Beta-Lactam Antibiotics: Pharmacology
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Questions and Answers

Which of the following antibiotics are considered beta-lactams? (Select all that apply)

  • Monobactams (correct)
  • Carbapenems (correct)
  • Cephalosporins (correct)
  • Penicillins (correct)
  • Aminoglycosides
  • Fluoroquinolones

Which of the following statements are FALSE concerning beta-lactams?

  • They generally require adjustment in renal insufficiency (correct)
  • They generally have poor CNS penetration (correct)
  • Time above MIC determines efficacy
  • They generally have a short half life and require frequent dosing (correct)
  • They inhibit cell wall synthesis by inhibiting cross-linking
  • They are generally bacteriostatic (correct)
  • They have low oral bioavailability

What is the most common mechanism of resistance to beta-lactams?

  • Inactivation of antibiotics enzymatically by beta-lactamases (correct)
  • Impaired penetration into the cell
  • Efflux pumps
  • Modification of target PBP

Which of the following cephalosporin: generation pairs are correct?

<p>Ceftazidime: 3rd (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What antibiotic has coverage similar to ceftazidime and is reserved for patients with a penicillin allergy?

<p>Aztreonam (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Quinolones have the same mechanism of action for gram negative and gram positive bacteria

<p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Quinolones are generally bacteriostatic

<p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Quinolones can cause arthropathy and tendinopathy

<p>True (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Quinolones require separation from multivitamins

<p>True (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Quinolones do NOT cause QT prolongation

<p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the spectrum of activity for macrolides? (Select all that apply)

<p>Gram + including MSSA, Strep pneumonia (A), Gram - including Haemophilus influenza (B), Atypicals (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following antibiotics do NOT cause QT prolongation?

<p>Ertapenem (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following are risk factors for QT prolongation?

<p>All of the above (G)</p> Signup and view all the answers

If a patient develops a seizure caused by antibiotics, what is the prefered treatment?

<p>Levetiracetam (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Neonates are at an increased risk of penicillin induced seizures

<p>True (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following must be kept constant when determining MIC in the lab? (Select all that apply)

<p>Incubation times (A), Number of bacteria (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the difference between microdilution and macrodilution?

<p>Microdilutions are quicker than macrodilutions (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the difference between susceptible, intermediate and resistant bacteria on a susceptibility report?

<p>Susceptible - organism will most likely be eradicated with normal doses of the antibiotic; Intermediate - treatment <em>may</em> be successful using maximal doses of the antibiotic; Resistant - less than optimal treatment results because the MIC exceeds usual serum concentrations of the antibiotic</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the difference between bacteriostatic and bacteriocidal when performing resistance testing?

<p>Cidal is a reduction by at least 3 logs in conc at 24hrs (&lt;10³ cfu/ml); Static is a 1.4 to 2.9 reduction in conc. at 24 hrs; Does not necessarily involve MOA</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the difference between an E-test and Kirby-Bauer?

<p>None of the above (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is an antibiogram?

<p>An antibiogram is a chart of antibiotic susceptibilities for different bacteria. Yes, they differ per institution! Yes, they can differ within an institution, UIC's ED is different than general admitted patients</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement is false about peptidoglycan biosynthesis?

<p>Lipid 4, the building block of peptidoglycan polymers, is synthesized in the cell cytoplasm, diffuses across the inner membrane, then attaches to the growing polymer (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What statement is true about beta-lactams?

<p>A way to avoid beta-lactamase activity is with the addition of a bulky side chain (E)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What aspect of penicillin improvements resulted in broadening their spectrum of activity?

<p>Introduction of more polar groups (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement is false about carbapenems?

