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Immunology and Serology Quiz
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Immunology and Serology Quiz

Created by
@FinerUniverse

Questions and Answers

What is a distinguishing feature of active immunity compared to passive immunity?

  • It involves direct transfer of antibodies.
  • It is guaranteed to provide immediate protection.
  • It requires prior immunization or infection. (correct)
  • It does not lead to the production of memory cells.

    • Which of the following statements correctly describes passive immunity?

  • It provides immediate protection but lacks memory. (correct)
  • It is solely achieved through vaccination.
  • It involves the individual's immune response.
  • It is long-lasting and promotes memory.

    • Gamma globulin injections are an example of which type of immunity?

  • Passive immunity (correct)
  • Natural immunity
  • Artificial immunity
  • Active immunity

    • What type of immunity is primarily associated with the transfer of antibodies from mother to fetus?

    <p>Natural passive immunity</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of these is NOT a characteristic of active immunity?

    <p>It requires immediate administration of antibodies.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following incorrectly describes how individual immunity develops?

    <p>Active immunity is permanent after a single immunization.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the normal T helper to T regulatory cell ratio in a healthy individual?

    <p>2 : 1</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which statement best describes the role of antibody-dependent cellular cytotoxicity (ADCC)?

    <p>It aids in the destruction of virus-infected and tumor cells.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In an AIDS patient, the ratio of T helper to T regulatory cells shows what change compared to a healthy individual?

    <p>An inverse ratio, with more T regulatory cells</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a characteristic function of normal killer cells?

    <p>Activate complement and act as opsonins.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the implication of the normal T cell to B cell ratio being 8 : 1?

    <p>T cells are significantly more abundant than B cells.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following statements is true regarding the role of toxins in the immune response?

    <p>Toxins can activate immune responses, including complement.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which lymphocyte is primarily involved in directly targeting virus-infected cells?

    <p>CD8+ Tcells</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which surface marker is associated with T Helper cells?

    <p>CD4+</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What type of receptors do B cells primarily utilize to interact with antigens?

    <p>Surface immunoglobulin</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a key feature of Natural Killer (NK) cells compared to T cells?

    <p>They can kill without MHC restriction.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    During the immune response, which transformation do B cells undergo upon activation?

    <p>Evolve into plasma cells producing antibodies.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which type of lymphocyte is the largest in size?

    <p>Null Cells (NK)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What role do cytokines released by CD4+ Tcells play in the immune system?

    <p>Activating B cells and other immune cells.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What percentage of circulating lymphoid cells do B cells typically comprise?

    <p>5-15%</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What process is used to produce hybridomas for monoclonal antibody production?

    <p>Immunizing mice with a specific antigen and fusing spleen cells with myeloma cells</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which component is activated first in the classical complement pathway?

    <p>Cl</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary function of C3b in the complement cascade?

    <p>Binding to pathogens for opsonization</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following statements about complement fragments is correct?

    <p>C2a and C2b are exceptions to the general rule of fragment behavior.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In the complement cascade, what activates the classical pathway?

    <p>Immune complexes formed by antigen-antibody interactions</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the characteristic feature of the components involved in the classical complement cascade?

    <p>They bind in numerical order, except at the beginning.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which antibody is typically involved in activating the classical complement pathway?

    <p>IgG or IgM</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the relationship between hybridomas and monoclonal antibodies?

    <p>Hybridomas generate monoclonal antibodies for an indefinite period.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which factor is activated by lipopolysaccharides?

    <p>C5b</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does the complement system primarily function to control?

    <p>Inflammation and phagocyte activation</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which pathways require calcium and magnesium for their cascade processes?

    <p>Alternative and Classical pathways</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is NOT a function of complement proteins?

    <p>Virus neutralization</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following factors are specifically involved in the complement cascade?

    <p>Factors B, D, H, and I</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the total number of chemically distinct proteins involved in the complement system?

    <p>21</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the role of control proteins in the complement system?

    <p>To inhibit the complement activation</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How many points does C3 involve in the complement cascade?

    <p>Two</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a key principle behind the formation of a visible precipitate in antigen-antibody reactions?

    <p>Lattice formation involving proper proportions of soluble antigens and antibodies</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In the context of serologic testing, what is the Prozone phenomenon characterized by?

    <p>Decreased precipitate formation due to antibody excess</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which test type is used specifically for determining total IgE levels?

    <p>ELISA for total IgE</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What type of hypersensitivity is associated with eosinophil activation and increased IgE levels?

    <p>Type I hypersensitivity</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following methods is specifically categorized under the principle of antigen-antibody reactions?

    <p>Double diffusion</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which concentration scenario results in the Postzone effect during antigen-antibody reactions?

    <p>Excess antigens preventing formation of precipitate</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which immune response test is primarily used to assess specific allergen sensitivities?

    <p>Skin Tests</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What type of diffusion method involves measuring the width of the precipitin ring?

    <p>Radial immunodiffusion</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which type of hypersensitivity reaction is characterized by lgE mediated mechanisms?

    <p>Type I</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which example is classified under Type II hypersensitivity?

    <p>Transfusion Reaction</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the mechanism behind Type III hypersensitivity reactions?

    <p>Formation of large immune complexes</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following conditions is NOT associated with Type IV hypersensitivity?

    <p>Autoimmune Hemolytic Anemia</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What characterizes the response time of Type IV hypersensitivity?

