disorders are not distinct categories but rather exist on a continuum with different levels of severity. There's no clear line between normal and abnormal behavior.

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Objectivity in Mental Health

Making judgments about mental health without bias, relying on facts and evidence, considering the individual's situation and context.

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Reliability and Validity

Important concepts in mental health assessments, ensuring that diagnoses are consistent and accurate, measuring what they are supposed to measure.

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David Rosenhan's Experiment

A study that demonstrated the potential for bias in psychiatric diagnoses. Healthy individuals were admitted to mental hospitals with fake symptoms, later labelled as 'insane' even after exhibiting normal behaviour.

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Distress or Impairment

One of the key criteria for identifying abnormal behaviour. When a person's thoughts, feelings, or behaviours cause significant distress or disrupt their ability to function.

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Context and Culture

Important factors to consider when assessing mental health. What is considered 'abnormal' in one culture may be normal in another. Social situations also shape how behaviour is understood.

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Abnormal Psychology in Everyday Life

The study of unusual thoughts, feelings, and behaviours. It explores the roots of mental disorders, how they are diagnosed, and how they can be treated.

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Psychodynamic Therapies

Therapies that assume psychological problems stem from unconscious conflicts between impulses and life constraints. They explore the link between current symptoms and inner conflicts.

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Psychoanalysis

A prominent psychodynamic therapy that focuses on exploring the relationship between current symptoms and unconscious conflicts. The goal is to achieve inner harmony by releasing repressed emotions and gaining insight.

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Free Association

A technique where clients report thoughts, feelings, and images as their mind wanders freely. It helps uncover repressed material.

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Resistance

A client's reluctance or inability to discuss certain topics, revealing areas of conflict or anxiety.

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Dream Analysis

Examining the content of dreams to uncover hidden meanings and motivations. Dreams are seen as expressions of unconscious desires and conflicts.

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Transference

When a client projects feelings onto the therapist, often based on past relationships.

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Countertransference

When a therapist projects feelings onto a client, based on personal experiences.

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Behaviour Therapies

Therapies focused on observable behaviors and learning processes. The goal is to modify maladaptive behaviors and replace them with adaptive ones.

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Counterconditioning

A behavioral therapy technique to replace unwanted behaviors with more desirable ones by pairing pleasant stimuli with the feared object or situation.

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Systematic Desensitization

A gradual method to reduce fear by exposing the person to increasingly anxiety-provoking situations while they practice relaxation techniques.

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Flooding

A type of exposure therapy where a person is directly immersed in their feared situation for an extended period.

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Aversion Therapy

A technique that pairs a harmful or undesirable behavior with an unpleasant stimulus to discourage its repetition.

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Contingency Management

A strategy that aims to change behavior by altering its consequences, like rewarding good behavior and ignoring bad behavior.

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Positive Reinforcement Strategies

Using rewards or positive consequences to increase the frequency of desired behavior.

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Extinction Strategies

Withholding positive reinforcements to decrease the frequency of an undesirable behavior.

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Cognitive Therapy

A therapy that focuses on changing negative thought patterns to improve emotions and behaviors.

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Psychotherapy

A form of therapy where a trained professional uses psychological theories and research to help individuals with mental health issues.

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Therapeutic Alliance

The collaborative relationship between a client and a therapist, built on trust and mutual understanding, crucial for successful therapy.

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What are the 4 primary goals of therapy?

  1. Diagnosing the cause of impairment, 2. Identifying the likely origin of the problem, 3. Predicting the course of the problem, 4. Implementing treatments to change thoughts, feelings, and behaviors.
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Biomedical Therapy

Type of therapy focusing on changing the brain's mechanisms, often through medication or other biological interventions.

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Psychotherapy Types

Different approaches to therapy, including psychodynamic, behavior, cognitive, and humanistic, each focusing on specific aspects of behavior and thought.

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Ethical Standards in Psychotherapy

Guidelines therapists must follow, including ensuring client understanding of goals, treating within expertise, and safeguarding confidentiality.

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What are some different therapeutic settings?

Therapy can be offered in various settings, such as hospitals, clinics, private practice, and even online platforms.

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Importance of Empirically Proven Treatments

Therapists should prioritize treatments supported by scientific research and evidence, ensuring effective interventions for clients.

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Study Notes

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Related Documents

Motivation & Emotion PDF
Erikson's Stages PDF
Psychological Disorders PDF

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