<p>Imipenem, meropenem, and ertapenem can be all be given for pseudomonal coverage (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Unused D-ala D-ala that serve as a sponge for vancomycin

<p>VISA (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

D-ala D-lactate coded for by the Van gene

<p>VRSA (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Have an abnormal cell well and are fairly sick

<p>VISA (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

More “fit” strain

<p>VRSA (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are the following drugs MOA? Fosfomycin

<p>inhibits MurA, an enzyme involved in lipid II synthesis</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are the following drugs MOA? Bacitracin

<p>inhibits dephosphorylation of bactoprenol which moves lipid II across the cytoplasmic membrane</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are the following drugs MOA? Colistin

<p>disrupts the outer membrane by displacing Mg2+ and Ca2+ ions, disrupts inner membrane by acting as a detergent (hydrophobic side chain)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Dalbavancin binds proteins very tightly and can therefore be given once a week.

<p>True (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the function of the large subunit?

<p>Polymerization of amino acids into polypeptides, Antibiotics that act upon the large ribosomal subunit inhibit peptide bond formation or growth of the nascent peptide chain.</p> Signup and view all the answers

Function of small subunit?

<p>Selection of aminoacyl-tRNA according to mRNA codons, Antibiotics that bind to the small subunit interfere with tRNA binding or the accuracy of protein synthesis.</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is the ribosome a preferred antibiotic target?

<p>Bacterial rRNA genes are redundant: several identical genes in genomes of bacteria code for rRNA so less resistance to random mutations</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statements are false about macrolides?

<p>Macrolides completely block the exit tunnel and inhibit synthesis of all proteins (D), Macrolides partially obstruct the entry tunnel, blocking amino acids from entering the ribosome (E)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Macrolides: What is the importance of A2058?

<p>Macrolides interact primarily or exclusively with rRNA: the contact of desosamine with A2058 is particularly important and is the main target of the resistance mechanisms</p> Signup and view all the answers

Macrolides: What is the importance of Keto-group?

<p>Possession of the keto group instead of the cladinose sugar, which accounts for better activity against the resistant strains</p> Signup and view all the answers

Macrolides: What is the importance of Alkyl-aryl side chains?

<p>Addition to ketolides (telithromycin) makes additional contacts with the ribosome, increasing affinity of the drug</p> Signup and view all the answers

Macrolides: What is the importance of Increasing generations?

<p>Better acid stability, broader spectrums, activity against resistant strains</p> Signup and view all the answers

How do the following resistance mechanisms work? Erm

<p>erm - a methyltransferase that methylates A2058, dimethylation of A2058 displaces a critical molecule of water required for macrolide binding</p> Signup and view all the answers

Name an example of an oxazolidinone:

<p>Linezolid.</p> Signup and view all the answers

Oxazolidinones cover primary gram-negative pathogens:

<p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Linezolid binds to the small ribosomal subunit in the catalytic center and clashes with the placement of aminoacyl-tRNA when alanine is in the penultimate position:

<p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Reversible myelosuppression is a side effect:

<p>True (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A spontaneous mutation of one copy of 23S rRNA is enough to confer resistance to oxazolidinones:

<p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The cfr A2503 mutation causes resistance to all oxazolidinones

<p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Clindamycin is an example of a lincosamide

<p>True (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Lincosamides cover aerobic gram-negative pathogens

<p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Methylation of A2503 causes resistance to lincosamides by Erm methyltransferase

<p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the most appropriate use of streptogramins?

<p>VRE (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which streptogramin: MOA pairs are correct?

<p>All of the above (E)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Match the following acetyltransferase with their function:

<p>Acetyltransferase that modifies and inactivates dalfopristin = Vat Lyase that opens the central circle of quinupristin = Vgb Removes macrolides and streptogramin B from ribosomes = Msr Removes lincosamides and streptogramin A from ribosomes = Lsa Removes streptogramin A from ribosomes = Vga</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the mechanism of action of retapamulin?

<p>Inhibits initiation of translation (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Name 3 aminoglycosides

<p>amikacin, tobramycin, gentamicin</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following false?

<p>Aminoglycosides flip out two guanines in the large subunit rRNA and allows it to accept incorrectly matched mRNA and tRNA (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are 2 possible side effects of aminoglycoside therapy?

<p>Nephrotoxicity and ototoxicity</p> Signup and view all the answers

Are aminoglycosides bacteriostatic or bacteriocidal?

