Anatomy 2 Final Exam

What is the structure of erythrocytes?

flexible (correct) (correct)
Formed nucleus
Lack nucleus and cellular organelles (correct) (correct)
biconcave (correct) (correct)
rigid

What is erythropoiesis?

erythropoietin (correct)
Testosterone (correct)
High altitudes (correct)
excessive hydration

What are the 2 categories of leukocytes?

granulocytes and agranulocytes

What are the types of granulocytes?

Eosinophils (B), Neutrophils (A), Basophils (C) Signup and view all the answers

What are the types of agranulocytes?

Lymphocytes (D), Monocytes (A) Signup and view all the answers

What is the most numerous leukocyte in the blood?

Neutrophils (A) Signup and view all the answers

What is the structure of leukocytes?

contain hemoglobin (A), do not contain hemoglobin (C), motility and flexibility (D) Signup and view all the answers

What is the first leukocyte to the site of infection?

Neutrophils (D) Signup and view all the answers

What leukocyte is present in case of parasite infection?

Eosinophils (C) Signup and view all the answers

What leukocyte is present in the case of an allergic reaction?

Basophils (B) Signup and view all the answers

What leukocyte transforms into large phagocytic cells called macrophages that phagocytize bacteria, viruses, and debris?

Monocytes (D) Signup and view all the answers

What leukocyte resides in lymphatic organs and structures?

Lymphocytes (@) Signup and view all the answers

What substances does clotting require?

Calcium, 13 clotting factors, platelets, and vitamin k Signup and view all the answers

What is the final step in hemostasis?

Fibrin mesh (C) Signup and view all the answers

What are factors that prevent undesirable clotting

Smooth endothelial lining (A), Heparin (B), Vit E (C), Prostaglandin 2 (@) Signup and view all the answers

What is hemostasis

A series of reactions designed to stop bleeding (A) Signup and view all the answers

What are the 3 phases of hemostasis?

Vascular spasms, platelet plug formation, coagulation Signup and view all the answers

What is the importance of vitamin K in coagulation?

fat-soluble co-enzyme thats required for the synthesis of clotting factors 2,7,9,10 Signup and view all the answers

What does phase 1 - vascular spasms do for hemostasis

blood vessel constriction (B) Signup and view all the answers

What does coagulation do?

set of reactions where blood is transformed from a liquid to a gel. prothrombin activator is formed which is converted to thrombin. Thrombin catalyzes the joining of fibrinogen into a fibrin mesh. (B) Signup and view all the answers

What does the platelet plug formation do?

damage to endothelium exposes collagen that platelets will now stick to with the help of von willibrand clotting factor forming a platelet plug. Will also release serotonin and ADP, which attract more platelets. Platelet plug is limited to immediate area by prostaglandin 2 (B) Signup and view all the answers

What blood type is the universal recipient?

Type AB+ (C) Signup and view all the answers

What blood type is the universal donor?

Type O- (A) Signup and view all the answers

Complete Blood type chart

done Signup and view all the answers

What is the pH of blood?

7.35 - 7.45 Signup and view all the answers

What plasma protein is a major component in maintaining osmotic pressure in the blood?

albumin (A) Signup and view all the answers

What is the most abundant plasma protein?

Albumin (A) Signup and view all the answers

How does the body regulate blood pressure? (Select all that apply)

Neuronal Regulation (A), Hormonal Regulation (D) Signup and view all the answers

How does Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) help regulate blood pressure

By increasing water reabsorption in the kidneys (A), Stimulate thirst center to increase water consumption (C), large amounts can cause vasoconstriction (incr. resistance and pressure (@) Signup and view all the answers

How does Atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP) help regulate blood pressure (select all that apply).

Decreases blood pressure (A), By stimulating vasodilation (decr. peripheral resistance (B), By increasing urine output (lower blood volume) (C) Signup and view all the answers

How does the renin-angiotensin system help regulate BP?

