Audiology, Vertigo, and Disorders of the Ear PDF

**Audiology, Vertigo, and Disorders of the Ear** 1. **What is the most commonly used screening test for hearing deficits in newborns?**\ A) Whispered voice test\ B) Otoacoustic emissions (OAE)\ C) Pure-tone audiometry\ D) Weber test\ **Correct Answer:** B) Otoacoustic emiss...

**Audiology, Vertigo, and Disorders of the Ear** 1. **What is the most commonly used screening test for hearing deficits in newborns?**\ A) Whispered voice test\ B) Otoacoustic emissions (OAE)\ C) Pure-tone audiometry\ D) Weber test\ **Correct Answer:** B) Otoacoustic emissions (OAE) 2. **Which of the following is a distinguishing feature of conductive hearing loss?**\ A) Lateralization to the unaffected ear on the Weber test\ B) Air conduction greater than bone conduction on the Rinne test\ C) Lateralization to the affected ear on the Weber test\ D) Presence of high-frequency hearing loss\ **Correct Answer:** C) Lateralization to the affected ear on the Weber test 3. **Which condition is most likely to cause sensorineural hearing loss?**\ A) Cerumen impaction\ B) Otosclerosis\ C) Presbycusis\ D) Otitis externa\ **Correct Answer:** C) Presbycusis 4. **A 40-year-old male presents with episodic vertigo, fluctuating hearing loss, and tinnitus. What is the most likely diagnosis?**\ A) Vestibular neuronitis\ B) Meniere's disease\ C) Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV)\ D) Labyrinthitis\ **Correct Answer:** B) Meniere's disease 5. **Which maneuver is used to diagnose benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV)?**\ A) Dix-Hallpike maneuver\ B) Romberg test\ C) Head thrust test\ D) Weber test\ **Correct Answer:** A) Dix-Hallpike maneuver **Disorders of the Oral Cavity** 6. **Which condition is characterized by white, painless plaques on the oral mucosa that cannot be scraped off?**\ A) Oral candidiasis\ B) Leukoplakia\ C) Aphthous ulcers\ D) Herpes stomatitis\ **Correct Answer:** B) Leukoplakia 7. **A 32-year-old patient presents with lacy, reticulated white plaques on the buccal mucosa (Wickham striae). What is the most likely diagnosis?**\ A) Oral candidiasis\ B) Oral lichen planus\ C) Erythroplakia\ D) Sialolithiasis\ **Correct Answer:** B) Oral lichen planus 8. **Which oral lesion has the highest malignant potential?**\ A) Oral candidiasis\ B) Leukoplakia\ C) Erythroplakia\ D) Aphthous ulcers\ **Correct Answer:** C) Erythroplakia **Disorders of the Nose, Sinus, Pharynx, and Larynx** 9. **What is the first-line treatment for acute bacterial sinusitis?**\ A) Azithromycin\ B) Amoxicillin-clavulanate\ C) Ciprofloxacin\ D) Doxycycline\ **Correct Answer:** B) Amoxicillin-clavulanate 10. **Which of the following findings suggests streptococcal pharyngitis over viral pharyngitis?**\ A) Presence of cough\ B) Absence of tonsillar exudates\ C) Anterior cervical lymphadenopathy\ D) Rhinorrhea\ **Correct Answer:** C) Anterior cervical lymphadenopathy **Ophthalmology - Red Eye & Visual Loss** 11. **A patient presents with sudden painless monocular vision loss and a cherry-red spot on fundoscopy. What is the most likely diagnosis?**\ A) Retinal vein occlusion\ B) Retinal artery occlusion\ C) Optic neuritis\ D) Macular degeneration\ **Correct Answer:** B) Retinal artery occlusion 12. **Which condition is an ophthalmic emergency requiring immediate surgery?**\ A) Corneal ulcer\ B) Orbital cellulitis\ C) Globe rupture\ D) Periorbital cellulitis\ **Correct Answer:** C) Globe rupture 13. **What is the gold standard diagnostic test for open-angle glaucoma?**\ A) Fundoscopy\ B) Tonometry\ C) Visual field testing\ D) Optical coherence tomography (OCT)\ **Correct Answer:** C) Visual field testing **Neck Masses, Head and Neck Cancers** 14. **Which virus is strongly associated with oropharyngeal cancer?**\ A) Epstein-Barr virus\ B) Human papillomavirus (HPV)\ C) Cytomegalovirus\ D) Hepatitis B virus\ **Correct Answer:** B) Human papillomavirus (HPV) 15. **A painless, persistent neck mass in an older patient who smokes should raise suspicion for:**\ A) Thyroglossal duct cyst\ B) Branchial cleft cyst\ C) Squamous cell carcinoma\ D) Lipoma\ **Correct Answer:** C) Squamous cell carcinoma **HEENT Emergencies** 16. **A 3-year-old presents with a \"barking\" cough, inspiratory stridor, and steeple sign on X-ray. What is the diagnosis?