    <p>Delayed, more than 12 hours</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is one of the main causes of damage in Type II hypersensitivity reactions?

    <p>Antibody binding leading to cell death</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is an example of a Type II hypersensitivity condition?

    <p>Goodpasture's Disease</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which type of hypersensitivity mainly involves sensitized T cells and not antibodies?

    <p>Type IV</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What indicates a positive complement fixation test?

    <p>No hemolysis occurs due to complement fixation in step 1.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In the context of agglutination, which option best describes the principle of the process?

    <p>Antibody binds to multiple surface antigens, creating lattice formations.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What must be done to serum before performing complement fixation tests?

    <p>It needs to be heat inactivated to prevent interference.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following describes a scenario resulting in a negative complement fixation test?

    <p>Complement remains unbound and reacts with the indicator, causing hemolysis.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which form of agglutination involves treating RBCs to create specific antigens?

    <p>Passive hemagglutination.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What limitation is associated with the use of stored serum in complement fixation tests?

    <p>Anticomplementary properties may develop over time.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a key characteristic of the lattice formation in agglutination?

    <p>It relies on the binding capacities of Fab portions of antibodies.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which statement correctly describes a direct agglutination test?

    <p>It involves naturally occurring antigens such as those found on blood cells.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary purpose of washing between steps in the countercurrent immunoelectrophoresis procedure?

    <p>To prevent false positive results</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How is absorbance measured in the countercurrent immunoelectrophoresis process?

    <p>By adding enzyme substrate and incubating</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What characterizes the 'sandwich' method in immunoelectrophoresis?

    <p>Combines an antibody with an antigen-specific conjugate</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In countercurrent immunoelectrophoresis, what indicates the presence of a specific antigen?

    <p>Formation of a precipitate</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is NOT typically a test conducted using countercurrent immunoelectrophoresis?

    <p>Assessment of liver function</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What action is taken following the application of electric current in countercurrent immunoelectrophoresis?

    <p>Incubation to allow binding</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is crucial for the accuracy of antigen-antibody detection in immunoelectrophoresis?

    <p>Proper washing between steps</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does the absorbance measurement correlate with in this immunoelectrophoresis technique?

    <p>The concentration of the antigen</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is C-reactive protein primarily used to indicate?

    <p>Risk of coronary artery disease</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which characteristic describes the analytical specificity of a test?

    <p>Ability to detect a substance without interference from others</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In the context of inflammation, when does the concentration of C-reactive protein typically decrease?

    <p>When inflammation subsides</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which test is less sensitive to changes in inflammation compared to C-reactive protein?

    <p>Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary limitation of using C-reactive protein in clinical assessments?

    <p>It does not indicate the source of inflammation</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the sensitivity comparison between non-lattice immunoassays and traditional assays?

    <p>Non-lattice immunoassays are more sensitive</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following accurately reflects the clinical specificity of a test?

    <p>Ability to give a negative result if the disease is absent</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which organism is responsible for causing syphilis?

    <p>Treponema pallidum</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which term describes the ability of a test to give a negative result if the patient does not have the disease?

    <p>Clinical Specificity</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What factor is primarily released in response to inflammation and tissue damage?

    <p>C-reactive protein</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which characteristic of high sensitivity CRP (hs-CRP) is true regarding its clinical application?

    <p>It is used to indicate the risk of coronary artery disease.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does a high erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) typically indicate?

    <p>Presence of inflammation</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following statements accurately describes the behavior of C-reactive protein as inflammation subsides?

    <p>Its concentration quickly decreases.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which test is specifically suitable for monitoring the presence of inflammation over time?

    <p>C-reactive protein test</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a misleading aspect of clinical specificity as it relates to disease diagnosis?

    <p>It can indicate false positives.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In the context of diagnosing measles and rubella, which calculation method is commonly employed?

    <p>Serial dilution</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What type of microscopy is primarily utilized for the diagnosis of syphilis in its primary stage?

    <p>Darkfield microscopy</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which test involves adding live treponemes to patient serum for the immobilization of antibodies?

    <p>Treponema pallidum Immobilization Test (TPI)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which test is considered the most sensitive for all stages of syphilis?

    <p>Fluorescent Treponemal Antigen-Absorption (FTA-ABS)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a common limitation associated with the Treponema pallidum Immobilization Test (TPI)?

    <p>Expensive and seldom used</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What characterizes the Microhemagglutination Assay for T.pallidum (MFIA-TP)?

    <p>Agglutination occurs if treponemal antibodies are present in the patient serum.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following statements about non-treponemal tests is true?

    <p>They can show false positive results in treated patients.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    At which stage of syphilis are all tests considered to have equal sensitivity?

    <p>Secondary stage</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does the Venereal Disease Research Laboratory (VDRL) test primarily utilize for its detection method?

    <p>Microflocculation technique</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which assay type demonstrates the highest sensitivity for detecting syphilis?

    <p>Radial Immunoassay (RIA)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is an essential feature of FTA-Abs in diagnosing syphilis?

    <p>Removes nonspecific antibodies using sorbent</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which statement accurately describes the course of syphilis disease?

    <p>Passes through distinct stages: primary, secondary, latent, and tertiary</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary reason for heat inactivation of serum in serologic testing?

    <p>To deactivate complement proteins</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In diagnosing syphilis using darkfield microscopy, what is being visualized?

