Ear and Oral Disorders Quiz
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Questions and Answers

What is the most commonly used screening test for hearing deficits in newborns?

  • Weber test
  • Pure-tone audiometry
  • Whispered voice test
  • Otoacoustic emissions (OAE) (correct)
  • Which of the following is a distinguishing feature of conductive hearing loss?

  • Air conduction greater than bone conduction on the Rinne test
  • Presence of high-frequency hearing loss
  • Lateralization to the affected ear on the Weber test (correct)
  • Lateralization to the unaffected ear on the Weber test
  • Which condition is most likely to cause sensorineural hearing loss?

  • Otosclerosis
  • Presbycusis (correct)
  • Otitis externa
  • Cerumen impaction
  • A 40-year-old male presents with episodic vertigo, fluctuating hearing loss, and tinnitus. What is the most likely diagnosis?

    <p>Meniere's disease (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which maneuver is used to diagnose benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV)?

    <p>Dix-Hallpike maneuver (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which condition is characterized by white, painless plaques on the oral mucosa that cannot be scraped off?

    <p>Leukoplakia (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    A 32-year-old patient presents with lacy, reticulated white plaques on the buccal mucosa (Wickham striae). What is the most likely diagnosis?

    <p>Oral lichen planus (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which oral lesion has the highest malignant potential?

    <p>Erythroplakia (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the first-line treatment for acute bacterial sinusitis?

    <p>Amoxicillin-clavulanate (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following findings suggests streptococcal pharyngitis over viral pharyngitis?

    <p>Anterior cervical lymphadenopathy (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    A patient presents with sudden painless monocular vision loss and a cherry-red spot on fundoscopy. What is the most likely diagnosis?

    <p>Retinal artery occlusion (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which condition is an ophthalmic emergency requiring immediate surgery?

    <p>Globe rupture (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the gold standard diagnostic test for open-angle glaucoma?

    <p>Visual field testing (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which virus is strongly associated with oropharyngeal cancer?

    <p>Human papillomavirus (HPV) (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    A painless, persistent neck mass in an older patient who smokes should raise suspicion for:

    <p>Squamous cell carcinoma (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    A 3-year-old presents with a "barking" cough, inspiratory stridor, and steeple sign on X-ray. What is the diagnosis?

    <p>Croup (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is the most appropriate initial step in the management of suspected epiglottitis?

    <p>Secure the airway (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    A patient presents with acute facial trauma and periorbital ecchymosis. He cannot look upward. What is the likely diagnosis?

    <p>Blowout fracture (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is the most common cause of otitis externa?

    <p>Pseudomonas aeruginosa (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the most effective treatment for malignant otitis externa?

    <p>Ciprofloxacin (IV or oral) (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    A patient with a history of barotrauma presents with fluctuating ear pressure and hearing loss. What is the most likely cause?

    <p>Eustachian tube dysfunction (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the recommended treatment for acute otitis media in children under 2 years old?

    <p>Amoxicillin (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following findings is most suggestive of a cholesteatoma?

    <p>Conductive hearing loss with pearly white mass behind TM (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which pathogen is most commonly associated with oral candidiasis?

    <p>Candida albicans (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the first-line treatment for aphthous ulcers?

    <p>Topical corticosteroids (e.g., triamcinolone) (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    A patient presents with a tender, swollen submandibular gland and purulent discharge from the duct when massaged. What is the most likely diagnosis?

    <p>Sialolithiasis (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following best differentiates vasomotor rhinitis from allergic rhinitis?

    <p>Triggers such as temperature changes and strong odors (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the Centor Criteria used for?

    <p>Predicting the likelihood of streptococcal pharyngitis (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    A patient presents with a painless, non-tender chalazion. What is the first-line treatment?

    <p>Warm compresses (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the hallmark finding of herpes simplex keratitis on fluorescein staining?

    <p>Dendritic lesions (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following red eye conditions is considered an emergency requiring immediate ophthalmology referral?

    <p>Corneal ulcer (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is the first-line treatment for wet macular degeneration?

    <p>Anti-VEGF therapy (e.g., Bevacizumab) (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which condition is associated with an afferent pupillary defect (Marcus Gunn pupil)?

    <p>Optic neuritis (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is the most common cause of painless, persistent cervical lymphadenopathy in an adult?

    <p>Metastatic squamous cell carcinoma (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary treatment for early-stage oropharyngeal squamous cell carcinoma?

    <p>Radiation therapy (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    A patient presents with a deep neck infection and trismus. What is the most serious potential complication?

    <p>Mediastinitis (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    A patient with facial trauma presents with malocclusion, numbness of the lower lip, and difficulty opening the mouth. What is the most likely diagnosis?

    <p>Mandibular fracture (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following signs is most specific for a blowout fracture?

    <p>Inability to gaze upward (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    A child presents with a "tripod" posture, drooling, and a muffled voice. What is the next best step?

    <p>Immediate intubation (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which imaging modality is preferred for diagnosing a suspected globe rupture?

    <p>CT scan (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    A 65-year-old patient presents with progressive bilateral hearing loss. He denies ear pain or vertigo. What is the most likely diagnosis?

    <p>Presbycusis (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which test is used to confirm acoustic neuroma?

    <p>MRI with contrast (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a key clinical feature of Meniere's disease?

    <p>Unilateral sensorineural hearing loss, tinnitus, and episodic vertigo (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a recommended lifestyle modification for Meniere's disease?

    <p>Salt restriction and diuretics (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    A patient presents with sudden onset, continuous vertigo lasting several days. He has no hearing loss but recently had an upper respiratory infection. What is the likely diagnosis?