<p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the mechanism of action of tetracyclines?

<p>Binds to the large ribosomal subunit and blocks binding of aminoacyl-tRNA to the ribosome (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the mechanism of rifampicin?

<p>Inhibitor of bacterial RNA polymerase (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Sulfamethoxazole and Trimethoprim act on the same enzyme to inhibit folate synthesis

<p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Sulfonamides inhibit the activity of dihydropteroate synthase by competing with PABA

<p>True (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Bactrim covers gram-positive pathogens and gram-negative pathogens

<p>True (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following are not quinolones?

<p>Daptomycin (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following must be kept constant when determining MIC in the lab? More than 1

<p>Incubation times (A), Number of bacteria (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

S. Aureus: What does VISA indicate

<p>VISA: Unused D-ala D-ala that serve as a sponge for vancomycin and Have an abnormal cell well and are fairly sick</p> Signup and view all the answers

Fosfomycin MOA?

<p>inhibits MurA, an enzyme involved in lipid II synthesis</p> Signup and view all the answers

Bacitracin MOA?

<p>inhibits dephosphorylation of bactoprenol which moves lipid II across the cytoplasmic membrane</p> Signup and view all the answers

Colistin MOA?

<p>disrupts the outer membrane by displacing Mg2+ and Ca2+ ions, disrupts inner membrane by acting as a detergent (hydrophobic side chain)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the function of the large ribosomal subunit?

<p>Polymerization of amino acids into polypeptides; Antibiotics that act upon the large ribosomal subunit inhibit peptide bond formation or growth of the nascent peptide chain.</p> Signup and view all the answers

Name an example of an oxazolidinone: Linezolid: Oxazolidinones cover primary gram-negative pathogens?

<p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Linezolid binds to the small ribosomal subunit in the catalytic center and clashes with the placement of aminoacyl-tRNA when alanine is in the penultimate position: Name an example of an oxazolidinone: Linezolid

<p>False (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Name an example of an oxazolidinone: Linezolid: Reversible myelosuppression is a side effect:

<p>True (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A spontaneous mutation of one copy of 23S rRNA is enough to confer resistance to oxazolidinones: Name an example of an oxazolidinone: Linezolid

<p>False (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The cfr A2503 mutation causes resistance to all oxazolidinones: True or False?

<p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Clindamycin is an example of a lincosamide: True or False?

<p>True (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Lincosamides cover aerobic gram-negative pathogens: True or False?

<p>False (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Methylation of A2503 causes resistance to lincosamides by Erm methyltransferase: True or False?

<p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which streptogramin: MOA pairs are correct? May be more than 1

<p>Quinupristin: exit tunnel (B), Dalfopristin: catalytic center (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Match the resistance mechanism and what it is resistant to.

<p>Acetyltransferase that modifies and inactivates dalfopristin = Vat Lyase that opens the central circle of quinupristin = Vgb Removes macrolides and streptogramin B from ribosomes = Msr Removes lincosamides and streptogramin A from ribosomes = Lsa Removes streptogramin A from ribosomes = Vga</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is false about Aminoglycosides?

<p>Aminoglycosides flip out two guanines in the large subunit rRNA and allows it to accept incorrectly matched mRNA and tRNA (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is false regarding tetracyclines?

<p>Transmembrane efflux pumps affect all generations of tetracyclines, including tigecycline. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the main target of quinolones?

<p>DNA gyrase - Gram - (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement is false about quinolones?

<p>Quinolones bind to the catalytic subunit B. binds to subunit A, subunit B is ATPase that provide energy for the reaction (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of these is not a mechanism for quinolone resistance?

<p>Modifications of lipopolysaccharides (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Match the antibiotic and its corresponding structures:

<p>Monobactam (aztreonam) = A Lincosamide (lincomycin) = B Glycopeptide (vancomycin) = C Streptogramin (quinupristin) = D Aminoglycoside (gentamicin) = E Fluoroquinolone (levofloxacin) = F</p> Signup and view all the answers

Name the antibiotic

<p>Sulfonamide (sulfamethoxazole) = A Trimethoprim = B</p> Signup and view all the answers

The microbiome is comprised of what three elements?