Responds to drop in BP and fluid volume. Renin released from the kidneys and angiotensinogen released from the lever combine to create angiotensin 1. ACE that is released from the lungs turns angiotensin 1 into angiotensin 2 that stimulates vasoconstriction in the blood vessels and stimulates adrenal gland to release aldosterone that stimulates reabsorption of water and salt in the kidneys Signup and view all the answers

What are the functions of baroreceptors?

Respond to changes in blood pressure (A) Signup and view all the answers

Where are baroreceptors located?

Carotid sinuses (C), Aortic arch (D) Signup and view all the answers

What are the functions of chemoreceptors?

Detecting levels of oxygen and carbon dioxide in the blood (A) Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary function of veins in the cardiovascular system?

Transport deoxygenated blood back to the heart (C) Signup and view all the answers

What is the one exception where a vein carries oxygenated blood?

The Pulmonary vein brings newly oxygenated blood from the lungs back to the heart Signup and view all the answers

What are the 3 main layers of arteries and veins?

Tunica Intima, Tunica Media, Tunica Externa Signup and view all the answers

What are the 3 subsections of Tunica Intima?

Endothelium (A), Subendothelial layer (B), Internal elastic lamina (@) Signup and view all the answers

What are the subsections of Tunica Media?

External Elastic Lamina (B) Signup and view all the answers

What are the subsections of Tunica Externa?

Vaso Vasorum (D) Signup and view all the answers

What subsections of the Tunica layers are only found in arteries?

External elastic layer (B), Internal elastic layer (D) Signup and view all the answers

What are the layers of capillaries?

basement membrane (C), Endothelium (D) Signup and view all the answers

What are the veins closest to furthest from heart

Large veins, small to medium veins, venules Signup and view all the answers

What are the arteries closest to furthest from heart

Elastic arteries, muscular artery, arteriole Signup and view all the answers

What is the name of the artery labeled K?

Radial (B) Signup and view all the answers

What is the name of the artery labelled E?

Brachial (A) Signup and view all the answers

What is the name of the artery labelled Q?

Femoral (C) Signup and view all the answers

What is the name of the artery labelled R?

popliteal (@) Signup and view all the answers

What is not a primary function of the heart valves?

Deliver oxygen to the body's tissues (D) Signup and view all the answers

What is the main role of heart valves?

To prevent backflow of blood (B) Signup and view all the answers

In what part of the heart does deoxygenated blood enter first?

Right atrium (C) Signup and view all the answers

Which chamber of the heart pumps oxygen-rich blood to the body?

Left ventricle (C) Signup and view all the answers

Which artery is primarily responsible for supplying the heart muscle with blood?

Right coronary artery (C) Signup and view all the answers

What are the purposes of the left and right atrioventricular valves?

To prevent backflow of blood from to the atria from the ventricle (A) Signup and view all the answers

What is another name for the right atrioventricular valve

Tricuspid valve (C) Signup and view all the answers

What is another name for the left atrioventricular valve

Mitral valve (C) Signup and view all the answers

What are the purposes of the semi-lunar valves?

To prevent backflow of blood into the ventricles (A), To regulate blood pressure within the arteries (D) Signup and view all the answers

What are the names of the two semi-lunar valves in the heart?

Aortic and Pulmonary (A) Signup and view all the answers

What is the correct flow of blood?

Vena cava → Right atrium → Right ventricle → Pulmonary arteries → Lungs → Pulmonary veins → Left atrium → Left ventricle → Aorta Signup and view all the answers

Where is the right atrioventricular (tricuspid) valve located

Between the right atrium and right ventricle (A) Signup and view all the answers

Where is the left atrioventricular (mitral or bicuspid) valve located?

Between the left atrium and left ventricle (B) Signup and view all the answers

Where is the right pulmonary semilunar valve located

Between the right ventricle and pulmonary artery (D) Signup and view all the answers

Where is the right aortic semilunar valve located?

At the junction of the left ventricle and aorta (D) Signup and view all the answers

What is #6?