**\ A) Epiglottitis\ B) Croup\ C) Bronchiolitis\ D) Bacterial tracheitis\ **Correct Answer:** B) Croup 17. **Which of the following is the most appropriate initial step in the management of suspected epiglottitis?**\ A) Administer racemic epinephrine\ B) Secure the airway\ C) Obtain a throat culture\ D) Give oral corticosteroids\ **Correct Answer:** B) Secure the airway 18. **A patient presents with acute facial trauma and periorbital ecchymosis. He cannot look upward. What is the likely diagnosis?**\ A) Orbital cellulitis\ B) Blowout fracture\ C) Globe rupture\ D) Optic neuritis\ **Correct Answer:** B) Blowout fracture **Audiology, Vertigo, and Disorders of the Ear (Continued)** 19. **Which of the following is the most common cause of otitis externa?**\ A) Streptococcus pneumoniae\ B) Pseudomonas aeruginosa\ C) Staphylococcus aureus\ D) Candida albicans\ **Correct Answer:** B) Pseudomonas aeruginosa 20. **What is the most effective treatment for malignant otitis externa?**\ A) Oral amoxicillin\ B) Ciprofloxacin (IV or oral)\ C) Topical neomycin drops\ D) Oral prednisone\ **Correct Answer:** B) Ciprofloxacin (IV or oral) 21. **A patient with a history of barotrauma presents with fluctuating ear pressure and hearing loss. What is the most likely cause?**\ A) Serous otitis media\ B) Eustachian tube dysfunction\ C) Otosclerosis\ D) Acoustic neuroma\ **Correct Answer:** B) Eustachian tube dysfunction 22. **What is the recommended treatment for acute otitis media in children under 2 years old?**\ A) Watchful waiting\ B) Amoxicillin\ C) Azithromycin\ D) Ciprofloxacin drops\ **Correct Answer:** B) Amoxicillin 23. **Which of the following findings is most suggestive of a cholesteatoma?**\ A) Bulging tympanic membrane\ B) Conductive hearing loss with pearly white mass behind TM\ C) Sensorineural hearing loss\ D) Erythematous tympanic membrane\ **Correct Answer:** B) Conductive hearing loss with pearly white mass behind TM **Disorders of the Oral Cavity (Continued)** 24. **Which pathogen is most commonly associated with oral candidiasis?**\ A) Candida albicans\ B) Streptococcus mutans\ C) Human papillomavirus (HPV)\ D) Actinomyces israelii\ **Correct Answer:** A) Candida albicans 25. **What is the first-line treatment for aphthous ulcers?**\ A) Oral prednisone\ B) Topical corticosteroids (e.g., triamcinolone)\ C) Oral acyclovir\ D) Clindamycin mouth rinse\ **Correct Answer:** B) Topical corticosteroids (e.g., triamcinolone) 26. **A patient presents with a tender, swollen submandibular gland and purulent discharge from the duct when massaged. What is the most likely diagnosis?**\ A) Sjogren's syndrome\ B) Sialolithiasis\ C) Salivary gland tumor\ D) Ludwig's angina\ **Correct Answer:** B) Sialolithiasis **Disorders of the Nose, Sinus, Pharynx, and Larynx (Continued)** 27. **Which of the following best differentiates vasomotor rhinitis from allergic rhinitis?**\ A) Presence of nasal polyps\ B) Eosinophils on nasal smear\ C) Triggers such as temperature changes and strong odors\ D) Response to antihistamines\ **Correct Answer:** C) Triggers such as temperature changes and strong odors 28. **What is the Centor Criteria used for?**\ A) Diagnosing allergic rhinitis\ B) Predicting the likelihood of streptococcal pharyngitis\ C) Diagnosing mononucleosis\ D) Identifying nasal polyps\ **Correct Answer:** B) Predicting the likelihood of streptococcal pharyngitis **Overview of the Eye & Red Eye (Continued)** 29. **A patient presents with a painless, non-tender chalazion. What is the first-line treatment?**\ A) Incision and drainage\ B) Warm compresses\ C) Oral antibiotics\ D) Topical corticosteroids\ **Correct Answer:** B) Warm compresses 30. **What is the hallmark finding of herpes simplex keratitis on fluorescein staining?**\ A) Dendritic lesions\ B) Corneal ulcers\ C) Cotton wool spots\ D) Subepithelial infiltrates\ **Correct Answer:** A) Dendritic lesions 31. **Which of the following red eye conditions is considered an emergency requiring immediate ophthalmology referral?