Fungal Infections and Psoriasis Quiz

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Questions and Answers

What is a common characteristic of satellite lesions associated with fungal skin infections?

  • They are often small, itchy, and red. (correct)
  • They are always accompanied by a fever.
  • They are usually large and painful.
  • They are typically found in the center of the rash.

Which of the following conditions can increase a person's risk of developing a fungal infection?

  • High blood pressure
  • Low cholesterol levels
  • Hyperglycemia (correct)
  • Hypothyroidism

What is the primary treatment approach for most fungal skin infections?

  • Corticosteroid injections
  • Antibacterial medication
  • Antiviral medication
  • Antifungal cream or oral medication (correct)

What is a characteristic feature of onychomycosis, a fungal infection of the nail beds?

<p>The nail becomes thick and separates from the nail bed. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT a factor that can contribute to fungal skin infections?

<p>Exposure to sunlight (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a common trigger for flare-ups of atopic dermatitis?

<p>Viral infections (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following best describes the typical appearance of psoriasis plaques?

<p>Silvery scales over red plaques (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When are systemic therapies preferred over topical treatments for psoriasis?

<p>When topical treatments are insufficient for moderate to severe psoriasis (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which laboratory test can be useful in monitoring the disease activity of psoriasis?

<p>Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary mechanism of action of biologic medications in treating psoriasis?

<p>Targeting specific immune pathways to reduce inflammation and plaque formation (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which comorbidity is commonly associated with psoriasis?

<p>Diabetes mellitus (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is most characteristic of impetigo lesions?

<p>Erythematous patches with honey-colored crusts (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following are the most common causative agents of non-bullous impetigo?

<p>Staphylococcus aureus and Streptococcus pyogenes (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A diagnostic test's ability to correctly identify individuals with a disease is referred to as:

<p>Sensitivity (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a characteristic of a diagnostic test with high specificity?

<p>Reduced likelihood of identifying those without the disease as having the disease. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which combination of sensitivity and specificity is considered ideal for a screening test?

<p>High sensitivity, high specificity (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a primary consequence of a diagnostic test with low specificity?

<p>An increase in the number of false positives. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A diagnostic test with high sensitivity but low specificity is most appropriately used for:

<p>Screening populations (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is primarily related to the sensitivity of a diagnostic test?

<p>The number of false negatives. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

One of the main benefits of using a highly specific diagnostic test is:

<p>It reduces the chance of false positives. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why might a diagnostic test with high sensitivity not be the first choice for confirming a diagnosis?

<p>It may lead to too many false positive results. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT typically a recommended practice for managing dry skin and pruritus?

<p>Applying emollients immediately after fully drying the skin (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a common OTC antihistamine?

<p>Cetirizine (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a characteristic skin finding commonly associated with atopic dermatitis?

<p>Erythematous patches with intense pruritus (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In infants, which area is most commonly affected by atopic dermatitis?

<p>Face and scalp (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following should be considered a first-line treatment for mild atopic dermatitis?

<p>Moisturizers and emollients (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When should systemic treatment be considered for atopic dermatitis?

<p>When topical treatments fail and symptoms are severe or widespread (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Besides emollients, which of the following is sometimes used for the treatment of persistent pruritus associated with atopic dermatitis?

<p>Tricyclic antidepressants (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which emollient is NOT mentioned as being helpful?

<p>CeraVe (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary cause of herpes zoster?

<p>Reactivation of the varicella-zoster virus (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of these is a typical characteristic of a herpes zoster rash?

<p>Unilateral rash following a dermatome (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following best describes the progression of skin lesions in herpes zoster?

<p>Erythema first, then papules, and then vesicles (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the recommended timeframe for starting antiviral therapy for herpes zoster to achieve the best results?

<p>Within 72 hours of symptom onset (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with herpes zoster reports pain that increases at night and with temperature changes. How is this pain best characterized?

<p>Constant or intermittent, with tingling or stabbing (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What potential complication of herpes zoster requires immediate referral to an ophthalmologist?