<p>Prokaryotes, Eukaryotes, viruses</p> Signup and view all the answers

Flashcards

Beta-Lactam Antibiotics

Monobactams, Carbapenems, Cephalosporins, and Penicillins

Beta-Lactam MOA

Inhibit cell wall synthesis by inhibiting cross-linking

Beta-lactam Efficacy

Time above MIC

Beta-lactam static or cidal?

Beta-lactams are generally bacteriostatic.

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Beta-Lactam W/O Renal Adjustment

Nafcillin, oxacillin, ceftriaxone, and cefoperazone

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Beta-Lactam Resistance Mechanism

Inactivation of antibiotics enzymatically by beta-lactamases

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Beta-Lactamase Inhibitor Drugs

Augmentin (amoxicillin/clavulanic acid), ampicillin/sulbactam, piperacillin/tazobactam

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Cephalosporin Generation Trend

Less gram positive, more gram negative

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Alternative to Ceftazidime

Aztreonam

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Quinolone MOA

Topoisomerase inhibitors (gram +) & DNA gyrase (gram -)

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Quinolones and Arthropathy/Tendinopathy

True

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Quinolones and Multivitamins

Binds to divalent cations (multivalent cations)

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Quinolones and QT prolongation

False

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Four Macrolides

Clarithromycin, telithromycin, erythromycin, azithromycin

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Macrolide Activity Ranking

Gram positive: T > C > E > A. Gram negative: A > C > E > T

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Antibiotic Without QT Prolongation

Ertapenem

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Risk Factors for QT Prolongation

Female sex, Heart disease, Hypokalemia, Advanced age, Organ dysfunction, Multiple QT prolongation agents.

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Quinolones and QT prolongation

moxi > Cipro > levo

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Preferred Treatment for Antibiotic-Induced Seizures

Levetiracetam

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Constant Factors in MIC Determination

Number of bacteria, panel of antibiotics, incubation times, and drug concentrations

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Microdilution vs Macrodilution

Macrodilutions provide a specific MIC but take longer as they can test more antibiotic concentration. Microdilutions only provide an S/I/R rating but are quicker

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E-test vs Kirby-Bauer

E-tests give exact MIC’s while Kirby-Bauer’s get S/I/R readings

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Peptidoglycan Structure

Thick, unstructured peptidoglycan (Gram +) vs. thin, organized peptidoglycan (Gram -)

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Avoiding Beta-Lactamase Activity

Addition of a bulky side chain

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Penicillin Spectrum Broadening

Polar groups facilitate passage through porins

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Vancomycin's Lack of Gram-Negative Activity

Their outer membranes are impermeable to large glycopeptide molecules

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Carbapenem Coverage

Ertapenem does not cover pseudomonas

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Drug MOA

Fosfomycin inhibits MurA, Bacitracin inhibits dephosphorylation of bactoprenol, Vancomycin binds to D-ala D-ala residues, Colistin disrupts the outer membrane

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Macrolide MOA

Macrolides completely block the exit tunnel and inhibit synthesis of only proteins with MAMs

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Macrolide Binding Importance

A2058 is important for macrolide-binding

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Macrolide Resistance Mechanisms

Erm methylates A2058, displacing water; MsrE removes macrolide; TolC pumps out drugs; Mef effluxes macrolides

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Oxazolidinone Example

Linezolid

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Linezolid Side Effects

Reversible myelosuppression is a side effect - TRUE

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Lincosamide Antibiotic

Clindamycin

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Streptogramin Use

VRE

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Streptogramin MOA

Steptogramin A (Dalfopristin) + Streptogramin B (Quinupristin)

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Rifampicin MOA

Inhibitor of bacterial RNA polymerase

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Non-Quinolone Antibiotic

Daptomycin

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What is the microbiome comprised of:

A. Prokayotes, Eukaryotes and viruses

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Gut Microbiome Composition:

Actinobacteria, bacteria, and Fimicutes.