Right atrioventricular (tricuspid valve) (B) Signup and view all the answers

What is #16?

pulmonary semi-lunar valve (A) Signup and view all the answers

What is #13?

aortic semi-lunar valve (C) Signup and view all the answers

What is #12?

Left atrioventricular (Mitral valve) (D) Signup and view all the answers

What is #5?

right atrium (B) Signup and view all the answers

What is #7

right ventricle (C) Signup and view all the answers

What is #14?

left ventricle (B) Signup and view all the answers

What is #11

left atrium (D) Signup and view all the answers

What is the inferior vena cava and the left pulmonary artery?

8 and 9 (B) Signup and view all the answers

Where is the right pulmonary artery and the left pulmonary vein?

3 and 10 (D) Signup and view all the answers

Where is the right pulmonary vein and the superior vena cava?

4 and 2 (B) Signup and view all the answers

Which lung volume is always present in the lungs?

Residual volume (D) Signup and view all the answers

Which respiratory volume measures the air inspired or expired in a normal breath?

Tidal volume (B) Signup and view all the answers

Which respiratory volume measures the amount of air that can be inspired forcefully after the inspiration of tidal volume ?

Inspiratory reserve volume (B) Signup and view all the answers

Which respiratory volume measures the amount of air that can be expired forcefully after the inspiration of tidal volume ?

Expiratory reserve volume (C) Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following describes hyperventilation?

Breathing rate or depth exceeds body demand (D) Signup and view all the answers

What are the consequences of hyperventilation?

O2 levels incr. and CO2 levels decr. in alveoli and blood (A), blood vessels constrict due to low co2 levels and can lower blood supply to brain and cause alkalosis (D), symptoms can include; feeling faint, dizzy, numbness, LOC and coma in severe cases (@) Signup and view all the answers

What are the consequences of hypoventilation?

O2 levels decr. and CO2 levels incr. in alveoli and blood (B), low blood o2 levels can result in lethargy, sleepiness, headaches, and cyanosis (C) Signup and view all the answers

What is the role of surfactant in the alveoli?

To decrease surface tension (D) Signup and view all the answers

What muscles are used for quiet breathing?

diaphragm (A), external intercostal (D) Signup and view all the answers

Which muscle group is primarily involved in forced expiration?

External intercostals (A) Signup and view all the answers

When is intrapulmonary pressure equal to atmospheric pressure?

at the end of inspiration (C), at the end of expiration (D) Signup and view all the answers

When is intrapulmonary pressure less than atmospheric pressure?

As air flows in during inspiration (D) Signup and view all the answers

When is intrapulmonary pressure greater than atmospheric pressure?

as air flows out during expiration (C) Signup and view all the answers

Which respiratory structure has C-shaped cartilages?

Trachea (D) Signup and view all the answers

Which are not a part of the respiratory zone?

bronchiole (D), bronchus (@), pharynx (@) Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary function of the conducting zone?

Humidifying and transporting air (D) Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is considered part of the conducting zone of the respiratory system?

Trachea (D) Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary difference between the conducting zone and the respiratory zone?

Gas exchange occurs in the respiratory zone, not the conducting zone (B) Signup and view all the answers

What is the structure of alveoli?

Single layer of squamous alveolar cells (alveolar type 1 cells_ (A) Signup and view all the answers

What is the structure of the lungs?

composed of lobes separated by fissures (B) Signup and view all the answers

What is henrys law?

at a given temp , the solubility of a gas in liquids is dependent upon partial pressure of gas in the air and solubility coefficient of the gas in the liquid. Signup and view all the answers

What is partial pressure of henrys law?

driving force moving gas into a liquid (A), gases with low solubility require larger pressure gradients to push the gas into a liquid (B) Signup and view all the answers

What is solubility coefficient of henrys law?

volume of gas that dissolves in a specified volume of liquid at a given pressure (C), a constant that depends on interactions between molecules of the liquid and gas (D) Signup and view all the answers

What is the function of the epiglottis?