    <p>Motile organisms directly from lesions</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which immunoassay method is considered less sensitive for syphilis detection?

    <p>Counter Current Immunoelectrophoresis (CIE)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which statement accurately describes the performance of the Rapid Plasma Reagin Test (RPR)?

    <p>It utilizes cardiolipin mixed with charcoal particles</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In the context of diagnosing rheumatoid arthritis, what does a positive test for rheumatoid factor (RF) indicate?

    <p>High titers of rheumatoid factor in the serum</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary organism responsible for syphilis infections?

    <p>Treponema pallidum</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What technique is employed to visualize motile Treponema pallidum organisms in a clinical setting?

    <p>Darkfield microscopy</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following conditions is least likely to cause a biologic false positive in serologic tests?

    <p>Strep throat</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does a visible agglutination in the rheumatoid factor (RF) assay indicate?

    <p>The presence of IgM antibodies in the serum</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which immunoassay method utilizes a sorbent for antibody removal?

    <p>Fluorescent Treponemal Antibody Absorption test (FTA-Abs)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How does the sensitivity and specificity of the RPR test compare to the VDRL test?

    <p>RPR is more sensitive but less specific than VDRL</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What role do high titer levels of rheumatoid factor (RF) play in the diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis?

    <p>They are associated with a greater severity of rheumatoid arthritis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which component is essential in the RPR test to facilitate the visual detection of reactivity?

    <p>Charcoal particles</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the purpose of the Anti-cyclic citrullinated peptide assay (anti-CCP)?

    <p>To confirm positive rheumatoid factor tests</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which laboratory finding is commonly associated with celiac disease?

    <p>Endomysial antibody (EMA-IgA)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a consequence of using the Cold Agglutinin Assay for testing?

    <p>It can result in a false negative or decreased titer.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What technique is used in the Anti-cyclic citrullinated peptide assay?

    <p>ELISA</p> Signup and view all the answers

    When testing for rheumatoid arthritis, why is it critical not to refrigerate samples?

    <p>It may alter test sensitivity.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What type of antibody is associated with gluten hypersensitivity in celiac disease?

    <p>IgA</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary benefit of an early diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis?

    <p>It may reduce joint erosion and deformity.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following antibodies is NOT associated with celiac disease?

    <p>Rheumatoid factor</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What protein component found in grains triggers hypersensitivity in celiac disease?

    <p>Gliadin</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which antibody is specifically associated with the diagnosis of celiac disease?

    <p>Endomysial antibody (EMA-IgA)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In celiac disease, which laboratory test would most likely detect an immune response to gluten?

    <p>Tissue transglutaminase antibody test</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary type of antibody that indicates prior exposure to gluten in celiac disease?

    <p>Antigliadin antibody (AGA-IgG)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following components is NOT typically involved in the laboratory assessment of celiac disease?

    <p>Blood urea nitrogen</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a primary characteristic of cytomegalovirus (CMV) infection?

    <p>Usually results in asymptomatic infection</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which statement best describes the relationship between antibody presence and reinfection in cytomegalovirus?

    <p>Presence of antibodies does not prevent reinfection</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a significant factor in diagnosing viral hepatitis?

    <p>Appearance of specific antigens and antibodies in serum</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is NOT a common clinical manifestation of Acquired Immunodeficiency Syndrome (AIDS)?

    <p>Chronic fatigue syndrome</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What role do CD4+ cells play in the context of HIV infection?

    <p>They are targeted and depleted by the HIV-1 retrovirus</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which test is commonly used to confirm the presence of antibodies for diseases such as viral hepatitis or CMV?

    <p>Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which statement regarding the complications of CMV infection in immunocompromised patients is accurate?

    <p>CMV can cause significant complications in these patients</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does the presence of oligoclonal IgG bands in cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) indicate?

    <p>CNS production of antibodies</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a primary target of autoantibodies in multiple sclerosis (MS)?

    <p>Myelin sheath of nerves</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which immune profiling finding is typically associated with multiple sclerosis?

    <p>Oligoclonal IgG bands in CSF</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Autoimmunity related to multiple sclerosis is primarily characterized by what mechanism?

    <p>Autoantibodies attacking self-molecules</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What type of immunoglobulin is primarily implicated in the autoimmune response of multiple sclerosis?

    <p>IgG</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following laboratory findings distinguishes multiple sclerosis from other neurological disorders?

    <p>Oligoclonal IgG bands in CSF but absent in serum</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which antigen is associated with the initial infection phase of Hepatitis B?

    <p>HBsAg</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does Anti-HBs represent in the Hepatitis B diagnostic profile?

    <p>Past infection and recovery</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In the Hepatitis B diagnostic timeline, what does the presence of Anti-HBe indicate?

    <p>Resolution of the infection</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which component is present in the final recovery phase of Hepatitis B?

    <p>Anti-HBs</p> Signup and view all the answers

    During the acute infection stage of Hepatitis B, which antigen will you expect to see as the infection progresses?

    <p>HBsAg</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the duration of the acute infection phase in Hepatitis B?

    <p>6-13 weeks</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which antibody is indicative of a cleared Hepatitis B infection during the recovery phase?

    <p>Anti-HBs</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does the term HBeAg represent in the context of Hepatitis B?

    <p>A marker of chronic infection</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does a positive Western Blot test indicate in HIV testing?