    <p>Vestibular neuronitis (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    A 45-year-old male presents with dry mouth, dry eyes, and bilateral parotid gland enlargement. What is the most likely diagnosis?

    <p>Sjogren's syndrome (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following best differentiates oral leukoplakia from oral candidiasis?

    <p>Candidiasis scrapes off, leukoplakia does not (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which viral infection is most commonly associated with parotitis in children?

    <p>Mumps virus (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is the most common bacterial pathogen in acute bacterial rhinosinusitis?

    <p>Streptococcus pneumoniae (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    A 22-year-old presents with sore throat, fever, fatigue, and posterior cervical lymphadenopathy. Which test is most appropriate for diagnosis?

    <p>Monospot test (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a risk factor for nasal polyps?

    <p>Asthma (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    A 5-year-old boy presents with stridor, drooling, and dysphagia. What is the most likely diagnosis?

    <p>Epiglottitis (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a key feature of scleritis?

    <p>Photophobia and deep ocular pain (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which eye condition is most likely to be vision-threatening?

    <p>Corneal ulcer (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    A patient presents with a painful, swollen eyelid and restricted extraocular movements. What is the likely diagnosis?

    <p>Orbital cellulitis (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the most common cause of blindness in older adults in the United States?

    <p>Macular degeneration (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is characteristic of open-angle glaucoma?

    <p>Increased intraocular pressure with peripheral vision loss (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the first-line treatment for acute angle-closure glaucoma?

    <p>IV acetazolamide (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the first step in managing a patient with suspected Ludwig's angina?

    <p>Secure the airway (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    A patient presents with severe unilateral periorbital pain, proptosis, and vision loss. What is the most likely diagnosis?

    <p>Orbital cellulitis (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    A child presents with sudden-onset unilateral nasal congestion and foul-smelling nasal discharge. What is the most likely cause?

    <p>Foreign body (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a contraindication to nasal packing in epistaxis?

    <p>Septal hematoma (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which imaging study is preferred for a suspected mandibular fracture?

    <p>CT scan (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Study Notes

    Ear Disorders and Hearing Loss

    • Newborn Hearing Screening: Otoacoustic emissions (OAE) are the most common screening test for hearing in newborns.
    • Conductive Hearing Loss: A distinguishing feature is lateralization to the affected ear on the Weber test, and air conduction greater than bone conduction on the Rinne test.
    • Sensorineural Hearing Loss: Presbycusis is the most likely cause.
    • Episodic Vertigo: Meniere's disease is the likely diagnosis for a 40-year-old male experiencing episodic vertigo, fluctuating hearing loss, and tinnitus.
    • Benign Paroxysmal Positional Vertigo (BPPV): The Dix-Hallpike maneuver is used to diagnose BPPV.

    Oral Cavity Disorders

    • Oral Lichen Planus: Characterized by lacy, reticulated white plaques on the buccal mucosa (Wickham striae).
    • Oral Lesion with Highest Malignant Potential: Erythroplakia.
    • Candidiasis: Caused by Candida albicans, often presenting as white, painless plaques on the oral mucosa.
    • Aphthous Ulcers: Treated with topical corticosteroids (e.g., triamcinolone).
    • Sialolithiasis: Characterized by a tender, swollen submandibular gland with purulent discharge from the duct when massaged.

    Nose, Sinus, Pharynx, and Larynx Disorders

    • Acute Bacterial Sinusitis: Amoxicillin-clavulanate is the first-line treatment.
    • Streptococcal Pharyngitis: Anterior cervical lymphadenopathy suggests streptococcal pharyngitis over viral pharyngitis.
    • Malignant Otitis Externa: Treated with Ciprofloxacin (IV or oral).

    Ophthalmological Conditions

    • Ophthalmic Emergency: Globe rupture requires immediate surgery.
    • Open-Angle Glaucoma: Visual field testing is the gold standard diagnostic test.
    • Wet Macular Degeneration: Anti-VEGF therapy (e.g., Bevacizumab) is the first-line treatment.
    • Afferent Pupillary Defect (Marcus Gunn Pupil): Associated with optic neuritis.
    • Herpes Simplex Keratitis: Dendritic lesions on fluorescein staining are the hallmark.
    • Chalazion: Warm compresses are the first-line treatment.
    • Corneal Ulcer: Requires immediate ophthalmology referral.

    Neck Masses, Head, and Neck Cancers

    • Oropharyngeal Cancer: Strongly associated with human papillomavirus (HPV).
    • Painless Persistent Neck Mass (Older Smoker): Squamous cell carcinoma should be suspected.
    • Ludwig's Angina: A serious potential complication of a deep neck infection, requiring securing the airway.

    HEENT Emergencies

    • Epiglottitis: Securing the airway is the initial management step.
    • Croup: A "barking" cough, inspiratory stridor, and steeple sign on X-ray suggest a diagnosis of croup.
    • Facial Trauma: Orbital floor fracture causes difficulty opening mouth and malocclusion.
    • Globe Rupture: CT scan is the preferred imaging modality.
    • Progressive Bilateral Hearing Loss: Presbycusis is the most likely diagnosis in a 65-year-old patient without ear pain or vertigo.
    • Acoustic Neuroma: MRI with contrast is used for confirmation.

    Other

    • Cholesteatoma: Characteristic finding is conductive hearing loss with a pearly white mass behind the tympanic membrane.
    • Ludwig's Angina: A serious potential complication of a deep neck infection is mediastinitis.

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    Description

    Test your knowledge on various ear and oral cavity disorders. This quiz covers topics including hearing loss types, diagnostic tests, and specific oral conditions. Ideal for students and healthcare professionals interested in otolaryngology and dentistry.

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