To prevent food from entering the trachea (B) Signup and view all the answers

What are the 6 main functions of the digestive system?

Ingestion, motility, secretion, digestion, absorption, elimination Signup and view all the answers

What are the functions of saliva? (Select all that apply)

Salivary amylase initiates chemical breakdown of starch (A), Moistens ingested food to help form bolus (B) Signup and view all the answers

What is the main function of the stomach?

Mechanical and Chemical breakdown of food (B) Signup and view all the answers

What is the function of the small intestine?

Absorb nutrients and a large percentage of water, electrolytes, and vitamins (A) Signup and view all the answers

What does the duodenum do?

Receive chyme from the stomach through pyloric sphincter (C), receive accessory gland secretions from liver, gall bladder, and pancreas (D) Signup and view all the answers

What does the jujenum do?

middle region that is the primary region for chemical digestion and nutrient absorption (D) Signup and view all the answers

What does the ileum do?

distal end terminating at ileocecal valve that continues absorption of digested materials (A) Signup and view all the answers

What is the function of circular folds in the small intestine?

To increase surface area for absorption (A), Speed bumps to slower movement of chyme (B) Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary function of the large intestine?

Absorption of water and electrolytes (A) Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary function of bile?

Emulsifying fats (B) Signup and view all the answers

What is the function of pancreatic lipase?

Breaks down triglycerides (A) Signup and view all the answers

What is the endocrine function of the pancreas?

Production of insulin and glucagon (A) Signup and view all the answers

What is the exocrine function of the pancreas?

Produce pancreatic juice to assist with digestion that is secreted directly into the duodenum (B) Signup and view all the answers

What is the main function of the liver for digestion?

Production of bile (A) Signup and view all the answers

What is the order of sections of the large intestine?

Cecum, Ascending colon, Transverse colon, Descending colon, Sigmoid colon, Rectum, anus (A) Signup and view all the answers

What do pancreatic proteases do?

Digest proteins when activated (A) Signup and view all the answers

What do pancreatic nucleases do?

Break down nucleic acids (C) Signup and view all the answers

What do unicellular glands cells of the villi do in the small intestine?

Secrete hormones; CCK and secretin that stop contractions and secretions (A) Signup and view all the answers

What do submucosal gland (brunner's gland) do in the small intestine?

Produce alkaline mucus secretion protecting duodenum from chyme (D) Signup and view all the answers

What do intestinal glands of the villi do in the small intestine?

secrete intestinal juice. (C) Signup and view all the answers

What do goblet cells of the villi do in the small intestine?

produce mucin; help lubricate chyme (A) Signup and view all the answers

What do microvilli do on the villi of the small intestine?

Absorbs nutrients (C) Signup and view all the answers

What is the role of lacteals?

Absorbing lipids (A) Signup and view all the answers

What is the function of the mineral iron?

present in hemoglobin within erythrocytes , where it binds to oxygen. Also present in Mitochondria as part of electron transport system to bind elections (A) Signup and view all the answers

What is the function of the mineral calcium?

required for formation & maintenance of Skeleton, muscle contraction exocytosis of Neurotransmitter. also plays important role in blood clotting (C) Signup and view all the answers

What is the function of the minerals sodium and potassium?

Function to maintain a resting membrane potential in excitable cells and are required to propagate action potential (C) Signup and view all the answers

What is the function of the mineral iodine?

needed to produce thyroid hormones (A) Signup and view all the answers

What is the function of the mineral zinc?

important role in protein synthesis t wound healing (C) Signup and view all the answers

What is the function of the mineral magnesium?

regulate sleep wake stress (@) Signup and view all the answers

What is the function of vitamin A?

pre-cursor for formation of the visual pigment retinal (A) Signup and view all the answers

What is the function of vitamin E?

help stabilize and prevent damage to cell membranes (C) Signup and view all the answers

What is the function of vitamin K ?

required for synthesis of specific blood clotting proteins (C) Signup and view all the answers

What is the function of vitamin D ?

incr. Calcium absorption from GI tract (C) Signup and view all the answers

Where does glycolysis occur?

cytoplasm (A) Signup and view all the answers

Where does the intermediate stage occur?

mitochondria (B) Signup and view all the answers

Where does the citric acid cycle occur?

mitochondria (B) Signup and view all the answers

Where does the electron transport system occur?

membrane of mitochondria (C) Signup and view all the answers

How much ATP is created in Glycolysis?