    <p>Presence of p24, gp41, and gp120 antibodies</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following serological markers indicates recent acute Hepatitis A infection?

    <p>Anti-HAV positive</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does a positive HBsAg and HBeAg indicate in Hepatitis B testing?

    <p>Recent acute Hepatitis B infection</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does a decreased T helper/T regulatory ratio indicate?

    <p>Immune system dysfunction</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which combination of serological markers indicates chronic Hepatitis B with carrier state?

    <p>HBsAg positive, HBeAg positive</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What suggests immunity to Hepatitis B due to past infection?

    <p>HBsAg negative, Anti-HBc positive, Anti-HBs positive</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does the presence of Anti-HCV indicate?

    <p>Recent Hepatitis C infection</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What do the serological markers Anti-HBc IgM and HBsAg positive indicate?

    <p>Recent Hepatitis B infection</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which antibody is specifically associated with the autoimmune response in Graves' disease?

    <p>Thyroid stimulating hormone receptor antibody (TRAb)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a common symptom associated with hyperthyroidism caused by Graves' disease?

    <p>Intolerance to heat</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which laboratory finding is most indicative of Graves' disease?

    <p>Low thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What characterizes the autoimmune antibodies directed against TSH receptors in the context of thyroid disease?

    <p>They stimulate excessive thyroid hormone production</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which type of antibody is specifically related to thyroid cancer and its associated conditions?

    <p>Thyroglobulin antibody (TgAb)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following conditions is often characterized by the presence of elevated thyroid antibodies?

    <p>Autoimmune thyroiditis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the order of Hepatitis B antigens and antibodies as described by the mnemonic involving Hep?

    <p>HBsAg, HBeAg, Anti-HBe, Anti-HBs</p> Signup and view all the answers

    During which phase of Hepatitis B infection do the HBeAg and Anti-HBe appear?

    <p>Acute Infection</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What duration is typically associated with the incubation period for Hepatitis B?

    <p>6-13 weeks</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does Anti-HBs indicate in the context of Hepatitis B infection?

    <p>Vaccination or recovery</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the role of HBeAg in Hepatitis B infection?

    <p>Acts as a marker for active viral replication</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What occurs during the early recovery phase of Hepatitis B?

    <p>HBeAg levels decrease and Anti-HBe rises</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does the presence of Anti-HBe imply about the stage of Hepatitis B infection?

    <p>Recovery phase or low viral activity</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a typical characteristic of the recovery phase of Hepatitis B?

    <p>Appearance of Anti-HBs</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What condition results from inadequate production of thyroid hormone?

    <p>Hypothyroidism</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which autoimmune response is commonly associated with thyroid disorders?

    <p>Antibodies against thyroglobulin</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a common indicator of thyroid dysfunction in autoimmune thyroid diseases?

    <p>Elevated TSH levels</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which syndrome is associated with a complete or marked deficiency of T and B lymphocytes?

    <p>Severe Combined Immunodeficiency Disease</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In autoimmune thyroid diseases, what type of antibody is commonly elevated?

    <p>Anti-TPO antibody</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a result of the absence of the thymus in DiGeorge's Syndrome?

    <p>Deficient T cell production</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is typically indicated by the presence of elevated thyroid antibodies in a patient?

    <p>Autoimmune thyroid disease</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which cell type is primarily affected in Wiskott-Aldrich Syndrome?

    <p>T lymphocytes</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which autoantibody is specifically linked to Myasthenia Gravis?

    <p>Acetylcholine Receptors</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the characteristic dysfunction associated with Chronic Granulomatous Disease?

    <p>Impaired Phagocytosis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which disease is associated with the presence of autoantibodies against Thyroid Stimulating Hormone receptors?

    <p>Grave's Disease</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In which autoimmune condition do antibodies target myelin sheath components?

    <p>Multiple Sclerosis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the underlying dysfunction in Hashimoto's Thyroiditis?

    <p>Autoantibody production against thyroglobulin</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What feature is common in patients diagnosed with Chediak-Higashi Syndrome?

    <p>Impaired neutrophil function</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which autoimmune disease is associated with the presence of rheumatoid factor antibodies?

    <p>Rheumatoid Arthritis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What autoimmune condition is characterized by autoimmune attack on salivary and tear ducts?

    <p>Sjogren's Syndrome</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What laboratory finding is indicative of central nervous system production in multiple sclerosis?

    <p>Oligoclonal IgG bands in CSF</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which component is primarily targeted by autoantibodies in multiple sclerosis?

    <p>Myelin sheath</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What types of autoantibodies are typically involved in the immune response in multiple sclerosis?

    <p>Autoantibodies to myelin basic protein</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following statements accurately describes oligoclonal bands in cerebrospinal fluid?

    <p>They indicate increased synthesis of IgG within the central nervous system.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which autoimmune disease is characterized by the presence of oligoclonal IgG bands exclusively in the cerebrospinal fluid and not in the serum?

    <p>Multiple sclerosis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What role does the presence of autoantibodies play in multiple sclerosis?

    <p>They contribute to the demyelination of central nervous system neurons.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is true about active immunity?

    <p>It results from immunization or exposure to an infectious organism.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What correctly describes passive immunity?

    <p>It is characterized by the transfer of antibodies from an immune host.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In the context of immunocompetent cell transfer, which type of immunity is being referred to?

    <p>Adoptive immunity</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of natural immunity?