<p>Herpes zoster ophthalmicus (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the typical duration of the entire course of herpes zoster?

<p>10 to 15 days (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of these is NOT a recommended initial management strategy for herpes zoster?

<p>Applying topical antibiotics (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary cause of a carbuncle?

<p>Gram-positive Staphylococcus aureus (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which treatment is typically NOT required for a healthy individual with a furuncle?

<p>Systemic antibiotics (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the characteristic appearance of impetigo lesions?

<p>Honey-colored crusts (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In which area is hidradenitis suppurativa most commonly found?

<p>Axillae and groin (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the purpose of warm compresses in the management of a furuncle?

<p>To encourage drainage (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which medication is applied three times daily for treating impetigo in children 12 years and older?

<p>Mupirocin 2% cream or ointment (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What type of lymphadenopathy is commonly associated with impetigo lesions on the upper extremities?

<p>Axillary nodes (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is an appropriate management for both bullous and nonbullous types of impetigo?

<p>Debridement of lesions (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Flashcards

Sensitivity

A test's ability to correctly identify individuals with a specific disease.

Specificity

A test's ability to correctly identify individuals without a specific disease.

Ideal Diagnostic Test

A diagnostic test that accurately identifies both individuals with the disease and those without, minimizing false positives and false negatives.

False Positive

The incorrect identification of a healthy individual as having a disease.

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High Specificity

A test's ability to minimize false positives and accurately identify those without the disease.

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False Negative

The incorrect identification of an individual with the disease as healthy.

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Cost-Effectiveness of a Diagnostic Test

The process of evaluating a diagnostic test's cost in relation to its effectiveness in guiding treatment decisions.

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Evidence-Based Practice

The use of evidence from research and clinical practice to inform clinical decision-making.

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What is herpes zoster?

Herpes zoster is caused by the varicella-zoster virus, the same virus that causes chickenpox. It often manifests as a painful, blistering rash along a single dermatome, usually in the thoracic or lumbar region. The rash typically progresses from erythema to papules to vesicles, which eventually rupture and form scabs.

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What is the mechanism behind herpes zoster's reactivation?

Herpes zoster usually becomes latent in neurons of sensory ganglia after an initial chickenpox infection, but it can reactivate later in life.

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What are the early symptoms of herpes zoster?

Herpes zoster symptoms often start with pain, described as constant or intermittent, with tingling or stabbing sensations. The pain typically worsens at night or during temperature changes and can occur 48-72 hours before the rash appears.

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What is herpes zoster ophthalmicus?

Herpes zoster ophthalmicus is a serious complication that occurs when the virus affects the V1 distribution of the trigeminal nerve. If not addressed promptly, it can lead to blindness.

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What is postherpetic neuralgia (PHN)?

Postherpetic neuralgia (PHN) is a common complication of herpes zoster, affecting about 25-50% of patients. It involves persistent, severe pain along the dermatome affected by the rash.

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What are the specific physical findings of herpes zoster?

The objective assessment of herpes zoster is characterized by a unilateral vesicular rash along a dermatome. The rash progresses through stages, beginning as erythema, moving to papules, forming vesicles, rupturing into scabs, and sometimes coalescing into bullae.

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What is the primary focus of herpes zoster management?

The goal of herpes zoster management is to treat the healed vesicles, manage the pain, prevent secondary infection, and address other complications. Treatment often involves antiviral medications like famciclovir (Famvir), acyclovir (Zovirax), or valacyclovir (Valtrex) that are most effective when used within the first 72 hours of symptom onset.

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What is the importance of early intervention in herpes zoster treatment?

Early intervention with antiviral agents is crucial for effective herpes zoster treatment. The best results are achieved when treatment begins within 72 hours of the initial symptoms.

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OTC Antihistamines

Antihistamines that can be purchased over-the-counter (OTC) and taken once daily to relieve allergy symptoms.