2 (A) Signup and view all the answers

How much ATP is produced in the intermediate stage?

none (D) Signup and view all the answers

How much ATP is produced in the citric acid cycle?

2 (A) Signup and view all the answers

How much ATP is produced in the electron transport system?

26-28 (C) Signup and view all the answers

How much ATP is produced in cellular respiration?

30-32 (D) Signup and view all the answers

When is lactic acid produced in glycolysis?

During the conversion of pyruvate to lactate if insufficient O2 is available (A) Signup and view all the answers

What does the surface mucous cell of the gastric pit do?

Secrete alkaline fluid containing mucin that protects stomach epithelial cells from acid preventing ulcers and mechanical/abrasive injuries (A) Signup and view all the answers

What does the mucous neck cell do in the gastric pit?

Secrete acidic fluid containing mucin that helps aid in digestions and protects stomach epithelial cells from acid preventing ulcers and mechanical/abrasive injuries (C) Signup and view all the answers

What does the chief cell do in the gastric pit?

secretes pepsinogen and gastric lipase that help with protein digestion and limited fat digestion (B) Signup and view all the answers

What does the G-Cell do in the gastric pit?

secrete gastrin into blood that increase stomach motility and secretions that prepare the stomach for digestion (A) Signup and view all the answers

What is amylase?

An enzyme that breaks down carbohydrates/starches (B) Signup and view all the answers

What is lipase?

An enzyme that breaks down fats (B) Signup and view all the answers

What is peptidase?

An enzyme that breaks down proteins (B) Signup and view all the answers

What is the role of insulin?

To decrease blood glucose levels (B) Signup and view all the answers

What is the role of glucagon?

To increase blood glucose levels (C) Signup and view all the answers

What part of the urinary system transports urine from the kidneys to the bladder?

Ureters (D) Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary function of the kidneys?

Filter blood and remove waste products (D) Signup and view all the answers

What is the result of aldosterone secretion?

Increased sodium and water reabsorption (C) Signup and view all the answers

Which process occurs in the glomerulus?

Filtration (A) Signup and view all the answers

What is the detrusor muscle responsible for?

Contracting to expel urine from the bladder (C) Signup and view all the answers

What is the function of the urinary bladder?

To store urine until it is expelled (B) Signup and view all the answers

What is the function of the trigone in the urinary bladder?

Direct urine toward the urethra (D) Signup and view all the answers

What is the pathway for urine?

Minor calyx, major calyx, renal pelvis, ureter Signup and view all the answers

What is the Juxtaglomerular Apparatus?

A structure that regulates blood pressure and glomerular filtration rate (A), Contains granular cells and Macula Densa (C) Signup and view all the answers

What are granular cells in the juxtaglomerular apparatus?

Modified Smooth muscle cells of afferent arteriole, located near entrance to renal corpuscle, contract when stimulated by stretch of Sympathetic Stimulation (A), synthesize , store ,and release renin . (B) Signup and view all the answers

What are Macula Densa in the juxtaglomerular apparatus?

Group of modified epithelial cells in the distal convoluted tubule where it comes in contact With granular cell (B), Signal release of renin (C), detects changes in sodium chloride conc. in tubular fluid (D) Signup and view all the answers

What is the micturition reflex?

The involuntary contraction of the bladder muscle to release urine through parasympathetic stimulation (B) Signup and view all the answers

What activates the micturition reflex?

Stretch receptors in the bladder wall (B) Signup and view all the answers

What is the descending limb of the nephron loop permeable to?