    <p>It involves highly specific immune responses.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which condition is associated with the presence of IgG oligoclonal bands in cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)?

    <p>Multiple sclerosis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What type of pattern do cells exhibiting autoimmune antibodies typically show?

    <p>Homogeneous pattern</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following statements about acetylcholine receptor blocking antibodies is correct?

    <p>They signify a specific autoimmune response in myasthenia gravis.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which tumor marker is specifically associated with pancreatic cancer?

    <p>CA 19-9</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which laboratory result is most indicative of Graves disease?

    <p>Elevated TSI</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the most sensitive assay to detect all stages of syphilis?

    <p>FTA-Abs</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which test is considered the most accurate indicator of inflammation?

    <p>CRP</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which condition is suggested by elevated levels of TSHRAb and anti-TPO antibodies?

    <p>Hashimoto's thyroiditis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which tumor marker is commonly associated with ovarian cancer?

    <p>CA 125</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which disease is associated with primarily IgG in immunofixation results?

    <p>Multiple myeloma</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following tests are often used to evaluate suspected syphilis infections?

    <p>VDRL and RPR</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What condition is characterized by elevated levels of both anti-TPO and anti-Tg antibodies?

    <p>Hashimoto's thyroiditis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What do the results indicate for a patient with reactive RPR and nonreactive FTA-ABS?

    <p>Biologic false positive</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In a patient with positive HBsAg and positive HBeAg, what stage of Hepatitis B infection is most likely?

    <p>Highly infectious stage</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the most likely implication of a patient presenting with positive anti-HBC and negative anti-HBe?

    <p>Chronic Hepatitis B infection</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does a nonreactive VDRL of the CSF suggest in the context of syphilis?

    <p>Neurosyphilis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following statements is true for a reactive RPR test?

    <p>It can indicate a biologic false positive.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In patients with hepatitis infection, an anti-HBsAg negative result indicates what?

    <p>Active Hepatitis B infection</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does positive HBsAg and negative anti-HBs indicate about a Hepatitis B infection?

    <p>Acute or chronic infection</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the likely disease status of a patient with an antibody titer of 640 for Epstein Barr Virus and 320 in a subsequent test?

    <p>Antibody levels are increased but indicate a past infection</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What interpretation can be made from the presence of anti-VCA, anti-EA, and anti-EBNA antibodies in a patient?

    <p>The findings denote an immune response to prior infections</p> Signup and view all the answers

    If a patient immunized for rubella displays immunity, which type of immunity has this patient developed?

    <p>Active immunity</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What clinical action should be taken after performing ANA fluorescent techniques resulting in a speckled pattern with a titer of 640?

    <p>Conduct additional tests for specific autoimmune diseases</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the next step after obtaining multiple, homogeneous, narrow bands in the gamma zone during CSF electrophoresis?

    <p>Conduct further tests to identify the underlying cause</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What could elevated anti-EBNA antibodies indicate about a patient's infection status?

    <p>Chronic infection or past exposure is likely</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What type of immunoglobulin is usually produced by the monoclonal plasma cells in myeloma?

    <p>IgG</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does a second titer result showing a decrease from 640 to 320 suggest?

    <p>The infection is resolving</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does the presence of HBeAg in a patient indicate?

    <p>Highly infectious status</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In the context of autoimmunity, what does a positive ANA with a homogenous pattern typically suggest?

    <p>Possible systemic lupus erythematosus</p> Signup and view all the answers

    If a patient's initial test indicates prozone has occurred, what can be inferred about the patient's titer?

    <p>It is above 1:160</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which antibodies are often positive in patients with Sjogren's syndrome?

    <p>Anti-SSA and anti-SSB</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What should be tested to determine if an infection is current in a patient?

    <p>Titer levels of anti-HBsAg</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does a speckled pattern in an ANA test indicate?

    <p>Potential presence of autoimmune disease</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which antibody would be expected to be negative in a very early infection phase?

    <p>Anti-HBc</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which condition is characterized by the presence of anti-Sm antibodies?

    <p>Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Study Notes

    Types of Immunity

    • Active immunity involves the individual producing their own antibodies, usually following exposure through immunization or infection.
    • Active immunity results in memory, allowing the immune system to respond more effectively to future exposures.
    • Passive immunity occurs when antibodies are transferred to an individual from another source.
    • Examples of passive immunity include gamma globulin injections and maternal transfer of antibodies through the placenta.
    • Passive immunity does not create memory; its effects are temporary and diminish over time.
    • Rubella immunization is associated with active immunity, facilitating the individual's immune response against the virus.

    Lymphocytes Overview

    • Lymphocytes are key players in the immune response, primarily comprising T cells, B cells, and natural killer (NK) cells.
    • T cells constitute around 80% of total circulating lymphoid cells, while B cells and NK cells each represent 5–15%.

    T Cells

    • Characterized as small lymphocytes with specific receptors:
      • T cell receptor (TCR) is essential for recognizing antigens.
      • Surface markers include CD3+ (associated with TCR), CD4+ (T helper cells), and CD8+ (cytotoxic/regulatory T cells).
    • Functions include:
      • CD4 T cells release cytokines and can become memory cells.
      • CD8 T cells become cytotoxic and can target virus-infected cells and tumor cells.
      • They interact with B cells to modulate antibody responses.