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Probiotic metabolites functions

Secondary bile acids, metabolites help the body function.

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Study Notes

Antibacterial Pharmacology: Beta-Lactams

  • Beta-lactam antibiotics include Monobactams, Carbapenems, Cephalosporins, and Penicillins
  • Beta-lactams have a general recognizable structure that includes a Thiazolidine and a Beta-lactam ring
  • Beta-lactams inhibit cell wall synthesis by inhibiting cross-linking
  • Time above MIC determines the efficacy of Beta-lactams.
  • Beta-lactams are generally bactericidal, contrary to the statement that they're bacteriostatic
  • They generally have poor CNS penetration, except for ceftriaxone and cefotaxime
  • Beta-lactams generally require adjustment in renal insufficiency, except nafcillin, oxacillin, ceftriaxone, And cefoperazone
  • Beta-lactams generally have a short half life and require frequent dosing, except ceftriaxone
  • The most common mechanism of resistance to beta-lactams is inactivation of antibiotics enzymatically by beta-lactamases
  • Drugs that contain beta-lactamase inhibitors include Augmentin (amoxicillin/clavulanic acid), ampicillin/sulbactam, and piperacillin/tazobactam

Cephalosporin Generations

  • Ceftazidime: 3rd generation
  • Not a correct pairing: Cefepime is not 2nd gen, nor is cefazolin 3rd, and ceftaroline is not 2nd Gen.
  • Antimicrobial coverage trends through the generations are less gram-positive and more gram-negative
  • Aztreonam has coverage similar to ceftazidime and is reserved for patients with a penicillin allergy
  • Desensitization can be done for patients with allergies to antibiotics.

Quinolones

  • Quinolones have topoisomerase inhibitors for gram-positive and DNA gyrase for gram-negative bacteria
  • Quinolones are bactericidal for susceptible bugs and are not bacteriostatic
  • Quinolones can cause arthropathy and tendinopathy, which is important for counseling
  • It does require separation from multivitamins because it binds to divalent cations
  • Quinolones do cause QT prolongation
  • Ranking of quinolones by QT prolongation risk: moxi > Cipro > levo

Macrolides

  • The spectrum of activity for macrolides includes Gram +, Gram -, and Atypicals
  • The four macrolides are clarithromycin, telithromycin, erythromycin, and azithromycin
  • Gram-positive activity ranking: T > C > E > A.
  • Gram-negative activity ranking: A > C > E > T

Treatments

  • If a patient develops a seizure caused by antibiotics, Benzodiazepines are the preferred treatment, and Keppra may provide some benefit to its ability to modulate the GABA channel
  • Neonates are at an increased risk of penicillin induced seizures
  • Patients treated for meningitis may be predisposed to seizures
  • Carbapenems have a higher incidence than penicillins
  • Risk factors include advanced age, high dose, and renal insufficiency

Susceptibility & MIC

  • The Number of bacteria, Panel of antibiotics, and Incubation times must be kept constant when determining MIC in the lab
  • 10^5 - 10^6 bacterial isolates are generally incubated.
  • Macrodilutions provide a specific MIC but take longer as they can test more antibiotic concentration
  • Microdilutions only provide an S/I/R rating but are quicker
  • Susceptible bacteria will most likely be eradicated with normal doses of the antibiotics

Performing Resistance Testing

  • Cidal testing is a reduction by at least 3 logs in conc at 24hrs
  • Static testingis a 1.4 to 2.9 reduction in conc. at 24 hrs
  • Cidal and static testing does necessarilly involve MOA
  • Both E-tests and Kirby-Bauer are diffusion assays, but E-tests give exact MIC's while Kirby-Bauer's get S/I/R readings
  • Antibiograms differ per institution
  • A specific institution's ED is different than general admitted patients, concerning antibiograms

Antibiotic MOA Summary

  • Cell Wall Biosynthesis includes Beta-lactams, Glycopeptides, and Bacitracin.
  • Protein Synthesis includes Aminoglycosides, Oxazolidinones, Tetracyclines, Macrolides, Chloramphenicol, Lincosamides, and Streptogramins
  • Folate Biosynthesis includes Sulfonamides
  • DNA Gyrase includes Fluoroquinolones
  • RNA Polymerase includes Rifampicin
  • Membrane Integrity includes Cationic peptides and Lipopeptides.