Water (D) Signup and view all the answers

What is the ascending limb of the nephron loop impermeable to?

Water (A) Signup and view all the answers

What is the ascending limb of the nephron loop permeable to?

Salts (C) Signup and view all the answers

What is the descending limb of the nephron loop impermeable to?

Salts (C) Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary role of the countercurrent multiplier in the nephron loop?

Establish a concentration gradient in the medulla (B) Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary difference between cortical and juxtamedullary nephrons?

Cortical nephrons have shorter loops that remain in the cortex, while juxtamedullary nephrons have longer loops extending into the medulla (D) Signup and view all the answers

What is the renal tubule?

Surrounds the glomerulus & receives the filtrate from the capillaries, which is the modified to form urine (B) Signup and view all the answers

What is the nephron loop (loop of Henle)

contains 2 limbs (ascending & descending) (C), each limb contains thick and thin segments (D) Signup and view all the answers

How can glomerular filtration rate be influenced? (Select all that apply)

intrinsic and extrinsic controls (D), Change in luminal diameter of afferent arteriole (A), myogenic responses (@) Signup and view all the answers

Which substances are considered "freely filtered" during glomerular filtration?

Small substances like water, glucose, amino acids, and ions (A) Signup and view all the answers

What is the effect of antidiuretic hormone (ADH) on the nephron?

Increases water reabsorption (B) Signup and view all the answers

Which hormone increases sodium reabsorption in the nephron?

Aldosterone (B) Signup and view all the answers

Which hormone is inhibited by atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP)?

Aldosterone (B) Signup and view all the answers

What does atrial natriuretic peptide do? (select all the apply)

secreted when BP is too high (B), inhibit reabsorption of sodium in PCT and collecting tubules (C), secreted when there is too much sodium and not enough potassium (@) Signup and view all the answers

What happens when blood is too acidic?

bicarbonate is reabsorbed into blood (C), Hydrogen is excreted by type A intercalated cells (D) Signup and view all the answers

What happens when blood is too basic?

secrete bicarbonate by type B intercalated cells (A), reabsorb hydrogen (D) Signup and view all the answers

What hormone stimulates testosterone production in males?

LH (C) Signup and view all the answers

What hormone surge triggers ovulation?

LH (A) Signup and view all the answers

What role does inhibin play in male reproduction?

Inhibits FSH production to regulate sperm production (A) Signup and view all the answers

What does Follicle Stimulating Hormone (FSH) do in women's reproductive system?

Stimulates the growth of ovarian follicles (A) Signup and view all the answers

What does the corpus luteum primarily secrete that helps maintain uterine lining?

Progesterone and estrogen (A) Signup and view all the answers

What triggers the production of GnRH?

Puberty (C) Signup and view all the answers

Where is testosterone produced?

Interstitial cells (A) Signup and view all the answers

What stimulates spermatogenesis?

Testosterone (C) Signup and view all the answers

Where does spermatogenesis occur?

Seminiferous tubules (A) Signup and view all the answers

Which gland produces a clear, viscous membrane that forms mucus and coats/lubricates the urethra during intercourse?

Bulbourethral glands (B) Signup and view all the answers

Which male gland secretes a milky fluid rich in citric acid and PSA?

Prostate gland (B) Signup and view all the answers

Which gland produces fructose to nourish sperm?

Seminal vesicles (B) Signup and view all the answers

Which layer of the uterine lining is shed during menstruation?

Endometrium (D) Signup and view all the answers

What marks the end of the luteal phase if fertilization does not occur?

Menstruation (C) Signup and view all the answers

What is the follicular phase of the menstrual cycle?

The Antral follicle develops into a mature follicle, containing a secondary oocyte (A), Typically lasts from Day 1-13 on a 28 day cycle (B) Signup and view all the answers

What part of the uterus us where fertilized oocyte implants?

Endometrium (A) Signup and view all the answers

Which layer of the uterus is responsible for muscle contractions during childbirth?