    B Cells

    • Small lymphocytes that have surface immunoglobulins (IgD or IgM) and complement receptors.
    • Function primarily to produce antibodies:
      • Mature into plasma cells that secrete antibodies.
      • Can also evolve into memory cells to enhance future immune responses.

    Natural Killer (NK) Cells

    • Large lymphocytes characterized by the absence of TCR and surface immunoglobulins.
    • Marked by surface markers CD16+, CD19+, CD20+, CD56+.
    • Function independently of MHC (Major Histocompatibility Complex):
      • Important for killing virus-infected and tumor cells.
      • Engage in Antibody-Dependent Cellular Cytotoxicity (ADCC).

    Immune Response Functions

    • T cells primarily target viral infections and tumors, while B cells produce antibodies that neutralize toxins and activate complement.
    • Antibodies also act as opsonins to enhance phagocytosis.

    Cell Population Ratios

    • Normal T cell to B cell ratio is 8:1, indicating a dominant T cell population.
    • Normal T helper to regulatory T cell ratio stands at 2:1.
    • In AIDS patients, the ratio inverts to 1:2, indicating a weakened immune environment.

    Additional Note

    • Understanding the roles and characteristics of T cells and B cells is crucial for grasping immune system functionality and responses to pathogens and malignancies.

    Hybridoma Technology

    • Hybridoma cells are created by fusing mouse spleen cells (immunized with a specific antigen) with myeloma cells.
    • This process leads to the production of monoclonal antibodies that can be generated indefinitely.

    Complement System

    • The complement system consists of about 21 distinct proteins, categorized into 14 effector proteins and 7 control proteins.
    • It plays a critical role in regulating inflammation.

    Complement Activation Pathways

    • Activates phagocytes through chemotaxis and facilitates the lysis of target cells, such as foreign organisms.
    • Opsonization process enhances phagocytic binding by coating foreign organisms with antibodies.

    Classical Pathway

    • Initiated by antigen-antibody complexes, specifically lgG or lgM.
    • The pathway involves the activation of complement components in a numerical order: Cl, C4, C2, C3, etc.
    • Activated components include fragments like C3a and C3b.

    Alternative Pathway

    • Activated by polysaccharides and lipopolysaccharides.
    • Also involves complement components C3 at two points, along with factors B and D.

    Complement Component Fragments

    • C3b and its associated fragments such as C4b2a and C5b678 play significant roles in the activation and assembly of the complete complement system.
    • Fragments designated "a" typically enter the plasma, while "b" fragments attach to target cells, with exceptions like C2 fragments.

    Control Mechanisms

    • The complement cascades are dependent on the presence of calcium and magnesium.
    • Various control factors (H and I) regulate the activation pathways to prevent excessive inflammation and tissue damage.

    Characteristics of Hypersensitivity Reactions

    • Type I (Anaphylactic, Immediate)

      • Mediated by lgE antibodies and sensitized mast cells.
      • Histamine release leads to rapid allergic responses.
      • Common examples: Bee sting, hay fever, asthma.

    • Type II (Antibody Dependent Cytotoxicity)

      • Involves antibodies binding to cells with corresponding antigens, leading to cellular destruction.
      • Significant examples: Transfusion reactions, autoimmune hemolytic anemia (AIHA), Hashimoto's thyroiditis, Goodpasture's disease.

    • Type III (Immune Complex)

      • Characterized by the formation of large immune complexes that are not cleared by the mononuclear phagocytic system.
      • Notable examples: Rheumatoid arthritis (RA), systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), serum sickness.

    • Type IV (Delayed)

      • Sensitized T cells release interleukins, causing monocyte and lymphocyte infiltration; onset is over 12 hours.
      • Key examples: Contact dermatitis (e.g., poison ivy, chemicals), tuberculosis (TB), leprosy, graft versus host disease (GVHD).

    Tests for Allergy

    • Common tests: Skin tests, Radioimmunosorbent Test (RIST), Radioallergosorbent Test (RAST).
    • ELISA can quantify total lgE and lgE to specific antigens.

    Antigen-Antibody Reactions in Serologic Testing

    • Precipitation
      • Requires soluble antigen and antibody in optimal proportions for lattice formation.
      • Precipitation leads to visible clumping.
      • Techniques include double diffusion (Ouchterlony), single diffusion (radial immunodiffusion), immunoelectrophoresis, and immunofixation.

    Complement Fixation (CF)

    • Procedure involves allowing antibodies and antigens to combine in the presence of complement.
    • Positive result indicates no hemolysis, showing complement was fixed; negative result indicates hemolysis, meaning complement was unbound.

    Agglutination

    • Principle: Involves interaction of particulate antigen with antibody, resulting in clumping (lattice formation).
    • Techniques: Direct agglutination (used in blood banks), passive hemagglutination.

    Countercurrent Immunoelectrophoresis

    • Used to detect the presence of specific antigens by applying electric current to a gel containing wells of antigen and corresponding antibodies.
    • Preciptate formation indicates a match; sensitive for multiple conditions such as HIV and hepatitis testing.

    C-Reactive Protein (CRP) and Inflammation

    • CRP is an acute phase protein rapidly released during inflammation.
    • Levels decrease as inflammation resolves, useful for monitoring inflammation presence without indicating its source.

    Erythrocyte Sedimentation Rate (ESR)

    • Another marker for inflammation, though less sensitive than CRP.
    • Helps identify the presence and extent of inflammation.