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Erythematous Patches

Atopic dermatitis is characterized by red, itchy patches on the skin. These patches are called erythematous patches.

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Atopic Dermatitis in Infants

Infants with atopic dermatitis commonly have symptoms on their face and scalp.

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First-Line Treatment for Mild Atopic Dermatitis

Moisturizers and emollients, known as 'topical treatments,' are the first line of defense against mild atopic dermatitis.

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Systemic Treatment for Atopic Dermatitis

Systemic treatment, meaning treatment that affects the whole body, is considered when topical treatments are not effective enough or when atopic dermatitis is severe.

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Atopic Dermatitis Triggers

Strong soaps, hot baths, and tight clothing can trigger or worsen atopic dermatitis flare-ups.

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Bland Emollients

Petroleum jelly, Eucerin, and Alpha-Keri are examples of bland emollients that can be used to seal moisture into the skin.

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Antidepressants for Itching

Antidepressants like doxepin and mirtazapine can be used to treat persistent itching associated with atopic dermatitis.

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Who is at risk for Fungal Infections?

Individuals with weakened immune systems are more susceptible to fungal infections. This includes the very young, the elderly, and those with conditions like diabetes or AIDS.

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Immune system and age

The immune system's ability to fight off infections is weaker in the very young and the elderly.

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What conditions do fungal infections thrive in?

Fungal infections thrive in warm, moist, and dark environments with poor circulation. These conditions can occur in areas of the body prone to sweat and friction.

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What is Onychomycosis?

Onychomycosis, commonly known as tinea unguium, is a fungal infection of the nail bed. It can cause discoloration, thickening, and separation of the nail from the nail bed. Toenails are more often affected than fingernails.

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What are common signs of a fungal skin infection?

Popular rash and satellite lesions (small, itchy, red spots or blister-like lesions) are common signs of a fungal skin infection.

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What triggers atopic dermatitis flare-ups?

Viral infections, like the common cold, can trigger flare-ups of atopic dermatitis, an inflammatory skin condition.

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Describe the appearance of psoriasis plaques.

Psoriasis plaques are characterized by red, raised patches of skin covered in silvery scales.

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How is moderate to severe psoriasis treated?

Phototherapy, which uses controlled exposure to ultraviolet light, is a common treatment for moderate to severe psoriasis when topical treatments aren't enough.

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What lab test monitors psoriasis activity?

Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) is a blood test that can indicate disease activity, like inflammation in conditions like psoriasis.

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What are biologics used for in psoriasis treatment?

Biologics, specialized medications that target specific immune pathways, are used for severe psoriasis to reduce inflammation and plaque formation.

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What common comorbidity is associated with psoriasis?

Diabetes mellitus, a condition where the body cannot properly regulate blood sugar, is frequently linked to psoriasis due to similar inflammatory pathways.

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What is the typical appearance of impetigo lesions?

Impetigo lesions are identified by reddish patches on the skin with honey-colored, crusty coverings.

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What causes non-bullous impetigo?

The primary causative agents of non-bullous impetigo are Staphylococcus aureus and Streptococcus pyogenes, two types of bacteria.

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Furuncle (Boil)

A painful, red bump under the skin caused by a bacterial infection of a hair follicle or oil gland. It starts as a small, tender lump and can grow into a pus-filled abscess.

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Carbuncle

A large, multi-loculated abscess composed of multiple furuncles in a confined area, usually caused by Staphylococcus aureus.

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Hidradenitis Suppurativa

A long-term skin condition characterized by painful bumps under the skin, often occurring in the armpits, groin, buttocks, or breasts.

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Impetigo

A highly contagious bacterial skin infection, common in young children, characterized by honey-colored crusts.

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Mupirocin (Bactroban)

A topical antibiotic cream used to treat impetigo. It is applied three times daily for 5 days in children 12 years and older.

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Retapamulin (Altabax)

A topical antibiotic ointment used to treat impetigo, effective against strains resistant to Mupirocin. It is applied twice daily for 5 days in children 9 months of age and older.