Cell Wall Inhibitors

  • Lipid 4, the building block of peptidoglycan polymers, is synthesized in the cell cytoplasm, diffuses across the inner membrane, the attaches to the growing polymer
  • A way to avoid beta-lactamase activity is with the addition of a bulky side chain
  • Polar groups facilitate passage through porins
  • Carbapenems target an additional enzyme of the cell wall biosynthesis, Ld transferase which can bypass the need for Tpase
  • Carbapenems have activity against some gram-positive strains, and also have activity against ESBLs
  • Ertapenem does not cover pseudomonas
  • Unused D-ala D-ala serve as a sponge for vancomycin in VISA (Vancomycin Intermediate S. aureus)
  • D-ala D-lactate is coded for by the Van gene in VRSA (Vancomycin-resistant S. aureus)
  • Have an abnormal cell wall and are fairly sick in VISA.
  • VRSA is more "fit" strain

Specific MOA

  • Fosfomycin inhibits MurA, an enzyme involved in lipid II synthesis
  • Bacitracin inhibits dephosphorylation of bactoprenol which moves lipid II across the cytoplasmic membrane
  • Vancomycin binds tightly to D-ala D-ala residues preventing peptidoglycan polymerization and transpeptidation
  • Colistin disrupts the outer membrane by displacing Mg2+ and Ca2+ ions and inner membrane by acting as a detergent
  • Dalbavancin binds proteins very tightly and can be given once a week

Protein Synthesis Inhibitors

  • Antibiotics that act upon the large ribosomal subunit inhibit peptide bond formation or the growth of the nascent peptide chain.
  • Antibiotics that bind to the small subunit interfere with tRNA binding or the accuracy of protein synthesis.
  • Bacterial rRNA genes are redundant; several identical genes in genomes of bacteria code for rRNA so less resistance to random mutations
  • Macrolides bind to the large ribosomal subunits in the nascent peptide tunnel
  • Macrolides completely block the exit tunnel and inhibit synthesis of all proteins - only proteins with MAMs
  • Macrolides interact primarily or exclusively with rRNA, specifically the contact of desosamine with A2058
  • Methylation of A2058 is very important and is the main target of the resistance mechanisms
  • Erm - a methyltransferase that methylates A2058, dimethylation of A2058 displaces a critical molecule of water required for macrolide binding
  • MsrE - ribosome protection, removes macrolide from the ribosome
  • TolC - multidrug efflux pumps
  • Mef - macrolide-specific efflux pumps
  • Linezolid doesn't cover primary gram-negative pathogens but can be used as an oxazolidinone
  • Linezolid binds to the large ribosomal subunit but not to a small one.
  • Reversible myelosuppression is a side effect of Linezolid
  • A spontaneous mutation of one copy of 23S rRNA is enough to confer resistance to oxazolidinones
  • Tedizolid lacks an acetamindomethly chain, making its smaller side chain compatible with the resistance found in A2503
  • Streptogramins are most appropriately used for VRE (Vancomycin-resistant Enterococcus faecium)
  • Dalfopristin of streptogramins binds to the catalytic center, and Quinupristin binds to the exit tunnel
  • Steptogramin A is Dalfopristin and Streptogramin B is Quinupristin
  • The mechanism of action for retapamulin is it binds to the peptidyl transferase center in the large ribosomal subunit
  • Aminoglycosides flip out two guanines in the large subunit rRNA which incorrectly matches mRNA and tRNA
  • Aminoglycosides effect can be self-promoted due to the uptake.
  • Aminoglycosides are not selective and affect both bacterial and eukaryotic ribosomes
  • Resistance includes N-acetylation O-phosphorylation, and O-adenylation
  • Possible side effects of aminoglycoside therapy are nephrotoxicity and ototoxicity
  • Aminoglycosides are not bacteriostatic but are bactericidal
  • Tetracyclines bind to the small ribosomal subunit, which blocks binding of aminoacyl-tRNA to the ribosome
  • Tigecycline is more potent than doxycycline