Myometrium (B) Signup and view all the answers

What is heterozygous?

Individual has both dominant and recessive alleles for a particular gene (B) Signup and view all the answers

What is Homozygous Recessive?

Having two identical alleles for a trait that are recessive. (B) Signup and view all the answers

What is homozygous dominant?

Two identical dominant alleles for a specific gene (A) Signup and view all the answers

What type of inheritance is Color Blindness?

X-linked recessive (A) Signup and view all the answers

What type of inheritance is Hemophilia?

X-linked recessive (A) Signup and view all the answers

What type of inheritance is Fragile X Syndrome?

X-linked dominant (@) Signup and view all the answers

What type of inheritance is Muscular Dystrophy?

X-linked recessive (C) Signup and view all the answers

What type of inheritance is Huntingtons disease?

Autosomal dominant (A) Signup and view all the answers

What type of inheritance is Tay-Sachs Disease?

Autosomal Recessive (B) Signup and view all the answers

What type of inheritance is cystic fibrosis?

Autosomal Recessive (C) Signup and view all the answers

What type of inheritance are Brown hair and Brown eyes?

Autosomal dominant (D) Signup and view all the answers

What type of inheritance are Blonde hair and Blue eyes?

Autosomal Recessive (C) Signup and view all the answers

What type of inheritance is Dwarfism?

Autosomal dominant (A) Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT a component of the second line of defense?

Antibody production (B) Signup and view all the answers

The 1st and 2nd line of defense are apart of what?

Innate Immune System (D) Signup and view all the answers

The 3rd line of defense is part of what?

Adaptive immune system (D) Signup and view all the answers

What is humoral immunity?

produce antibodies (A), does not require antigen presenting cells (B), involve B-lymphocytes and plasma cells (@) Signup and view all the answers

What consists of the 2nd line of defense?

Chemical barriers, interferons, activation of complements, NK cells, inflammation, phagocytosis, fever Signup and view all the answers

What consists of the 3rd line of defense?

Cell-mediated immunity and humoral immunity Signup and view all the answers

What is Cell-mediated immunity?

Involve T-lymphocytes (cytotoxic and helper t-cells) (A), requires antigen presenting cells (C), destroys cells through apoptosis (@) Signup and view all the answers

What is the 1st line of defense?

Mechanical barriers: unbroken skin and mucous membranes. Includes hair, mucus, and sweat Signup and view all the answers

What is a characteristic of innate immunity?

Provides a rapid, nonspecific defense against pathogens (C) Signup and view all the answers

What type of immunity involves memory cell production?

Active immunity (B) Signup and view all the answers

What are the characteristics of adaptive immunity?

Specific (A), Requires prior exposure (@), takes several days (@) Signup and view all the answers

Which cells are primarily involved in adaptive immunity?

T-lymphocytes and B-lymphocytes (D) Signup and view all the answers

What are the events of inflammation?

Vasodilation, increased capillary permeability, increased endothelial expression of molecules for leukocyte adhesion, macrophages release pyrogens, delivery of plasma proteins to site, and immunoglobulins, complement, clotting proteins, and kinins Signup and view all the answers

What are the cardinal signs of inflammation?

Redness, heat, swelling, and pain (B) Signup and view all the answers

What are the primary lymphatic organs and their functions?

Involved in the formation and maturation of lymphocytes (B), include red bone marrow and the thymus (C) Signup and view all the answers

What are the secondary lymphatic organs and their functions?

house lymphocytes and other immune cells (B), include lymph nodes, spleen, tonsils, lymphatic nodules, and MALT (D) Signup and view all the answers

What is Naturally acquired active immunity?

occurs after exposure of the antigen itself (B) Signup and view all the answers

What is Artificially acquired active immunity?

occurs through use of vaccines, without person becoming ill from it (A) Signup and view all the answers

What is Artificially acquired passive immunity?

injection of gamma globulins containing antibodies and is short-lived (B) Signup and view all the answers

What is Naturally acquired passive immunity?

occurs as antibodies are passed from mother to fetus and is short-lived (D) Signup and view all the answers

Which immunoglobulin (antibody) is found in exocrine gland secretions, promotes allergic reactions, and is involved in defense against worm infections?