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Debridement

Treatment that involves using solutions or substances to debride (remove dead tissue) lesions and expose the skin surface where bacteria are present.

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Regional Lymphadenopathy

Swollen lymph nodes, which can occur in impetigo, especially when the face is involved.

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Study Notes

General Study Tips

  • Topics and content are intended to focus student attention when reading/studying, and some topics may be repeated in multiple chapters.
  • Multiple test items are derived from the same topic areas to encourage deeper comprehension.
  • Students need a broad understanding of content, not just memorization of passages.
  • Information in chapters, boxes, and tables may include test items.
  • Exam questions assess various cognitive learning levels, requiring analysis, synthesis, and evaluation of patient scenarios.
  • Students must prioritize treatment actions based on provided information.
  • Read all answer options before the question stem to focus on key content and avoid distractions.
  • Utilize time effectively and avoid rushing.
  • Key: BLACK - book readings, PURPLE - weekly recording Q's, RED - midterm recording, BLUE - original page content, Green - quizlet, Orange - Canvas modules.

Chapter 4: The Art and Diagnosis of Treatment

  • Sensitivity: The proportion of patients with a disease who test positive.
  • Specificity: The proportion of patients without the disease who test negative.
  • High sensitivity means the test correctly identifies most individuals with the disease, while high specificity means the test correctly identifies those without the disease.
  • A test with high sensitivity and high specificity is ideal for screening.
  • A test with low specificity can produce many false positives.
  • High sensitivity but low specificity tests are best used for screening.

Chapter 5: Evidence-based Practice

  • Sources that NPs use for clinical decision-making include evidence-based research and clinical practice guidelines.

Chapter 10: Infectious and Inflammatory Neurological Disorders

  • Herpes Zoster (Shingles) is caused by varicella-zoster characterized by a painful rash with blisters.
  • The rash typically follows a dermatome.
  • A primary infection with varicella-zoster virus (chicken pox) causes latent infection in sensory neurons.
  • Pain and tingling can precede the rash onset.
  • Management includes management of vesicles, controlling pain, and prevention of secondary infection with antiviral agents.

Chapter 11: Common Skin Complaints

  • Pruritus: Sensation of itching accompanied by the urge to scratch.
  • Common causes of pruritus are local (insect bites) or systemic (chronic renal failure).
  • Atopic Dermatitis: characterized by erythematous patches with intense itching.
  • Atopic Dermatitis in infants commonly affects the face and scalp, and in older children/adults, flexural areas.
  • First-line treatment for mild atopic dermatitis is the use of moisturizers and emollients.

Chapter 12: Parasitic Skin Infections

  • Scabies: caused by the mite Sarcoptes scabiei.
  • Characterized by an intensely itchy rash, which is transmitted through direct contact.
  • Pediculosis (lice): differentiation is done by observing that nits (lice eggs) are firmly cemented in place unlike dandruff.
  • Ivermectin is the most common, effective treatment for scabies.

Chapter 13: Fungal Skin Infections

  • Risk factors for fungal infections include conditions that compromise the immune system, prolonged antibiotic therapy, and a history of diabetes. The treatment is topical antifungal cream or pill.
  • Assessment findings may include rash; satellite lesions; and common locations are in skin folds, moist areas.

Chapter 14: Bacterial Skin Infections

  • Cellulitis: A spreading infection of the epidermis and subcutaneous tissue.
  • Folliculitis: A superficial to deep skin infection of the hair follicles, characterized by papules.
  • Furuncle (boil): an acute inflamed skin infection, usually affecting hair follicles, with a pus-filled lesion.
  • Hidradenitis suppurativa: a chronic inflammatory skin condition characterized by painful bumps under the skin.

Chapter 15: Viral Skin Infections

  • Herpes Zoster: Inflammation of the nerves resulting in a sharply demarcated rash.
  • Warts: caused by human papillomavirus (HPV).
  • The treatment of immunocompromised clients with herpes zoster usually requires antiviral medication.