**\ A) Viral conjunctivitis\ B) Corneal ulcer\ C) Pinguecula\ D) Allergic conjunctivitis\ **Correct Answer:** B) Corneal ulcer **Acute and Chronic Visual Loss (Continued)** 32. **Which of the following is the first-line treatment for wet macular degeneration?**\ A) Corticosteroids\ B) Anti-VEGF therapy (e.g., Bevacizumab)\ C) Photodynamic therapy\ D) Laser coagulation\ **Correct Answer:** B) Anti-VEGF therapy (e.g., Bevacizumab) 33. **Which condition is associated with an afferent pupillary defect (Marcus Gunn pupil)?**\ A) Cataract\ B) Optic neuritis\ C) Retinal detachment\ D) Macular degeneration\ **Correct Answer:** B) Optic neuritis **Neck Masses, Head and Neck Cancers (Continued)** 34. **Which of the following is the most common cause of painless, persistent cervical lymphadenopathy in an adult?**\ A) Epstein-Barr virus\ B) Metastatic squamous cell carcinoma\ C) Reactive lymphadenopathy\ D) Thyroglossal duct cyst\ **Correct Answer:** B) Metastatic squamous cell carcinoma 35. **What is the primary treatment for early-stage oropharyngeal squamous cell carcinoma?**\ A) Radiation therapy\ B) Chemotherapy\ C) Surgery\ D) Observation\ **Correct Answer:** A) Radiation therapy **HEENT Emergencies (Continued)** 36. **A patient presents with a deep neck infection and trismus. What is the most serious potential complication?**\ A) Ludwig's angina\ B) Peritonsillar abscess\ C) Mediastinitis\ D) Epiglottitis\ **Correct Answer:** C) Mediastinitis 37. **A patient with facial trauma presents with malocclusion, numbness of the lower lip, and difficulty opening the mouth. What is the most likely diagnosis?**\ A) Orbital floor fracture\ B) Mandibular fracture\ C) Le Fort fracture\ D) Zygomatic fracture\ **Correct Answer:** B) Mandibular fracture 38. **Which of the following signs is most specific for a blowout fracture?**\ A) Epistaxis\ B) Periorbital ecchymosis\ C) Inability to gaze upward\ D) Subconjunctival hemorrhage\ **Correct Answer:** C) Inability to gaze upward 39. **A child presents with a \"tripod\" posture, drooling, and a muffled voice. What is the next best step?**\ A) Lateral neck X-ray\ B) Immediate intubation\ C) Administer racemic epinephrine\ D) IV corticosteroids\ **Correct Answer:** B) Immediate intubation 40. **Which imaging modality is preferred for diagnosing a suspected globe rupture?**\ A) X-ray\ B) MRI\ C) CT scan\ D) Ultrasound\ **Correct Answer:** C) CT scan 41. **A 65-year-old patient presents with progressive bilateral hearing loss. He denies ear pain or vertigo. What is the most likely diagnosis?**\ A) Presbycusis\ B) Otosclerosis\ C) Acoustic neuroma\ D) Meniere's disease\ **Correct Answer:** A) Presbycusis 42. **Which test is used to confirm acoustic neuroma?**\ A) Audiometry\ B) CT scan of the head\ C) MRI with contrast\ D) Tympanometry\ **Correct Answer:** C) MRI with contrast 43. **Which of the following is a key clinical feature of Meniere's disease?**\ A) Short, recurrent episodes of vertigo lasting less than one minute\ B) Unilateral sensorineural hearing loss, tinnitus, and episodic vertigo\ C) Bilateral conductive hearing loss\ D) Chronic otalgia with fever\ **Correct Answer:** B) Unilateral sensorineural hearing loss, tinnitus, and episodic vertigo 44. **Which of the following is a recommended lifestyle modification for Meniere's disease?**\ A) High sodium diet\ B) Increased caffeine intake\ C) Salt restriction and diuretics\ D) Vitamin D supplementation\ **Correct Answer:** C) Salt restriction and diuretics 45. **A patient presents with sudden onset, continuous vertigo lasting several days. He has no hearing loss but recently had an upper respiratory infection. What is the likely diagnosis?**\ A) Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV)\ B) Labyrinthitis\ C) Vestibular neuronitis\ D) Acoustic neuroma\ **Correct Answer:** C) Vestibular neuronitis **Disorders of the Oral Cavity (Continued)** 46. **A 45-year-old male presents with dry mouth, dry eyes, and bilateral parotid gland enlargement. What is the most likely diagnosis?**\ A) Mumps\ B) Sjogren's syndrome\ C) Sialolithiasis\ D) Salivary gland tumor\ **Correct Answer:** B) Sjogren's syndrome 47. **Which of the following best differentiates oral leukoplakia from oral candidiasis?