RNA/DNA/Folate Biosynthesis Drugs

  • Rifampicin is an inhibitor of bacterial RNA polymerase
  • An adverse effect of rifampicin is red urine, sweat, and tears
  • Trimethoprim inhibits dihydrofolate reductase, and Sulfonamides inhibit dihydropteroate synthase by competing with PABA
  • Bactrim does cover gram-positive pathogens and gram-negative pathogens
  • Daptomycin and Novobiocin are not quinolones
  • Gram - Bacteria is the target: DNA gyrase
  • Gram + Bacteria is the target: Topoisomerase 4
  • Quinolones bind to subunit A and not the catalytic subunit B, also subunit B is ATPase that provides energy for the reaction
  • It is False about quinolones: Quinolones bind to the catalytic subunit B. binds to subunit A, subunit B is ATPase that provide energy for the reaction
  • Modifications of lipopolysaccharides is not a mechanism for quinolone resistance

Antibiotic Class Structures

  • Clarithromycin is a macrolide
  • Linezolid is a Oxazolidinone
  • Amoxicillin is a Beta lactam
  • Dalfopristin is Streptogramin
  • Retapamulin is Pleuromutilin
  • Tigecycline is Tetracycline
  • Aztreonam is Monobactam
  • Lincomycin is Lincosamide
  • Vancomycin is Glycopeptide
  • Gentamicin is Aminoglycoside
  • Levofloxacin is Fluoroquinolone
  • Sulfamethoxazole is Sulfonamide
  • Trimethoprim is Trimethoprim

Microbiomes

  • Microbiomes are comprised of prokaryotes, eukaryotes, and viruses, but bacteria is the most common element
  • The microbiome in the gut is significantly less varied than other sites
  • Proteobacteria, actinobacteria, firmicutes, and bacteriodetes make up 93.5% of the microbiome
  • The microbiome helps produce production of beneficial metabolites ( Short chain fatty acids, Secondary bile acids, Neurotransmitters, Choline derived metabolites), Vitamin synthesis, Resistance against invading pathogens, and Maturation of mucosal immune system and immune cells
  • Fidaxomicin and Rifaximin don't cause alterations in microbiome composition, compared to the other antibiotics on the list
  • Antibiotic exposure in the first year of life increases the risk of being classified in the AW
  • modifiable risk factors for initial Clostridium difficile infection include PPIs and Broad spectrum antibiotics
  • C. Diff is likely to recur in 1/4 of patients
  • Risk factors for recurrent CDI include Antibiotics
  • Donor-feces infusion following vancomycin 500 mg PO QID is the best treatment for recurrent C. diff
  • A setting that would not require an IND for a FMT is a 20 year-old woman with recurrent C. diff

Probiotics and Prebiotics

  • Probiotics are bacteria, and prebiotics are carbohydrates, food for your microbiome
  • Recommended dose of a probiotic post antibiotic: 10-15 billion units per day
  • Some adverse effects of probiotics are GI upset
  • Probiotic metabolite pairs include: Lactobacillus and Lactic acid, Bifidobacterium and Acetic acid
  • Lactobacillus and Lactic acid Bifidobacterium and Acetic acid

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Explore the pharmacology of beta-lactam antibiotics, including penicillins, cephalosporins, carbapenems and monobactams. Learn about their mechanism of action, which involves inhibiting cell wall synthesis by blocking cross-linking. Discover factors influencing their efficacy, resistance mechanisms, and special considerations for renal insufficiency and CNS penetration.

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