Chapter 16: Dermatitis

  • Atopic dermatitis: A long-term inflammatory skin condition characterized by severe itching and red, swollen, cracked skin.
  • Urticaria (hives): characterized by itchy wheals on the skin, usually appearing after exercise or exposure to heat.

Chapter 17: Common Skin Lesions

  • Actinic keratosis: Precancerous skin lesion resulting from chronic sun exposure.
  • Most often treated by Cryotherapy.
  • Rosacea: A common skin condition, characterized by flushing, redness, and visible blood vessels on the face.

Topical treatment options for acne include benzoyl peroxide

Chapter 18: Common Eye Complaints

  • Conjunctivitis: Inflammation of the conjunctiva, may be viral or bacterial.
  • Viral conjunctivitis is highly contagious, often associated with watery discharge.
  • Bacterial conjunctivitis is frequently accompanied by thick discharge.

Chapter 19: Lid and Conjunctival Pathology

  • Viral conjunctivitis: Adenovirus is the most common cause; involves inflammation of the conjunctiva with minimal pruritus and exudate.
  • Bacterial conjunctivitis: more common in children and is characterized by a copious discharge, pain, and redness.
  • *Chalazion: Painless, non-infectious inflammatory swelling of the meibomian gland in eyelid margin.
  • Hordeolum: Acute, inflammatory, painful swelling of the sebaceous gland in the eyelid margin.

Chapter 20: Visual Disturbances and Impaired Vision

  • Cataracts: An opacity of the lens of the eye, causing blurry vision, often related to age.
  • Glaucoma: A group of eye diseases characterized by increased intraocular pressure, resulting in damage to the optic nerve.

Chapter 21: Common Ear, Nose, and Throat Complaints

  • Acute Otitis Media (AOM) is an acute infection of the middle ear.
  • Otitis Externa (Swimmer's ear) is an infection of the outer ear.
  • Acute Epiglottitis: a serious, rapidly progressing condition, characterized by severe sore throat, difficulty swallowing, and respiratory distress.
  • An audiogram is an essential diagnostic tool to diagnose sensorineural hearing loss.

Chapter 22: Hearing and Balance Disorders

  • Sensorineural Hearing Loss (SNHL): damage to the inner ear, often permanent.
  • Conductive Hearing Loss (CHL): sound transmission through the outer or middle ear is impaired, often reversible.
  • Presbycusis: Age-related hearing loss, characterized by difficulty discriminating high-pitched noises.
  • Ototoxicity: Hearing loss caused by medication.

Chapter 23: Inflammatory and Infectious Disorders

  • Allergic Rhinitis: An IgE-mediated hypersensitivity response to an allergen causing itching, runny nose, and watery eyes.
  • Viral Rhinitis: a common cause of upper respiratory symptoms involving nose and throat.
  • Bacterial Otitis Media (AOM): an infection of the middle ear. Usually characterized by fever, pain and purulent discharge from the ear.
  • Perforated Tympanic Membrane (TM): a hole in the eardrum due to trauma or infection, often requiring treatment..

Chapter 24: Inflammatory and Infectious Disorders

  • Group A beta-hemolytic streptococcal (GABHS) pharyngitis (Strep throat): a bacterial infection of the throat characterized by a severe sore throat, difficulty swallowing, and fever.
  • Pharyngitis: Inflammation of the pharynx, characterized by pain, scratchiness, and difficulty swallowing.
  • Peritonsillar Abscess: an acute collection of pus behind the tonsils with possible airway compromise.

Chapter 25: Peritonsillar Abscess

  • Peritonsillar abscess: An acute collection of pus behind the tonsils; often associated with severe sore throat, difficulty swallowing, and painful mouth opening.

Chapter 63: Infectious Mononucleosis

  • A viral infection caused by Epstein Barr (EBV) that can results in fatigue, sore throat, fever and lymph node swelling
  • Monospot test may be used to confirm infection
  • Treatment is supportive and not antibiotics.

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