**\ A) Leukoplakia is painful\ B) Candidiasis scrapes off, leukoplakia does not\ C) Candidiasis is associated with HPV\ D) Leukoplakia is always malignant\ **Correct Answer:** B) Candidiasis scrapes off, leukoplakia does not 48. **Which viral infection is most commonly associated with parotitis in children?**\ A) Epstein-Barr virus\ B) Herpes simplex virus\ C) Mumps virus\ D) Cytomegalovirus\ **Correct Answer:** C) Mumps virus **Disorders of the Nose, Sinus, Pharynx, and Larynx (Continued)** 49. **Which of the following is the most common bacterial pathogen in acute bacterial rhinosinusitis?**\ A) Streptococcus pyogenes\ B) Haemophilus influenzae\ C) Moraxella catarrhalis\ D) Streptococcus pneumoniae\ **Correct Answer:** D) Streptococcus pneumoniae 50. **A 22-year-old presents with sore throat, fever, fatigue, and posterior cervical lymphadenopathy. Which test is most appropriate for diagnosis?**\ A) Rapid strep test\ B) Monospot test\ C) Throat culture\ D) ANA test\ **Correct Answer:** B) Monospot test 51. **Which of the following is a risk factor for nasal polyps?**\ A) Asthma\ B) Chronic bacterial sinusitis\ C) Foreign body\ D) Epistaxis\ **Correct Answer:** A) Asthma 52. **A 5-year-old boy presents with stridor, drooling, and dysphagia. What is the most likely diagnosis?**\ A) Croup\ B) Peritonsillar abscess\ C) Epiglottitis\ D) Retropharyngeal abscess\ **Correct Answer:** C) Epiglottitis **Overview of the Eye & Red Eye (Continued)** 53. **Which of the following is a key feature of scleritis?**\ A) Painless red eye\ B) Photophobia and deep ocular pain\ C) Conjunctival discharge\ D) Painless subconjunctival hemorrhage\ **Correct Answer:** B) Photophobia and deep ocular pain 54. **Which eye condition is most likely to be vision-threatening?**\ A) Viral conjunctivitis\ B) Corneal ulcer\ C) Hordeolum\ D) Pinguecula\ **Correct Answer:** B) Corneal ulcer 55. **A patient presents with a painful, swollen eyelid and restricted extraocular movements. What is the likely diagnosis?**\ A) Periorbital cellulitis\ B) Orbital cellulitis\ C) Chalazion\ D) Blepharitis\ **Correct Answer:** B) Orbital cellulitis **Acute and Chronic Visual Loss (Continued)** 56. **What is the most common cause of blindness in older adults in the United States?**\ A) Cataracts\ B) Macular degeneration\ C) Glaucoma\ D) Diabetic retinopathy\ **Correct Answer:** B) Macular degeneration 57. **Which of the following is characteristic of open-angle glaucoma?**\ A) Sudden onset of severe eye pain\ B) Increased intraocular pressure with peripheral vision loss\ C) Cloudy cornea and fixed mid-dilated pupil\ D) Dendritic lesions on fluorescein staining\ **Correct Answer:** B) Increased intraocular pressure with peripheral vision loss 58. **What is the first-line treatment for acute angle-closure glaucoma?**\ A) IV acetazolamide\ B) Topical antibiotics\ C) Oral corticosteroids\ D) Oral antihistamines\ **Correct Answer:** A) IV acetazolamide **HEENT Emergencies (Continued)** 59. **What is the first step in managing a patient with suspected Ludwig's angina?**\ A) Initiate IV antibiotics\ B) Obtain a CT scan\ C) Secure the airway\ D) Incision and drainage\ **Correct Answer:** C) Secure the airway 60. **A patient presents with severe unilateral periorbital pain, proptosis, and vision loss. What is the most likely diagnosis?**\ A) Orbital cellulitis\ B) Acute angle-closure glaucoma\ C) Corneal abrasion\ D) Blowout fracture\ **Correct Answer:** A) Orbital cellulitis 61. **A child presents with sudden-onset unilateral nasal congestion and foul-smelling nasal discharge. What is the most likely cause?**\ A) Nasal polyp\ B) Deviated septum\ C) Foreign body\ D) Sinusitis\ **Correct Answer:** C) Foreign body 62. **Which of the following is a contraindication to nasal packing in epistaxis?**\ A) Septal hematoma\ B) Hypertension\ C) Warfarin use\ D) Coagulopathy\ **Correct Answer:** A) Septal hematoma 63. **Which imaging study is preferred for a suspected mandibular fracture?**\ A) X-ray\ B) CT scan\ C) MRI\ D) Ultrasound\ **Correct Answer:** B) CT scan