IgE (D) Signup and view all the answers

Which immunoglobulin (antibody) is found in exocrine gland secretions, such as saliva and breast milk and prevents the attachment of bacteria to mucous membranes?

IgA (B) Signup and view all the answers

Which immunoglobulin (antibody) is found in tissue fluid and plasma and can cross placenta and defends against bacterial cells, viruses, and toxins, and activates complement?

IgG (D) Signup and view all the answers

Which immunoglobulin (antibody) is found in plasma, activates complement, and reacts with blood cells during transfusion?

IgM (C) Signup and view all the answers

Which immunoglobulin (antibody) is found on the surface of most B-lymphocytes and functions in B-cell activation?

IgD (D) Signup and view all the answers

What proteins are released by infected cells to protect neighboring cells from viral infection?

Interferons (D) Signup and view all the answers

What role do natural killer (NK) cells play in the immune response?

Destroy virus-infected and cancerous cells by secreting perforins (C) Signup and view all the answers

What is the role of complement in the immune response?

Enhances phagocytosis (A) Signup and view all the answers

What type of APC present self-antigens that are attached to MHC class 1 molecules on the cells surface that T-cells will recognize and WONT attack?

Our own bodies cells (A) Signup and view all the answers

Which APC uses dendrites and macrophages to engulf the foreign cell and present the foreign antigen on MHC2 receptors on their surface that will allow T-cells to active an immune response?

Immune antigen presenting cells (A) Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary role of cytotoxic T-lymphocytes (CD8+ cells)?

Kill infected, cancerous, or foreign cells (C) Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary role of helper T-lymphocytes (CD4+ cells)?

Stimulate cytotoxic T cells, macrophages, and B cells (C) Signup and view all the answers

What is the function of antigen-presenting cells (APCs)?

Display foreign antigens on their surface to activate T cells (A) Signup and view all the answers

What is the function of B-lymphocytes in the immune response?

To produce antibodies against antigens (B) Signup and view all the answers

What is the main Cation in the ECF?

Na (D) Signup and view all the answers

What is the main cation in ICF?

K (C) Signup and view all the answers

What is the most abundant anion in the ICF?

PO4 (D) Signup and view all the answers

What is the most abundant anion in the ECF

Cl (C) Signup and view all the answers

What is the bicarbonate buffering system?

A system that regulates pH in blood by utilizing carbonic acid and bicarbonate. (A), acts quickly but temporarily to allow kidneys and respiratory system to adjust acid/base levels (C) Signup and view all the answers

In the Bicarbonate Buffering system what would happen if the blood becomes too acidic?

Bicarbonate (HCO3-) which is a base and proton acceptor will bind the excess H+ ions and increase the pH (A) Signup and view all the answers

In the Bicarbonate Buffering system what would happen if the blood becomes too basic?

Carbonic Acid (H2CO3) which is an acid and a proton donor will release H+ into the blood and decrease the pH (B) Signup and view all the answers

What could happen to kidney function if blood pressure falls below 80 mmHg?

Cessation of waste elimination (A) Signup and view all the answers

What could happen to kidney function if blood pressure goes above 180 mmHg?

urine formation increasing (A), increase in glomerular BP and Glomerular filtration rate (D) Signup and view all the answers

How is glucose reabsorbed in the kidneys in a healthy person?

By active transport via sodium-glucose transporters (B) Signup and view all the answers

How is glucose reabsorption in the kidneys affected in a person with diabetes?

Glucose not reabsorbed and excreted in urine (D) Signup and view all the answers

What is the role of the kidneys in compensating for respiratory acidosis and respiratory alkalosis?

All of the above (D) Signup and view all the answers

What is the major stimulus for breathing in normal people?

High levels of carbon dioxide (A) Signup and view all the answers