    Test Sensitivities

    • Nonlattice immunoassays (like RIA, EIA) are generally more sensitive.
    • Specific conditions tested include syphilis caused by Treponema pallidum, with detection limits as low as 0.001mg/ml.

    Serial Dilution and Sensitivity Calculations

    • Serial dilution involves reducing the concentration of a substance in a solution to determine its effectiveness.
    • Post-titer comparisons help diagnose diseases like measles and rubella.

    Sensitivity and Specificity in Laboratory Tests

    • Sensitivity: Ability of a test to correctly identify individuals with a disease.
    • Specificity: Ability to correctly identify individuals without a disease, minimizing false positives.

    Inflammation Markers

    • C-reactive protein (CRP):

      • Released after inflammation or tissue damage, indicating ongoing inflammation.
      • Levels fall rapidly as inflammation subsides; used for monitoring.
      • High-sensitivity CRP (hs-CRP) indicates coronary artery disease risk.

    • Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR):

      • Indicates inflammation presence but less sensitive than CRP.

    Syphilis Testing

    • Caused by Treponema pallidum, leading to stages: primary, secondary, latent, and tertiary; congenital infections can occur.

    Treponemal Tests

    • Darkfield microscopy: Visualizes motile organisms from lesions.
    • Fluorescent treponemal antibody absorption test (FTA-Abs):
      • Utilizes indirect immunofluorescence; removes nonspecific antibodies.
      • Uses Nichol's strain of T. pallidum for serum testing.

    Non-Treponemal Tests

    • Venereal Disease Research Laboratory (VDRL) test:

      • Detects reagin antibodies through microflocculation.
      • Reagin can be IgM or IgG; false positives may occur due to several conditions (e.g., malaria, lupus).

    • Rapid Plasma Reagin (RPR) test:

      • More sensitive than VDRL; uses charcoal particles for coagulant microscopy.
      • Similar to VDRL but no heat inactivation required.

    Rheumatoid Arthritis (RA)

    • Characterized by IgM or IgG antibodies against IgG.

    • Diagnosis includes radiologic, clinical, and laboratory evaluation.

    • Laboratory findings:

      • High titers of rheumatoid factor (RF).
      • Low complement levels.
      • Positive anti-cyclic citrullinated peptide (anti-CCP).

    • Screening and confirmatory tests:

      • RF assay detects serum IgM; positive results indicated by visible agglutination.
      • Anti-CCP assay confirms positive RF tests, showing high sensitivity and specificity.

    Celiac Disease (Celiac Sprue)

    • An autoimmune reaction to gliadin, found in gluten from grains like wheat, barley, and rye.
    • Laboratory findings:
      • Tissue transglutaminase antibody.
      • Endomysial antibody (EMA-IgA).
      • Antigliadin antibody (AGA-IgG).

    Celiac Disease Overview

    • Celiac disease, also known as celiac sprue, is an autoimmune disorder triggered by a hypersensitivity to gliadin, a gluten protein found in grains including wheat, barley, and rye.

    Key Laboratory Findings

    • Tissue transglutaminase antibody (tTG-IgA) is commonly assessed for diagnosis; elevated levels indicate an immune response to gluten.
    • Endomysial antibody (EMA-IgA) is another important antibody test; its presence supports a diagnosis of celiac disease.
    • Antigliadin antibody (AGA-IgG) is also measured, though it's less specific compared to tTG and EMA antibodies.

    Other Considerations

    • Management of celiac disease involves strict adherence to a gluten-free diet to prevent damage to the intestinal lining and associated symptoms.

    Cytomegalovirus (CMV)

    • CMV is classified as a herpes virus.
    • Often leads to asymptomatic infections in healthy individuals.
    • Significant health risks exist for immunocompromised patients and infants receiving transfusions.
    • Antibody presence does not guarantee immunity from reinfection.
    • Diagnosis commonly performed using ELISA procedures.

    Viral Hepatitis

    • Involves inflammation of the liver.
    • Associated with elevated liver enzymes: AST, ALT, GGT.
    • Diagnosis relies on specific antigen and antibody detection in serum.

    Acquired Immunodeficiency Syndrome (AIDS)

    • Caused by HIV-1 retrovirus, which targets CD4+ T helper cells and macrophages.
    • Clinical symptoms may include pneumococcal pneumonia, Kaposi's sarcoma, and frequent infections.
    • Screening involves the ELISA test for HIV-1 antibodies.
    • Confirmation via Western Blot testing, checking for p24, gp41, gp120, or gp160 proteins.
    • Nucleic acid testing is another confirmatory method.
    • A reduced T helper/T regulatory cell ratio is a notable laboratory finding.

    Hepatitis B Serodiagnosis

    • Various serological markers indicate different phases of Hepatitis B infection:
      • Recent Acute Hepatitis A Infection: Positive Anti-HAV; negative for other markers.
      • Acute Hepatitis B Infection: Positive HBsAg and HBeAg; negative Anti-HBe; indicates high infectiousness.
      • Chronic Hepatitis B/Carrier State: Positive HBsAg and HBeAg, positive Anti-HBc; indicates ongoing infection.
      • Past Infection Immunity: Positive Anti-HBs, negative HBsAg, indicates immunity from previous infection.
      • Vaccination Immunity: Positive Anti-HBs, negative for all Hep B markers.
      • Hepatitis C Infection: Positive Anti-HCV but negative for all Hepatitis B markers.

    Acute Hepatitis B Diagnostic Profile

    • Incubation period ranges from 6 to 13 weeks.
    • Acute infection lasts 2-3 months, marked by specific serological findings.
    • Recovery phase spans 3-6 months, with recognizable changes in serological profiles over time.

    Autoimmune Diseases

    Multiple Sclerosis (MS)

    • Characterized by autoantibodies targeting the myelin sheath of nerves or myelin basic protein.
    • Laboratory findings often include oligoclonal IgG bands present in cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) but absent in serum, indicating production within the central nervous system.
    • Typically associated with IgG type responses.

    Hepatitis B Overview

    • Hepatitis B involves specific antigens and antibodies that represent different stages of infection.
    • HBsAg: First marker, indicating an active infection.
    • Anti-HBs: Appears later, signaling recovery and immunity.
    • HBeAg: Indicates high viral replication and infectivity.
    • Anti-HBe: Indicates lower viral activity, often seen in recovery.

    Acute Hepatitis B Diagnostic Profile

    • Incubation period lasts 6-13 weeks with symptoms developing after.
    • Duration of acute infection can be approximately 2 months.
    • Early recovery occurs within 3-6 months.
    • Time progression noted in antibody response, with anti-HBs emerging last.

    Autoimmune Diseases

    • Multiple Sclerosis (MS) linked to autoantibodies targeting myelin sheath and basic proteins of nerves.
    • Oligoclonal IgG bands in cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) indicate CNS-specific autoantibody production.

    Autoantibodies in Specific Diseases

    • Graves’ Disease: Autoantibodies target TSH receptors, causing hyperthyroidism.
    • Goodpasture’s Disease: Autoantibodies against basement membranes of kidneys and lungs.
    • Hashimoto's Thyroiditis: Antibodies attack thyroglobulin, leading to hypothyroidism.
    • Myasthenia Gravis: Antibodies block acetylcholine receptors at the neuromuscular junction.
    • Rheumatoid Arthritis: Presence of Rheumatoid Factor, an anti-IgM autoantibody.
    • Sjögren’s Syndrome: Autoantibodies directed against salivary and tear ducts.

    Impaired Immune Function

    • Chronic Granulomatous Disease results in ineffective phagocytosis.
    • Chediak-Higashi Syndrome: Characterized by impaired neutrophil function.
    • DiGeorge’s Syndrome: T cell deficiency due to absence of the thymus.
    • Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV) primarily affects T-helper cells, leading to compromised immunity.
    • Wiskott-Aldrich Syndrome involves partial combined immunodeficiency.

    Autoimmune Thyroid Diseases

    • Graves' Disease results in hyperthyroidism, indicated by low TSH and elevated thyroid antibodies.
    • Hashimoto's thyroiditis leads to hypothyroidism with elevated TSH and specific anti-thyroid antibodies.
    • Symptoms of thyroid dysfunction can include weight fluctuations, lethargy, and temperature intolerance.
    • Thyroid antibodies like TPOAb and TgAb are critical in diagnosing thyroid diseases and may link to other conditions like thyroid cancer.

    Antibody Testing and Disease Status

    • A rise in Epstein Barr Virus antibodies indicates a recent infection if there is a 4-fold titer increase.
    • Anti-VCA (Viral Capsid Antigen), anti-EA (Early Antigen), and anti-EBNA (Nuclear Antigen) are specific antibodies tested in Epstein Barr Virus infections.
    • A titer of 640 typically indicates current infection, while a subsequent titer of 320 indicates a decline, suggesting potential past infection.
    • For chicken pox, elevated antibody levels can indicate a current infection, particularly with respective titers.

    Immunization and Types of Immunity

    • Active immunity arises when the body produces antibodies following infection or vaccination.
    • Passive immunity involves antibodies transferred from another individual, providing temporary protection.
    • Adoptive immunity refers to transferring immunocompetent cells, while natural immunity entails non-specific defense mechanisms.

    Neurodegenerative and Autoimmune Diseases

    • Multiple sclerosis is associated with oligoclonal IgG bands found in cerebrospinal fluid (CSF).
    • Scleroderma and Sjögren’s syndrome can also manifest through specific antibody responses.

    Serology and Infectious Diseases

    • Rapid Plasma Reagin (RPR) is a non-specific test for syphilis, with FTA-ABS being more sensitive for different stages of the disease.
    • A reactive RPR and non-reactive FTA-ABS suggest a biological false positive rather than active infection.
    • Positive HBsAg indicates highly infectious Hepatitis B, while a negative anti-HBsAg denotes no immunity.

    Thyroid Disease Testing

    • Elevated anti-thyroid peroxidase (TPO) antibodies and TSH receptor antibodies suggest autoimmune thyroid conditions.
    • In thyroid assessments, normal anti-thyroglobulin (Tg) levels help differentiate conditions such as Hashimoto’s thyroiditis and Graves' disease.

    Tumor Markers and Cancer

    • CA 19-9 is a key tumor marker for pancreatic cancer, while CEA, CA 125, and CA 15-3 are associated with different malignancies.

    Inflammatory Markers

    • C-reactive protein (CRP) is the most sensitive marker for inflammation, whereas the erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) is another common assay.
    • Antinuclear antibodies (ANA) can indicate autoimmune disorders, with specific patterns guiding further testing and diagnosis.

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